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213 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the preferred treatment regimens?
1. Atripla (evafivenz, tenofovir, emtricitabine)
2. Atzanavir/rit, truvada (tenofovir, emtricitabine)
3. darunavir/rit, truvada
4. raltegravir, truvada
What are the alternative regimens?
1. efavirenz, abacavir/lamivuding (Epzicom)
2. rilpivirine, Epzicom
3. rilpivirine/tenofovir/emtricit (Complera)
4. fosamprenavir/rit, epzicom or truvada
5. lopinavir/rit, epzicom or truvada
6. raltegravir, epzicom
What is the major US group?
M
HIV groups can affect
disease progression, transmission, treatment implications
how many virions can be produced/day?
10^9
what the half life of cell free virus in plasma?
1.6 days
what is the time from release of new virion to infection of new cell and release of another new virion?
2.6 days
What is the best predictor of rate of progression of HIV?
Viral RNA
When does acute retroviral syndrome start and how long does it last?
2-4 wks after HIV infection and 2-3 wks (prior to seroconversion)
What are the ARS symptoms?
fever, lymphadenopathy, rash, myalgia/arthralgia, HA, diarrhea, oral ulcers, leucopenia/thrombocytopenia, mild to mod transaminase elevations
What other conditions look like ARS?
EBV and non EBV mono, primary herpes, flu, viral hepatitis, strep infection, secondary syphyllis, drug interactions (rare)
What is the antigen that appears before the AB?
P24
What reversal occurs weeks after infection?
CD4:CD8`
How do you manage ARS?
1. CD4 count 4-6m after seroconversion
2. viral load monitoring for potential set pt
3. Possible tx for 3-4m after infection, risk vs benefit
4. resistance testing
What are the 4 steps in the HIV lifecycle?
1. entry (binding, fusion)
2. replication
3. integration
4. protein cleavage
What is the most common clade in the US?
B
What are the possible clades?
A-K, CRFs
ART should be initiated, regardless of CD4 count, in pts with:
HIVAN, HBV when tx of HBV is indicated, pregnancy
abacavir
ziagen
NRTI
1 BID or 2 QD
trizivir
abacavir/zidovudine/lamivudine
1 BID
epzicom
abacavir/lamivudine
1 QD
didanosine
Videx EC
NRTI
1 QD 1/2hr before or 2 hrs after meal
emtricitabine
Emtriva
NRTI
1 QD
atripla
emtricitabine/efavirenz/tenofovir
1 HS
truvada
tenofovir/emtricitabine
lamivudine
Epivir
NRTI
1 BID or 1 QD
Combivir
lamibudine, zidovudine
1 BID
stavudine
Zerit
NRTI
1 BID
tenofovir
Viread
NRTI
1 QD
Zidovudine
retrovir
NRTI
1 BID or 2 TID
delavirdine
rescriptor
NNRTI
2 TID
efavirenz
sustiva
NNRTI
1 HS
etravirine
Intelence
NNRTI
1 BID following meal
nevirapine
Viramune
NNRTI
lead in schedule, 1 QD x 14d, then 1 BID or 1 QD (XR), repeat lead in if d/c >7d
Rilpivirine
Edurant
NNRTI
1 QD
Complera
rilpivirine/tenofovir/emtricitabine
1 QD with meal
atazanavir
Reyataz
PI
1-2 QD with food + RTV 1 QD
Darunavir
Prezista
PI
2 QD or 1 BID + RTV 1 QD take with food
Fosamprenavir
Lexiva
PI
2 BID or 2 QD+RTV 1-2 QD or 1 BID+RTV 1 BID
Indinavir
Crixivan
PI
2 TID 1 hr before or 2 hrs after meal OR 2 BID + RTV 1-2 BID without regards to meals
Boosted BID dosing--increased nephrolithiasis
Kaletra
lopinavir/ritonavir
PI
2 BID or 4 QD
Nelfinavir
Viracept
PI
2 BID or 3 TID with food
diarrhea
Cannot be boosted, inferior potency
Ritonavir
Norvir
PI
1-4 QD or BID with food
Saquinavir
Invirase
PI
2 BID + RTV 1 BID with meal or within 2 hrs after meal
Tipranavir
Aptivus
PI
2 BID + RTV 2 BID
BBW: intracranial hemorrhages, inferior virologic efficacy, induction properties
Raltegravir
Isentress
Integrade inhibitor
1 BID
Enfurvirtide
Fuzeon
Fusion Inhibitor
SQ BID
Maraviroc
Selzentry
CCR5 antagonist
1-2 BID
DO not use list
1. mono, dual, or triple NRTI
2. efavirenz in pregnancy
3. nevirapine at CD4 greater than cut off
4. etravirine with unboosted PIs or boosted atazanavir, fosamprenavir, tipranavir
5. unboosted darunavir, saquinavir, fosamprenavir, tipranavir
6. 2NNRTIs, reduced levels and inc toxicity
Do not use: additive hyperbilirubinemia
atazanavir + indinavir
DO not use; cross resistance
emtricitabine + lamivudine
Do not use: toxicity
didanosine + stavudine
Do not use: antagonistic
stavudine + zidovudine
Labs at starting ART
Cd4, viral load, resistance, HLAB 5701, HBV, basic chemistry, ALT/AST/t bilirubin, CBC w/differential, fasting lipid, fasting glucose, urinalysis, pregnancy
labs after ART or modification
2-8 wks
viral load, basic chem, ALT/AST/t bilirubin, CBC w/differential (Zidovudine), fasting lipid
On ART: cd4
every 3-6m or 6-12m if clinically stable
On ART: viral load
every 3-6m
On ART: basic chem, AST/ALT/t biliribun, CBC w/diff
every 3-6m
on ART: fasting lipid
every 6m if abn at last msmt, then every 12m
on ART: fasting glucose
every 3-6m if abn at last msmt, then every 6m
On ART: urinalysis
every 12m, if on tenofovir or risk of renal fx, every 6m
PCP prophylaxis: when
Primary <200 cells, <14% cd4. d/c when >200 cells/>14% x 3m
Secondary: lifelong or >101 cells with undetect VL
PCP prophylaxis: drugs and first line dosing
1st line: Bactrim 1 DS PO QD or 1 SS QD. Others: dapsone, dapsone + pyrimethamine + leucovorin, pentamidine, atovaquone, atova + pyrimeth + leucovorin
Toxoplasma gondii prophylaxis: when
CD4 <100 and IgG +
Toxoplasma gondii prophylaxis:drugs and first line dosing
Bactrim DS QD. others: dapsone, pyrimethamine, leucovorin, atovaquone
MAC prophylaxis: when
cd4 <50,
MAC prophylaxis: drugs and first line dosing
azithromycin 1200mg weekly or clarithromycin 500mg BID or azithromycin 600mg PO twice weekly. others: rifabutin
histoplasma capsulatum prophylaxis: when
cd4 </= 150, high risk due to occupation, hyperendemic rates
histoplasma capsulatum prophylaxis: drugs and first line dosing
itraconazole 200mg QD
coccidioidomycosis prophylaxis: when
CD4 <250, positive IgM or IgG in pt from disease-endemic area
coccidioidomycosis secondary prophylaxis: drugs and first line dosing
flucanazole 400mg PO QD or itraconazole 200mg PO BID
when can you d/c primary toxo prophylaxis?
cd4 >200 >3m
how long do you treat MAC and when can you d/c, when do you restart?
tx 12m, d/c if Cd4 >100, restart if cd4 <100
what is the prophylaxis for crytococcal meningitis?
no primary, secondary until cd4 >=200 cells for >6m on ART. fluconazole 200mg QD
Treatment for PCP: mod to severe
bactrim 15-20 TMP, 75-100 SMX/kg/day IV Q6 or Q8 x 21d. Alt: pentamidine 4mg/kg IV QD over >=60min, primaquine 15-30mg QD+clindamycin 600-900mg IV q6 to q8 or 300-450mg PO q6 to q8
Treatment for PCP: mild to mod
bactrim DS 2 tabs TID. Alt: dapsone 100mg QD and TMP 15mg/kg/day PO (3 div d) OR primaquine 15-30 PO QD+clindamycin 300-450 PO Q6 to Q8 OR atovaqone 750mg PO BID with food
secondary prophylaxis for PCP
same as primary
treatment of toxo
pyrimethamine 200mg PO QD, then 50-75mg QD + sulfadiazine 1000mg to 1500mg PO Q6 + leucovorin 10-25mg QD x 6 wks
secondary prophylaxis of toxo
pyrimethamine 25-50mg PO QD + sulfadiazine 2000-40000 PO QD (2-4 div d)+ leucovorin 10-25mg PO QD (d/c when >200 x 3m)
treatment of cryptosporidiosis
ART, tx diarrea, rehydration
microsporidiosis
initiate or optimize ART. GI, Enterocytozoon bienuesi (fumagillin 20mg PO TID), others (except eye): albendazole 400mg PO BID (cd4 >200 x >6m), ocular: topical fumagillin eye drops, indefinately
tx of tuberculosis
isoniazid + rifampin/rifabutin + pyrazinamide + ethambutol x 6m or longer
tx of MAC
clarithromycin 500mg PO BID + ethambutol 15mg/kg PO QD, rifabutin 300mg PO QD optional
Tx of coccidioidomyocosis
mild: fluconazole 400mg PO QD or itraconazole 200mg PO TID x 3d, then 200mg BID
Severe, nonmeningeal: ampho B deoxy 0.7-1mg/kg IV QD OR ampho lipid 4-6mg/kg IV QD, until clinical improvement then switch to azole
meningeal: fluconazole 400-800mg PO or IV QD
secondary prophylaxis of coccidio
fluconazole 400mg PO QD or itraconazole 200mg PO BID
tx of cytomegalovirsu
ganciclovir intraocular implant + valganciclovir 900mg PO BID x 14-21d then QD
Give one dose of intravitreal ganciclovir until implant placed
small peripheral lesions: valganciclovir 900mg PO BID x 14-21d, then 900mg PO QD
secondary prophylaxis of CMV`
valganciclovir 900mg PO QD or ganciclovir implant (replace every 6-8m if CD4 <100)+valganciclovir 900mg PO QD
other tx options for CMV
cidofovir (doesn't require phospohyrlation, 2 wks infusions)
foscarnet (increased resistance over time)
tx of latent infection TB, isoniazid dosing. What is pyridoxine for?
daily or twice weeklly x 9m
neurological toxicity
Tx of active TB
isoniazide, rifampin or rifabutin, pyrazinamide, etheambutol x 2m OR isoniazid & rifambin/rifabutin x 4m
Daily then 3x/wk (2xwk if cd4>100)
treatment duration of TB
cavitary 9m
extrapulm 9m
CNS/bone/joint 12m
what TB drug should you avoid with PIs?
rifampin
What are the OI that most ofren result in IRIS?`
TB/MAC
Who usually gets IRIS?
high VL and very low cd4 prior to ART (<50)
How to tx IRIS?
Prenisone 20-40mg PO QD (MAC 4-8wks)
When can you d/c prophyl of PCP?
VL undetectable, CD4>200 x 3m on ART, restart when <200 or reinfection
When would you prophyl PCP for life?
when infection occurs at cd4>200
when to give steroids in PCP?
within 72 hrs of tx, prednisone 40mg BID x 5d, 40mg QDx5d, 20mg QD x 11d
What cd4 does cryptococcal meningitis & toxo usually occur?
<100 but mostly <50
primary prophyl of cyrptococcal meningitis?
none
when to restart primary prophyl of toxo?
cd4<100-200
duration of tx for toxo
6wks
when to use steroid in tx of toxo?
tx mass effect associated with focal lesions or associated edema, dexamethasone 4mg IV Q6, 1-3mg PO TID
when to d/c secondary prophy of toxo?
no s/sx, cd4 >200 x6m, reinitiate when cd4 <200
what is the leucovorin for?
decrese bone marrow suppression due to pyrimethamine (folic acid)
who gets MAC?
cd4<50
when to d/c primary proph of MAC?
CD4>100 x >3m, restart when CD4 <50
virologic failure
inability to achieve or maintain suppression of viral replication (<200 copies)
incomplete virologic failure
2 consecutive plasma HIV RNAs >200 after 24 wks tx
persistent low level viremia
confirmed detectable RNA <1000
virologic rebound
confirmed detectable RNA >200 after virologic suppression
immunologic failure
failure to achieve and maintain adaquate cd4 response despite virologic suppression (>50-150 cells/yr), cd4 plateaus at 4-6 yrs
benefits of genotype
less expensive, quicker, historical record, more data from trials
challenges of genotype
interpretation, misses 10% of minority subtypes, only assess known mutations, combo mutations may have diff effect, difficult to interpret with mutiple mutations
benefits of phenotype
drug susceptibility infered, aggregate of multiple mutations, confort with inhibitory concnetration terms
limitations of phenotype
long time, $$$, biological cut offs are stated without matching drug levels, insensitive to low levels of curculating virus (5-20%)
wild type virus
original parent virus that was predominant prior to use of ARV. in phenotypic testing, is compared to lab reference strain.
K65R mutation is beneficial, why?
incresases susceptibility to zidovudine
L74 increases susceptibility to what?
zidovudine, tenofovir
M184V`
high resistiance to lamivudine, emtricitabine
low (requries multiple muts K65R & L74V or 3 TAMs to get high level): didanosine, abacavir
Slow replication with resistance.
TAMS: Type 1`
T215Y, abacavir, didanosine, tenofovir, stavudine (some zidovudine)
TAMS: Type 2`
D67N, K70R, T215F, K219Q/E
zidovudine (some stavudine)
Why is type 1 TAM beneficial?
increases susceptibilty to NNRTIs
K65R
intermediate: tenofovir, abacavir, didanosine, lamivudine/emtric
low: stavudine
Which mutations have bidirectional antagonistm?
K65 & TAMS
zidovudine suppresses the emergence of:
K65R
L74V
intermediate: didanosine, abacavir
what is the benefit of L74V
slight increase suscepbiilty of zidovudine, tenofovir
what is the epzicom mutation?
L74V/M184V
What is the truvada mutation
K65/M184V
Q151M
high level: zidovudine, stavudine, didanosine, abacavir
intermediate: tenofovir, lamivudine/emtric
NNRTI mutations
K103N, Y181, G190, high level to nevirapine, variable to efavirenz (V106A/Y181C 2x, G190 6x, K103N 20x, Y188L/G190 50x)
D30N
nelfinavir
I50L
atazanavir
I50V
fosamprenavir
V82L/T
tipranavir
L90M
multiple PIs
raltegravir resistance
N155, Q148
enfurvirtide resistance
gp 41 region
What mutation is often found in HIV2 pts
Q151M
replication capacity
rate the virus can replicate when exposed to ARV as opposed to pt's wild type virus
why does K103N exist for a long time when drugs are removed?
because it has primary high level resistance
What drugs are not effective for HIV2?
NNRTIs, fusion inhibitor (enfurvirtide)
how high must RNA be to do resistance
>500
Which class is most likely to cause rash?
NNRTI
All PIs inhibit 3a4 except:
tipranavir
ritonavir inhibits:
3a4, 2d6
what is the order on NNRTIs likely to cause rash
nevirapine>efavarinz ~ etravirine
nevirapine cut offs
CD4 >400 men, >250 women
which NNRTI has increased risko f hepatotoxicity?
nevirapine
efavirenz with food?
no
Which NNRTI can you not use iwth PPIs and must separate from H2 & antacids?
rilpivirine
WHen is rilpivirine not as effective?
VL >100,000
Rilpivirine pregnancy category
B
which NNRTI is not first line?
etravirine
which NNRTI has lead in dosisng?
nevirapine
which NNRTI is proven beneficial in pregnancy?
nevirapine
which NNRTI has great risk of hepatoxicity?
nevirapine (>women)
rilpivirine: big or small pill?
small
PI toxicities:
dyslipidemia, insulin resistance (related to ritonavir dose)
Toxicities of Lopinavir/rit & indinavir
MI, CAD, Stroke
toxicity of amprenavir/fosampr
MI
toxicity of saquinavir/rit
PR & QTc prolongation
Which PI requires acid environment?
Atazanavir
which PI has no lipid elevations even with ritonavir?
atazanavir
Which PI has no cross resistance?
atazanavir
which PI causes hyperbilirubinemia?
Atazanavir,
which PI (besides saquinavir) has risk of PR prolong?
atazanavir
which PI has risk of nephrolithiasis?
atazanavir (& indinavir)
which PI does not elevate lipids?
atazanavir
which PI has corss resistance with tipranavir?
darunavir
What are concerns with Darunavir?
lpids, glucose, hepatotox (esp with hep)
totall pills for kaletra?
4
what is the first line agent in pregnancy?
lopinavir/ritonavir (kaletra)
kaletra food restrictions?
no
which PI has low risk of resistance?
Kaletra
limitations of kaletra
GI (nausea), lipid elevation (TRIG), CV, decreased conc pregnancy
which PI is 3a4 inhibitor & substrate and which is inducer and substrate?
inhibitor: darunavir
inducer: fosamp
refrigerate ritonavir?
capsules-yes (<30d), no to solution
limitations of ritonavir
GI, paresthesias, taste, lipids, hepatitis
Why not indinavir?
TID, fluid/food restict, boosted BID dosing has increased nephrolithiasis
why not nelfinavir?
inferior potency & diarrhea
why not ritonavir (alone)?
high pill burden, GI intol, lipids
why not tipranavir?
inferior virologic efficacy, BBW--intracranial hemorrhages, induction properties
food with ralgegravir?
no restrictions
limiotations with raltegravir?
CPK elevations (esp with statins & PIs), ? potency, low genetic barrier to resistance, BID dosing
benefits of raltegravir?
fewer DI, no food restrict, UGT1A1 med glucoronidation, well tol, comparative to efavirenz at 96 wks
which NRTI does not have to be adjusted for renal dysfx?
abacavir
NRTI class SE?
GI (N/V/D), lactic acidosis
What are general statements about NRTIs?
lower potency vs PI or NNRTI, all are prodrugs (need phosphorylation), QD except zidovudine and stavudine
which NRTI has a food restriction?
didanosine (empty stomach)
which drug causes hyperpigment of soles/palms?
emtricitabine
which drug has nephrotoxicity with fanconi syndrome or acute renal failure?
tenofovir
why is tenofovir use with caution in pregnancy?
bone demineralziation
what is alcohol interaction with abacavir?
increases by 41%
which NRTi has increased risk of drug failure with VL>100,000
abacavir
what are sx of abacavir hypersens?
4-6 wks: fever, skin rash, fatigue, N/V/D, abd pain, SOB, cough, sore throat
abacavir test
B*5701
which PI has best CNS penetration?
zidovudine
which PI causes macrocytosis?
zidovudine
what are limitations of zidovudine?
BMS, macrocytosis, neutropenia, GI, HA, fatigue, myopathy, finger nail discolor
which didanosine formulation is preferred?
EC (less diarrhea)
What is the major limitation of didanosine?
mitochondrial toxicity
what are limitations of didanosine
pancreatitis, neuropathy, mito tox, CI with ribavirin
what is the major limitation of stavudine?
mitochondrial tox
what are limitations of stavudine?
mito tox, peripehral neuropathy, lipoatrophy, lactic acidosis, hepatic steatosis (DEATH)
s/sx of lactic acidosis
persistant abd pain, n/v/d, wt loss, weakness, liver enlarge
risk factors for lactic acidosis
obese, women w/prolonged use of NRTI
what are the thymidine analogs and what is the problem?
zidovudine, stavudine, lipoatrophy
what is the major ADE of tenofovir
acute tubular necrosis
cross resistance in enfuvirtide?
no
food restrictions with miraviroc?
no
maraviroc DI?
3a4 substrate