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644 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
When the body is in the anatomical
position, the thumbs point
1. medially
2. laterally
3. anteriorly
4. posteriorly
2. laterally
A person lying on his/her back is in what
position?
1. Prone
2. Erect
3. Supine
4. Lateral recumbent
3. Supine
The physical and chemical breakdown of
the food we eat is called
1. digestion
2. metabolism
3. anabolism
4. catabolism
1. digestion
The transfer of fluids across the plasma
membrane of a cell from an area of lower
concentration to an area of higher
concentration is a process known as
1. infusion
2. diffusion
3. perfusion
4. osmosis
2. diffusion
Homeostasis is defined as
1. control of bleeding
2. absorption, storage, and use of food
products
3. self-regulated control of the body’s
internal environment
4. the power of voluntary movement
3. self-regulated control of the body’s
internal environment
That portion of a cell containing all the
genetic material important in the cell’s
reproduction is called the
1. plasma membrane
2. nucleus
3. cytoplasm
4. reticulated endothelium
2. nucleus
What type of tissue is known as the lining
tissue of the body?
1. Connective
2. Areolar
3. Sebaceous
4. Epithelial
4. Epithelial
The secretion of digestive fluids and the
absorption of digested foods and liquids is
the chief function of which tissue?
1. Columnar
2. Osseus
3. Sercus
4. Squamous
1. Columnar
Because this tissue is continuous
throughout the body, if an infection were
allowed to spread, it could reach every area
of the body by moving through which of
the following tissues?
1. Areolar
2. Adipose
3. Osseous
4. Fibrous
1. Areolar
Which of the following are the two most
prominent mineral elements of bone?
1. Ossein and calcium
2. Phosphorus and calcium
3. Sodium and phosphorus
4. Periosteum and ossein
2. Phosphorus and calcium
The bones of the wrist are classified as
which of the following bones?
1. Long
2. Short
3. Flat
4. Irregular
2. Short
Bones of the cranium include which of the
following?
1. Maxilla
2. Occipital
3. Atlas and axis
4. All of the above
2. Occipital
The appendicular skeleton is composed of
the bones of the
1. skull and vertebral column
2. thorax and vertebral column
3. pelvis and thorax
4. upper and lower extremities
4. upper and lower extremities
The upper three ribs on each side are
known as which of the following types of
ribs?
1. True
2. False
3. Floating
4. Sternal
1. True
The head of the humerus is called the
1. scapula
2. acetabulum
3. glenoid fossa
4. epicondyle
3. glenoid fossa
The innominate bone is composed of three
parts that are united in adults to form a
cuplike structure called the
1. glenoid fossa
2. acetabulum
3. symphysis pubis
4. obturator foramen
2. acetabulum
The prominences easily felt on the inner
and outer aspects of the ankle are called
1. medial and lateral malleolus
2. medial and lateral condyles
3. greater and lesser tuberosities
4. greater and lesser trochanters
1. medial and lateral malleolus
Bones that develop within a tendon are
known as which of the following?
1. Condyloid
2. Sesamoid
3. Vermiform
4. Falsiform
2. Sesamoid
Moving an extremity away from the body is
called
1. flexion
2. extension
3. abduction
4. adduction
3. abduction
The act of straightening a limb is known as
1. flexion
2. extension
3. abduction
4. adduction
2. extension
The primary function of the muscles
includes all of the following EXCEPT
1. providing heat during activity
2. maintaining body posture
3. producing red blood cells
4. providing movement
3. producing red blood cells
The ability of muscles to regain their
original form when stretched is known as
1. contractiblity
2. elasticity
3. extensibility
4. tonicity
2. elasticity
Actin and myosin are the two protein
substances involved in
1. muscle recovery
2. muscle nourishment
3. muscle contraction
4. rigor mortis
3. muscle contraction
Which of the following properties describes
the ability of muscles to respond to a
stimulus?
1. Contractility
2. Irritability
3. Extensibility
4. Tonicity
2. Irritability
If a generally sedentary person in less than
good physical condition enters a marathon
with intent to complete the race, which of
the following outcomes can he/she be
expected to encounter?
1. If the day is cool, there will be no
significant risk
2. Any physical deficiency can be
overcome with a carbohydrate-rich
diet before the race
3. If stretching exercises are performed
before the race, he/she will be ok
4. He/she runs the risk of muscle damage
4. He/she runs the risk of muscle damage
Intramuscular injections are frequently
given in which of the following muscles?
1. Trapezius
2. Pectoralis majoris
3. Deltoid
4. All of the above
3. Deltoid
Intramuscular injections are usually given
in which of the following muscles?
1. Quadriceps
2. Sartorius
3. Gastrocnemius
4. Gluteus maximus
4. Gluteus maximus
The body’s primary thermo-regulatory
action is a function of dilating and
contracting blood vessels and the
1. stratum germinativum
2. sweat glands
3. sebaceous glands
4. melanin
2. sweat glands
The total blood volume in the average adult
is in what ranges?
1. 3 to 4 liters
2. 4 to 5 liters
3. 5 to 6 liters
4. 6 to 7 liters
3. 5 to 6 liters
A decreased red blood cell (RBC) count
could be the result of a medical condition
affecting the
1. compact bone
2. periosteum
3. yellow marrow
4. red marrow
4. red marrow
Blood of the average female adult contains
(a) how many million RBCs per (b) what
unit?
1. (a) 4.5 (b) mm3
2. (a) 6.0 (b) cm3
3. (a) 4.5 (b) 1
4. (a) 4.5 (b) low power field
1. (a) 4.5 (b) mm3
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 18,000
may indicate what condition?
1. Leukocytosis
2. Normalcy
3. Infection
4. Vetiligo
3. Infection
In an accident victim suffering from a
fibrinogen deficiency, the rescuer may have
difficulty performing which of the actions
listed below?
1. Controlling hemorrhage
2. Immobilizing a fracture
3. Supporting respiratory function
4. Reducing a dislocation
1. Controlling hemorrhage
In addition to preventing excessive blood
loss, the formation of a blood clot serves
which, if any, of the following purposes?
1. To convert fibrinogen into blood
serum to aid healing
2. To form the foundation for new tissue
growth
3. To manufacture leukocytes
4. None of the above
2. To form the foundation for new tissue
growth
The valves of the heart include all of the
following EXCEPT
1. atrial
2. mitral
3. tricuspid
4. pulmonary
4. pulmonary
Oxygenated blood is carried by which of
the following vein(s)?
1. Inferior vena cava
2. Superior vena cava
3. Portal
4. Pulmonary
4. Pulmonary
The contraction phase of the heart is
1. systole
2. tension
3. diastole
4. active
1. systole
The pulse pressure is the difference
between which of the following
measurements?
1. Venous and arterial pressure
2. Resting and active pulse rate
3. Arterial and ventricular pressure
4. Systole and diastole
4. Systole and diastole
The venous system that carries digested
materials from the intestinal tract is called
the
1. portal
2. pulmonary
3. abdominal
4. pelvic
1. portal
Lymph nodes participate in all of the
following functions EXCEPT
1. manufacture of white blood cells
2. filtration of bacterial debris
3. production of hormones
4. collection of large protein molecules
3. production of hormones
Windpipe is another term for
1. nares
2. larynx
3. trachea
4. pharynx
3. trachea
The primary muscle of respiration is known
as the
1. pleura
2. alveolus
3. diaphragm
4. mediastinum
3. diaphragm
Of the following nerves, which, if any,
controls the larynx during the process of
breathing?
1. Phrenic
2. Intercostal
3. Vagus
4. None of the above
3. Vagus
A nerve cell, or neuron, is composed of all
of the following EXCEPT a/an
1. synapse
2. axon
3. cyton
4. dendrite
1. synapse
The impulse receptors of a nerve are called
1. dendrites
2. Schwann cells
3. ganglia
4. neurons
1. dendrites
The space through which a nerve impulse
passes from one neuron to another is called
a/an
1. myelin sheath
2. synapse
3. axon
4. ganglion
2. synapse
Balance, coordination of movement, and
harmony of motion are functions of what
part of the brain?
1. Cerebral cortex
2. Cerebellum
3. Pons
4. Temporal lobe
2. Cerebellum
Circulation and respiration are controlled
primarily from what area of the brain?
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Pons
3. Cerebellum
4. Cerebrum
1. Medulla oblongata
The meninges, membrane layers covering
of the brain and spinal cord, are composed
of all of the following EXCEPT the
1. dura mater
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid
4. foramen magnum
3. arachnoid
In what part of the body is cerebral spinal
fluid produced?
1. Ventricles of the brain
2. Spinal cord
3. Meninges
4. Medulla oblongata
1. Ventricles of the brain
The 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs of
spinal nerves form what nervous system?
1. Peripheral
2. Central
3. Autonomic
4. Sympathetic
1. Peripheral
A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Hypoglossal
D. Accessory
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-52
THROUGH 1-54, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE CRANIAL NERVE THAT
PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED IN
EACH QUESTION.
Controls the muscles of the tongue.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Hypoglossal
D. Accessory
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-52
THROUGH 1-54, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE CRANIAL NERVE THAT
PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED IN
EACH QUESTION.
Transmits sensation of taste.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
The answer is Glossopharyngeal which is not given as an option in the question.
A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Hypoglossal
D. Accessory
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-52
THROUGH 1-54, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE CRANIAL NERVE THAT
PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED IN
EACH QUESTION.
Receives sensory input from the face.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. voluntary and involuntary systems
The autonomic nervous system is
composed of two main divisions: the
1. pons and medulla oblongata
2. voluntary and involuntary systems
3. sympathetic and parasympathetic
systems
4. cerebrum and cerebellum
3. sympathetic and parasympathetic
systems
Conservation and restoration of energy are
the result of nerve impulses arising from
which, if any, of the following nervous
systems?
1. Sympathetic
2. Parasympathetic
3. Voluntary
4. None of the above
2. Parasympathetic
A. Sympathetic
B. Central
C. Peripheral
D. Parasympathetic
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57
THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS
MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM
OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
Increased heart rate.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. Sympathetic
B. Central
C. Peripheral
D. Parasympathetic
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57
THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS
MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM
OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
Vision.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Sympathetic
B. Central
C. Peripheral
D. Parasympathetic
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57
THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS
MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM
OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
Decreases heart rate to normal.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Sympathetic
B. Central
C. Peripheral
D. Parasympathetic
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57
THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST
ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS
MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM
OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
Reflex arc.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
Hormones secreted by the endocrine system
are
1. secreted directly into the gland, tissue,
or organ it influences
2. directed to the gland, tissue, organ by a
duct system
3. secreted into the circulatory system
4. typically produced in large quantities
3. secreted into the circulatory system
The overproduction of which hormone
leads to acromegaly?
1. Somatotropin
2. Oxytocin
3. Gonadotropin
4. Thyroxin
1. Somatotropin
Which of the following diseases is
characterized by a deficiency of the
antidiuretic hormone?
1. Myxedema
2. Diabetes insipidus
3. Hyperthyroidism
4. Addison’s disease
2. Diabetes insipidus
An insufficient secretion of thyroxin is
characterized by all of the following
symptoms EXCEPT
1. weight gain
2. fatigue
3. profuse sweating
4. slowed heart rate
3. profuse sweating
Calcium levels in the blood are controlled
by which of the following hormones?
1. Thyroxin
2. Vasopressin
3. Oxytocin
4. Parathormone
4. Parathormone
Electrolyte balance is a function of the
hormone produced by the
1. posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
2. anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
3. cortex of the adrenal gland
4. medulla of the adrenal gland
2. anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
A metabolic response to epinephrine
includes which, if any, of the symptoms
listed below?
1. Decreased heart rate
2. Increased blood pressure
3. Respiratory distress
4. None of the above
2. Increased blood pressure
What hormone is produced by the alpha
cells of the islands of Langerhans in the
pancreas?
1. Glucagon
2. Insulin
3. Norepinephrine
4. Androgens
1. Glucagon
The cornea is part of the protective outer
layer of the eye called the
1. sclera
2. conjunctiva
3. choroid
4. crystalline body
1. sclera
The inner part of the eye derives its
nourishment primarily from the vascular
structure of what tissue?
1. Conjunctiva
2. Sclera
3. Vitreous humor
4. Choroid
4. Choroid
Dilation of the pupil, a muscular response
of the iris, normally occurs as a result of
what?
1. Increased intensity of light
2. Decrease intensity of light
3. Irritation to the sclera
4. Irritation to the conjunctiva
2. Decrease intensity of light
Of the elements listed below, which makes
seeing in the dark possible?
1. Rods
2. Cones
3. Iris
4. Choroid
2. Cones
By what process is three-dimensional
vision produced?
1. Accommodation
2. Convergence
3. Refraction
4. Stimulation
2. Convergence
The mechanical transmission of sound from
the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is a
function of which of the following?
1. Auditory ossicles
2. Eustachian tube
3. Bony labyrinth
4. Organ of Corti
1. Auditory ossicles
What structure(s) of the inner ear
provide(s) neural stimuli used to maintain
equilibrium?
1. Fenestra rotunda
2. Fenestra ovalis
3. Semicircular canals
4. Organ of Corti
3. Semicircular canals
The conversion of mechanical impulses
(sound waves) to neural impulses that can
be interpreted by the brain is a function of
the
1. endolymph
2. semicircular canals
3. organ of Corti
4. fenestra ovalis
3. organ of Corti
The enzymatic action of amylase results in
the chemical breakdown of
1. fats to fatty acids
2. starches to fats
3. starches to complex sugars
4. proteins to complex sugars
3. starches to complex sugars
Absorption of food occurs predominantly in
which of the following areas of the
intestines?
1. Duodenum
2. Jejunum
3. Ileum
4. Cecum
3. Ileum
Of the organs listed below, which function
as the accessory organs of digestion for the
small intestines?
1. Pancreas, liver, villae
2. Spleen, liver, gallbladder
3. Pancreas, pylorus, spleen
4. Pancreas, liver, gallbladder
4. Pancreas, liver, gallbladder
The gallbladder performs which of the
following purposes?
1. Stimulates the production of insulin
2. Stores bile
3. Metabolizes sugars
4. Produces antibodies
2. Stores bile
The functional unit of the kidney is called
the
1. nephron
2. Malpighian body
3. glomerulus
4. loop of Henle
1. nephron
Which of the following is/are (a)
function(s) of the kidneys?
1. To maintain acid-base balance
2. To remove certain toxic substances
3. To remove excess sugar
4. All the above
4. All the above
Blood concentration varies due to which, if
any, of the following factors?
1. Temperature
2. Water intake
3. State of health
4. None of the above
2. Water intake
What is the approximate total capacity of
the adult bladder?
1. 250 ml
2. 300 ml
3. 600 ml
4. 750 ml
3. 600 ml
Testosterone production is a function of
which of the following glands?
1. Cowper’s
2. Prostate
3. Testes
4. Bulbourethral
3. Testes
Which of the following is/are considered
the primary female reproductive organs?
1. Ovaries
2. Fallopian tubes
3. Uterus
4. Endometrium
1. Ovaries
Fertilization of an ovum normally takes
place in the
1. ovaries
2. fallopian tubes
3. uterus
4. vagina
2. fallopian tubes
The concepts of health include
1. the absence of disease or disability
2. soundness of mind, body, and spirit
3. both 1 and 2 above
4. a feeling of euphoria
3. both 1 and 2 above
Patient rights and responsibilities are
standards addressed by what organization?
1. Commander, Navy Medical Command
(formerly Bureau of Medicine and
Surgery)
2. American Medical Association (AMA)
3. Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
4. National League of Nursing (NLN)
3. Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
The limitations imposed upon a healthcare
provider are based on local regulations and
which of the following elements?
1. The rating’s occupational standards
2. The rate training manual
3. The provider’s training and experience
4. All of the above
3. The provider’s training and experience
In the healthcare field, accountability
means that providers
1. are held responsible for their actions
2. must continue their education in the
healthcare field
3. are bound by a code of ethics
4. all the above
4. all the above
A patient requests your advice or opinion
concerning the care or proposed care (s)he
is undergoing. Which, if any, of the
following is the appropriate response?
1. Answer honestly, to the best of your
ability
2. Refer the patient to the nurse or
physician responsible for his/her care
3. Say you'll ask your supervisor
4. None of the above
2. Refer the patient to the nurse or
physician responsible for his/her care
Personal and medical information learned
about a patient as the result of your position
as a Hospital Corpsman is privileged and
must not be divulged to unauthorized
individuals.
1. True
2. False
1. True
A. Learned and shared
behavior patterns and
standards.
B. How one responds to and
regards others.
C. Inherited characteristics.
D. Belief system.
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-19 THROUGH
2-21, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
STATEMENT THAT MOST ACCURATELY
DESCRIBES THE TERMS GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. NOT ALL STATEMENTS WILL
BE USED.
Interpersonal relations.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Learned and shared
behavior patterns and
standards.
B. How one responds to and
regards others.
C. Inherited characteristics.
D. Belief system.
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-19 THROUGH
2-21, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
STATEMENT THAT MOST ACCURATELY
DESCRIBES THE TERMS GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. NOT ALL STATEMENTS WILL
BE USED.
Culture.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. Learned and shared
behavior patterns and
standards.
B. How one responds to and
regards others.
C. Inherited characteristics.
D. Belief system.
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-19 THROUGH
2-21, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
STATEMENT THAT MOST ACCURATELY
DESCRIBES THE TERMS GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. NOT ALL STATEMENTS WILL
BE USED.
Race.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A patient who is a professed atheist is
placed on the Very Serious List (VSL) with
a poor prognosis for recovery. All of the
following actions by the staff are
considered appropriate and ethical
EXCEPT
1. informing the rest of the staff of the
patient’s nonreligious beliefs
2. informing the rest of the staff of the
patient’s condition
3. informing pastoral services (chaplain)
of the patient’s condition and
nonreligious beliefs
4. attempting to convince the patient to
accept a religious belief
4. attempting to convince the patient to
accept a religious belief
The communication process takes place
only through the written or spoken word.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Communication barriers inhibit the flow of
information and may consist of which of
the following factors?
1. Decreased auditory acuity
2. Age
3. Education
4. All the above
4. All the above
The most common cause of ineffective
communication and the most difficult
obstacle to identify is which of the
following barriers?
1. Psychological
2. Physical
3. Psychosocial
4. Spiritual or religious
1. Psychological
In the communication process, listening is a
critical skill and can be improved by
developing which, if any, of the following
attitudes and behaviors?
1. Anticipating what the patient will say
2. Minimizing distractions
3. Taking notes
4. None of the above
2. Minimizing distractions
The purpose of therapeutic communication
includes all of the following EXCEPT
1. assessing behavior and modifying if
appropriate
2. educating a patient regarding health
and health care
3. providing information on how to get to
the appropriate clinic for treatment
4. obtaining information to determine a
patient’s illness
3. providing information on how to get to
the appropriate clinic for treatment
A. Contact point
communication
B. Therapeutic communication
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH
2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE
TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO
THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED.
Developing a patient’s history of a
complaint.
1. A
2. B
1. A
A. Contact point
communication
B. Therapeutic communication
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH
2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE
TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO
THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED.
Explaining the necessities and methods of
personal hygiene to the parent of a young
patient.
1. A
2. B
1. A
A. Contact point
communication
B. Therapeutic communication
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH
2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE
TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO
THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED.
Providing self-care instructions to a patient
released to convalescent leave.
1. A
2. B
1. A
A. Contact point
communication
B. Therapeutic communication
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH
2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE
TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO
THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED.
Directing the patient to the pharmacy to fill
a prescription.
1. A
2. B
2. B
Which of the following are goals of patient
health education?
1. Promoting patient self-care
2. Promoting behavior modification
3. Influencing a patient’s attitude toward
health and disease
4. All the above
4. All the above
Patient education is the responsibility of
1. the members of the command
education and training department
2. only the physician and nurses for the
patient
3. all members of the healthcare team
4. the outpatient staff and clinic
supervisor only
3. all members of the healthcare team
Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only
B. Objective only
C. Both subjective and
objective
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH
2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST
ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE
SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION.
In the emergency room, you are examining
a patient who suddenly vomits and tells you
he has been feeling nauseous for the past
several hours.
1. A
2. B
3. C
3. C
Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only
B. Objective only
C. Both subjective and
objective
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH
2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST
ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE
SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION.
A patient claims to have swallowed many
pills and complains of sleepiness and
nausea.
1. A
2. B
3. C
1. A
Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only
B. Objective only
C. Both subjective and
objective
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH
2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST
ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE
SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION.
An EKG performed on a patient is
interpreted as normal and the patient’s
breathing improves with oxygen therapy.
1. A
2. B
3. C
2. B
Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only
B. Objective only
C. Both subjective and
objective
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH
2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST
ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE
SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION.
A patient complains of chest pain and has
difficulty breathing.
1. A
2. B
3. C
3. C
Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only
B. Objective only
C. Both subjective and
objective
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH
2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST
ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE
SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION.
When picking up a patient’s dinner tray,
you notice that only the liquids have been
consumed at this meal, although the patient
has normally eaten full meals before this.
1. A
2. B
3. C
2. B
A medical patient is prescribed therapeutic
bed rest primarily for what reason?
1. To inhibit the development of
circulatory problems
2. To prevent depression and apathy
3. To prevent further damage to body
systems
4. To inhibit the development of
respiratory problems
3. To prevent further damage to body
systems
A health care provider can reasonably
expect that all patients admitted for surgical
procedures will exhibit which of the
following characteristics?
1. Be very demanding
2. Be apathetic and passive
3. Exhibit violent behavior
4. Be fearful and anxious
4. Be fearful and anxious
SF 522, Request for Administration of
Anesthesia and for Performance of
Operations and other Procedures, is
normally signed by a parent, legal guardian,
or spouse EXCEPT when the patient is
1. able to do so
2. over 16 years of age but under 18
3. over 18 years of age but under 21
4. a member of the Armed Forces
4. a member of the Armed Forces
When a regional anesthetic is administered,
the patient can expect what effect?
1. Motor, but not sensory perception will
diminish
2. Pain will be reduced or eliminated in
the body part injected or swabbed
3. Level of consciousness will decline
4. The entire body will become numb
2. Pain will be reduced or eliminated in
the body part injected or swabbed
In general anesthesia, a stimulation of vital
signs is evidence of what level of
anesthesia induction?
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4
2. Stage 2
Dropping a metal basin on the operating
room floor may cause a violent response
from a general anesthesia patient in what
stage of anesthesia?
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4
2. Stage 2
In the immediate postoperative recovery
phase, a patient’s skin color may be
indicative of all of the following EXCEPT
1. the patient’s ability to recover from the
anesthetic agent
2. postoperative hemorrhage
3. degradation of respiratory function
4. the development of shock
1. the patient’s ability to recover from the
anesthetic agent
When permitted, postoperative patients
should be encouraged to ambulate to
improve the functions of which of the
following physiologic systems?
1. Renal system
2. Digestive system
3. Cardiopulmonary system
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
When caring for a young, otherwise healthy
orthopedic patient requiring
immobilization, the healthcare provider can
anticipate all of the following EXCEPT
1. symptoms of emotional stress
2. frequent complaints of sore or aching
pain
3. periods of dizziness associated with
disorientation
4. a deterioration of skin tone and
function
3. periods of dizziness associated with
disorientation
Unless otherwise directed by the physician,
when one is applying a cast to an arm, the
patient’s wrists is generally in which of the
following positions?
1. Extended about 10 degrees
2. In the neutral position
3. Flexed about 30 degrees
4. In any of the above; specific position is
immaterial
2. In the neutral position
A patient who has been fitted with a cast
should be instructed to return to the medical
treatment facility as soon as possible under
which of the following circumstances?
1. The cast becomes soiled
2. The extremity affected by the cast is
numb
3. The itching becomes unbearable
4. The cast gets wet
2. The extremity affected by the cast is
numb
In the theory of death and dying, it is
suggested that most people exhibit five
stages. The stage where the terminal
patient becomes concerned about the state
of his or her affairs and family members is
known as the stage of
1. denial
2. acceptance
3. bargaining
4. depression
4. depression
Patient falls may be avoided by taking
which of the following preventive
measures?
1. Proper use of bed/gurney siderails
2. Keeping floors dry and uncluttered
3. Instructing patients on the proper use
of walking aids (crutches, canes, etc.)
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Electrical and electronic equipment poses
significant injury hazards. Of the
following, which is the authorized means of
reducing this hazard?
1. Repairing frayed cords with electrical
tape to prevent shock
2. Informing the staff of defective
equipment
3. Having medical repair perform
electrical safety checks on all
equipment
4. Using only two-prong, nongrounded
electrical plugs
2. Informing the staff of defective
equipment
Skin contact burns can be caused by
icebags or hypothermia blankets.
1. True
2. False
1. True
During a fire evacuation, which of the
following procedures is NOT considered
appropriate?
1. Immediately remove patients to safety
2. Close all windows and doors
3. Turn off all oxygen equipment not
necessary to sustain life
4. Clear all possible exits
1. Immediately remove patients to safety
Because of its nonstatic qualities, the most
acceptable material for use in the operating
room is
1. wool
2. synthetic fabrics
3. untreated synthetic/cotton blends
4. 100% cotton
4. 100% cotton
Documentation and analysis of all accidents
and injuries is provided for which of the
following reasons?
1. To forestall negligence or malpractice
suits
2. To identify and punish the responsible
person(s)
3. To identify and correct safety
deficiencies
4. All of the above
3. To identify and correct safety
deficiencies
Environmental hygiene is directed toward
producing a healthy environment and
includes such practices as maintaining unit
cleanliness and
1. providing for adequate ventilation
2. limiting noise levels
3. proper disposal of soiled articles
4. all of the above
4. all of the above
What source is considered the most
frequent reservoir of infectious agents
pathogenic to man?
1. Soil
2. Animals
3. Man
4. Plants
3. Man
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient
C. Abdominal wound
D. Furuncle
TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST
CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF
INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE
FOLLOWING SCENARIO.
A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform
incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s
leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes
a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same
patient. A few days later, the surgical wound
appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a
significant staphylococcal infection.
Reservoir of the infectious agent.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient
C. Abdominal wound
D. Furuncle
TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST
CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF
INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE
FOLLOWING SCENARIO.
A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform
incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s
leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes
a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same
patient. A few days later, the surgical wound
appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a
significant staphylococcal infection.
Mode of transmission.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient
C. Abdominal wound
D. Furuncle
TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST
CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF
INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE
FOLLOWING SCENARIO.
A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform
incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s
leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes
a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same
patient. A few days later, the surgical wound
appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a
significant staphylococcal infection.
Portal of entry.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient
C. Abdominal wound
D. Furuncle
TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST
CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF
INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE
FOLLOWING SCENARIO.
A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform
incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s
leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes
a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same
patient. A few days later, the surgical wound
appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a
significant staphylococcal infection.
Susceptible host.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
One essential practice of medical asepsis is
washing your hands before and after
changing a patient’s dressing(s).
1. True
2. False
1. True
Minimizing the spread of an infectious
disease can be accomplished by the use of
isolation techniques that may include
1. limiting patient contact
2. establishing physical barriers
3. concurrent and terminal disinfection
4. all of the above
4. all of the above
The sterilization method of choice for most
articles used in surgery is
1. dry heat
2. steam under pressure
3. ethylene oxide gas
4. soaking in glutaraldehyde
2. steam under pressure
Which of the following is an important step
in using ethylene oxide gas for
sterilization?
1. Providing protective masks to the
operators
2. Providing an aeration period
3. Including surgical blades and sutures
in the pack
4. Ensuring adequate steam pressure in
the chamber
2. Providing an aeration period
Sterilization of individual strands of suture
is acceptable for which of the types listed?
1. All absorbable suture material
2. All nonabsorbable suture material
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Stainless steel sutures only
4. Stainless steel sutures only
Which of the following rubber products
may be resterilized after use?
1. Disposable surgeon’s gloves
2. Latex surgical drains
3. Surgical suction tubing
4. Disposable urinary catheters
3. Surgical suction tubing
While adding items to a sterile field, you
think you may have dragged the corner of a
wrapper across part of the field. What
should your course of action be?
1. Do nothing. Wrappers are considered
clean
2. Tell the scrub technician so he or she
can avoid that part of the field
3. Say nothing and continue with what
you are doing
4. Dismantle the field and set up a new
field
4. Dismantle the field and set up a new
field
When setting up a minor surgery case, you
notice that the instrument pack is outdated,
What should you do?
1. Unwrap and inspect the pack and if
usable, resterilize
2. Resterilize the pack without
unwrapping
3. Return it to the shelf and let someone
else take care of it
4. Use the pack; only the outside is not
sterile
1. Unwrap and inspect the pack and if
usable, resterilize
The surgical hand scrub is performed to
1. chemically sterilize the hands and
forearms
2. remove all bacteria from the hands and
forearms
3. reduce bacterial to a minimum on the
hands and forearms
4. remove obvious dirt and grime from
the hands and forearms
3. reduce bacterial to a minimum on the
hands and forearms
Transient and resident bacteria are easily
removed from the skin by the friction
created during the surgical hand scrub.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What is the preferred method of cleaning an
operating room floor between operations?
1. Sponge and disinfectant
2. Broom
3. Mop
4. Wet vacuum
4. Wet vacuum
For effective sterilization of
microbiological infectious waste, the
temperature of the sterilizing steam must be
maintained at _____ for at least _____, at
_____ per square inch of gauge pressure.
1. 121° F, 45 minutes, 15 pounds
2. 121° C, 90 minutes, 10 pounds
3. 250° F, 90 minutes, 15 pounds
4. 250° C, 45 minutes, 10 pounds
3. 250° F, 90 minutes, 15 pounds
In first aid situations, the ability to
improvise is a highly desirable personal
characteristic for a Corpsman.
1. True
2. False
1. True
A typical ambulance emergency bag does
NOT contain which of the following
items?
1. Toomey Syringe
2. Atropine
3. Airways
4. Trach Adaptor
2. Atropine
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
Axilla.
1. A
2. B
3. F
4. G
3. F
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
Ear.
1. C
2. D
3. E
4. G
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
4. G
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
Head.
1. F
2. D
3. B
4. A
1. F
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
Elbow.
1. A or B
2. C or F
3. E
4. G
1. A or B
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
Ankle.
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
3. B
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
Calf.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular
C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat
D. Four-tailed
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH
3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE,
MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH
THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST
COMMONLY APPLIED.
Chin.
1. C or A
2. D or E
3. F or G
4. G only
2. D or E
The oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) is
a valuable adjunct in rescue operations for
what reason?
1. It can be connected directly to an
external air source
2. It provides positive pressure
ventilation for the wearer
3. It neutralizes or filters toxic gasses
4. It generates its own oxygen
4. It generates its own oxygen
When, if ever, should an oxygen source be
connected to an air line mask?
1. When entering a carbon dioxide filled
compartment or void
2. When entering a compartment or void
with fuel oil vapors
3. After the couplings have been cleaned
of all oil or grease
4. Never
4. Never
The standard gas mask provides effective
protection against
1. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
2. low oxygen concentrations
3. both 1 and 2 above
4. chemical and biological warfare
agents
4. chemical and biological warfare
agents
When using a lifeline to raise an
unconscious person from a compartment,
the lifeline should be attached to the victim
in what manner?
1. Around the waist and to the belt
2. Around the chest and under the arms
3. Around the hips and the wrists
4. Around the arms and the legs
2. Around the chest and under the arms
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-14 AND 3-15,
REFER TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO.
Several Sailors have just been reached.
Two are unconscious, badly burned, and
pinned under an empty wall locker. One is
dead.
1. First and third phases/first stage
2. Second phase/third stage
3. Third phase/third stage
4. First and last phases/first stage
DETERMINE THE PHASE OF RESCUE
OPERATIONS, STAGE OF EXTRICATION,
AND/OR RESCUE PROCEDURE INDICATED
BY THE QUESTION.
3-14. Several Sailors have just been reached.
Two are unconscious, badly burned, and
pinned under an empty wall locker. One is
dead.
1. First and third phases/first stage
2. Second phase/third stage
3. Third phase/third stage
4. First and last phases/first stage
3-15. A Sailor is injured and trapped under a
fallen metal beam that is wedged tight by a
buckled bulkhead. After unsuccessful
efforts to move the beam, special cutting
and lifting equipment is called for.
1. First phase
2. Second phase
3. Third phase
4. Last phase
Scenario
There has been a fire and explosion
aboard ship and approximately 30
Sailors are trapped below deck. To get
to the trapped Sailors, bulkheads are
being breached and a large section of
the damaged deck is being cut away.
Firefighting teams are still fighting a
large out of control fire near where you
will be working. Passageway ventilation
systems are working to remove dense,
acrid smoke. Everyone is wearing OBA.
Several steam lines have been ruptured
and live electrical lines are sparking
throughout the area. The DCO has
determined that rescue attempts can be
conducted.
2. Second phase/third stage
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-14 AND 3-15,
REFER TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO.
DETERMINE THE PHASE OF RESCUE
OPERATIONS, STAGE OF EXTRICATION,
AND/OR RESCUE PROCEDURE INDICATED
BY THE QUESTION.
3-14. Several Sailors have just been reached.
Two are unconscious, badly burned, and
pinned under an empty wall locker. One is
dead.
1. First and third phases/first stage
2. Second phase/third stage
3. Third phase/third stage
4. First and last phases/first stage
3-15. A Sailor is injured and trapped under a
fallen metal beam that is wedged tight by a
buckled bulkhead. After unsuccessful
efforts to move the beam, special cutting
and lifting equipment is called for.
1. First phase
2. Second phase
3. Third phase
4. Last phase
Scenario
There has been a fire and explosion
aboard ship and approximately 30
Sailors are trapped below deck. To get
to the trapped Sailors, bulkheads are
being breached and a large section of
the damaged deck is being cut away.
Firefighting teams are still fighting a
large out of control fire near where you
will be working. Passageway ventilation
systems are working to remove dense,
acrid smoke. Everyone is wearing OBA.
Several steam lines have been ruptured
and live electrical lines are sparking
throughout the area. The DCO has
determined that rescue attempts can be
conducted.
A Sailor is injured and trapped under a
fallen metal beam that is wedged tight by a
buckled bulkhead. After unsuccessful
efforts to move the beam, special cutting
and lifting equipment is called for.
1. First phase
2. Second phase
3. Third phase
4. Last phase
3. Third phase
Five burned Sailors walked out of a
smoldering compartment. You are
administering first aid and transporting
them to sickbay.
1. First and second stages
2. Second stage only
3. First and third stages
4. Second and final stage
4. Second and final stages
A Sailor whose clothes are on fire runs
toward you. A small canvas tarp is nearby.
Which of the following actions should you
take?
1. Throw the victim to the deck and
cover the victim head to foot with the
tarp
2. Beat out the flames from the head
downward to the feet
3. With the victim wrapped in the tarp,
roll the victim over very quickly
4. With the victim standing, wrap the
victim in the tarp and beat the flames
out with your hands
1. Throw the victim to the deck and
cover the victim head to foot with the
tarp
The ventilators suddenly shut down and
sparking has ceased. Rescuers are to enter
a darkened compartment. The DCO is
supervising the rescue effort. The rescuers
should take which of the following
precautions?
1. Check for oxygen, gasses, and
explosive vapors
2. Wear a lifeline
3. Carry and wear only nonsparking
equipment
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the stretchers listed below is
considered most practical when lifting a
casualty from an engine room?
1. Stokes stretcher
2. Army litter
3. Miller Board
4. Improvised blanket and line stretcher
3. Miller Board
Which of the following pieces of rescue
equipment should be used to carry a person
with a suspected back or neck injury?
1. Army litter
2. Spineboard
3. Either 1 or 2, depending on the
circumstances
4. Improvised stretcher
3. Either 1 or 2, depending on the
circumstances
Probably the easiest way to carry an
unconscious person is called the
1. fireman’s carry
2. tied-hands crawl
3. blanket drag
4. chair carry
1. fireman’s carry
The tied-hands crawl is the most useful
when the victim
1. is too heavy to lift
2. must be move long distances
3. is seriously injured
4. must be moved under low structures
4. must be moved under low structures
What is the most distinct advantage of the
chair carry?
1. The ease of transporting heavy
casualties
2. The ease of negotiating stairs
3. Its safety in transporting neck or back
injuries
4. Its safety in transporting pelvic
injuries
2. The ease of negotiating stairs
Which of the following is NOT a factor the
Corpsman considers in deciding whether
or not to recommend using a helicopter for
evacuating patients?
1. The victim's overall condition
2. The tactical situation
3. The affect of pressure changes in
flight
4. Cost
4. Cost
The primary purposes of first aid include
all the following EXCEPT to
1. provide definitive medical treatment
2. preserve resistance and vitality
3. save life
4. prevent further injury
1. provide definitive medical treatment
At what point should the preliminary
examination of a casualty be done?
1. In the hospital
2. In the ambulance
3. After making the victim comfortable
4. Before moving the casualty
4. Before moving the casualty
In a combat scenario, a casualty sustaining
numerous superficial shrapnel wounds
should be triaged into which of the
following groups?
1. Class I
2. Class II
3. Class III
4. Class IV
3. Class III
In a trauma related incident where a patient
has multiple injuries, you should treat
which of the following first?
1. Fractures
2. Most obvious injury
3. Most lift-threatening condition
4. Most painful condition
3. Most lift-threatening condition
For warfare in the future where helicopter
evacuation may not be viable, personnel in
which of the following treatment
categories will receive evacuation triage?
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. III and IV
2. II and III
What is the basic concept of triage?
1. To sort casualties into treatment
categories for transportation
2. To prioritize treatment categories for
surgery
3. To save the maximum number of
personnel possible
4. To assist medical personnel in saving
time and supplies
3. To save the maximum number of
personnel possible
What is the purpose of field assessments?
1. To detect and treat life threatening
conditions for immediate care
2. To conduct a subjective interview and
an objective examination
3. Both a and b, above
4. To identify needed equipment and
supplies
3. Both a and b, above
At an emergency scene, you should
immediately take which of the following
actions?
1. Inform the person in charge that
medical personnel have arrived
2. Ensure that someone begins triage, if
needed
3. Review patient emergency assessment
procedures
4. Make sure the scene is safe for self
and patients
4. Make sure the scene is safe for self
and patients
Which of the following actions are a main
focus of conducting a primary survey?
1. Making a status decision and
formulating priorities
2. Formulating a treatment plan and
making a status decision
3. Formulating priorities and making a
transport decision
4. Making a status decision and a
transport decision
1. Making a status decision and
formulating priorities
At the emergency scene, you should delay
giving emergency care to life-threatening
problems until you have conducted a
thorough field assessment of the patient
and the environment.
1. True
2. False
2. False
At an emergency scene, which of the
following is a purpose for conducting a
subjective interview?
1. To gather information from relatives
or bystanders
2. To gather information from the patient
3. To reduce patient fear and promote
cooperation
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What pupillary sign is an indication of a
central nervous system disorder?
1. Unequal pupils
2. Dilated pupils
3. Constricted pupils
4. Dull and unfocused pupils
2.Constricted pupils
On examination of the chest, you detect
distinct "crackling" sounds. What
condition should you immediately suspect?
1. Flail chest
2. An obstruction
3. A punctured lung
4. An illness involving the respiratory
system
4. An illness involving the respiratory
system
An absent pedal pulse could be caused by
all of the following conditions EXCEPT
1. a broken or dislocated bone
2. delayed capillary refill
3. spints or bandages being placed too
tightly
4. a pinched or severed major artery
2. delayed capillary refill
Evaluation of diagnostic vital signs
includes all of the following EXCEPT
1. blood pressure
2. rhythm/regularity of pulse
3. profuse perspiration
4. level of consciousness
3. profuse perspiration
What term identifies the pressure of the
pulse wave as it expands the artery?
1. Pulse rhythm
2. Pulse character
3. Tachycardia
4. Pulse force
4. Pulse force
What condition or observation may
indicate a patient is going into shock?
1. Systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg
2. Hypertension
3. Erratic breathing
4. A sudden rise in blood pressure
1. Systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg
What is the universal distress signal
indicating an obstructed airway?
1. Spasmodic coughing
2. Clutching at the throat
3. Hyperventilation
4. Cherry-red coloration of the skin or
nail beds
2. Clutching at the throat
To open a partially obstructed airway of a
victim with a cervical spine injury, which
of the following is considered the safest
method?
1. Jaw thrust
2. Head tilt
3. Abdominal thrust
4. Chest thrust
1. Jaw thrust
Symptoms of foreign-body airway
obstruction include which of the
following?
1. Victim stops breathing
2. Victim starts turning blue
3. Victim loses consciousness for no
apparent reason
4. All the above
4. All the above
Artificial ventilation is indicated in which
of the following situations?
1. To assist ventilation in partial airway
obstruction
2. In carbon monoxide poisoning
3. In lack of respiratory effort
4. In cyanosis
4. In cyanosis
Dilated pupils in a patient receiving
artificial ventilation is an indication of
1. overventilation
2. adequate ventilation
3. insufficient ventilation
4. hypovolemia
3. insufficient ventilation
Artificial ventilation of a patient with a
badly displaced mandibular fracture is best
given
1. by mouth-to-mouth ventilation
2. by mouth-to-nose ventilation
3. with an oxygen mask
4. by the back-pressure arm-lift method
2. by mouth-to-nose ventilation
The major problem you should anticipate
when relieving gastric distention is which
of the following?
1. Reduced lung volume
2. Internal bleeding
3. Vomiting
4. Cardiac arrest
3. Vomiting
When ventilating an adult using the mouthto-
mask method, how do you best obtain
an airtight seal?
1. By fitting the apex of the mask over
the bridge of the nose
2. By fitting the apex of the mask over
the chin
3. By compressing the collar of an adult
mask
4. By attaching an oxygen line
1. By fitting the apex of the mask over
the bridge of the nose
What is the first step in preparing to
perform CPR?
1. Check vital signs
2. Determine unconsciousness
3. Locate the sternum
4. Establish a patent airway
2. Determine unconsciousness
The best place to find the pulse of an
unconscious patient is in which of the
following arteries?
1. Pulmonary
2. Carotid
3. Apical
4. Radial
2. Carotid
A fracture of the xiphoid tip of the sternum
during CPR may cause significant damage
to the
1. rib cage
2. lungs
3. spleen
4. liver
4. liver
In one-rescuer CPR, the proper
compression to ventilation ratio is
1. 30 to 2
2. 15 to 1
3. 1 to 5
4. 5 to 1
1. 30 to 2
When properly performing CPR on an
adult, the depth of compressions is
1. 0.5 to 1.0 inches
2. 1.0 to 1.5 inches
3. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
4. 1.5 to 2.5 inches
3. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
Which of the following is a physiologic
result of shock?
1. Increased cardiac output
2. Hypoxia
3. Hyperperfusion of organs
4. Increased urine output
2. Hypoxia
The signs and symptoms of shock include
1. hot and dry skin, dilated pupils, weak
and rapid pulse
2. hot and dry skin, constricted pupils,
strong and rapid pulse
3. cool and moist skin, dilated pupils,
weak and rapid pulse
4. cool and moist skin, constricted
pupils, strong and rapid pulse
3. cool and moist skin, dilated pupils,
weak and rapid pulse
Oligemic shock is another name for
1. cardiogenic shock
2. neurogenic shock
3. septic shock
4. hypovolemic shock
4. hypovolemic shock
An oral electrolyte solution can be made
from a liter of water and what other
components?
1. 1.0 teaspoon of sugar + 0.5 teaspoon
of baking powder
2. 0.5 teaspoon sugar + 1.0 teaspoon
baking powder
3. 1.0 teaspoon salt + 0.5 teaspoon
baking soda
4. 0.5 teaspoon salt + 1.0 teaspoon
baking soda
3. 1.0 teaspoon salt + 0.5 teaspoon
baking soda
Treatment for shock may include all of the
following EXCEPT
1. opening and maintaining an airway
2. oxygen therapy
3. intravenous fluid therapy
4. keeping the victim cool
4. keeping the victim cool
Which of the following is a
contraindication for the use of Medical
Anti-Shock Trousers (MAST)?
1. Pelvic fracture
2. Pulmonary edema
3. Fractured femur
4. Depressed skull fracture
2. Pulmonary edema
When should Medical Anti-Shock
Trousers (MAST) be removed from a
patient?
1. When blood pressure reaches 100 mm
Hg systolic
2. When intravenous fluids are started
3. In a medical treatment facility under a
medical officer’s supervision only
4. When the patient is in the ambulance
and stabilized
3. In a medical treatment facility under a
medical officer’s supervision only
Which of the following is/are a
limitation(s) on the use of the bag-valve
mask ventilator?
1. Should be used only by experienced
individuals
2. Is hard to clean and reassemble
3. Seal at the face is hard to maintain
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following is/are an
advantage(s) of using the pocket face mask
as opposed to the bag-valve mask?
1. Acts as a barrier device
2. Provides greater air volume
3. Achieves higher oxygen
concentrations
4. 1 and 2 only
4. 1 and 2 only
Cricothyroidotomy is the process or
technique of
1. hyperextending the neck
2. creating an opening to the trachea
3. suctioning the trachea
4. inserting an esophageal obturator
airway
2. creating an opening to the trachea
An avulsion injury is defined as a
1. traumatic removal of a limb
2. piercing injury that closes over
3. clean surgical cut
4. traumatic removal of tissue
4. traumatic removal of tissue
In most situations, what is the best and first
method to control hemorrhage?
1. Direct pressure
2. Pressure point
3. Elevation
4. Tourniquet
1. Direct pressure
The following information about pressure
points is correct EXCEPT
1. Pressure points are ideal when
bleeding must be controlled for
extended periods of time
2. Pressure is applied to the pressure
point nearest to but proximal to the
wound
3. Use of pressure point and elevation
can slow hemorrhage until a
tourniquet can be applied
4. Use of pressure point and elevation
can slow hemorrhage until a direct
pressure dressing can be applied
1. Pressure points are ideal when
bleeding must be controlled for
extended periods of time
If one is applying a tourniquet to a
traumatic amputation of the hand, where
should the tourniquet be applied?
1. Just above the wrist
2. Just below the elbow
3. Just above the elbow
4. Across the biceps at the thickest part
1. Just above the wrist
When a tourniquet is used to control
bleeding, which of the following
procedures should be followed?
1. Use narrow material so the band bites
into the skin
2. Loosen the tourniquet every 15
minutes to allow blood flow
3. Tighten it only enough to stop arterial
bleeding
4. Ensure both the wound and tourniquet
are covered by the dressings
3. Tighten it only enough to stop arterial
bleeding
Production of bright red blood during
coughing is called
1. hematemesis
2. hemoptysis
3. hematochezia
4. epistaxis
2. hemoptysis
In treating patients with suspected internal
injuries, prime consideration should be
given to all of the following EXCEPT
1. oral fluids in all cases
2. treating for shock
3. supplemental oxygen therapy
4. transporting to a medical facility as
soon as possible
1. oral fluids in all cases
To grow and multiply, anaerobic bacteria
require
1. hemolytic action
2. increased levels of oxygen
3. normal levels of oxygen
4. absence of oxygen
4. absence of oxygen
The body’s physiologic response to an
irritation or inflammation is characterized
by which, if any, of the following
symptoms?
1. Redness, warmth, and swelling
2. Redness, coolness, and discomfort
3. Blanching, coolness, and swelling
4. None of the above
1. Redness, warmth, and swelling
A single pus-filled cavity in the true skin
of the nape of the neck would be classified
as a
1. carbuncle
2. furuncle
3. lymph node
4. phagocyte
2. furuncle
Which of the following is proper action to
take if a metal splinter is embedded in the
left eye?
1. Remove the foreign body with sterile
forceps
2. Remove the foreign body with a dry
cotton swab
3. Patch the left eye and transport to a
medical treatment facility
4. Patch both eyes and transport to a
medical treatment facility
4. Patch both eyes and transport to a
medical treatment facility
Appropriate treatment for a sucking chest
wound includes all of the following
EXCEPT
1. giving oral fluids
2. administering oxygen therapy
3. treating for shock
4. placing the victim on the injured side
1. giving oral fluids
Of the following, which is an appropriate
treatment for a protruding abdominal
wound?
1. Giving oral fluids
2. Replacing the intestines in the
abdominal cavity
3. Applying a dry compress
4. Treating for shock
4. Treating for shock
Which of the following statements is true
about the viral disease known as rabies?
1. It is found only in household pets
2. It is usually fatal in man
3. It is treatable with standard antibiotics
4. It is transmittable only through animal
bites
2. It is usually fatal in man
What procedure should be followed with
respect to an animal bite?
1. Cauterize to prevent infection
2. Close with nylon sutures
3. Clean with standard antiseptics
4. Clean with soap and water
4. Clean with soap and water
Immediate suturing of a wound is
contraindicated if the wound has which of
the following characteristics?
1. It is a puncture wound
2. There is edema and/or discharge
3. It is a deep or gaping wound
4. Any of the above
4. Any of the above
An alternate name for an absorbable suture
material is
1. dermalon
2. gut
3. sick
4. nylon
2. gut
In administering anesthesia, the preferred
method is to inject the agent directly into a
vein or artery located within 1/2 inch of a
wound.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Which of the following is/are a
recommended step(s) in performing a
delayed wound closure?
1. Use dressing forceps while suturing
2. Convert jagged edges to smooth before
suturing
3 For best cosmetic effect, place sutures
further apart
4. 1 and 3 only
2. Convert jagged edges to smooth before
suturing
Of the following statements concerning the
appropriate length for a splint, which is
accurate?
1. A splint should be long enough to
reach from the fracture to the joint
below the fracture
2. A splint should be long enough to
reach from the fracture to the joint
above and below the fracture
3. A splint should be long enough to
reach past the joints above and below
the fracture
4. The length of a splint is immaterial
3. A splint should be long enough to
reach past the joints above and below
the fracture
After applying a splint to a fractured
forearm, you notice the fingers develop a
bluish tinge and are cool to touch. What
should you do?
1. Elevate the arm
2. Apply warm compresses
3. Loosen the splint
4. Remove the splint
3. Loosen the splint
What is the primary reason for splinting
fractures?
1. To prevent further injury
2. To control hemorrhage
3. To reduce swelling
4. To increase blood circulation
1. To prevent further injury
To fit well and provide adequate
immobilization, a splint must have which of
the attributes listed?
1. Be well padded at body contact areas
2. Be twice as wide as the injured limb
3. Be strong, rigid, and applied tightly
4. Be applied by two people
1. Be well padded at body contact areas
The proper first aid treatment for a fracture
of the humerus near the shoulder is to
1. apply a splint to the outside and one to
the inside of the upper arm, bandage
the arm to the body and support the
forearm in a sling
2. apply a splint to the outside of the arm,
bandage the arm to the body, and
support the forearm in a sling
3. place a pad or folded towel in the
armpit, bandage the arm to the body,
and support the forearm in a sling
4. splint the arm in the position you find
it and bandage the arm securely to the
body
2. apply a splint to the outside of the arm,
bandage the arm to the body, and
support the forearm in a sling
When applying a splint to immobilize a
fractured patella, where should you place
extra padding?
1. Around the knee and under the
buttocks
2. Under the knee and above the heel
3. Under the knee and under the thigh
4. Around the knee and under the calf
2. Under the knee and above the heel
What is the most important consideration in
treating a mandibular fracture?
1. Immediate immobilization
2. Ensuring a patent airway
3. Realignment of the jaw
4. Control of pain
2. Ensuring a patent airway
Of the following actions, which is of prime
importance when dealing with a head
injury?
1. Determine if the skull is fractured
2. Assume cervical spine damage
3. Administer pain medication
4. Remove impaled objects
2. Assume cervical spine damage
How should a suspected spinal fracture
victim be transported?
1. Ensure immobilization on a rigid
backboard
2. Place a pillow or adequate padding
under the neck
3. Transport in the shock position
4. Do all of the above
1. Ensure immobilization on a rigid
backboard
Deformity at a joint, coupled with pain,
discoloration, and immobility of and
around the joint, is characteristic of which
of the following disorders?
1. Dislocation
2. Simple fracture
3. Compound fracture
4. Displaced fracture
1. Dislocation
Of those listed below, which joints are the
most frequently dislocated?
1. Sternal ribs, finger, and jaw
2. Knee, hip, and elbow
3. Knee, hip, shoulder, and jaw
4. hip, shoulder, fingers and jaw
4. hip, shoulder, fingers and jaw
To reduce a dislocated jaw, you should do
which of the following?
1. Pull the chin forward and down
2. Have a victim open his or her mouth
several times to affect reduction
3. Grasp behind the front teeth and pull
forward
4. Press down behind the last molars and
lift the chin
4. Press down behind the last molars and
lift the chin
In general, sprains and strains are injuries
to
1. joints and muscles
2. nerves and blood vessels
3. bones and blood vessels
4. bones and nerves
1. joints and muscles
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 31.5%
D. 36%
A steam burn to the face, chest, abdomen,
and both arms.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-23
THROUGH 4-25, USE THE “RULE OF NINES”
AND FIGURE 4-48 IN THE TEXT TO
DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF INJURY BY
BODY SURFACE AREA, AND SELECT THE
MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE
LIST ABOVE BASED ON THE
INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
4. D
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 31.5%
D. 36%
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-23
THROUGH 4-25, USE THE “RULE OF NINES”
AND FIGURE 4-48 IN THE TEXT TO
DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF INJURY BY
BODY SURFACE AREA, AND SELECT THE
MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE
LIST ABOVE BASED ON THE
INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
A sunburn to the back of both legs, both
arms, and the back.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 31.5%
D. 36%
4. D
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 31.5%
D. 36%
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-23
THROUGH 4-25, USE THE “RULE OF NINES”
AND FIGURE 4-48 IN THE TEXT TO
DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF INJURY BY
BODY SURFACE AREA, AND SELECT THE
MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE
LIST ABOVE BASED ON THE
INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION.
A thermal burn to the left arm and front of
the left leg.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
First-aid treatment for extensive second
degree burns should include which of the
following treatments?
1. Anesthetic ointments and transport
only
2. Debridement of the wound and dry
dressings
3. Intravenous infusion and analgesia
4. Anesthetic ointments and analgesia
3. Intravenous infusion and analgesia
Morphine is an acceptable analgesic in
patients with which of the following
symptoms?
1. Head injuries
2. Profound respiratory distress
3. Advanced shock
4. Painful skin burns
4. Painful skin burns
The usual treatment for chemical burns is to
flush with copious amounts of water. The
two exceptions to this rule are in the case of
which of the following chemicals?
1. Phosphoric acid and lye
2. White phosphorus and carbolic acid
3. Dry lime and carbolic acid
4. Sulfuric acid and carbolic acid
3. Dry lime and carbolic acid
A dilute solution of which of the listed
substances will neutralize alkali burns to
the skin?
1. Alcohol
2. Phenol
3. Vinegar
4. Baking soda
3. Vinegar
First aid treatment of white phosphorus
burns with partially embedded particles
includes
1. wet dressings of copper sulfate
2. superficial debridement while flushing
with water
3. neutralization with a dilute vinegar
solution
4. neutralization with a dilute solution of
baking soda
1. wet dressings of copper sulfate
Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion
include a weak rapid pulse, nausea,
headache, and
1. constricted pupils
2. greatly increased body temperature
3. cool, moist, and clammy skin
4. flushed, red face
3. cool, moist, and clammy skin
The incidence of heat exposure injuries can
be minimized by all of the following
EXCEPT
1. education of personnel
2. environmental monitoring
3. daily salt tablets
4. maintenance of exhaust blowers and
vents
3. daily salt tablets
What is the most effective method of
rewarming a victim of hypothermia?
1. “Buddy warming”
2. Covering the victim with blankets or a
sleeping bag
3. Hot water bottles at the neck, armpits,
groin, and the chest
4. Immersion in a tub of warm water
4. Immersion in a tub of warm water
An antiseptic emollient cream should be
applied to which, if any, of the following
cold injuries?
1. Chilblain
2. Immersion foot
3. All frostbites
4. None of the above. Cold injuries
should be kept dry
4. None of the above. Cold injuries
should be kept dry
For which, if any, of the following reasons
should a frostbite injury remain frozen?
1. To minimize the severity of pain
2. Where there is a possibility of
refreezing
3. To prevent shock
4. Never. Frostbite should always be
rewarmed as quickly as possible
2. Where there is a possibility of
refreezing
Which of the following is/are a
recommended step(s) in treating deep
frostbite?
1. Slowly rewarm frozen areas
2. Break blisters to speed healing
3. Gently rub injured areas to promote
blood circulation
4. Comfort victim with hot tea or coffee
1. Slowly rewarm frozen areas
Reversal of a syncopal episode can often be
accomplished by what action?
1. Sitting with the head between the
knees
2. Sitting upright
3. Lying down with the head and
shoulders slightly elevated
4. Lying down in the reverse shock
position
1. Sitting with the head between the
knees
Which of the following methods is the
quickest and easiest way of determining if
an unconscious person is a diabetic?
1. Check for signs of ketoacidosis
2. Determine blood sugar levels
3. Look for signs of insulin use
4. Search for a Medic Alert tag, bracelet,
or card
4. Search for a Medic Alert tag, bracelet,
or card
Of the following actions, which is the
immediate treatment for insulin shock?
1. Administer an injection of insulin
2. Place sugar under the victim’s tongue
3. Start an intravenous solution of normal
saline
4. Administer oxygen
2. Place sugar under the victim’s tongue
In addition to monitoring vital signs and
making the patient comfortable, treatment
for a stroke includes which of the following
procedures?
1. Administering analgesics to relieve
pain
2. Giving oxygen therapy
3. Giving a rapid infusion of a 5 percent
dextrose solution
4. Giving a 0.3cc injection of epinephrine
for vasoconstriction
2. Giving oxygen therapy
Initial first aid treatment for an attack of
angina pectoris includes reassurance,
monitoring of vital signs, and
1. initiating CPR
2. giving sublingual nitroglycerin
3. advise the patient to return to duty
when pain abates
4. giving a 0.3cc of epinephrine IM to
increase heart rate
2. giving sublingual nitroglycerin
First aid treatment for acute myocardial
infarction without cardiac arrest includes all
of the following EXCEPT
1. giving oxygen therapy
2. monitoring vital signs
3. starting an intravenous infusion of only
normal saline
4. transporting to a medical treatment
facility
2. monitoring vital signs
Proper first aid treatment for a patient
suffering a convulsive seizure episode
consists of which of the following
procedures?
1. Protecting the victim from injury
2. Immediately starting CPR
3. Muscle massage during periods of
rigidity
4. Injecting 75 to 100 mg of Demerol IM
to effect relaxation
1. Protecting the victim from injury
The most common psychiatric emergency
is probably the suicide gesture or attempt.
Basic treatment consists of all of the
following EXCEPT
1. presenting a calm and understanding
presence
2. leaving the victim alone to reflect on
his or her actions
3. assuming all suicide threats are real
4. treating self-inflicted wounds as any
other wound
2. leaving the victim alone to reflect on
his or her actions
When, during childbirth, the baby’s head
presents, why should you apply gentle
pressure to the head?
1. To prevent an explosive delivery
2. To avoid compressing the umbilical
cord
3. To compress the cord to stimulate the
infant’s vital function
4. To allow you time to suction the
mouth and nose of the infant
1. To prevent an explosive delivery
When should the infant’s mouth and nose
be suctioned?
1. If spontaneous respirations do not
occur
2. When the chin clears the vaginal canal
3. After the child has completely
emerged
4. After clamping and cutting the
umbilical cord
2. When the chin clears the vaginal canal
Emergency first aid treatment for a
prolapsed cord during childbirth includes
all of the following EXCEPT
1. decompressing the cord as much as
possible
2. giving oxygen therapy
3. placing the mother in the shock
position
4. clamping and cutting the umbilical
cord when it presents
1. decompressing the cord as much as
possible
If a prolapsed cord occurs, which of the
following actions should you take?
1. Give the mother oxygen
2. Place the mother in an extreme shock
position
3. Get medical assistance
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Poisoning is defined as contact with or
exposure to a toxic substance.
1. True
2. False
1. True
A patient presents with dilated pupils,
fever, dry skin, urinary retention, decreased
bowel sounds, and increased heart rate.
What toxidrome does this set of symptoms
suggest?
1. Narcotic
2. Anticholinergic
3. Withdrawal
4. Non-syndrome syndrome
2. Anticholinergic
Which of the following is the method of
choice for a Corpsman to use to induce
vomiting?
1. 15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac
2. 2 teaspoonfuls of dry mustard in water
3. 2 teaspoonfuls of an active charcoal
slurry
4. To tickle the back of the victim’s
throat
1. 15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac
Of the following, which is the most likely
area of damage in a victim who has
ingested a strong alkali?
1. Stomach
2. Esophagus
3. Liver
4. Colon
2. Esophagus
Treatment of a victim who ingested a
strong acid includes intravenous infusion
therapy and
1. inducing vomiting
2. diluting the stomach contents with
water
3. neutralizing the stomach contents with
a weak sodium bicarbonate solution
4. gastric lavage
2. diluting the stomach contents with
water
Which of the following substances, upon
ingestion, poses a threat of chemical or
aspiration pneumonia?
1. Acid compounds
2. Alkali compounds
3. Petroleum distillates
4. Any of the above
4. Any of the above
If you are unable to reach the poison
control center or a physician for specific
instructions, how should you treat a victim
who has ingested turpentine?
1. Induce vomiting and observe
2. Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil
orally
3. Neutralize the poison with vinegar and
water
4. Give 1 to 2 tablespoonfuls of milk of
magnesia
2. Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil
orally
Of the following, which, if any, is
considered the most common agent in
inhalation poisoning?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Freon
4. None of the above
2. Carbon monoxide
Treatment for an inhalation poisoning
victim includes all of the following
EXCEPT
1. removal from the contaminated
atmosphere
2. administration of oxygen
3. administration of stimulants
4. treatment for shock
3. administration of stimulants
A patient presents exhibiting signs of
anaphylactic reaction to a bee or wasp
sting. Of the following, which is NOT
considered appropriate treatment?
1. Removal of patient’s jewelry
2. Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine
3. Warm packs over the sting site
4. Removal of the stinger by scraping
with a dull knife
3. Warm packs over the sting site
The victim of a scorpion sting may safely
be given any of the following
pharmaceuticals EXCEPT
1. Demerol or morphine
2. Calcium gluconate
3. Valium
4. All the above are acceptable
1. Demerol or morphine
Excision and corticosterod therapy is early
treatment for the bite of which of the
following?
1. Scorpions
2. Black widow spiders
3. Brown recluse spiders
4. Snakes
3. Brown recluse spiders
What is the key identifying feature of the
coral snake that distinguishes it from other
snakes with similar markings?
1. The yellow band is always next to the
red band
2. The red band is always next to the
black band
3. It has a distinctive bite pattern
4. It has deep pits below the eyes
1. The yellow band is always next to the
red band
On patrol, a member of your unit receives a
rattlesnake bite just below the elbow. What
first aid treatment should you perform?
1. Place a tourniquet 1 inch proximal to
the bite site
2. Place a constricting band 2 inches
proximal to the bite site
3. Place a constricting band 2 inches
distal to the bite site below the elbow
4. Both 2 and 3 above
2. Place a constricting band 2 inches
proximal to the bite site
Jellyfish nematocysts can be neutralized
with which of the following substances?
1. Formalin
2. Dilute ammonia
3. Vinegar
4. Any of the above
3. Vinegar
The most widely abused drug(s) is/are
1. ethanol
2. opiates
3. barbiturates
4. amphetamines
1. ethanol
Signs and symptoms of stimulant
intoxication include all of the following
EXCEPT
1. hyperactivity
2. increased appetite
3. dilated pupils
4. increased body temperature
2. increased appetite
Marijuana falls into which of the following
categories of drugs?
1. Barbiturate
2. Physically addicting
3. Hallucinogen
4. Harmless
3. Hallucinogen
Persons who regularly abuse inhalants risk
which of the following injuries?
1. Severe brain damage
2. Damaged internal organs
3. Death
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
In caring for drug-intoxicated persons, the
Corpsman should perform what actions as
his/her first priority?
1. Check for an adequate airway
2. Keep the victim awake
3. Induce vomiting if the victim is awake
4. Transport to a medical facility
1. Check for an adequate airway
Level Health Hazard
0 Little or none
1 and 2 Slight
3 Extreme
4 Deadly
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-72 AND
4-73, REFER TO THE TABLE ABOVE.
MATCH THE TOXICITY LEVEL WITH
THE PROTECTION LEVEL REQUIRED,
AS DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION.
Full body protection and sealed equipment.
1. 0
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 and 4
4. 4 only
3. 3 and 4
The Corpsman should give special attention
to which of the following requirements
while working in the command sub-zone?
1. Work in low geographic areas to avoid
toxic fumes
2. Decontaminate victims and equipment
outside of the hazard zone
3. Stay upwind and upgrade of the
incident site
4. Collect a sample of the hazardous
material for later examination
3. Stay upwind and upgrade of the
incident site
What patient decontamination procedure is
the most frequently used?
1. Absorption
2. Chemical wash
3. Dilution
4. Disposal and isolation
3. Dilution
The actual title of the “blue bible” of
pharmacology is
1. the Physicians’ Desk Reference
2. The United States Pharmacopoeia and
National Formulary (USP-NF)
3. the Pharmacological Basis of
Therapeutics
4. Remington’s Pharmaceutical Sciences
3. the Pharmacological Basis of
Therapeutics
The most common factor influencing the
amount of drug given to a patient is
1. weight
2. gender
3. age
4. route of administration
1. weight
What would be the proper dose in
milliliters of ampicillin for an 8-year old
child if the adult dose is 15 ml?
1. 2
2. 6
3. 9
4. 15
3. 9
What is the name of the rule used to
determine appropriate dosage of medication
based on a child’s weight?
1. Young’s Rule
2. Clark’s Rule
3. Rule of Nines
4. Minimum Rule
2. Clark’s Rule
Determine the appropriate dose in
milligrams of medication for a child
weighing 30 pounds if the average dose for
an adult dose is 600 mg.
1. 50
2. 100
3. 120
4. 150
3. 120
In computing the amount of drug to be
given to an underweight female, what
adjustments to the normal dosage would
ordinarily be made?
1. Increase the dosage because of her
weight and further increase because of
her sex
2. Increase of dosage because of her
weight but decrease because of her sex
3. Decrease of dosage because of her sex
and further decrease because of her
weight
4. Decrease of dosage because of her sex
but an increase because of her weight
3. Decrease of dosage because of her sex
and further decrease because of her
weight
A drug given repeatedly to a patient often
has to be increased in dosage to maintain
the desired effect. The need for a larger
dose is probably caused by
1. an acquired tolerance from habitual
use
2. an abnormal sensitivity
3. a cumulative effect from habitual use
4. an individual idiosyncrasy
1. an acquired tolerance from habitual
use
The most common method of administering
medications is
1. orally
2. parentally
3. topically
4. intravenously
1. orally
Which of the following is an example of a
drug injected intradermally?
1. Insulin
2. Procaine hydrocloride
3. Purified protein derivative
4. 2 or 3 above
3. Purified protein derivative
Which of the following is NOT a way in
which drugs are grouped?
1. By chemical characteristics
2. By their brand names
3. By their source
4. By their action on the body
2. By their brand names
Which of the following is a characteristic
side effect of antihistamines?
1. Nausea
2. Drowsiness
3. Uricaria
4. Tinnitis
2. Drowsiness
Agents that inhibit the growth of
microorganisms without necessarily killing
them are known as
1. germicides
2. fungicides
3. antiseptics
4. astringents
2. fungicides
The drug group most often used to treat
dyspepsia is
1. emollients
2. astringents
3. antacids
4. adsorbents
3. antacids
Patients sensitive to penicillin may also
exhibit sensitivity to cephalosporins.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Milk or milk products may interfere with
the absorption of which of the following
drugs?
1. Cephalexin (Keflex)
2. Tetracycline hydrochloride
3. Streptomycin sulfate
4. Erthromycin
2. Tetracycline hydrochloride
Macrolides are effective against which of
the following organisms?
1. Gram-positive cocci
2. Dermatophytes
3. Parasites
4. Gram-negative
1. Gram-positive cocci
Supplemental potassium may be required
with which of the following categories of
drugs?
1. Anti-inflammatories
2. Antidiahrreals
3. Antipyretics
4. Diuretics
4. Diuretics
The two most important opium alkaloids
are morphine and
1. paraldehyde
2. codeine
3. meperidine
4. cocaine
2. codeine
Water-soluable vitamins are not excreted in
the urine and are stored in the body in
moderate amounts.
1. True
2. False
2. False
As used in the Navy, what is the primary
purpose of biological agents?
1. Diagnosis
2. Resuscitation
3. Immunization
4. Pest control
3. Immunization
Which of the following organizations is
responsible for the licensing of biological
agents?
1. Secretary of the Navy
2. Public Health Service
3. American Medical Association
4. Secretary of the Treasury
4. Secretary of the Treasury
With which of the following is the yellow
fever vaccine reconstituted?
1. Sterile water, USP
2. Triple distilled water, USP
3. Sterile, 5% dextrose in water, USP
4. Sterile sodium chloride injection, USP
4. Sterile sodium chloride injection, USP
Which of the following vaccines should not
be administered to individuals who are
sensitive to egg products?
1. Smallpox
2. Plague
3. Influenza
4. Anthrax
3. Influenza
A poison that is introduced into the body in
one location and affects the body in another
location is displaying what effect?
1. Local
2. Remote
3. Cumulative
4. Inhibiting
2. Remote
The correct abbreviations for the metric
system of primary units of measure for
weight, volume, and linear dimensions are
1. gr, 1, cm
2. gr, ml, m
3. g, 1, m
4. g, l, cm
3. g, 1, m
Which of the following is equal to one onehundredth
of a liter?
1. Dekaliter
2. Deciliter
3. Centiliter
4. Milliliter
3. Centiliter
The basic unit of weight in the apothecary
system is the
1. gram
2. grain
3. dram
4. milliliter
2. grain
Of the following types of pharmaceutical
preparations, which incorporates finely
powdered medicinal substances into a fatty
base?
1. Lotion
2. Suspension
3. Ointment
4. Elixir
3. Ointment
All pharmacies that dispense medications
are required to have what Class balance?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
What drug incompatibility occurs when
agents antagonistic to one another are
prescribed together?
1. Therapeutic
2. Physical
3. Chemical
4. 1 and 3 above
1. Therapeutic
Eutexia is an example of what type of drug
incompatibility manifestation?
1. Chemical
2. Physical
3. Therapeutic
4. 2 and 3 above
2. Physical
A properly administered drug dosage that
has an unintended and noxious effect on the
patient is the definition of which of the
following terms?
1. Contraindication
2. Drug interaction
3. Adverse reaction
4. Therapeutic incompatibility
3. Adverse reaction
In the prescription block of DD 1289, what
part lists the names and quantities of the
ingredients prescribed?
1. Superscription
2. Inscription
3. Subscription
4. Signa
2. Inscription
If, in the course of filling a prescription,
you feel that there may be a discrepancy or
incompatibility, you should take which of
the following actions?
1. Let the patient know that you
discovered an error and will be
checking with the prescriber before
filling the prescription
2. Consult the prescriber to verify the
prescription
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Fill the prescription as written
2. Consult the prescriber to verify the
prescription
Which of the following is a schedule III
drug?
1. Marijuana
2. An antitussive
3. Amphetamines
4. Nonbarbiturate sedative
4. Nonbarbiturate sedative
What schedule of drug can never be
ordered with refills?
1. II
2. III
3. IV
4. V
1. II
Which of the following is a
bronchomucotropic agent?
1. Petrolatum
2. Guaifenesin
3. Benzoate
4. Phenol
2. Guaifenesin
Aluminum acetate, an astringent, is often
used to treat which of the following
conditions listed below?
1. Athlete’s foot
2. External otitis
3. Poison ivy
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
In conjunction with antacids, which of the
following is used to treat duodenal ulcers?
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
3. Ranitidine
4. Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride
3. Ranitidine
Which of the following drugs is
administered to control motion sickness?
1. Cimetidine
2. Meclizine hydrochloride
3. Chlorpheniramine maleate
4. Dephenhydramine hydrochloride
2. Meclizine hydrochloride
In addition to being an antacid, magnesium
hydroxide may be used as a/an
1. emollient
2. laxative
3. demulcent
4. astringent
2. laxative
Which of the following is an ideal
emollient to protect sensitive skin from the
sun?
1. Theobroma oil
2. Lanolin
3. Zinc oxide ointment
4. Aluminum acetate
3. Zinc oxide ointment
The standard by which all other antiseptics
are measured is
1. betadine
2. phenol
3. isopropyl alcohol
4. hexachlorophene
2. phenol
An accidential spill of phenol can be
neutralized by
1. water
2. silver nitrate
3. hydrogen peroxide
4. alcohol
4. alcohol
The primary pharmacological action of
sulfonimides is
1. viricidal
2. parasiticidal
3. bacteriostatic
4. fungistatic
3. bacteriostatic
The most common use for systemic
sulfonamides is in the treatment of which of
the conditions listed below?
1. Respiratory infections
2. Urinary tract infections
3. Viral infections
4. Furunculosis
2. Urinary tract infections
Silver sulfadiazine is used almost
exclusively in the treatment of
1. surgical wound sepsis
2. burns
3. prostatitis
4. furunculosis
2. burns
Which of the following is for parenteral
administration only?
1. Dicloxicillin
2. Ampicillin
3. Penicillin V
4. Penicillin G
4. Penicillin G
The drug of choice for uncomplicated
group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal
pharyngitis is
1. Penicillin V potassium
2. Nafcillin
3. Ampicillin
4. Dicloxicillin
1. Penicillin V potassium
Severe colitis and diarrhea may be adverse
side effects of which of the following?
1. Neomycin sulfate
2. Gentamicin sulfate
3. Penicillin G benzathene
4. Clindamycin hydrochloride
4. Clindamycin hydrochloride
Which of the following is an appropriate
substitute for penicillin when penicillin is
contraindicated?
1. Doxycycline
2. Cephalexin
3. Erythromycin
4. Streptomycin
3. Erythromycin
Of the following drugs, which was
developed with the sole purpose being the
treatment of gonorrhea?
1. Penicillin G benzathene
2. Nitrofurantoin
3. Spectinomycin hydrochloride
4. Doxycycline hyclate
3. Spectinomycin hydrochloride
Undeclyenic acid is used as a/an
1. disinfectant
2. antipyretic
3. analgesic
4. fungicide
4. fungicide
In addition to the treatment of Phthirus,
which of the following is effective in the
treatment of scabies?
1. Nystatin
2. Miconazole nitrate
3. Permethrin
4. Metronidazole
3. Permethrin
Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with
1. crotamiton
2. metronidazole
3. fansidar
4. mebendazole
2. metronidazole
Drugs that destroy parasitic worms are
known as
1. ambecides
2. vermicides
3. germicides
4. bactericides
1. ambecides
The drug of choice for the treatment and
management of grand mal seizures is
1. methylphenidate hydrochloride
2. phenobarbital
3. phenytoin sodium
4. any psychotropic agent
3. phenytoin sodium
Prochlorperizine is used mainly to
1. treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting
2. alleviate symptoms of tension,
agitation, and psychosis
3. counteract the effects of alcohol
withdrawal
4. relieve respiratory distress
1. treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting
Muscle relaxants include all of the
following EXCEPT
1. methocarbamol
2. diazepam
3. cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride
4. temazepam
4. temazepam
Digitoxin increases the force of cardiac
contraction by acting on the
1. vagus nerve
2. valves of the heart
3. heart muscle
4. blood vessels
3. heart muscle
Of the following, which is an appropriate
drug to administer to a patient suffering an
asthma attack?
1. Amyl nitrite
2. Epinephrine
3. Phenylephrine hydrochloride
4. Atropine
2. Epinephrine
The vitamin deficiency associated with
night blindness is
1. vitamin A
2. vitamin B6
3. vitamin Bl2
4. vitamin K
1. vitamin A
A deficiency of which of the following
could lead to inflammation, cracking of the
lips, or vision problems?
1. Retinol
2. Thiamine
3. Riboflavin
4. Ascorbic acid
3. Riboflavin
Which of the following is the vitamin
involved in absorption and use of calcium
and phosphorus?
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin D
The agent used to treat pernicious anemia is
1. cyanocobalamin
2. ascorbic acid
3. vitamin D
4. vitamin K
1. cyanocobalamin (AKA Vitamin B12)
The general anesthesia agent most
commonly used in dentistry is
1. halothane
2. nitrous oxide
3. lidocaine hydrochloride
4. procaine hydrochloride
2. nitrous oxide
On what area of the body is proparacaine
hydrochloride most widely used as a topical
anesthetic?
1. Nose
2. Ears
3. Eyes
4. Throat
3. Eyes
Which of the following, if any, is
considered the most appropriate source for
blood specimens obtained for clinical
examination?
1. By venipuncture
2. By finger puncture
3. From an artery
4. None of the above
1. By venipuncture
Using the steps below, determine the
correct sequence for obtaining blood by
finger puncture.
a. Clean finger
b. Lance finger
c. Milk finger
d. Collect specimen
e. Wipe away first drop
1. a, b, c, e, d
When performing a finger puncture, the
first drop should be wiped away to avoid
which of the following conditions?
1. Bacterial contamination
2. Clotting at the puncture site
3. Dilution of the specimen with alcohol
4. Dilution of the specimen with tissue
fluids
4. Dilution of the specimen with tissue
fluids
How would a 5 ml blood specimen be
obtained from a patient with an intravenous
antibiotic being given through the left arm
and blood being received through the right
arm?
1. Multiple finger punctures
2. Left arm
3. Right arm
4. Hand or foot
4. Hand or foot
A tourniquet applied to the arm during
venipuncture should provide enough
tension to compress the artery, but not the
vein.
1. True
2. False
2. False
The correct needle position for
venipuncture is (a) what degree angle and
(b) with the bevel in what position?
1. (a) 15, (b) up
2. (a) 30, (b) up
3. (a) 15, (b) down
4. (a) 30, (b) down
1. (a) 15, (b) up
A tourniquet is normally applied before and
to aid in the process of venipuncture. At
what point in the venipuncture procedure
should you remove the tourniquet?
1. Just before needle insertion
2. Just after needle insertion, but before
vacutainer
3. Once all specimens have been
collected
4. After needle removal
2. Just after needle insertion, but before
vacutainer
The part of the microscope on which the
prepared specimen is placed for
examination is called the
1. arm
2. base
3. frame
4. stage
4. stage
All of the following are components of the
microscope’s illumination system EXCEPT
1. internal light source
2. condenser
3. external light source
4. iris diaphragm
3. external light source
The total magnification available by using
the lens color coded red is
1. 1000X
2. 450X
3. 100X
4. 10X
1. 1000X
Light travels from the objective to the
ocular lens through what component of the
microscope?
1. Body tube
2. Iris diaphragm
3. High-powered lens
4. Revolving nosepiece
1. Body tube
What objective should be used for a
detailed study of stained bacterial smears?
1. Low power
2. High dry
3. Oil immersion
4. Either 2 or 3 above
4. Either 2 or 3 above
If necessary, which, if any, of the following
substances may be used for cleaning the
lenses on a microscope?
1. Alcohol
2. Bleach
3. Xylene
4. None of the above
3. Xylene
A CBC includes which of the following?
1. Total RBC count
2. Hematocrit
3. Differential WBC count
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
The hemacytometer is designed primarily
for what purpose?
1. To differentiate between red blood
cells and white blood cells
2. To count white blood cells
3. To count red blood cells
4. Both 2 and 3
4. Both 2 and 3
The main reason for using the cover glass
included with the hemacytometer instead of
an ordinary cover glass is because the
hemacytometer cover glass
1. is clearer
2. has an even surface
3. is thicker
4. is less likely to break
2. has an even surface
A subnormal RBC count may indicate that
the patient has which of the following listed
conditions?
1. Leukopenia
2. Anemia
3. Dehydration
4. Uremia
2. Anemia
What is the total capacity of the capillary
pipette provided in a Unopette® for RBC
count?
1. 0.5μl
2. 1.0μl
3. 10.0μl
4. 100.0μl
3. 10.0μl
Which of the following conditions indicates
that the counting chamber is properly
loaded?
1. There is a thin, even film of fluid
under the coverglass
2. The fluid flows into the grooves at the
edges of the chamber
3. Air bubbles are seen in the field
4. The chamber is flooded
1. There is a thin, even film of fluid
under the coverglass
What objective should be used for counting
RBCs?
1. Low power
2. High power
3. Oil immersion
4. High dry
4. High dry
When counting cells, to arrive at a correct
count, the cells touching the lines on
the_______ and ________are counted in
addition to all cells totally within each
square.
1. Left, top
2. Left, bottom
3. Right, top
4. Right, bottom
1. Left, top
To arrive at the number of RBCs per mm3 ,
total the number of cells counted in the five
fields and multiply by
1. 0.1
2. 10.0
3. 100.0
4. 10,000.0
4. 10,000.0
Which of the following factors affect
hemoglobin values?
1. Age
2. Sex
3. Altitude
4. All the above
4. All the above
Both the number of squares and the
counting procedure for WBCs is the same
as it is for RBCs.
1. True
2. False
2. False
What is the term used for the volume of
erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of
the volume of whole blood in a sample?
1. Hematocrit
2. Hemoglobin
3. Red blood count
4. Complete blood cell count
1. Hematocrit
The hematocrit for a normal, healthy
female is within what range?
1. 30 to 40 percent
2. 37 to 47 percent
3. 42 to 50 percent
4. 44 to 52 percent
2. 37 to 47 percent
A shift from leukocytosis toward
leukopenia in a patient with a systemic
bacterial infection is a good sign.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Select from those listed below the term
used to describe an abnormally high WBC
count.
1. Leukocytosis
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Leukopenia
4. Pancytopenia
1. Leukocytosis
Which of the following conditions may
cause leukopenia?
1. Strep throat
2. Psittacosis
3. Anaphylactic shock
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
To arrive at the number of white cells per
mm3 of blood, total the number of cells
counted in the four fields and multiply by
1. 0.5
2. 5.0
3. 50.0
4. 5000.0
3. 50.0
A differential blood count is the percentage
of distribution in the blood of which of the
following types of cells?
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Leukocytes
4. Erythrocytes
3. Leukocytes
What is the function of leukocytes?
1. To carry oxygen through the blood
2. To control various disease conditions
3. To aid in clotting the blood
4. Each of the above
2. To control various disease conditions
What type of leukocyte comprises the
largest percentage of cells in the circulating
blood?
1. Lymphocyte
2. Neutrophil
3. Erythocyte
4. Thrombocyte
2. Neutrophil
When viewing a smear for a differential
count, you identify the cells with the large,
scattered dark blue granules that are darker
than their nuclei as
1. lymphocytes
2. monocytes
3. basophils
4. neutrophils
3. basophils
The largest of the normal WBCs is the
1. monocyte
2. lymphocyte
3. eosinophil
4. basophil
1. monocyte
On a properly prepared slide for a
differential count, the smear will
1. extend from one side of the slide to the
other
2. be evenly distributed on the entire
slide
3. show no wavy or blank spots
4. show smooth even edges
2. be evenly distributed on the entire
slide
Properly prepared differential slides require
a longer rinse time than stain time.
1. True
2. False
2. False
If a smear used in a differential count is to
be saved for reexamination, remove the
immersion oil by placing a piece of lens
tissue over the slide and moistening the
tissue with
1. alcohol
2. water
3. xylene
4. acetone
3. xylene
A continued shift to the left with a falling
total WBC count probably indicates
1. progress toward normal recovery
2. a decrease in immature neutrophils
3. a breakdown of the body’s defense
mechanism and is a poor prognosis
4. a decrease in parasitic and allergenic
conditions
3. a breakdown of the body’s defense
mechanism and is a poor prognosis
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection
C. Breakdown of the
body’s defense
D. Active tuberculosis
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH
6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY
CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC
CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION.
Increased eosinophils.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection
C. Breakdown of the
body’s defense
D. Active tuberculosis
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH
6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY
CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC
CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION.
Increased monocytes.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection
C. Breakdown of the
body’s defense
D. Active tuberculosis
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH
6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY
CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC
CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION.
Decreased WBC count with increased
juvenile cells.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection
C. Breakdown of the
body’s defense
D. Active tuberculosis
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH
6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY
CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC
CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION.
Decreased WBC count with increased
mature cells.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
All of the following are classifications of
bacteria EXCEPT
1. Temperature and moisture content
2. Growth requirements and morphologic
characteristics
3. Toxins produced and diseaseproducing
ability
4. Gram’s stain reaction and colonial
morphology
1. Temperature and moisture content
The difference between anaerobes and
aerobes is that anaerobes need oxygen to
reproduce.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Autotrophic bacteria require an
environment that supplies them with
nourishment.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Which of the following structures provides
some bacteria with a means of movement?
1. Capsule
2. Spore
3. Spirillum
4. Flagellum
4. Flagellum
What type of bacterial toxin completely
lyses erythrocytes?
1. Exotoxin
2. Endotoxin
3. Beta hemolysin
4. Alpha hemolysin
3. Beta hemolysin
A. Impetigo
B. Plague
C. Pneumonia
D. Gas gangrene
E. Strep throat
F. Whooping cough
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY
THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION
Bordetella pertussis.
1. A
2. C
3. E
4. F
4. F
A. Impetigo
B. Plague
C. Pneumonia
D. Gas gangrene
E. Strep throat
F. Whooping cough
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY
THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. E
3. C
A. Impetigo
B. Plague
C. Pneumonia
D. Gas gangrene
E. Strep throat
F. Whooping cough
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY
THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION
Yersinia pestis.
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
1. B
A. Impetigo
B. Plague
C. Pneumonia
D. Gas gangrene
E. Strep throat
F. Whooping cough
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY
THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION.
Clostridium perfringens.
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. F
3. D
A. Impetigo
B. Plague
C. Pneumonia
D. Gas gangrene
E. Strep throat
F. Whooping cough
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY
THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION.
Staphylococcus aureus.
1. A
2. D
3. E
4. F
1. A
In the Gram’s stain procedure, which of the
following chemicals acts as the mordant?
1. Crystal violet
2. Safranin
3. Iodine
4. Acetone
3. Iodine
All of the following statements are true
about antigens EXCEPT that an antigen
1. is inherently unstable structurally
2. must be foreign to the body
3. possesses a high molecular weight
4. has a high specificity to stimulate
tissues to produce antibodies
1. is inherently unstable structurally
The Rapid Plasma Reagin test for syphilis
is best used with what type of specimen?
1. Serum
2. Plasma
3. Whole blood
4. Either serum or plasma
1. Serum
To properly perform the RPR Card Test,
the serum sample should be from arterial
blood that has been separated from the
blood cells as soon after collection as
possible.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following actions is
considered appropriate if a patient’s RPR is
reactive?
1. Give patient penicillin
2. Send patient to lab for further testing
3. Counsel patient against engaging in
unsafe sex
4. Report results of RPR to patient’s
commanding officer
2. Send patient to lab for further testing
Which of the following chemical
preparations is frequently used to detect
fungi?
1. Hydrogen sulfoxide
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Potassium hydroxide
4. Potassium sulfate
3. Potassium hydroxide
The best urine specimen is that taken
during which of the following times?
1. First morning
2. Random
3. Fasting
4. 24 hour
1. First morning
For a 24-hour urine specimen collection,
which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
1. Discard the first specimen
2. Add a preservative after the first
specimen has been obtained
3. Discard the last specimen
4. Refrigerate the specimen during the
collection period
3. Discard the last specimen
What purpose does toluene serve when
used in conjunction with a urine specimen?
1. It increases the albumin
2. It dissolves unwanted cells
3. It protects the specimen from
decomposition
4. It dissolves the albumin
3. It protects the specimen from
decomposition
Which of the following colors would be
considered abnormal in a urine specimen?
1. Colorless
2. Amber
3. Straw
4. Red
4. Red
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Fats (chyle)
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT
THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE
COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION.
Milky.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Fats (chyle)
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT
THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE
COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION.
Dark orange.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Fats (chyle)
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT
THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE
COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION.
Red-brown.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Fats (chyle)
TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67,
SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE
MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT
THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE
COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION.
Brown.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A report on urine transparency is valid
regardless of standing time.
1. True
2. False
2. False
The specific gravity of a liquid or solid is
the weight of the substance as compared to
an equal volume of
1. ethanol
2. methanol
3. distilled water
4. normal saline
3. distilled water
In the microscopic examination of urine
sediment, scan the slide using the low per
objective and examine it in detail using
which of the following objectives?
1. Low power
2. High dry
3. High power
4. Oil immersion
3. High power
The addition of one drop of 5 percent acetic
acid to urine sediment will disintegrate
1. white blood cells
2. mucous threads
3. casts
4. red blood cells
4. red blood cells
There are seven types of casts or sediments
found in urine. Of the four listed below,
which may be attributed to lupus?
1. Red cell casts
2. Fatty casts
3. Granular casts
4. Epithelial casts
2. Fatty casts
Who is responsible for area decontamination
of chemical agents aboard ship?
1. Medical officer
2. Supply officer
3. Damage control personnel
4. All hands
4. All hands
What should be the first priority in the
treatment of chemically contaminated
casualties?
1. Control of massive hemorrhage
2. Decontamination
3. Treatment of life-threatening shock
and wounds
4. Removal of contaminated clothing
1. Control of massive hemorrhage
Who, if anyone, is responsible for
maintaining adequate supplies for the
decontamination and treatment of CBR
casualties?
1. Medical officer
2. Damage control officer
3. Supply officer
4. No one
1. Medical officer
Nerve agents produce their effect by
interfacing with normal transmission of
nerve impulses.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The tendency of a chemical agent to
remain effective in a contaminated area is
known as
1. lethality
2. persistency
3. volatility
4. permeability
2. persistency
Inhalation of nerve gas characteristically
results in which of the symptoms listed
below?
1. Local muscular twitching
2. Dry mouth
3. Pinpoint pupils
4. Pulmonary edema
3. Pinpoint pupils
In a definitive care facility, the indicated
treatment of a nerve agent victim includes
which of the following therapies?
1. 2 mg atropine and 600 mg 2-PAM
chloride every 15 minutes until
recovery
2. 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until
the victim has a dry mouth and mild
tachycardia
3. 600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15
minutes until the victim is conscious
4. Respiratory support only
2. 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until
the victim has a dry mouth and mild
tachycardia
What part of the body is most sensitive to
the effects of mustard gases?
1. Eyes
2. Lungs
3. Liver
4. Skin
1. Eyes
Specific antidotal therapy is available for
which, if any, of the following vesicants?
1. Mustard (HD)
2. Nitrogen mustard (HN)
3. Lewisite (L)
4. None of the above
3. Lewisite (L)
First aid treatment for blood agents is amyl
nitrite ampules followed by which of the
compounds listed below?
1. Oral potassium chloride
2. Oral sodium thiosulfate
3. Intravenous potassium chloride
4. Intravenous sodium thiosulfate
4. Intravenous sodium thiosulfate
The symbol for phosgene gas is
1. C1
2. CN
3. CG
4. CK
3. CG
Which of the following odors is an early
indication of exposure to phosgene gas in
casualty-producing amounts?
1. Bitter almonds
2. A freshly mown lawn
3. Geraniums
4. None of the above. Phosgene is
undetectable
2. A freshly mown lawn
Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to
blow across wide open eyes is generally
sufficient treatment for which of the
following agents?
1. Psychochemicals
2. Lacrimators
3. Vomiting agents
4. Glycolates
2. Lacrimators
With exposure to Adamsite, which, if any,
of the following actions must be taken to
minimize or inhibit the symptoms of
exposure?
1. Don a protective mask and continue
duties as vigorously as possible
2. Give an intramuscular injection of
physostigmine
3. Give an intravenous infusion of
sodium thiosulfate
4. Do none of the above
1. Don a protective mask and continue
duties as vigorously as possible
What is the proper treatment for burning
white phosphorus particles embedded in
the skin?
1. Surgical removal followed by a
copper sulfate wet dressing
2. A copper sulfate rinse then surgical
removal
3. A copper sulfate rinse only
4. Allowing them to burn out
2. A copper sulfate rinse then surgical
removal
By what means can biological agents can
be detected?
1. Physical senses
2. Chemical detectors
3. Laboratory examination
4. All of the above
3. Laboratory examination
When entering an area known to be
contaminated with biological agents,
which of the following actions should be
taken?
1. Put on gloves, if available
2. Button up clothing
3. Put on a protective mask
4. Do all of the above
4. Do all of the above
What is the appropriate procedure to
follow when biological agents are known
to have been placed in your drinking
water?
1. Double the amount of chlorine in the
water
2. Double the time the water is exposed
to the chlorine
3. Boil the water before you drink any of
it
4. Refrain from drinking the water
3. Boil the water before you drink any of
it
Presenting a serious internal radiation
hazard, alpha particles can enter the body
through which of the following?
1. The digestive system
2. The respiratory system
3. Open wounds
4. Any of the above
3. Open wounds
Of the following, which type of radiation
has the greatest penetrating power?
1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Gamma
4. Neutron
3. Gamma
In the event of a nuclear detonation, what
is the best position to assume?
1. Sitting, with the knees drawn up to the
chest, facing away from the blast
2. Face down, with your face covered
3. On your side, in a fetal position facing
away from the blast
4. Supine, with your face covered
2. Face down, with your face covered
The treatment of thermal burns from a
nuclear detonation differs from more
conventional burn wounds in which, if any,
of the following ways?
1. Conventional burn wounds are
generally less serious
2. Conventional burn wounds are more
likely to become infected
3. Burns resulting from a nuclear
detonation are more painful
4. There is no difference
4. There is no difference
When using antibiotics for victims of
radiation injuries, what is the
recommended dosage?
1. One-half of the normal dosage
2. The normal dosage
3. Two times the normal dosage
4. Three times the normal dosage
4. Three times the normal dosage
Approximately what number of calories
must be burned or consumed for the
average individual to lose or gain one
pound?
1. 1,500
2. 2,000
3. 3,500
4. 5,000
3. 3,500
Which of the following nutritive elements
are considered the "building blocks" of the
body?
1. Fats
2. Carbohydrates
3. Minerals
4. Proteins
4. Proteins
What happens to protein consumed that is
in excess of body requirements?
1. Used to supply energy only
2. Changed into fat only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Excreted from the body through
elimination
3. Both 1 and 2
What total number of amino acids are
obtained solely from the food we eat?
1. 3
2. 7
3. 9
4. 11
3. 9
What amount of protein should a nonpregnant
person consume on a daily basis?
1. 0.8 g/kg
2. 1.2 g/kg
3. 2.2 lbs
4. There is no specific recommended
amount
1. 0.8 g/kg
What amount of protein should a nonpregnant
person consume on a daily basis?
1. 0.8 g/kg
2. 1.2 g/kg
3. 2.2 lbs
4. There is no specific recommended
amount
1. 0.8 g/kg
Protein deficiency can result in which of
the following conditions?
1. Nutritional edema
2. Secondary anemia
3. Restricted growth
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The number of calories generated by each
gram of protein, fat, and carbohydrate,
respectively is
1. 3, 6, 4
2. 4, 9, 4
3. 6, 3, 9
4. 9, 4, 6
2. 4, 9, 4
The serum cholesterol level of adults over
the age of 30 should be less than
1. 100 mg/dl
2. 150 mg/dl
3. 200 mg/dl
4. 300 mg/dl
3. 200 mg/dl
Refined and processed sugars should make
up no more than what percent of an
individual’s total caloric intake?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20
2. 10
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Fats
FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE
ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD
IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS
TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT
PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.
Fish.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Fats
FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE
ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD
IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS
TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT
PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.
Honey.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Fats
FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE
ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD
IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS
TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT
PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.
Butter.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Fats
FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE
ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD
IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS
TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT
PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.
Eggs.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Fats
FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE
ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD
IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS
TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT
PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.
Corn.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
An otherwise normal, healthy diet is
always sufficient to provide an individual
with adequate levels of minerals.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Consumption of excessive amounts of
certain vitamins can, in some
circumstances, be fatal.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following is sometimes
referred to as "the forgotten nutrient"?
1. Selenium
2. Phosphorus
3. Water
4. Fructose
3. Water
According to the Dietary Guidelines for
Americans, upon which of the following
dietary elements should a nutritional diet
be based?
1. Fruits and vegetables
2. Complex carbohydrates
3. Fats
4. Dairy
2. Complex carbohydrates
Fried foods, as long as they are not too
crisp, may be included in a soft diet.
1. True
2. False
2. False
When a liquid diet has been ordered by the
attending physician or dietician, the
feedings should be ____ ounces and
administered every ____ hours.
1. 4-6, 3-4
2. 6-8, 2-3
3. 8-10, 6-8
4. 10-12, 2-3
2. 6-8, 2-3
A high-calorie diet may be effected by
modifying the regular diet in which of the
following ways?
1. Adding snacks
2. Increasing portions
3. Providing commercial supplements
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie
C. High-protein
D. Low-calorie
E. Low-protein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION
Malnourishment.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie
C. High-protein
D. Low-calorie
E. Low-protein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION
Hypothyroidism.
1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B
2. D
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie
C. High-protein
D. Low-calorie
E. Low-protein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION
Inflammatory GI tract.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie
C. High-protein
D. Low-calorie
E. Low-protein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION
Low production of antibodies.
1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B
3. C
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie
C. High-protein
D. Low-calorie
E. Low-protein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION.
Chronic nephrotic edema.
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
4. E
Which of the following is appropriate
procedure in the administration of a highresidue
diet?
1. Ensure adequate fluid intake
2. Limit caffeine intake
3. Provide raw or tender-cooked
vegetables
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue
C. Low-sodium
D. Bland
E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION.
Peptic ulcers.
1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B
2. D
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue
C. Low-sodium
D. Bland
Hypertension.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION.
1. A
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue
C. Low-sodium
D. Bland
E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION.
Hemorrhoidectomy.
1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B
4. B
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue
C. Low-sodium
D. Bland
E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION.
Hypoglycemia.
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
4. E
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue
C. Low-sodium
D. Bland
E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein
FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE
DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST
APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE
MALADY IN THE QUESTION.
Spastic colon.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
What is the most common cause of dental
caries?
1. Sugar
2. Lack of fluoridation
3. Infrequent dental examinations
4. Bacterial plaque
4. Bacterial plaque
Severe inflammation of the tooth pulp is
known as
1. acute pulpitis
2. periapical absess
3. marginal gingivitis
4. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
1. acute pulpitis
The most frequent cause of marginal
gingivitis is
1. bacteria
2. caries
3. poor oral hygiene
4. periodontitis
3. poor oral hygiene
What is the most frequent cause of
periodontal abscesses?
1. A virus
2. An infection
3. Poor oral hygiene
4. Prolonged irritation
2. An infection
An inflammation of the gingiva around a
partially erupted tooth is known as
1. periodontitis
2. periodontal abscess
3. stomatitis
4. pericoronitis
1. periodontitis
An inflammation of the oral mucosa is
called
1. periocoronitis
2. gingivitis
3. stomatitis
4. periodontitis
3. stomatitis
Labial herpes is an infection that results in
which of the following conditions?
1. Fever blisters
2. Gingivitis
3. Pericoronitis
4. All the above
1. Fever blisters
Excruciating, constant pain 3 days after a
tooth extraction indicates which of the
following conditions?
1. Hemorrhage
2. Osteitis
3. Stomatitis
4. Pericoronitis
2. Osteitis
The form used to record dental treatment is
the
1. SF 600
2. SF 602
3. EZ 603A
4. NAVMED 6150/20
3. EZ 603A
In addition to maintaining and promoting
good health, personal hygiene is important
for which of the following reasons?
1. Inhibits the spread of disease
2. Promotes good morale
3. Decreases the risk of disabling disease
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Preventive medicine procedures in the
Navy are addressed in detail in what
publication?
1. SECNAVINST 4061.1
2. NAVMED P-5010
3. NAVMED P-5038
4. Navy Supply Publication 486
2. NAVMED P-5010
Animals that carry disease and can
transmit those diseases to human or animal
hosts to cause illness or injury are called
1. pests
2. insects
3. vectors
4. rodents
3. vectors
Guidance as to appropriate food storage
temperatures, storage life of perishable and
semi-perishable food items, and safe time
limits for keeping food can be found in
which of the following publications?
1. SECNAVINST 4061.1
2. NAVMED P-5010
3. NAVMED P-5038
4. Navy Supply Publication 486
4. Navy Supply Publication 486
All Navy and Marine Corps food-service
facilities must be inspected by a medical
department representative and food-service
department representative.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Immunizations used within the Armed
Forces are required to meet standards set
forth by which of the following
organizations?
1. Food and Drug Administration
2. Department of Health and Human
Services
3. Centers for Disease Control
4. National Institutes of Health
2. Department of Health and Human
Services
Instructions for preparing and submitting
the Medical Event Report can be found in
which of the following publications?
1. SECNAVINST 4061.1
2. NAVMED P-5010
3. NAVMED P-5038
4. Navy Supply Publication 486
3. NAVMED P-5038
As long as it is clear, tastes good, and is
free from odor, water obtained in the field
can be considered to be potable.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Marine sanitation devices (MSDs) perform
what function(s) aboard ship?
1. Treat sewage before discharge into
restricted waters
2. Collect and hold sewage for treatment
3. Treat sewage before discharge into
unrestricted waters
4. Both 2 and 3
4. Both 2 and 3
Physical examinations of Navy and Marine
Corps personnel, whether active or reserve,
may be performed by which of the
following?
1. Navy medical officers
2. DoD physicians
3. Credentialed civilian contract
physicians
4. All the above
4. All the above
What entity is responsible for setting the
physical standards for entry into the U.S.
Navy?
1. Bureau of Naval Personnel
2. Department of Defense
3. Bureau of Naval Medicine
4. Chief of Naval Operations
2. Department of Defense
In which, if any, of the following
publications will you find the prescribed
intervals for periodic physical
examinations?
1. MILPERSMAN
2. NAVMED P-5010
3. NAVMED P-117
4. None of the above
4. None of the above (MANMED)
All of the following are functions of a
medical board EXCEPT
1. evaluating and reporting on diagnosis
2. selection of personnel for special duty
3. planning for treatment, rehabilitation,
or convalescence
4. estimating the length of further
disability
2. selection of personnel for special duty
Family member screening is required even
if a servicemember is accepting
unaccompanied orders to an overseas duty
station.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Medical surveillance examinations are
required for certain occupational fields or
certain skills or jobs; e.g., people who work
with beryllium or mercury. Specific
guidelines on what tests are required and
the frequency of those tests can be found in
1. BUMEDINST 5100.1
2. COMNAVMEDCOMINST 5100.46
3. OPNAVINST 5100.23
4. SECNAVINST 6200.2
3. OPNAVINST 5100.23
What report is used when a member is
expected to return to full duty status after
being placed on limited duty?
1. Limited Duty (LIMDU) Board
2. Formal Medical Board
3. Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty
(TLD) Medical Board
4. Physical Examination Board (PEB)
3. Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty
(TLD) Medical Board
Which of the following steps is appropriate
when a servicemember is found not fit for
duty after an initial TLD period of 6
months, but has a favorable prognosis and
is expected to be returned to duty within 4
more months?
1. Administrative separation
2. Extension of 4 months to his TLD
3. Initiation of a second and final 6-
month TLD
4. Formal medical board
3. Initiation of a second and final 6-
month TLD
What is the maximum length of time an
individual may be held on limited duty
without convening a formal board?
1. 8 months
2. 16 months
3. 1 year
4. 2 years
1. 8 months
Who is responsible for verifying the
content of a medical board?
1. The attending physician
2. The LIMDU Coordinator
3. The Patient Administration Limited
Duty Coordinator
4. The convening authority
2. The LIMDU Coordinator
A command endorsement is required on a
formal medical board.
1. True
2. False
1. True
A Sailor reports for her periodic physical
examination and states that no changes
have occurred in her medical status since
her last physical. What entry, if any, would
be appropriate to put in block 25 of her
SF 93, Report of Medical History?
1. "N/A"
2. "No changes"
3. "No significant interval history"
4. Nothing; leave block 25 blank
3. "No significant interval history"
One method for testing near visual acuity is
the
1. Snellen charts
2. Jaeger cards
3. Farnsworth lantern
4. pseudoisochromatic plates
2. Jaeger cards
The preferred method for testing color
vision is the
1. Snellen charts
2. Jaeger cards
3. Farnsworth lantern
4. pseudoisochromatic plates
3. Farnsworth lantern
EKGs are performed routinely as part of a
member’s physical examination once the
member reaches the age of 35.
1. True
2. False
2. False (40 yrs. old)
The health record of a military member
may be used for which of the following
purposes?
1. Aid in determining claims
2. Determine physical fitness
3. Provide data for medical statistics
4. Do all of the above
4. Do all of the above
Of the following, which is NOT considered
a major category of the primary medical
record?
1. DREC
2. HREC
3. IREC
4. OREC
1. DREC
Secondary medical records, which are held
separately from primary medical records,
are not normally opened or maintained for
active duty personnel. Under which of the
following circumstances may a secondary
medical record be established for an active
member?
1. The member is to undergo surgery
2. The member is to go TAD for medical
treatment
3. The member is under investigation for
domestic abuse
4. The member is AWOL
3. The member is under investigation for
domestic abuse
What information should be included on
the NAVMED 6150/20 of a member’s
primary medical record with respect to the
existence of a member’s secondary medical
record?
1. Nature of secondary record
2. Patient’s diagnosis
3. Clinic name, address, and phone
number
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Custody of health records is generally
vested in the medical department. On ships
without a medical department
representative, an individual retains custody
of the record until which of the following
times, if any?
1. Transfer
2. Transfer with verification every 6
months
3. Transfer with annual verification
4. Never
4. Never
Health records are for official use only but
are subject to inspection an any time by
1. the commanding officer or his or her
superior
2. authorized medical inspectors
3. the fleet medical officer
4. any of the above
1. the commanding officer or his or her
superior
When a member is hospitalized in a foreign
nation and the ship departs port, the health
record is
1. retained on board
2. turned over to the hospital
3. forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate
or embassy
4. turned over to another U.S. vessel in
port
2. turned over to the hospital
Although considered privileged, release of
information in the health record is required
under the Freedom of Information Act.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Under which of the following
circumstances may an individual’s medical
information be released to his authorized
representative(s)?
1. When verbally requested by the
individual
2. Upon request of the representative
when adequate proof of the
individual’s death can be provided
3. Upon proof that the individual has
been declared mentally incompetent
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
A well-known and preeminent research
group requests medical information to use
as part of the basis of a study it is
performing. What action, if any, should be
taken prior to release?
1. Commanding officer of MTF should
release information immediately
2. Commanding officer of MTF should
check with the Judge Advocate
General for advice
3. Commanding officer of MTC should
forward the request to BUMED for
guidance
4. None; an individual’s medical
information may not be released for
research
3. Commanding officer of MTC should
forward the request to BUMED for
guidance
The health record jacket of PO3 Walter T.
Door, 333-44-5555, would be what color?
1. Blue
2. Almond
3. Orange
4. Pink
1. Blue
A health record is only opened in which of
the following cases?
1. When a member returns to active duty
from the retired list
2. When the original record has been lost
3. When first becoming a member of the
naval service
4. In all the above cases
4. In all the above cases
In the record category box on the health
record jacket, all active duty military
records are identified by what color tape?
1. Blue
2. Black
3. Red
4. White
3. Red
The health jackets of flag or general
officers should be annotated to reflect their
rank.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When a HREC is opened on a service
member, the member should be directed to
read and sign the Privacy Act Statement
inside the back cover of the HREC.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Entries to the Chronological Record of
Medical Care, SF 600, when not
typewritten, should be made in which
color(s) of ink?
1. Blue
2. Black or blue-black
3. Red
4. Ink color is irrelevant
2. Black or blue-black
What is the preferred form on which to
record admission to the hospital?
1. SF 509, Medical Record-Progress
Report
2. SF 600, Chronological Record of
Medical Care
3. NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service
and Medical History
4. NAVMED 6150/20, Summary of Care
1. SF 509, Medical Record-Progress
Report
A. SF 600
B. SF 601
C. DD1141
D. NAVMED 6150/2
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33
THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE
ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH
Routine innoculations.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE
INFORMATION GIVEN.
2. B
A. SF 600
B. SF 601
C. DD1141
D. NAVMED 6150/2
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33
THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE
ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH
RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE
INFORMATION GIVEN.
Human immune virus testing.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. SF 600
B. SF 601
C. DD1141
D. NAVMED 6150/2
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33
THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE
ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH
RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE
INFORMATION GIVEN.Sick call visits for poison ivy.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. SF 600
B. SF 601
C. DD1141
D. NAVMED 6150/2
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33
THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE
ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH
RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE
INFORMATION GIVEN.
Results of radiation monitoring.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
A. NAVMED 6150/4
B. SF 539
C. SF 601
D. DD 771
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-37
THROUGH 8-39, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE
LIST THE HEALTH RECORD FORM THAT
MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE
STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION.
Used for ordering corrective lenses.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. NAVMED 6150/4
B. SF 539
C. SF 601
D. DD 771
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-37
THROUGH 8-39, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE
LIST THE HEALTH RECORD FORM THAT
MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE
STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION.
May be used for an active duty patient who
is admitted to the hospital for less than 24
hours.
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
2. B
A. NAVMED 6150/4
B. SF 539
C. SF 601
D. DD 771
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-37
THROUGH 8-39, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE
LIST THE HEALTH RECORD FORM THAT
MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE
STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION.
A record of prophylactic immunizations
and sensitivity tests.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
Which of the following documents should
NEVER be filed in an individual’s HREC?
1. FM 8-33
2. PHS-731
3. SF 509
4. NAVMED 6100/1
2. PHS-731
In which of the following circumstance
should the health record be verified?
1. Upon reporting
2. Upon transfer
3. At the time of a physical examination
4. In all of the above cases
4. In all of the above cases
Under which of the following
circumstances would a member’s health
record NOT be closed?
1. Transfers to a new duty station
2. Transfers to the Fleet Reserve
3. Placed on the retired list
4. Declared missing in action
1. Transfers to a new duty station
On which of the following documents
would a notation be made concerning an
member’s status as a deserter?
1. SF 600
2. NAVMED 6100/1
3. NAVMED 6150/4
4. Both 1 and 3
3. NAVMED 6150/4
A copy of the HREC of a member
separated for disability should be given to
the member for presentation to the DVA so
that the member’s claim can be processed
expeditiously.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following types of
appropriations is not normally used by the
Navy?
1. Multiple-year
2. Annual
3. Continuing
4. Apportioning
4. Apportioning
At the end of the second quarter, what is
done with the funds that have not been
obligated in the previous quarter?
1. The funds are carried over into the
next quarter
2. The funds are carried over into the
next year
3. The funds are returned to the Treasury
4. The funds are placed in the
command’s welfare and recreation
fund
1. The funds are carried over into the
next quarter
The shipboard medical OPTAR may be
used to purchase all of the following items
EXCEPT
1. x-ray units and film processors
2. medical books and publications
3. gun bags
4. litters and stretchers
1. x-ray units and film processors
Which of the following characteristics
could designate an item as controlled
equipage?
1. High cost
2. Liable to pilferage
3. Required for ship’s mission
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The first four digits of a National Stock
Number are known as the
1. Federal Supply Classification code
2. Federal Stock number
3. National Identification number
4. Cognizance symbol
1. Federal Supply Classification code
How many digits are in a National Stock
Number?
1. 9
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13
4. 13
In which of the following would you find
handling or storage codes, a brief
description of each item, and a crossreference
of NINs and NSNs?
1. Management Data List (MDL)
2. Identification List (IL)
3. Authorized Medical Allowance List
(AMAL)
4. Naval Supply System Command
Manual
2. Identification List (IL)
TO ANSWER ITEMS 8-52 THROUGH 8-54,
SELECT FROM THE TABLE BELOW THE
LEVEL OF SUPPLY DEFINED IN THE ITEM.
A. Stockage objective
B. Identification List (IL)
C. Operating level
D. Requisitioning objective
The quantity of an item required to support
operations between the time a requisition is
submitted and receipt of material.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
TO ANSWER ITEMS 8-52 THROUGH 8-54,
SELECT FROM THE TABLE BELOW THE
LEVEL OF SUPPLY DEFINED IN THE ITEM.
A. Stockage objective
B. Identification List (IL)
C. Operating level
D. Requisitioning objective
The minimum amount of an item of
material required to support operations.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
TO ANSWER ITEMS 8-52 THROUGH 8-54,
SELECT FROM THE TABLE BELOW THE
LEVEL OF SUPPLY DEFINED IN THE ITEM.
A. Stockage objective
B. Identification List (IL)
C. Operating level
D. Requisitioning objective
The maximum amount of material in stock
and on order to support operations.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
What is the name of the standard computer
supply management system used by
shipboard medical departments?
1. Shipboard Automated Medical Supply
2. SNAP Automated Medical System
3. Supply Automated Medical System
4. Shipboard Automated Management
System
2. SNAP Automated Medical System (SAMS)
Medical journals and books may be ordered
on which of the following forms?
1. DD Form 1149, Requisition and
Invoice/Shipping Document
2. NAVSUP Form 1250-1, Single-Line
Item Requisition Document (manual)
3. DD Form 1348m, DOD Single-Line
Item Requisition Document
(mechanical)
4. DD Form 1348m, Non-NSN
Requisition (manual)
1. DD Form 1149, Requisition and
Invoice/Shipping Document
Who assigns the Urgency of Need
Designator (UND) on a requisition?
1. Activity requiring the material
2. Supply depot
3. Stock point
4. Inventory control point
1. Activity requiring the material
What is the purpose of a Report of
Discrepancy, SF 364?
1. To determine the cause of a
discrepancy
2. To effect corrective action on a
discrepancy
3. To prevent recurrence of a discrepancy
4. To do all of the above
4. To do all of the above
Whenever possible and where space
permits, aisles in stowage areas should be
at least how wide?
1. 18 in
2. 24 in
3. 30 in
4. 36 in
3. 30 in
All of the following locations aboard ship
are appropriate stowage areas for hazardous
material EXCEPT
1. below the full-load water line
2. adjacent to a magazine
3. near either end of the ship
4. behind watertight doors
2. adjacent to a magazine
Alcohol should be stowed in a locked
container in the paint and flammable liquid
storeroom.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What is the primary purpose of an
inventory?
1. To locate missing items
2. To determine what items are in a
storeroom
3. To ensure balance on hand match
stock record cards
4. To balance the OPTAR
3. To ensure balance on hand match
stock record cards
Differences between on-hand quantity,
location of stock, or other stock record data
should be reconciled in accordance with
what publication?
1. NAVSUP 1114
2. NAVSUP P-437
3. NAVSUP P-485
4. NAVSUPINST 4200.85
3. NAVSUP P-485
Once a stock record card has been totally
filled in, a new card should be prepared,
following all of the steps listed EXCEPT
1. bring forward demand quantity and
frequency demand totals from old card
2. destroy old card, in accordance with
local policy
3. bring forward any outstanding
requisitions from old card
4. enter the beginning date on the new
card
2. destroy old card, in accordance with
local policy
How often must inventory of controlled
substances be conducted?
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Semiannually
2. Monthly
In what document would you find the
contents of each contingency block
outlined?
1. AMAL
2. MAP
3. MMART Manual
4. SPRINT
3. MMART Manual
At a minimum, how often should all
AMALs be reviewed?
1. Monthly
2. Quarterly
3. Semiannually
4. Annually
4. Annually
The Medical Department Journal contains a
chronological record of events concerning
the Medical Department and should include
all of the following EXCEPT
1. reports of personnel casualties,
injuries, or deaths
2. personnel entered onto or deleted from
the binnacle list
3. medical histories of personnel
4. training lectures to stretcher bearers
3. medical histories of personnel
NAVMED 6320/18, Binnacle List, is used
to list all personnel falling into what status?
1. Admitted to the hospital
2. Excused from duty for 24 hours or less
because of illness
3. Excused from duty for more than 24
hours because of illness
4. Who reported to sick call in the
morning
2. Excused from duty for 24 hours or less
because of illness
NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the
Sick, must be submitted to the commanding
officer daily by what time?
1. 0800
2. 0900
3. 1000
4. 1100
3. 1000
A member misses his clinical appointment.
He has missed two previous appointments.
What action, if any, should the Corpsman
maintaining the appointment log take?
1. Call the member and reschedule the
appointment
2. Notify the member's chain of
command that he has missed several
appointments
3. Do nothing; when the member is able
to reschedule, he will do so
2. Notify the member's chain of
command that he has missed several
appointments
A notice issued under the Navy Directive
Issuance System has the same force and
effect as an instruction.
1. True
2. False
1. True
In the process of making changes to
directives, which of the following
procedures should you follow?
1. Annotate the first page of the directive
with "CH-#" (# = change number) to
indicate the change has been
incorporated into the directive
2. If the directive is removed from the
binder or file, replace the directive
with a locator sheet
3. If the directive is in the form of a
publication, fill out the "Record of
Changes" sheet in the front of the book
4. Each of the above