Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
224 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Simple squamous: Function and locations
|
For permeability. Endothelium, lung air spaces, mesothelium
|
|
|
Simple cuboidal: Function and locations
|
For ion pumping. Ducts, covering of ovary, kidney tubules
|
|
|
Simple columnar: Function and locations
|
High volume secretions. Digestive tract, gallbladder, large ducts, oviducts, uterus, small bronchi
|
|
|
Stratified squamous: Function and locations
|
Protections and secretion. Mouth, epiglottis, esophagus, vocal folds, vagina
|
|
|
Characteristics of Keratinized stratified squamous
|
NO NUCLEI. Cells are not vital and filled with keratin.
|
|
|
Stratified cuboidal: Function and location
|
Absorption and secretion. Sweat gland ducts
|
|
|
Stratified columnar: Function and location
|
Absorption and secretion. Parts of male urethra, conjunctiva of eyes, and large excretory ducts
|
|
|
Pseudostratified: Function and location
|
Secretion, absorption, transportation, and lubrication. Nasal cavity, trachea, bronchi, epididymis. Often ciliated.
|
|
|
Stratified transitional: Function and location
|
Distensible. Dome-shaped cells, found in bladder and urinary tract.
|
|
|
Mucous vs. serous vs. cutaneous membranes: Locations
|
Open to exterior - NOT open to exterior - skin
|
|
|
How many actin filaments in microvilli?
|
25-30
|
|
|
What molecules cross-link microvilli?
|
Villin and fimbrin
|
|
|
What molecules link microvilli to the plasma membrane?
|
Myosin-1 and calmodulin
|
|
|
Flagella and cilia have an axoneme core structure. What microtubule arrangement do they have?
|
9 doublets around 2 singlets
|
|
|
What is the structure of the microtubules in a basal body?
|
9 triplets
|
|
|
Which glands have ducts- exocrine or endocrine?
|
Exocrine
|
|
|
Into what do endocrine glands secrete?
|
Blood vessels or lymph vessels
|
|
|
Exocrine glands: Name 1 serous secreter
|
Pancreas (watery)
|
|
|
Which type? Entire cell secreted
|
Holocrine
|
|
|
Which type? Only secretory product is released
|
Merocrine or eccrine
|
|
|
Which type? Secretes product along with a bit of apical cytoplasm
|
Apocrine
|
|
|
Name unicellular exocrine gland and type of secretion it exhibits
|
Goblet cell, merocrine
|
|
|
Function of goblet cells in respiratory and digestive tracts?
|
Secretes mucinogen when irritated
|
|
|
Which type of glands are salivary glands?
|
Compound tubuloalveolar
|
|
|
From which embryonic cell layer does craniofacial connective tissue originate?
|
Ectomesenchyme
|
|
|
ECM is made up of... ?
|
Ground substance and fibers
|
|
|
Name 3 types of ground substance found in ECM.
|
GAGs, Proteoglycans, and adhesive proteins
|
|
|
Name 1 non-sulfated GAG found in ECM
|
Hyaluronic acid
|
|
|
Name 3 types of fibers found in ECM
|
Collagen, reticular, elastic
|
|
|
What is a proteoglycan?
|
A series of long, unbranched, inflexible polysaccharides (GAG) linked to a core protein
|
|
|
Proteoglycans are covalently linked to...?
|
Hyaluronic acid
|
|
|
Fxns of proteoglycans?
|
Resist compression, resist movement, form filters, serve as binding and cellular attachment sites
|
|
|
6 adhesive proteins found in ECM and their locations
|
Integrins (cellular integral proteins), fibronectin (generalized), laminin (basal lamina), tenascin (embryonic cells), chondronectin (cartilage), and osteonectin (bone)
|
|
|
Reticular fibers are actually a type of...?
|
Collagen (III)
|
|
|
Which type of fiber is basis of tensile strength and stronger than steel?
|
Collagen. Comprises 20% of body protein.
|
|
|
What type of fiber is referred to as white fiber?
|
Collagen
|
|
|
Collagen is synthesized in rough ER. What are the steps?
|
Transcription in nucleus, translation of pre-procollagen in RER, hydroxylation in RER, glycosylatoin in RER, formation of procollagen triple helix in RER, secretion of procollagen in Golgi
|
|
|
Once outside of the cell, which enzyme cuts the propeptides to form tropocollagen?
|
Procollagen peptidase. Assembly of tropocollagen in fibrils is random and spontaneous.
|
|
|
Where in the body are elastic fibers manufactured?
|
Fibroblasts of the connective tissue and smooth muscle cells of blood vessels
|
|
|
Elastin core with microfibrils around it form elastic fibers. What 4 substances make up elastin?
|
Glycine, proline, desmosine, and isodesmosine
|
|
|
In the formation of elastic fibers, which comes first, the fibers or the elastin?
|
Fibers. Elastin fills in later.
|
|
|
Microfibrils in elastic fibers are predominantly made up of...?
|
Fibrilin, a glycoprotein
|
|
|
Name elastic fiber variant found in lamina propria of gingiva
|
Eluanin
|
|
|
Name elastic fiber variant found in periodontal ligament
|
Oxytalan
|
|
|
Basement membranes are acellular, but rich in...?
|
GAGs
|
|
|
Name structure similar to the basement membrane that surrounds muscle cells, adipocytes, and Schwann cells.
|
External lamina
|
|
|
3 components of basement membrane are?
|
Lamina lucida, lamina densa, lamina reticularis
|
|
|
What are integrins?
|
They are cross membrance proteins that link the cytoskeleton to the ECM
|
|
|
Main types of connective tissue cells are fixed/resident or transient. Types of fixed?
|
Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, pericytes, adipose cells, mast cells, macrophages
|
|
|
Main types of connective tissue cells are fixed/resident or transient. Types of transient?
|
Plasma cells and leukocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphoocytes)
|
|
|
Fibroblasts (synthesize ECM), pericytes, and adipocytes are derived from...?
|
Mesenchyme.
|
|
|
Difference between fibroblasts and myofibroblasts?
|
Myo- usually found in wound healing; rich in actin bundles. ALSO FOUND IN PDL.
|
|
|
Which type of fixed connective tissue cell is associated with small blood vessels?
|
Pericytes. They also have their own basal lamina and posses characteristics of smooth muscle and endothelial cells.
|
|
|
2 types of adipocytes?
|
Brown fat (multiple, small lipid droplets) and white fat (simple, large lipid droplet)
|
|
|
Which type of fixed connective tissue cell is the largest of the fixed cells and is derived from bone marrow?
|
Mast cells
|
|
|
Receptors on mast cells?
|
Fc receptors for IgE
|
|
|
H___ and h_____ are 2 primary mediators (granules) of mast cells
|
Heparin and histamine
|
|
|
Macrophages go by unique names all over the body. From where were they derived?
|
Stem cells in marrow
|
|
|
Which cell types in connective tissue are transient?
|
Plasma cells and leukocytes
|
|
|
Name the 3 leukocytes
|
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes
|
|
|
Which 2 types of structures in body are made up of dense, regular connective tissue proper?
|
Ligaments and tendons
|
|
|
Name 3 types of specialized connective tissue
|
Blood, bone, cartilage
|
|
|
What is the main difference between hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage?
|
Matrix characteristic.
|
|
|
Cartilage with an homogeneous, amorphous matrix is...?
|
Hyaline
|
|
|
Cartilage with elastic fibers and lamellae is...?
|
Elastic
|
|
|
Cartilage with large bundles of type I collagen is...?
|
Fibrocartilage
|
|
|
What are the 3 major GAGs in hylanine cartilage and how are they arranged?
|
Condroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate are joined together to form a core protein. Hyaluronic acid is bound to proteoglycans, which are bound to thin type II collagen fibrils.
|
|
|
Which type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium?
|
Fibrocartilage
|
|
|
What 2 types of growth does cartilage exhibit?
|
Appositional and interstitial
|
|
|
Bone has a layer of ____ around the outside and a layer of _____ lining the marrow cavity.
|
Periosteum, endosteum
|
|
|
Where are Sharpey's fibers located?
|
In the Periosteum of bone.
|
|
|
Primary difference between Haversian and Volkmann canals in bone?
|
Volkmann's canals run perpendicular to Haversian canals and often contain blood vessels
|
|
|
What are lacunae?
|
Gaps in lammellae that contain ONE osteocyte. They are connected by canaliculi
|
|
|
No osteocyte is more than ___ microns from a blood vessel
|
300
|
|
|
Which hormone signals osteocytes to resorb bone, releasing calcium into the blood?
|
PTH
|
|
|
Which hormone is antagonistic to PTH?
|
Calcitonin
|
|
|
Hypersecretion of somatotropin in childhood results in...?
|
Giantism
|
|
|
Hyposecretion of somatotropin results in...?
|
Pituitary dwarfism
|
|
|
Hypersecretion of somatotropin in adulthood leads to...?
|
Acromegaly
|
|
|
Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone in infancy and childhood results in...?
|
Cretinism (failure of bone growth and dwarfism)
|
|
|
What percent of bone is comprised of organic material?
|
33%
|
|
|
What percent of the organic material of the bone is comprised of collagen?
|
Of the 33% that is organic, 28% is collagen
|
|
|
Which mononucleated cell is responsible for laying down the organic matrix of the bone?
|
Osteoblasts
|
|
|
Which component of the organic matrix is laid down by bone-making cells?
|
Type 1 collagen
|
|
|
What is the name of the layer formed by osteoblasts?
|
Osteiod layer
|
|
|
What is the osteoid layer?
|
Non-mineralized matrix that will eventually become mineralized
|
|
|
Osteoblasts exhibit high levels of which enzymatic marker associated with their outer cell membrane?
|
ALP (Alkaline Phosphatase)
|
|
|
Endochondral ossification is associated with which kind of bones?
|
Long bones and articular processes of the mandible
|
|
|
What is the predominant kind of collagen secreted by chondrocytes?
|
Type II
|
|
|
What is the predominant form of fibril forming collagen produced during the mature stage of collagen synthesis?
|
Type 10
|
|
|
What are the 4 types of cytokines released by osteogenic cells?
|
Bone Morphogenic Superfamily (BMP-2, BMP7, TGF Beta), Platelet Derived Growth Factors (PDGFAA, AB, BB), Fibroblastic Growth Factor (FGF), Insulin-like Growth Factor (IGF1 and IGF2)
|
|
|
Which osteogenic cytokines are "Synergistic" and improve bone growth and healing?
|
TGF-Beta, PDGF-BB, IGF-2
|
|
|
What are the sites of active bone resorption called, in osteoclasts?
|
Ruffled borders
|
|
|
What is the advantage of the Ruffled Borders?
|
They provide more surface area for release of organic acids and absorption of calcium.
|
|
|
What is the main integrin that mediates the adhesion of osteoclasts to the surface of the bone?
|
αvβ3
|
|
|
Which secreted proteins facilitate the adhesion of osteoclasts to the bone?
|
Bone Sialoprotein (BSP) and Osteopontin. These 2 form a layer for αvβ3 to bind to.
|
|
|
How do osteoclasts work to conduct bone resorption?
|
Enzymes and organic acids break down the bone, endocytosis picks up the debris
|
|
|
Which factor is expressed on osteoblasts?
|
RANKL
|
|
|
Which factor is expressed on osteoclasts?
|
RANK
|
|
|
What does RANKL/RANK binding promote?
|
Fusion of preosteoclastic cells, activation of osteoclasts
|
|
|
What is the factor released by osteoblasts that binds to RANK, expressed on preosteoclasts, and limits osteoclastogenesis?
|
Osteoprotegrin
|
|
|
What is the essential calcium concentration in the body?
|
10 mg/dL
|
|
|
Which endocrine hormones promote bone formation?
|
PTH (low concentration), Leptin, Vitamin D
|
|
|
Which endocrine hormones promote bone resporption?
|
PTH (high concentrations)
|
|
|
Which endocrine hormones inhibit bone resorption?
|
Estrogen and calcitonin
|
|
|
What is the hormone released by adipocytes, which is involved in regulating weight and bone mass?
|
Leptin
|
|
|
Which cells are stimulated by leptin?
|
Osteoblasts
|
|
|
Calcitonin is a hormone that inhibits bone resorption. Which cells secret this hormone?
|
Parafollicular cells
|
|
|
Pumps in the ER membrane and in the cell membrane both help to keep what ion out of the cytosol?
|
Ca2+
|
|
|
In some tissues, ____ activates ___, which phosphorylates proteins to get a response from the cell.
|
DAG, PKC
|
|
|
In some tissues, Ca2+ from ER binds to _______, which activates protein kinase
|
Calmodulin
|
|
|
The concentration of free Ca2+ in the cytosol is ___M
|
10^-7
|
|
|
Apical and Basolateral transport proteins are necessary for the small intestine to absorb calcium, T or F?
|
True
|
|
|
Which vitamin induces the translation of proteins needed for Ca2+ absorption?
|
Vitamin D
|
|
|
Which hormone directly stimulates absorption of Ca2+ into the nephron?
|
PTH
|
|
|
What is the active form of Vitamin D?
|
Calcitriol
|
|
|
What is the first step in the production of active Vitamin D?
|
Addition of a hydroxyl group to the 25 carbon via a 25, hydroxylase
|
|
|
The activity of 1-hydroxylase is regulated by...?
|
PTH
|
|
|
Low Ca2+ stimulates ___ release which activates ______ in kidney to form active vitamin D
|
PTH, 1-hydroxylase
|
|
|
Osteoprotegrin binds _____ as a pseudoreceptor
|
RANKL
|
|
|
What stimulates the synthesis of transcription factors that activates genes required for osteoblast differentiation from progenitor cells?
|
BMPs
|
|
|
What type of cristae do protein producing cells have?
|
Lamellar
|
|
|
What type of cristae do steroid producing cells have?
|
Tubular
|
|
|
Which 3 parts of the pituitary comprise the adenohypophesis?
|
Pars tuberalis, pars distalis, pars intermedia
|
|
|
Which 2 parts of the pituitary comprise the neurohypophesis?
|
Pars nervosa, infundibular stalk
|
|
|
Superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries are branches of...?
|
Internal carotid artery
|
|
|
Venules in the pars nervosa carry oxytocin and ADH to the hypophyseal veins, which drains into which sinus?
|
Cavernous sinus. Some flows back to hypothalamus for feedback to supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei
|
|
|
Name the 4 hormones under the influence of releasing hormones from the hypothalamus
|
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH
|
|
|
Name the 2 hormones under the influence of inhibitory hormones from the hypothalamus
|
Growth hormone and prolactin
|
|
|
Name the collections of secretory product in the pars nervosa
|
Herring bodies
|
|
|
In humans, which part of the pituitary is the most active?
|
The anterior or pars distalis
|
|
|
Which hormone may be produced in the pars intermedia?
|
MSH
|
|
|
A minimal amount of ____ and ___ are produced in the pars tuberalis
|
LH and FSH
|
|
|
What type of cells form the framework of the pituitary and do not secrete?
|
Folliculostellate cells
|
|
|
Are chormophils secretory?
|
Yes
|
|
|
What 2 hormones do acidophils secrete?
|
Prolactin and growth hormone
|
|
|
What 4 hormones do basophils secrete?
|
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH
|
|
|
Degranulated choromophils are called...?
|
Chromophobes
|
|
|
Which cells produce parathyroid hormone?
|
Chief cells
|
|
|
Name the 3 fxns of PTH
|
Promotes calcium release from bone, stimulates calcium resorption by tubular cells in kidney, and promotes absorption of calcium by small intestine
|
|
|
APUD cells are thought to be of ______ origin
|
Neural crest
|
|
|
Name the 4 places that APUDs are found
|
Lungs, heart, thyroid, and gut
|
|
|
Which 3 arteries supply the adrenal glands and where do they come from?
|
Superior suprarenal artery (the inferior phrenic artery), the middle suprarenal artery (aorta), and the inferior suprarenal artery (renal artery)
|
|
|
Which 2 veins drain the adrenals and to where do they drain?
|
Right suprarenal vein drains to inferior vena cava. Left suprarenal vein drains to left renal vein.
|
|
|
Name the 3 "zonas" of the adrenals, beginning exterior
|
Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis. Then medulla.
|
|
|
Which hormone is produced the zona glomerulosa?
|
Aldosterone (increases sodium resorption in distal tubule, prevents acidosis)
|
|
|
Which hormones are produced in the zona fasciculata?
|
Corticosterone and cortisol. Reduce rate of glucose metabolism and suppress inflammatory responses.
|
|
|
Which hormone is produced in the zona reticularis?
|
Androgens. Produce secondary male characteristics.
|
|
|
Which hormones are produced the medulla of the adrenals?
|
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
|
|
|
What is the difference in causation between Cushing's and Addison's?
|
Cushing's is an increase in hormone production (especially cortisol) due to destruction of adrenals, while Addison's in a decrease
|
|
|
What is the primary cause of Cushing's disease?
|
Pituitary tumor
|
|
|
Name the 5 types of pancreas cells and their products
|
A (glucagon), B (insulin), D (somatostatin), G (gastrin), and PP (pancreatic polypeptide)
|
|
|
The pineal gland produces ____ at night and ____ during the day
|
Melatonin, serotonin
|
|
|
Which metabolic reactions usually involve oxidation?
|
Catabolic
|
|
|
Which metabolic reactions usually involve reduction?
|
Anabolic
|
|
|
Synthetic reactions take place in...?
|
Cytosol
|
|
|
Oxidation reactions take place in...?
|
Mitochondria
|
|
|
Delta G is the standard _____ change and must be ______(+ or -) for a reaction to occur spontaneously
|
Free energy, negative. This is an exergonic reaction
|
|
|
ATP contains 2 ______ bonds
|
Phosphoanhydride
|
|
|
ATP changes the equilibrium ratio of products to reactants by...?
|
10^5
|
|
|
Does ATP store free energy?
|
NO!!! It's an immediate donor
|
|
|
Fxn of phosphoenolpyruvate?
|
Transfers phosphoryl group to ADP in breakdown of glucose
|
|
|
____ _____ is a high energy reservoir or phosphoryl groups that can be transferred to ADP in muscle.
|
Creatine phosphate
|
|
|
Which vitamin is the precursor to NADH and NADPH?
|
Nicotinate (niacin)
|
|
|
Which vitamin is the precursor to FADH2 and FMNH2?
|
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
|
|
|
Which vitamin is the precursor to coenzyme A?
|
Pantothenate
|
|
|
NAD+ accepts ___ hydrogen ion(s) and ___ electron(s)
|
1, 2
|
|
|
FAD accept ___ electron(s) and ___ proton(s)
|
2, 2
|
|
|
What molecule is a major electron donor in reductive biosynthesis?
|
NADPH
|
|
|
What is the universal acyl group carrier?
|
Coenzyme A
|
|
|
Name the 3 regulations of metabolic reactions
|
Amount of enzyme, catalytic activity of enzymes, and accessibility of substrate
|
|
|
What are the 3 basic steps of extraction of energy from food?
|
Digestion, small molecules converted to acetyl coA, ATP formed from acetyl unit
|
|
|
What is the net yield of ATP, NADH, and pyruvate from glycolysis?
|
2, 2, and 2
|
|
|
What is the 1st irreversible step of glycolysis?
|
Conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate by hexokinase (or glucokinase, in liver)
|
|
|
In the liver, which enzyme can convert glucose 6-phosphate back to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels?
|
Glucose 6-phosphatase
|
|
|
What is the 2nd irreversible step of glycolysis?
|
Conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase-1. This is the most important regulatory point and the principle rate limiting enzyme of the pathway
|
|
|
Glucose ends up being broken into 2 molecules of _______ in step 5 of glycolysis
|
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
|
|
|
What is the 3rd irreversible step of glycolysis?
|
Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate by pyruvate kinase. This step makes 2 ATP per pyruvate.
|
|
|
Pyruvate is transported to the ______, where it, plus NAD+ and coASH, forms acetyl CoA, NADH, and CO2
|
Mitochondria. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
|
|
|
What is the common carrier in oxidative metabolism in all foods?
|
Acetyl CoA
|
|
|
Does the citric acid cycle need oxygen?
|
No
|
|
|
Where does the citric acid cycle take place?
|
Mitochondria
|
|
|
How many ATPs come from 1 glucose molecule (according to Dr. Howard)?
|
30 (I think)
|
|
|
In fatty acid oxidation, the fatty acid is linked to CoA via _____ linkage. Where does this take place?
|
Thioester, outer mitochondrial membrane. Acyl CoA is formed
|
|
|
Is gluconeogenesis a reversal of glycolysis?
|
NO
|
|
|
Which enzyme catalyzes the irreversible gluconeogenesis step that converts fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate?
|
Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
|
|
|
Name the 2 steps to convert glycogen to glucose 6-phosphate
|
Glycogen to glucose 1-phosphate via glycogen phosphorylase, then to glucose 6-phosphate via phosphoglutomutase
|
|
|
At which end of the glycogen molecule does degradation occur?
|
The non-reducing end
|
|
|
In which reaction is pyridoxal phosphate required?
|
Breakdown of glycogen. PLP is a derivative of vitamin B6
|
|
|
UDP-Glucose is a(n) _________ form of glucose
|
Activated
|
|
|
Where in the body are amino acid degraded?
|
Liver
|
|
|
The urea cycle functions to eliminate excess _____ into the urine. It occurs almost exclusively in the ______.
|
Nitrogen, liver.
|
|
|
Which pathway is the MAJOR source of NADPH for reductive biosynthesis?
|
Pentose phosphate pathway. No ATP involved.
|
|
|
What's the equation for power?
|
Work/Time=Power. J/s=watts
|
|
|
What is the energy content of carbs?
|
4 kCal/g
|
|
|
What is the energy content of protein?
|
4 kCal/g
|
|
|
What is the energy content of fat?
|
9 kCal/g
|
|
|
ATP acts as a(n) _________ of phosphofructokinase, while AMP ______ the enzyme
|
Allosteric inhibitor, stimulates
|
|
|
What type of collagen is in enamel?
|
THERE IS NO COLLAGEN IN ENAMEL!!!!
|
|
|
What type of connective tissue is found in the organic matrix of hard connective tissue?
|
Type 1 collagen
|
|
|
Name the 3 ways to initiate calcium hydroxyapatite mineralization
|
Homogeneous nucleation (local increase in ions), heterogeneous nucleation (no local ion increase), and removal, inactivation, or exclusion of inhibitors
|
|
|
Where does additional phosphate for nucleation and crystal growth come from?
|
Dephosphorylation of phosphoproteins by alkaline phosphatase
|
|
|
What is the key marker for production of mineralized tissue and where is it found?
|
Alkaline phosphatase, in matrix vesicles. It hydrolyzes phosphate ions from organic radicals
|
|
|
Where will the mineral be added during mineralization?
|
It will be packed in between collagen molecules
|
|
|
Where do osteoclasts and odontoclasts hang out?
|
Howship's lacunae
|
|
|
What is the enzyme marker of hard tissue degradation?
|
Acid phosphatase
|
|
|
Which 2 substances have been found lingering around hard tissue destruction?
|
Carbonic anhydrase and isocitric dehydrogenase
|
|
|
What is the first step in the sequence of hard tissue resorption?
|
Attachment of osteoclasts to mineralized surface
|
|
|
What is the second step in the sequence of hard tissue resorption?
|
Creation of a sealed acidic environment which demineralizes bone and exposes the organic matrix
|
|
|
What is the third step in the sequence of hard tissue resorption?
|
Degradation of exposed organic matrix by acid phosphatase, cathepsin B, and collagenase
|
|
|
What is the 4th step in the sequence of hard tissue resorption?
|
Uptake of mineral and amino acids by cell
|
|
|
Bone matrix is 90% _____
|
Type 1 collagen
|
|
|
Name a specific protein not found in osteoid, but present in mineral bone. It may be released at the mineralization front or secreted by osteoclasts
|
Osteocalcin
|
|
|
Which is removed first during hard tissue resorption: the mineral phase or ... the other phase?
|
Mineral
|
|
|
Which acid is probably responsible for the low pH necessary for mineral dissolution?
|
Carbonic
|
|
|
Osteoclasts contain low levels of _______ and high ______ activity
|
Isocitric dehydrogenase, carbonic anhydrase
|
|
|
Name the 2 types of bone development and describe them
|
Intramembranous (spontaneous formation in CT membrane) and endochondral (the kind where bone replaces cartilage)
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: Interleukin-1
|
Released by osteoblasts, activated osteoclast precursors to proliferate
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: TNF
|
Released by macrophages, acts similar to IL-1
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: Colony Stimulating Factor 1
|
Released by marrow stromal cells, activates osteoclast formation
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: Osteoprotegrin
|
Inhibits osteoclast differentiation
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: IL-6
|
Especially released by osteoclasts, induces formation of other osteoclasts
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: Interferon gamma
|
Released by T-lymphocytes, inhibits differentiation of osteoclasts
|
|
|
Give fxn in bone metabolism: transforming growth factor beta
|
Liberated from bone during osteoclasia. Stimulates osteoblasts to manufacture bone matrix. Also inhibits differentiation of osteoclasts.
|
