Human Anatomy & Physiology Chapters 1-8 Marieb 8Th Ed

Front 1

Definition of Physiology

Back 1

The study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities.

Front 2

Description of Macroscopic anatomy

Back 2

The study of large body structures visible to the naked eye, such as the heart, lungs, and kidneys.

Front 3

True/False

Embryology is a subdivision of anatomy that deals with developmental changes that occur before birth.

Back 3

True. Embryology is a subdivision of anatomy that deals with developmental changes that occur before birth.

Front 4

Blood flows in one direction through the heart because the heart has valves that prevent backflow. This phenomenon exemplifies:

Back 4

the principle of complementarity of structure and function.

Front 5

Which of the following represents the sum total of all structural levels working together to keep us alive?

Back 5

Organismal Level

Front 6

The human body as a whole is enclosed and protected by the integumentary system. This is an example of a necessary life function. What's the main fx of the integumentary system?

Back 6

Maintaining Boundaries

Front 7

True/False

Metabolism includes breaking down substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP.

Back 7

True. Metabolism includes breaking down substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP.

Front 8

Which of the following processes require a receptor, a control center, and an effector?

Back 8

Homeostatic Control

Front 9

Which of the two following is an example of a positive feedback mechanism?
blood clotting, high blood pressure, labor contractions, sweating

Back 9

blood clotting & labor contractions

Front 10

True/False:
Positive Feedback Systems: :The result or response enhances the original stimulus, and the response is accelerated.

Back 10

True

Front 11

True/False:
It is possible for slight anatomical variations to occur in a human body; for example, a nerve or blood vessel may be somewhat out of place, or a small muscle may be missing.

Back 11

True.

Front 12

What is the regional term designating the limbs?

Back 12

Appendicular

Front 13

True/False
The saggital plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.

Back 13

False. The coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.

Front 14

What is a saggital plane?

Back 14

A vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts.

Front 15

The ventral body cavity is subdivided into which cavities?

Back 15

The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

Front 16

Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the:
iliac
pubis
femur
ischium

Back 16

Femur. The femur articulates with the pelvic girdle, but the ilium, ischium, and pubis of both os coxae form the pelvic girdle.

Front 17

Mary fractured her pisiform bone in a fall. What part of her body was injured?

Back 17

Wrist

Front 18

Sinuses are found in all of the following bones, except the:
Frontal
Ethmoid
Mastoid
Manible

Back 18

Mandible.

The frontal, maxillary, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones contain the paranasal sinuses. The mastoid bone contains air cells or sinuses.

Front 19

The eleventh and twelfth ribs are called floating ribs because they lack...

Back 19

an anterior attachment to the sternum.

Front 20

The foramen magnum would be found in the ______ bone.

Back 20

Occipital Bone

Front 21

The olecranon process would be found on the:

Back 21

Ulna

Front 22

What would you find located in the lacrimal fossa?

Back 22

Lacrimal Sac

Front 23

When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the which two foot bones?

Back 23

talus and calcaneus

A person's body weight is borne primarily by the two largest, most-posterior tarsals.

Front 24

Which of the following bones would most likely be involved in surgery to remove a tumor on the pituitary gland?
Sphenoid
Femur
Ethmoid
Temporal

Back 24

The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone surrounds the pituitary gland.

Front 25

What is the name of the heel bone?

Back 25

Calcaneus

Front 26

The crista galli is a projection from which bone?

Back 26

Ethmoid

Front 27

At its distal end the femur articulates with the:____________

Back 27

The distal end of the femur forms the knee joint with the tibia and patella.

Front 28

A common injury in the winter is a fall in which someone hits the back of his or her head on the ice. What bone is most likely to be involved in this type of fall?

Back 28

Occipital

Front 29

How many regions of the vertebral column are there?

Back 29

Five. The cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal sections make up the vertebral column.

Front 30

Sutures connect all the bones of the skull, except the:

Back 30

Mandible. The mandible is the only bone in the skull that is not connected to other bones by sutures and is therefore the only mobile bone in the skull.

Front 31

The "calvaria" of the skull is another name for the:

Back 31

The "calvaria" of the skull is another name for the cranial vault.

Front 32

The frontal sinuses are located:

Back 32

Lateral to the Glabella

Front 33

Which cranial bones receive the condyle of the mandible?

Back 33

The temporal bone contains the mandibular fossa that receives the condyle of the mandible and forms the temporomandibular joint.

Front 34

Which sinuses are in high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear?

Back 34

The mastoid sinuses are in high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear.

Front 35

Which sutures are most likely to contain sutural bones?

Back 35

The lambdoid suture is the most likely suture to contain suture bones.

Front 36

Where would a dentist inject lidocaine to prevent pain in the lower teeth?

Back 36

The mandibular foramen.

Front 37

n a(n) ____________ the vertebral column is formed from 33 separate bones.

Back 37

Fetus

Front 38

C7 is referred to as the "vertebra prominens" because:

Back 38

C7 is used as a landmark to count the other vertebrae because its spinous process can be seen through the skin.

Front 39

The pectoral girdle does not quite satisfy the features of a true girdle because:

Back 39

posteriorly the medial ends of the scapulae do not join each other.

Front 40

When a person attempts to break their fall with an outstretched hand, they often wind up with ________.

Back 40

A Colles' fracture is a fracture in the distal end of the radius that often occurs when a person attempts to break his or her fall with an outstretched hand.

Front 41

Which of the following is the most common congenital abnormality of the appendicular skeleton?

Back 41

Dysplasia of the hip is considered the most common congenital abnormality of the appendicular skeleton.

Front 42

Something with a pH of 5 would _____.
1) :have more H+ ions than OH- ions
2) have more OH- ions than H+ ions
3) have an equal number of H+ and OH- ions

Back 42

Have more H+ ions than OH- ions

Front 43

True/False

The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of protons in its nucleus.

Back 43

True. The atomic number of any atom is equal to the number of protons in its nucleus.

Front 44

Which of the following is true of an isotope?
1) Isotopes have the same number of neutrons, but differ in the number of protons they contain.

2) :Isotopes have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they contain

Back 44

2. :Isotopes have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they contain

Front 45

If the pH or temperature of the environment that contains a protein is altered dramatically, then the protein may:

Back 45

Become Denatured

Front 46

True/False
Atoms of any given element will differ from those of all other elements and provide its unique physical and chemical properties.

Back 46

True.

Front 47

True/False:
Electrons bear a positive charge equal in strength to the negative charge of the proton.

Back 47

False.

Front 48

In biochemistry, and thus in the body, the universal solvent is:

Back 48

Water.

Front 49

What is a buffer?

Back 49

Stabilizes pH.

Front 50

True or False.
Colloids/Emulsions are heterogeneous mixtures.

Back 50

True.

Front 51

In an ionic bond:
1) atoms share electrons equally.
2) there is a transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to the other.

Back 51

2. there is a transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to the other.

Front 52

True/False:

Polar molecules are electrically balanced, due to the equal sharing of electrons between the atoms of the molecules.

Back 52

False.

Front 53

Which chemical reaction involves atoms or molecules combining to form a larger, more complex molecule?

Back 53

Synthesis

Front 54

True/False

An acidic substance will have a sticky feel.

Back 54

False.

Front 55

True/False:

Enzymes are unchanged in a reaction; they can be reused, and are not needed in large quantities.

Back 55

True.

Front 56

True/False:
The major function of RNA is to carry out the genetic instructions for protein synthesis.

Back 56

True.

Front 57

True/False:

DNA carries out the orders for protein synthesis issued by RNA.

Back 57

False.

Front 58

What is the name of the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells?

Back 58

ATP

Front 59

T/F:
A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.

Back 59

True.

Front 60

T/F:
Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

Back 60

True.

Front 61

A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.

Back 61

Gomphosis

Front 62

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
Syndesmoses
Symphyses
Synchrondroses

Back 62

Syndesmoses

Front 63

Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis?
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Gout

Back 63

Osteoarthritis

Front 64

T/F:
The gripping of the trochlea by the trochlear notch constitutes the "hinge" for the elbow joint.

Back 64

True.

Front 65

An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________.

Back 65

The radius and ulna along its length

Front 66

A movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned from posterior to anterior is__________.

Back 66

Supination

Front 67

T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood.

Back 67

True.

Front 68

The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.

Back 68

Prevents Hyperextension of the Knee

Front 69

What type of joints are cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones ?

Back 69

Synchondroses

Front 70

True/False:
The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity.

Back 70

True.

Front 71

What type of movement do Synarthrotic joints allow?

Back 71

Synarthrotic joints permit essentially no movement .

Front 72

A joint that is known as a suture is found ________.

Back 72

In the skull only.

Front 73

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.

Back 73

Ampiarthroses

Front 74

The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.

Back 74

Cruciate

Front 75

T/F:
The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

Back 75

True.

Front 76

T/F:
The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of joints.

Back 76

True.

Front 77

T/F:
A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids.

Back 77

False.

Front 78

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.

Back 78

Symphisis

Front 79

Menisci refer to ________.

Back 79

semilunar cartilage pads

Front 80

T/F:

A nonaxial movement is usually seen at a joint such as a hinge.

Back 80

False

Front 81

Does synovial fluid contain hyaluronic acid?

Back 81

Yes.

Front 82

Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________

Back 82

lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements

Front 83

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.

Back 83

Bursae

Front 84

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. (Common/Rare)

Back 84

Rare because of the ligament reinforcement

Front 85

T/F:
The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability.

Back 85

True.

Front 86

T/F: Synchondroses are cartilaginous joints.

Back 86

True.

Front 87

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is/are damaged as a result?

Back 87

medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

Front 88

T/F: Moving the arm in a full circle is an example of circumduction.

Back 88

True.

Front 89

T/F: Chondromalacia patellae is hardening of the articular cartilage on the posterior patella surface.

Back 89

False.

Front 90

When one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane, it is called ________.

Back 90

Abduction

Front 91

Are all synovial joints are freely movable?

Back 91

Yes.

Front 92

T/F: Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion.

Back 92

True.

Front 93

Which of these joint types affords uniaxial movement?
Hinge
Saddle
Ball-and-Socket

Back 93

Hinge .

Front 94

Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Name the two bones of the hand that articulate to form a saddle joint.

Back 94

The trapezium of the carpal bone and the thumb's metacarpal.

Front 95

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to ________.

Back 95

The Feet.

Front 96

T/F: Flexion of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion.

Back 96

True.

Front 97

Fibrous joints are classified as ________. (List three joint types)

Back 97

sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

Front 98

The following is not a structure found on the ischium:
Ischial Tuberosity
Superior Ramus
Ischial Spine
Lesser Sciatic Notch

Back 98

Superior Ramus

Front 99

T/F:
The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis.

Back 99

True.

Front 100

The axial skeleton contains ________.

Back 100

the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

Front 101

The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.

Back 101

Saggital

Front 102

T/F: The layman's name for the scapula is the collarbone.

Back 102

False. Shoulder blade is the layman's term for the scapula.

Front 103

The bone in direct contact with the first metatarsal is the ________.

Back 103

Medial Cuneiform

Front 104

T/F: The foramen magnum goes through the occipital bone.

Back 104

True.

Front 105

Thoracic vertebrae differ from the others in that ________.

Back 105

They have facets for attachment of ribs.

Front 106

The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?

Back 106

Radius and Ulna

Front 107

Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone?

Back 107

Ilium

Front 108

T/F. The dens articulates with the axis.

Back 108

False. The dens articulates with the atlas. Allows you to nod your head from side to side to inicate "no".

Front 109

A bone that contains diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone is the ________.

Back 109

Humerus

Front 110

T/F: All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.

Back 110

True.

Front 111

T/F: Each intervertebral disc possesses a nucleus pulposus and an annulus fibrosus.

Back 111

True.

Front 112

T/F: A temporal bone protrusion riddled with sinuses is the styloid process.

Back 112

False.

Front 113

A structure found on the femur is the ________.
Deltoid Tuberosity
Linea Aspera
Apex

Back 113

Linea Aspera

Front 114

T/F: The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck.

Back 114

False. It's the surgical neck.

Front 115

T/F: A Colle's fracture is a break in the distal end of the radius.

Back 115

True.

Front 116

The body or centrum of the thoracic vertebrae are _______

Back 116

Heart Shaped

Front 117

The vertebral foramen of the lumbar vertebrae are _______

Back 117

Triangular shaped (Has a large body too)

Front 118

The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.

Back 118

Appositional growth.

Front 119

Osteogenesis is the process of ________.

Back 119

Bone formation.

Front 120

T/F: Bone tissue in the skeleton of a human fetus is completely formed at six months' gestation.

Back 120

False.

Front 121

T/F: Each intervertebral disc possesses a nucleus pulposus and an annulus fibrosus.

Back 121

True.

Front 122

The short bone that attaches to the third metacarpal is the ________.

Back 122

Capitate. Mnemonic for all of the metacarpals...The names of the carpals are best learned by using a mnemonic device and starting with the smallest carpal that is located near the fifth metacarpal (pinky side of the hand). One mnemonic is, "Please hang Carol from the trapeze, she likes thrills" and the bold face letters are the first letters of the names of the carpals in order:
PISIFORM, HAMATE, CAPITATE, TRAPEZOID, TRAPEZIUM, SCAPHOID (NAVICULAR), LUNATE, TRIQUETRUM (TRIANGULAR)

Front 123

The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.

Back 123

Appositional Growth

Front 124

Osteogenesis is the process of ________.

Back 124

Bone formation

Front 125

T/F Bone tissue in the skeleton of a human fetus is completely formed at six months' gestation.

Back 125

False.

Front 126

T/F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.

Back 126

True.

Front 127

T/F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.

Back 127

False.

Front 128

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone growth during infancy and childhood?

Back 128

Growth Hormone

Front 129

T/F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.

Back 129

True.

Front 130

Cartilage is found in strategic places in the human skeleton. What is responsible for the resilience of cartilage?

Back 130

High Water Content

Front 131

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________. (2 things)

Back 131

blood vessels and nerve fibers

Front 132

Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels?
Thyroid
Pituitary
Pancreas

Back 132

Thyroid

Front 133

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.
-Osteoblasts
-Osteoclasts
-Osteoblasts & Osteoclasts

Back 133

Osteoblasts & Osteoclasts

Front 134

In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.

Back 134

by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis

Front 135

The structural unit of compact bone is _______

Back 135

The Osteon

Front 136

The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called ________.

Back 136

Lacunae

Front 137

The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.

Back 137

Hyaline

Front 138

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________

Back 138

Fat

Front 139

T/F: Mesenchymal cells are one of the four cell types that populate bone tissue in adults.

Back 139

False.

Front 140

The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.

Back 140

Perforating (Sharpey's ) fibers

Front 141

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

Back 141

Osteoblast

Front 142

A condition that produces a reduction in bone mass sufficient to compromise normal function is:

Back 142

Osteoporosis, or porous bone, occurs when the rate of bone reabsorption exceeds the rate of bone formation. The loss of bone mass makes bones so porous and weakened that they become deformed and prone to fracture.

Front 143

True/False: All bone surfaces in the body are covered by periosteum.

Back 143

False. Periosteum does not cover sesamoid bones or the articular surfaces of bones, and it does not extend around tendon and ligament insertions on bone.

Front 144

True/False: During fetal development intramembranous ossification takes place in fibrous connective tissue membranes.

Back 144

True. Intramembranous ossification begins at approximately the eighth week of development. Cells cluster within the mesenchymal membrane and become osteoblasts (bone-forming cells).

Front 145

Mary is 50 years old. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals that portions of her skeleton show signs of osteoporosis. After reviewing the test results, her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone is prescribed for Mary?

Back 145

Estrogen

Front 146

The bones of the skeleton store energy reserves as lipids in areas of:

Back 146

Yellow Marrow. Yellow marrow is adipose tissue where energy is stored in the fat cells.

Front 147

The cells that maintain mature compact bone are:

Back 147

Osteocytes.

Osteocytes are mature bone cells that are embedded in the matrix.

Front 148

The lacunae of bone contain:
1) Osteblasts
2) Osteoclasts
3) Osteocytes

Back 148

Lacunae are small pockets found between narrow sheets of calcified matrix, and osteocytes (bone cells) are found in lacunae.

Front 149

True/False: The process of bone growth at the epiphyseal plate is similar to endochondral ossification.

Back 149

True. In a long bone, bone growth and elongation occur at the epiphyseal plate where new cartilage is formed and eventually calcified by osteoblasts (the bone-forming cells. The osteoblasts later mature into osteocytes

Front 150

The two types of osseous tissue are:

Back 150

Compact Bone & Spongy Bone

Front 151

When have long bones reeached their adult length?

Back 151

When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone.

Front 152

T/F: Intramembranous ossification begins within a connective tissue membrane.

Back 152

True. Some flat bones form from a membrane by intramembranous ossification.

Front 153

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would occur in the:

Back 153

Diaphysis

The parts of a long bone include the diaphysis, or shaft, and epiphysis, or ends.

Front 154

Growth of a cartilage in which the chondrocytes within the matrix become active and proliferate is known as:

Back 154

Growth from inside out is interstitial growth.

Front 155

Osteocytes maintain contact with the blood vessels of the central canal through:

Back 155

The lacunae and central canal are continuous through the connection of canaliculi.

Front 156

What type of bone (spongy/compact) contains true osteons?

Back 156

Only compact bone contains osteons.

Front 157

Which of the following characteristics of skeletal cartilage limits its thickness?
1) It has a girdle of perichondrium that resists outward expansion when it is compressed.
2):It is avascular and receives most of its nourishment from the perichondrium that surrounds it.

Back 157

2) :
It is avascular and receives most of its nourishment from the perichondrium that surrounds it.

Front 158

The menisci of the knee are made of:

Back 158

Fibrocartilage

Front 159

___________ bones act to alter the direction of tendon pull.

Back 159

Sesamoid bones act to alter the direction of tendon pull.

Front 160

T/F: Vitamin D is stored in the matrix of bones.

Back 160

False.

Front 161

A narrow, slit-like opening in a bone is referred to as a:

Back 161

Fissure

Front 162

Which structure anchors the periosteum to the underlying bone?

Back 162

Perforating fibers, also known as Sharpey's fibers, anchor the periosteum to the bone.

Front 163

Where is bone marrow is routinely sampled in an adult?

Back 163

Sternum

Front 164

Bone-forming cells originate from:

Back 164

Osteoblasts that lay down bone tissue originate from osteoprogenitor cells

Front 165

The twisting of a long bone is prevented by:

Back 165

Circumferential lamella expands all around long bones and prevents the twisting of long bones. Lamella of Haversian systems are also effective in resisting twist. The alternating arrangement of collagen fibers among lamella layers of any kind resists torsion.

Front 166

Hydroxyapatite in bone matrix that gives bone its hardness is primarily composed of:

Back 166

Calcium phosphate is the most abundant hydroxyapatatite.

Front 167

Before eight weeks, the skeleton of the human embryo is composed of:

Back 167

Before eight weeks, the skeleton of the human embryo is composed of fibrous membrane and hyaline cartilage.

Front 168

The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax

Back 168

ceruminous

Front 169

T/F: When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that blood and heat will be dissipated.

Back 169

False.

Front 170

T/F: The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin.

Back 170

False.

Front 171

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?

Back 171

The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

Front 172

T/F: Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.

Back 172

True

Front 173

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.

Back 173

accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

Front 174

The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.

Back 174

by hormones, especially androgens

Front 175

T/F: The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis.

Back 175

True.

Front 176

T/F: The outermost sheath of a hair follicle is the connective tissue root sheath.

Back 176

True.

Front 177

The dermis has how many layers?

Back 177

Two.

Front 178

Which of the cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure?

Back 178

Meissner's corpuscles

Front 179

The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of __________different cell shapes found in_____ distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function.

Back 179

The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of __FOUR__different cell shapes found in_FIVE____ distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function.

Front 180

The most important factors influencing hair growth are ________.

Back 180

nutrition & hormones

Front 181

T/F: Destruction of the matrix of the hair bulb would result in its inability to produce oil.

Back 181

False.

Front 182

T/F: During the resting phase of hair growth, the matrix is inactive and the follicle atrophies.

Back 182

True.

Front 183

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?

Back 183

The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

Front 184

Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

Back 184

By using the rule of 9s.

Front 185

Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________.

Back 185

diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis

Front 186

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

Back 186

in the axillary and anogenital area

Front 187

T/F A physician is often able to detect homeostatic imbalances in the body by observing changes in the skin color.

Back 187

True

Front 188

T/F Ceruminous glands are modified merocrine glands

Back 188

False.

Front 189

T/F Regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes.

Back 189

True.

Front 190

A hypodermic needle is injected into the skin. Identify the first integumentary structure through which the needle will pass.

Back 190

Epidermis

A hypodermic needle would first pass through the superficial layer of the skin, the epidermis, then the two layers of the dermis, the papillary layer and the reticular layer, before penetrating the hypodermis.

Front 191

Sebaceous glands are located all over the body except for these two areas:

Back 191

Sebaceous glands occur over the entire body, with the exception of the palms and soles of the feet.

Front 192

Sebaceous glands belong to which class of glands?

Back 192

Sebaceous glands are simple branched alveolar glands with several alveoli opening into a single duct.

Front 193

T/F: The body hair of women and children is the fine, short, vellus variety, while the adult male's body hair is the terminal variety.

Back 193

True.

Front 194

The dermis is primarily composed of which tissue type?

Back 194

Dense irregular connective tissue

The deeper reticular layer, which accounts for about 80% of the thickness of the dermis, is composed of dense irregular connective tissue.

Front 195

T/F: The superficial layer of the skin, the epidermis, is composed of thick keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

Back 195

True

Front 196

What is the primary function of melanin?

Back 196

Melanin forms a protective layer that screens out a portion of the sun's cancer-causing UV rays.

Front 197

Which is the correct sequence of epidermal layers of thick skin, deep to superficial?

Back 197

In thick skin, the cell layers, ordered from deep to superficial, are: stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. Mnemonic: Bill Shagging Ginnie's Love Child. Basale, Spinosum, Granulosum, Lucidum, Corneum

Front 198

T/F: Dermal papillae are fingerlike projections found on the superficial surface of the epidermis.

Back 198

False. Dermal papillae are fingerlike projections found on the superficial surface of the dermis.

Front 199

Does the Dermis contain keratinocytes?

Back 199

No. The dermis possesses all the cells that one would expect to find in connective tissue: mast cells, fibroblasts, macrophages, and scattered white blood cells.

Front 200

Which epidermis components possesses a waterproofing glycolipid that functions in preventing water loss?

Back 200

The lamellated granules contain a waterproofing glycolipid that is secreted into the intercellular space and is the major factor for slowing water loss across the epidermis.

Front 201

Which human integumentary system glands is believed to be analogous to the sexual scent glands of an animal?

Back 201

Apocrine glands start to function at puberty under the influence of androgens, their activity is increased by sexual foreplay, and they enlarge and recede with the phases of a women's menstrual cycle.

Front 202

Is the hypodermis part of the integumentary system?

Back 202

No. The hypodermis, deep to the skin, shares some of the skin's functions, but it is not a part of the integumentary system.

Front 203

What is the most immediate threat to life from serious burns?

Back 203

The immediate threat to life from serious burns is a catastrophic loss of body fluids, which, in turn, can lead to fatal circulatory shock.

Front 204

Which strata is absent in thin skin?

Back 204

The stratum lucidum appears in thick skin but not in thin skin.

Front 205

Which structures are primarily responsible for fingerprints?

Back 205

Epidermal ridges and sweat pores

Front 206

Which of thethick skin strata is the thickest?

Back 206

The superficial stratum corneum is many cell layers thick, much thicker than any other epidermal layer.

Front 207

Is the epidermis vascular or avascular?

Back 207

The epidermis is avascular and has to obtain nutrients from the underlying connective tissue in the dermis.

Front 208

A possible cause of rosacea is:

Back 208

the same bacterium that causes peptic ulcers

Front 209

T/F: The Langerhans' cell is a fixed macrophage and part of the immune system.

Back 209

True.

Front 210

What is the function of merkel cells?

Back 210

Merkel cells function as sensory receptors for touch.

Front 211

Keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum are known as:

Back 211

Keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum are known as prickle cells because of their spiny appearance under the microscope from an artifact produced by staining procedures.

Front 212

T/F: Fingerpints represent the sweat patterns left by dermal ridges.

Back 212

False.

Front 213

Striae in the skin are caused by:

Back 213

dermal tears

Front 214

Overexposure of UV light will increase/depress the immune system.

Back 214

Depress

Front 215

Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.

Back 215

Embryonic

Front 216

T/F: Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.

Back 216

True.

Front 217

The primary function of adipose tissue is:

Back 217

Nutrient storage.

Front 218

T/F:Sweat glands are apocrine glands.

Back 218

False. Sweat glands are exocrine glands.

Front 219

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.

Back 219

Pseudostratified columnar

Front 220

What are glycosaminoglycans?

Back 220

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are combinations of proteins and sugars found in the extracellular matrix.

Front 221

T/F: Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers.

Back 221

False

Front 222

In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived from _________.

Back 222

Stem Cells

Front 223

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________.

Back 223

Collagen Fibers

Front 224

T/F: Smooth muscle cells possess central nuclei but lack striations.

Back 224

True.

Front 225

Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________.

Back 225

Tissue.

Front 226

Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified functionally into what three categories?

Back 226

functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions

Front 227

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

Back 227

Elastic cartilage

Front 228

The first step in tissue repair involves ________.

Back 228

Inflammation

Front 229

T/F Macrophages are found in areolar and lymphatic tissues.

Back 229

True

Front 230

T/F Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands.

Back 230

False.

Front 231

________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells.

Back 231

Goblet Cells

Front 232

T/F "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.

Back 232

True.

Front 233

T/F: Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.

Back 233

True.

Front 234

T/F: Collagen fibers provide very little tensile strength.

Back 234

False. Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.

Front 235

Matrix is composed of:.

Back 235

fibers and ground substance

Front 236

T/F Achilles was wounded by damage to the tendon connecting his calf muscles to his heel. This and all tendons are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue.

Back 236

False.

Front 237

T/F: Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection.

Back 237

False.

Front 238

Are blood vessels found d in the matrix of cartilage or bone?

Back 238

Bone.

Front 239

A gene can best be defined as ________.

Back 239

a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

Front 240

T/F: Final preparation for cell division is made during the cell life cycle subphase called G2.
Question 3 answers

Back 240

True

Front 241

Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to _________.

Back 241

Changes in the environment.

Front 242

Some hormones enter cells via ________.

Back 242

receptor-mediated endocytosis

Front 243

T/F: Cells in humans can be as long as 3 meters.

Back 243

False. Cells in humans can be as long as 1 meter.

Front 244

The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is ________.

Back 244

centriole

Front 245

Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in a(n)______________solution.

Back 245

blood cells in a hypertonic solution

Front 246

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

Back 246

microvilli

Front 247

The plasma membrane is ________.

Back 247

the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

Front 248

The main component of the cytosol is ________.

Back 248

water.

Front 249

Extracellular matrix is ________.

Back 249

the most abundant extracellular material

Front 250

If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.

Back 250

UCG

Front 251

The functions of centrioles include what in mitosis?

Back 251

organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

Front 252

T/F Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

Back 252

True.

Front 253

T/F: The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is metaphase, prophase, anaphase, and telophase.

Back 253

False. The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Front 254

T/F: The genetic information is coded in DNA by the regular alternation of sugar and phosphate molecules.

Back 254

False.

Front 255

T/F Telomeres are the regions of chromosomes that code for the protein ubiquitin.

Back 255

False.

Front 256

In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored ________.

Back 256

In the smooth ER.

Front 257

T/F Mitochondria contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

Back 257

True.

Front 258

T/F: Phospholipids are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature

Back 258

True.

Front 259

A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.

Back 259

swell and burst

Front 260

T/F Aquaporins are believed to be present in red blood cells and kidney tubules, but very few other cells in the body.

Back 260

False.

Front 261

T/F Only one cell type in the human body has a flagellum.

Back 261

True.

Front 262

T/F A gene can best be defined as a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

Back 262

True

Front 263

Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules is a principle of the _______________model.

Back 263

Fluid-Mosaic Model

Front 264

T/F The spindle is formed by the migration of the chromatin.

Back 264

False

Front 265

T/F In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from -50 to about +50 millivolts.

Back 265

False.

Front 266

Some hormones enter cells via ________.

Back 266

receptor-mediated endocytosis

Front 267

T/F Pressure caused by gravity is necessary for any filtration pressure to occur in the body.

Back 267

False.

Front 268

Enzymes called _________ destroy the cell's DNA and cytoskeleton, producing a quick death to the cell

Back 268

caspases

Front 269

T/F Apoptosis is programmed cell suicide, but cancer cells fail to undergo apoptosis.

Back 269

True.

Front 270

If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA would be ________.

Back 270

UGCAA

Front 271

T/F DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication.

Back 271

False

Front 272

T/F Hyperplasia generally means that an organ will increase in size due to the excessive formation of extracellular fluids.

Back 272

False.

Front 273

Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in an __________solution.

Back 273

Hypertonic

Front 274

T/F Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.

Back 274

True

Front 275

T/F The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.

Back 275

True.

Front 276

T/F When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential.

Back 276

False.

Front 277

T/F Alpha particles, although relatively weak energy particles, are second only to smoking as a cause of lung cancer.

Back 277

True.

Front 278

________ is fat-soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.

Back 278

Vitamin D

Front 279

A chain of 25 amino acids would be called a ________.

Back 279

polypeptide

Front 280

Is water an electrolyte?

Back 280

No.

Front 281

T/F No chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture.

Back 281

True.

Front 282

T/F Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic mass.

Back 282

True

Front 283

T/F: A solution contains solvent in small amounts and solute in larger quantities.

Back 283

False. A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.

Front 284

The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.

Back 284

Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

Front 285

A long chain of simple sugars would be a ________.

Back 285

polysaccharide

Front 286

T/F Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.

Back 286

False. Enzymes lower the activation energy.

Front 287

T/F Emulsions and colloids are the same thing.

Back 287

True.

Front 288

T/F Lipids are a poor source of stored energy.

Back 288

False.

Front 289

Fibrous proteins are very stable/unstable and soluble/insoluble in water. ________.

Back 289

Fibrous proteins are very stable and insoluble in water.

Front 290

The chemical symbol O=O means ________.

Back 290

The atoms are double bonded.

Front 291

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with the (absorption/release) of energy.

Back 291

Release of energy

Front 292

T/F DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.

Back 292

True

Front 293

T/F Hydrogen bonds are comparatively strong bonds.

Back 293

False.

Front 294

In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. This liquid must be a ________.

Back 294

Colloid

Front 295

T/F Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide.

Back 295

True.

Front 296

T/F The fact that no chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture is the chief difference between mixtures and compounds.

Back 296

True.

Front 297

T/F Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.

Back 297

True

Front 298

The genetic information is coded in DNA by ________.

Back 298

the sequence of the nucleotides.

Front 299

An atom with a valance of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.
8
13
11

Back 299

13 electrons

Front 300

T/F Chemical properties are determined primarily by neutrons.

Back 300

False

Front 301

T/F A dipeptide can be broken into two amino acids by dehydration synthesis.

Back 301

False

Front 302

T/F Covalent bonds are generally less stable than ionic bonds.

Back 302

False

Front 303

No chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture.

Back 303

True

Front 304

Many plasma proteins may function as _________.

Back 304

Buffers

Front 305

A coenzyme is....

Back 305

A substance that enhances the action of an enzyme. (An enzyme is a protein that functions as a catalyst to mediate and speed a chemical reaction).

Front 306

T/F Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.

Back 306

False

Front 307

T/F The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum.

Back 307

False

Front 308

T/F Subdivisions of anatomy include gross, regional, systemic, and surface.

Back 308

True

Front 309

________ cavities are spaces within joints.

Back 309

Synovial

Front 310

Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:

1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ

Back 310

atoms
molecules
cells
tissues
organs

Front 311

Joints are accordingly classified into two main categories:
1) fibrous and cartilaginous joints where two bones are separated by a deformable intermediate and....

Back 311

2. synovial joints where one surface slides freely over another.

Front 312

Which joint is a "cartilage sandwich"?

Back 312

SynChondrosis: (think s=sandwich...chondrosis=cartilage.)

We have already mentioned the joint between the bony shaft and cartilage at the ends of long bones. This is a synchondrosis, a cartilage sandwich with bone on either side: bone and cartilage fit together perfectly and the whole thing is cup shaped. If movement occurs the growing bone will be damaged (slipped epiphysis) and this is countered by putting in a long nail to fix it again.

Front 313

There is only One syndesmosis joint in the body.... where?

Back 313

the inferior tibio-fibular joint. In this type there is a little movement, limited by a tight ligament.

Front 314

Synovial Joints

Back 314

surfaces slide over each other. The sliding surfaces are covered with a thin layer of cartilage. The joint cavity is sealed by a synovial membrane which secretes synovial fluid, a lubricant and nutrient. Around this, in turn, is a tough fibrous joint capsule which keeps the ends of the bones in proper orientation. This is often locally thickened to form joint ligaments. The synovial cavity is very small between articular surfaces but larger round the edges where it may form a bursa, a sack-like extension which may be in contact with the joint cavity.

Front 315

Hinge and pivot joints are types of:
Fibrous Joints
Synovial Joints

Back 315

Both hinge and pivot joints are synovial joints.
Hinge ex) Elbow & Interphalaangeal joints

Pivot ex) Axis & Dens; proximal radioulnar joint

Front 316

Main Function of Simple Squamous Epithelial Tissue

Back 316

Diffusion and filtration.

Found in kidney glomeruli, lining of heart, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and serosae

Front 317

Main Function of Simple Cuboidal Epithelial Tissue

Back 317

Secretion and Absorption

Present in kidney tubules, ducts and secretory portions of small glands, and ovary surfaces

Front 318

Main Function of Simple Columnar Epithelial Tissue

Back 318

Absorption and Secretion

Cilliated and Noncilliated

Digestive tract, gallbladder, small bronchii, uterine tubes, and some regions of uterus

Front 319

Main Function of Pseudostratified Columnar

Back 319

Secretion and Propulsion of Mucus

Cilliated and Noncilliated

Male sperm carrying ducts and trachea

Front 320

Main Function of Stratified Squamous

Back 320

Protection of areas from abrasion

Forms the external part of the skin's epidermis and lining of the esophagus, mouth, and vagina

Front 321

Transitional Epithelia has several cell layers and stretches to permit the distension of the ___________

Back 321

urinary bladder

Front 322

A gland, one or more cells that makes and secretes an aqueous fluid, is classified by:
1)
2)

Back 322

1) Site of product release--endocrine or exocrine

2) Relative number of cells forming the gland... unicellular or multicellular

Front 323

Endocrine glands _____________(have/do not have) ducts.

Back 323

Do not have ducts...ductless

Produce hormones

Secretions include amino acids, proteins, glycoproteins, and steroids

Front 324

Which are there more of in the body.. exocrine or endocrine glands?

Back 324

Exocrine glands

Front 325

How do exocrine glands secrete their products?

Back 325

Onto body surfaces or into body cavities

Such as mucus, sweat, oil, and salivary glands

Front 326

These glands have their products secreted by exocytosis and include the pancreas, sweat, and salivary glands.

Back 326

Merocrine

Front 327

These glands have their products secreted by the rupture of gland cells and include sebaceous glands.

Back 327

Halocrine glands (Think teenagers have halatosis...and acne (sebaceous glands)).

Front 328

What is the function of loose connective tissue?

Back 328

Wraps and cushions organs, important role in inflammation,

Widely distributed

Front 329

What are tendons and ligaments made up of (type of connective tissue)?

Back 329

Dense Regular Connective Tissue

Front 330

What type of connective tissue is the dermis, submucosa of the digestive tract, and fibrous organ capsules made up of?

Back 330

Dense Irregular Connective Tissue

Front 331

Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary, which is/are involuntary?

Back 331

Voluntary--Skeletal

Involuntary--Cardiac, Smooth

Front 332

Nerve tissue arises from which of the three primary germ layers? (Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm)

Back 332

Ectoderm

Front 333

Muscle, connective tissue, endothelium and mesothelium arise from which of the three primary germ layers?

Back 333

Mesoderm

Front 334

Mucosa arise from which of the three primary germ layers?

Back 334

Mucosa arise from the endoderm

Front 335

What are Langerhans' Cells? What do they help with?

Back 335

Epidermal macrophages that help activate the immune system.

Front 336

Ceruminous glands are modified _________glands that secrete cerumen (ear wax).

Back 336

Apocrine glands

Front 337

What is the term for pale, fine body hair found in children and the adult female?

Back 337

Vellus

Front 338

What are the three major types of skin cancer?

Back 338

Basal cell carcinoma--most common, least malignant

Squamous Cell carinoma--scalp, ears, and lower lip...grows rapidly/mestasizes

Melanoma--most dangerous...highly metastatic

Front 339

Three types of skeletal cartilage are?

Back 339

1) Hyaline--most abundant... articular, costal, respiratory, nasal

2) Elastic--ear and epiglottis

3) Fibrocartilage--menisci of knee and intervertebral discs

Front 340

Bones of the wrist and ankle are classified as____________

Back 340

Short bones

Front 341

The sternum and most skull bones are classified as:

Back 341

Flat bones

Front 342

The vertebrae and hip bones are classified as

Back 342

Irregular bones

Front 343

A Ramus is a:

-sharp slender projection

- armlike bar of a bone

-small rounded projection

Back 343

Armlike Bar

Front 344

A trochanter is:
1) large, blunt, irregular surface
2)small rounded projection
3)any bony prominence

Back 344

1) large, blunt irregular surface

Front 345

Put the 4 stages of bone healing in order:

A) Hematoma formation
B) Bone remodeling
C) Fibrocartilaginous Callus
D) Bony Callus Formation

Back 345

A) Hematoma
B) Fibrocartilaginous Callus
C) Bony Callus
D) Bone Remodeling

Front 346

What is the most deep of the skull bones that forms the bony area between the nasal cavity and the orbis?

Back 346

Ethmoid Bone

Front 347

What are the names for C1 and C2??

Back 347

C1 is Atlas

C2 is Axis

Front 348

Does C1 or C2 have the dens?

Back 348

C2 (axis) does... it's for rotation with the atlas.