Hospital Corpsman Pharmacy Chapter 18

Front 1

Pharmacology is a basic medical science that deals with the study of which specialty?
1. Drugs
2. Diseases
3. Compounds
4. Pharmacy operations

Back 1

Pharmacology is the science dealing with the origin, nature, chemistry, effects, and uses of medications.

Front 2

The branch of pharmacology that deals with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications is?
1. Toxicology
2. Pharmacy
3. Pharmacognosy
4. Therapeutics

Back 2

Pharmacy is the branch of pharmacology dealing with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications.

Front 3

The actual title of the “blue bible” of pharmacology is?
1. The Physicians’ Desk Reference
2. The United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary (USP-NF
3. The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
4. Remington’s The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Back 3

The actual title of the “blue bible” of pharmacology is?
1. The Physicians’ Desk Reference
2. The United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary (USP-NF
3. The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
4. Remington’s The Science and Practice of Pharmacy Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy is the most widely used text/reference in American pharmacies. This work is known as the "blue
bible" of pharmacology.

Front 4

The amount of medication administered is referred to as which of the following?
1. Pill
2. Dose
3. Unit amount
4. Average amount

Back 4

The amount of medication to be administered is referred to as the dose. The study of dosage and the criteria that influence it is called posology.

Front 5

The minimum and maximum amount of a drug required to produce the desired effect is referred to by what term?
1. Dosage factor
2. Dosage range
3. Dosage drug
4. Dosage age

Back 5

DOSAGE RANGE.—It is a term applying to the range between the minimum and maximum amounts of a given medication required to produce the desired effect.

Front 6

What dose refers to the least amount of a drug that can cause death?
1. Toxic
2. Minimum toxic
3. Minimum lethal
4. Maximum lethal

Back 6

MINIMUM LETHAL DOSE.— is the least amount of medication that can produce death.

Front 7

The most common factor influencing the amount of drug given to a patient is?
1. Weight
2. Gender
3. Age
4. Route of administration

Back 7

Age⎯Age is the most common factor that influences the amount of medication to be given.

Front 8

What two primary factors, if any, determine a dose?
1. Sex and age
2. Age and weight
3. Weight and sex
4. None

Back 8

The two primary factors that determine or influence the dosage of a medication are the age and weight of the patient.

Front 9

What is the proper dose in milliliters of ampicillin for an 8-year old child if the adult dose is 15 ml?
1. 2
2. 6
3. 9
4. 15

Back 9

6
8age over 8+12x15
8/20=0.4x15=6

Front 10

What is the name of the rule used to determine appropriate dosage of medication based on a child’s weight?
1. Clark’s Rule
2. Young’s Rule
3. Rule of Nines
4. Fried’s Rule

Back 10

Another rule governing calculation of pediatric doses based on weight is Clark's Rule.

Front 11

Determine the appropriate dose in milligrams of medication for a child weighing 30 pounds if the average dose for an adult is 600 mg.
1. 50
2. 100
3. 120
4. 150

Back 11

120
30/150x600
30/150=0.2x600=120

Front 12

In computing the amount of drug to be given to an underweight female, what adjustments to the normal dosage would ordinarily be made?
1. Increase the dosage because of her weight and further increase because of her sex
2. Increase of dosage because of her weight but decrease because of her sex
3. Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight
4. Decrease of dosage because of her sex but an increase because of her weight

Back 12

Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight

Front 13

A drug given continuously to a patient often has to be increased in dosage to maintain the desired effect. The need for a larger dose is probably caused by?
1. An acquired tolerance from habitual use
2. An abnormal sensitivity
3. A cumulative effect from habitual use
4. An individual idiosyncrasy

Back 13

Habitual use: Some patients must take medications continuously, causing their bodies to build up tolerance to the medication. This tolerance may require larger doses than their initial doses to obtain the same therapeutic effect.

Front 14

The most common method of administering medications is ________.
1. Orally
2. Parentally
3. Topically
4. Intravenously

Back 14

ORAL is the most common method of administering medications.

Front 15

What term is used to define a medication that is placed under the tongue?
1. Suboral
2. Submandibular
3. Subcavity
4. Sublingual

Back 15

Sublingual medications are administered by placing the medication under the tongue.

Front 16

Which of the following is an example of a drug injected intradermally?
1. Insulin
2. Procaine hydrochloride
3. Purified protein derivative
4. 2 or 3 above

Back 16

Intradermal is the medication injected within the dermis layer of the skin. Example: Purified Protein Derivative (PPD).

Front 17

What technique introduces a drug directly into a vein?
1. Intravenous
2. Infiltration
3. Intramuscular
4. Intradermal

Back 17

Intravenous is the medication introduced directly into the vein. Example: Intravenous fluids.

Front 18

In what form are medications introduced into the body through inhalation?
1. Gas
2. Oral
3. Topical
4. All of the above

Back 18

Gas Inhalation - almost entirely restricted to anesthesia

Front 19

Normally, how many names do medications have?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Back 19

• Chemical name
• Generic name
• Brand name (trade name)

Front 20

Which of the following is NOT a way in which drugs are grouped?
1. By chemical characteristics
2. By their brand names
3. By their source
4. By their action on the body

Back 20

• General: Grouped according to their source whether animal, vegetable, or mineral in origin
• Chemical: Grouped by their chemical characteristics
• Therapeutic (Pharmacological): Grouped according to their action on the body

Front 21

Aluminum acetate, an astringent, is often used to treat which of the following conditions?
1. Athlete’s foot
2. External otitis
3. Poison ivy
4. All of the above

Back 21

Aluminum Acetate solution (Burow’s Solution, Domeboro®) is used as a wet to dry dressing for the relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin, such as athlete’s foot, poison ivy, swelling, external otitis, bruises and insect bites.

Front 22

Which of the following is a bronchomutropic agent?
1. Petrolatum
2. Guaifenesin
3. Benzoate
4. Phenol

Back 22

Expectorants are more accurately known as bronchomucotropic agents.
• Guaifenesin and dextromethorphan (Robitussin® DM)

Front 23

Which of the following is a characteristic side effect of antihistamines?
1. Nausea
2. Drowsiness
3. Uricaria
4. Tinnitis

Back 23

Antihistamines may cause drowsiness, so patients should be warned against driving or operating machinery while taking this type of medication.

Front 24

Which of the following medications is administered to control motion sickness?
1. Cimetidine
2. Meclizine hydrochloride
3. Chlorpheniramine maleate
4. Diphenyhdramine hydrochloride

Back 24

• Meclizine Hydrochloride (Antivert®, Bonine®) Meclizine HCl is given to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting, and dizziness of motion sickness. It has a longer duration of action than diphenhydramine hydrochloride.

Front 25

In conjunction with antacids, which of the following is used to treat duodenal ulcers?
1. Dimenhydrinate
2. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
3. Ranitidine
4. Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride

Back 25

• Ranitidine (Zantac®) Like Cimetidine, ranitidine is used for short term treatment and maintenance in active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers to promote healing of duodenal ulcers. It is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

Front 26

The drug group most often used to treat dyspepsia is?
1. Emollients
2. Astringents
3. Antacids
4. Adsorbents

Back 26

Antacids are used to counteract hyperacidity in the stomach. An excess of acid can irritate the mucous membranes and commonly known as indigestion, heartburn, or dyspepsia.

Front 27

In addition to being an antacid, magnesium hydroxide may be used as a/an?
1. Emollient
2. Laxative
3. Demulcent
4. Astringent

Back 27

Magnesium hydroxide also has a laxative effect.

Front 28

The standard by which all other antiseptics are measured is?
1. Povidine-iodine
2. Phenol
3. Isopropyl alcohol
4. Hexachlorophene

Back 28

• Phenol (carbolic acid) Historically, one of the first antiseptic agents used. It is the standard by which all other antiseptic, disinfectant, and germicidal agents are measured in effectiveness.

Front 29

The primary pharmacological action of sulfonamides is?
1. Viricidal
2. Parasiticidal
3. Bacteriostatic
4. Fungistatic

Back 29

Sulfonamides were the main therapy for bacterial infections in humans. Sulfonamides are synthetically
produced and are effective against both grampositive
and gram-negative organisms.

Front 30

The most common use for systemic sulfonamides is in the treatment of which of the conditions listed below?
1. Respiratory infections
2. Urinary tract infections
3. Viral infections
4. Furunculosis

Back 30

Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin®) is a systemic sulfonamide that is a bacteriostatic and is indicated to treat urinary tract infections and acute otitis media.

Front 31

Silver sulfadiazine is used almost exclusively in the treatment of?
1. Surgical wounds
2. Burns
3. Prostatitis
4. Furunculosis

Back 31

Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene® Cream) is a topical antimicrobial agent used to treat second and third degree burns to prevent wound sepsis. It is water soluble and easily washed off the skin.

Front 32

The drug of choice for uncomplicated group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis is?
1. Penicillin V Potassium
2. Nafcillin
3. Ampicillin
4. Dicloxicillin

Back 32

Penicillin V has the same spectra of activity of penicillin G and is usually the drug of choice for uncomplicated group-A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections

Front 33

Patients sensitive to penicillin may also exhibit sensitivity to cephalosporins.
1. True
2. False

Back 33

True
Because cephalosporins are similar to penicillins, some patients allergic to penicillin may also be allergic to cephalosporin medications.

Front 34

Milk or milk products may interfere with the absorption of which of the following drugs?
1. Cephalexin (Keflex)
2. Tetracycline hydrochloride
3. Streptomycin sulfate
4. Erthromycin

Back 34

Tetracyclines should not be administered with milk, milk products, antacids or iron preparations; they combine with metal ions to form non-absorbable compounds.

Front 35

Macrolides are effective against which of the following organisms?
1. Gram-positive cocci
2. Dermatophytes
3. Parasites
4. Gram-negative

Back 35

Macrolides-Antibiotics constituting a large group of
bacteriostatic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. They are effective against grampositive cocci, Neisseria, Hemophilus, and mycobacteria.

Front 36

Which of the following is an appropriate substitute for penicillin when penicillin is contraindicated?
1. Doxycycline
2. Cephalexin
3. Erythromycin
4. Streptomycin

Back 36

Erythromycin (E-Mycin®, Ilotycin®) is one of the drugs of choice when penicillin is contraindicated.

Front 37

Undeclyenic acid is used as a/an?
1. Disinfectant
2. Antipyretic
3. Analgesic
4. Antifungal

Back 37

Antifungal
Undecylenic acid (Desenex®) is used primarily to treat and prevent tinea pedis and is often compounded with zinc to act as an astringent.

Front 38

Supplemental potassium may be required with which of the following categories of drugs?
1. Anti-inflammatories
2. Antidiahrreals
3. Antipyretics
4. Diuretics

Back 38

Loss of body fluids due to use of diuretics can seriously deplete electrolytes from the system, and care should be taken to monitor and replenish lost
sodium and potassium through diet and supplement therapy.

Front 39

The drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal seizures is?
1. Methylphenidate hydrochloride
2. Phenobarbital
3. Phenytoin sodium
4. Any psychotropic agent

Back 39

Phenytoin sodium (Dilantin®) is a nonbarbiturate anticonvulsant that is the drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal epilepsy. Grand mal seizure is the more serious type of epilepsy.

Front 40

Prochlorperizine is used mainly to?
1. Treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting
2. Alleviate symptoms of tension, agitation, and psychosis
3. Counteract the effects of alcohol withdrawal
4. Relieve respiratory distress

Back 40

Prochlorperizine (Compazine®) is most often used in the symptomatic treatment of nausea and vomiting, but it shares all the antipsychotic effects of chlorpromazine.

Front 41

Muscle relaxants include all of the following EXCEPT?
1. Methocarbamol
2. Diazepam
3. Cyclobenzaprine
4. Methylphenidate

Back 41

Methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin®) is indicated for use in hyperkinetic children and children with attention deficit disorders.

Front 42

Water-soluble vitamins are not excreted in the urine and are stored in the body in moderate amounts.
1. True
2. False

Back 42

Water-soluble vitamins are excreted in the urine and are not stored in the body in appreciable quantities.

Front 43

The vitamin deficiency associated with night blindness is?
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin Bl2
4. Vitamin K

Back 43

Vitamin A (Retinol) is a fat-soluble vitamin is necessary for visual adaptation to darkness. Deficiencies rarely occur in wellnourished individuals, and an excess of vitamin A can be toxic.

Front 44

The agent used to treat pernicious anemia is?
1. Cyanocobalamin
2. Ascorbic acid
3. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin K

Back 44

Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) When vitamin B12 therapy is used to treat pernicious anemia, the treatment is continued indefinitely, and folic acid is normally included in the therapy protocol.

Front 45

Which of the following is the vitamin involved in absorption and use of calcium and phosphorus?
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Back 45

Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin involved in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous metabolism. Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets in children and asteomalacia in adults.

Front 46

The correct abbreviations for the metric systems of primary units of measure for weight, volume, and linear dimensions are?
1. gr, l, cm
2. gr, ml, m
3. g, l, m
4. g, l, cm

Back 46

g, l, m
• Basic unit of weight is the gram,
abbreviated "g"
• Basic unit of volume is the liter, abbreviated
"l"
• Basic linear unit is the meter, abbreviated
"m"

Front 47

Which of the following is equal to one one-hundredth of a liter?
1. Dekaliter
2. Deciliter
3. Centiliter
4. Milliliter

Back 47

Centiliter
HM can readily determine its proper terms. For example, using the gram as the basic unit of weight, the HM can readily see that 10 g equals 1 dekagram; 100 g equals 1 hectogram; and 1000 g is referred to as a kilogram. Conversely, going down the scale, 0.1 g is referred to as a decigram, 0.01 g is called a centigram, and 0.001 g is a milligram.

Front 48

A prescription requires two ounces of a substance supplied in liters. How many milliliters are required to fill the prescription?
1. 0.03 ml
2. 0.06 ml
3. 30 ml
4. 60 ml

Back 48

60 ml
1 fluid ounce = 29.57 milliliters

Front 49

You have 360 grams of a compound. If 54 grams of the compound is silver nitrate, what is the percentage strength of silver nitrate?
1. 12.5%
2. 15%
3. 17.5%
4. 20%

Back 49

15%
54/360x100=15

Front 50

All pharmacies that dispense prescriptions are required to have what Class balance?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Back 50

All dispensing pharmacies are required to have at least one Class A balance on hand at all times.

Front 51

What drug incompatibility occurs when agents antagonistic to one another are prescribed together?
1. Therapeutic
2. Physical
3. Chemical
4. 1 and 3 above

Back 51

Therapeutic incompatibilities occur when agents antagonistic to one another are prescribed together.

Front 52

Eutexia is an example of what type of drug incompatibility manifestation?
1. Chemical
2. Physical
3. Therapeutic
4. 2 and 3 above

Back 52

Liquification of solids mixed in a dry state, called eutexia (physical)

Front 53

A properly administered drug dosage that has an unintended or harmful effect on the patient is the definition of which of the following terms?
1. Contraindication
2. Drug interaction
3. Adverse reaction
4. Therapeutic incompatibility

Back 53

Adverse medication reactions may occur when a medication, administered in a dose appropriate for human prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy, has an unintended and harmful effect on the patient receiving it.

Front 54

What chapter of The Manual of the Medical Department gives guidance on pharmacy operations and drug control?
1. 6
2. 9
3. 15
4. 21

Back 54

(MANMED), NAVMED P-117. Chapter 21 of the MANMED is the basic guide to pharmacy operations.

Front 55

What DD form is used to prescribe controlled and noncontrolled medications?
1. 6710
2. 1289
3. 1210
4. 1209

Back 55

Polyprescription, NAVMED 6710/6
If a controlled medication must be written on a polyprescription due to unavailability of a DD 1289, it must be the only medication prescribed on that form.

Front 56

In the prescription block of DD Form 1289, what part lists the name and quantity of the ingredient prescribed?
1. Superscription
2. Inscription page
3. Subscription
4. Signa

Back 56

INSCRIPTION.— The inscription is that part of the prescription that lists the name and quantity of the medication to be used.

Front 57

If, in the course of filling a prescription, the HM feels that there may be a discrepancy or incompatibility, the HM should take which of the following actions?
1. Let the patient know that you discovered an error and will be checking with the prescriber before
filling the prescription
2. Consult the prescriber to verify the prescription before filling
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Fill the prescription as written

Back 57

If, in the process of verification, it is believed that there is a discrepancy, an ambiguity, an incompatibility, or for any reason; the HM must consult the prescriber.

Front 58

What types of prescription medications have the potential for abuse?
1. Noncontrolled
2. Controlled
3. Schedule VI
4. All of the above

Back 58

All of the above

Front 59

Which of the following is a Schedule III medication?
1. Marijuana
2. An antitussive
3. Amphetamines
4. Nonbarbiturate sedative

Back 59

Schedule III
Substances that have less abuse potential than schedule II substances and moderate dependence liability. Examples include nonbarbiturate sedatives, nonamphetamine stimulants, and medications that contain a limited quantity of certain narcotics.
Prescriptions must be filled within 30 days of the date written and may be refilled up to five times within 6 months.

Front 60

What schedule of medications can never be ordered with refills?
1. II
2. III
3. IV
4. V

Back 60

Substances that have high abuse potential and severe psychological and/or physical dependence liability. Examples include narcotics, amphetamines, and barbiturates. Prescriptions for schedule II substances can never be ordered with refills and in most cases must be filled within 7 days of the date originally written. See MANMED Chapter 21 for further information.

Front 61

Substances that have high abuse potential and severe psychological and/or physical dependence liability. Examples include narcotics, amphetamines, and barbiturates. Prescriptions for schedule II substances can never be ordered with refills and in most cases must be filled within 7 days of the date originally written. See MANMED Chapter 21 for further information.

Back 61

The CO appoints the members of the CSIB in writing. The board consists of three members, at least one of whom is a Commissioned Officer.

Front 62

Controlled substances must be inventoried at least?
1. Annually
2. Bi-annually
3. Quarterly
4. Daily

Back 62

Quarterly, or more frequently if necessary, the Controlled Substances Inventory Board (CSIB) takes an unannounced inventory of controlled substances.