• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/344

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

344 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
________ __________ is the measure of the average number of years that a group of people may expect to live.
Detailed Explanation:
Life expectancy.
________________ is a positive, whole-health approach that includes a person’s physical, intellectual, social, and emotional well-being.
Wellness. Poor health is highly related to the way we live; many diseases can be avoided. Wellness includes a person’s physical, intellectual, social, and emotional well-being. It means striving to live life to its fullest potential and acting in healthy ways to prevent or decrease the chances of unnecessary illness.
___________ is the biological passing of physical traits from parents to their children.
Heredity. Sometimes a person’s ability to prevent diseases may be limited by hereditary factors. For example, if several members of a family have died prematurely of heart disease, then a particular person may be at a higher risk of heart disease than someone whose family members have been free of heart disease. Hereditary effects can often be reduced by choosing responsible health behaviors.
______ can be defined as the degree of danger that goes along with a situation.
Risk. All risks have possible negative outcomes. However, many risks also have positive outcomes and can lead to personal growth. By being in good physical condition, one can reduce
How you feel about yourself is known as your ______-________.
Self-esteem. Self-esteem refers to the confidence, pride, and respect that you have for yourself. People with good self-esteem feel comfortable in social situations and relate well to others.

Self-esteem is important because caring about yourself enough to want to be the best you can be will help you change any harmful behavior.
The ideas, perceptions and feelings one has about oneself is called _______-__________.
Self-concept. Self-concept is also known as self-image. Self-concept refers to how you perceive yourself; i.e. do you see yourself as someone successful or as a failure, fat or skinny, attractive or unattractive, intelligent or stupid, etc..

Self-concept is closely tied to your self-esteem, as someone who has a positive self-image is going to have higher self-esteem than someone who has a negative self-image.
__________ ________ is a state of well-being of the mind.
Mental health. Positive mental health is an important part of wellness. In order for a person to function at the highest level, they must feel good mentally as well as physically.
A person’s _______________ is the mix of how they feel, think, and behave that makes them different from anyone
Personality. Personalities can be healthy or unhealthy. Usually, society regards mentally healthy people as those who accept themselves. They are people who live life with constantly renewed appreciation.
The _______________ Approach, developed by Sigmund Freud, focuses on a person's development during childhood and how this relates to their subconscious motivations.
Psychoanalytic. The word subconscious refers to a part of the brain that is not accessible to thought. According to Freud, every action, emotion, and thought is the result of subconscious wishes or fears.
The process of teaching behavior based on the beliefs and habits of the family and community is called ________________.
Socialization. This includes the passing along of one’s cultural heritage through the teaching of religion, traditions, dress, and ways of behaving toward other people. Parents begin the process of socialization from the time a child is born; school and the community add their influence as the child grows.
During early childhood, children learn that boys and girls are different. This process is called ____________ identification.
Gender. Parents are usually the main models for gender identification, although other adults can also serve as models. Freud’s theory suggests that girls are likely to identify with their mothers and boys with their fathers.

Siblings, the media, and the community also play important roles in gender development. Children tend to accept as appropriate the roles in which they see males and females functioning.
_____________'s theories about the importance of the subconscious in personality development are the basis for the psychoanalytic approach to personality.
Sigmund Freud. Freud's theories center on how instincts or drives propel development. Freud suggested that if a child has difficulty in one stage of development, that difficulty could affect later stages of development. He identified five developmental stages from birth to the middle of adolescence.
Jean ___________, a Swiss psychologist, was influenced by Freud’s work as he worked on his own theories of development.
Piaget. Piaget’s studies focused on stages of intellectual development such as the sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, and the formal operational stage.
____________ classified human needs into different levels such as self-actualization, esteem, and safety needs.
Abraham Maslow. Maslow suggested that human needs can be shown in the form of a pyramid. Lower, or more basic needs, must be met before higher needs can be satisfied. For example, Maslow believed that it is very hard to develop a sense of belonging to a family or to the community if the need for food and shelter is not met.
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, _______________ needs are the most basic needs.
Physiological. Physiological needs include food, water, sleep, sex and health.
Recent research supports the belief that even very early experiences influence later development. Studies have shown that in addition to food, shelter, and consistent care, infants need _______ and affection.
Love. Babies who are not held and comforted are likely to have difficulty trusting others. In later life, they may find it difficult to form attachments to others. On the other hand, babies who are touched, spoken to, and cared for can begin to build trust.
___________ are the strong, immediate reactions that you feel in response to an experience.
Emotions. Emotions tell a person whether what they experience is frightening, comforting, soothing, or painful. People in all societies have emotions. Often they affect people in similar ways, such as the body’s physiological response to emotions.
Some emotions enable you to feel attached to other people. A strong affection or deep concern for another person is _______.
Love. Love can be communicated in many different ways. It can be expressed through words, touch or other actions that show caring and concern. Just as love is expressed in many different ways, there are many different types of love.
_________ is a strong feeling of displeasure that can range from annoyance to complete fury.
Anger. Anger usually causes a physiological reaction. Besides an increase in heart rate, a person may tremble or their face may become warm. Anger may take different forms and may sometimes be helpful.
People may feel _______ when they believe that they are in danger.
Fear. Fear can make a person break into a sweat, it can cause their hands and feet to go cold, and it can speed up their heart beat. Their muscles often get tense because their body gets ready to defend them against the threat.
Fear can be caused by a fear of the unknown. This feeling is sometimes called ____________.
Anxiety. Often anxiety is fear of being hurt, of failing, or of losing something very important. Anxiety makes you feel nervous and ill at ease. Blood vessels may dilate causing a person to blush. It can also cause changes in the digestive tract and can leave a tight feeling in the stomach.
Most people develop ways to protect themselves from feeling too much pain. Such methods are called defense mechanisms. ______________ is the most basic of all defense mechanisms.
Repression. In repression, the painful thoughts or feelings are pushed away from conscious thought. Sigmund Freud considered repression to be the most important of the defense mechanisms. He argued that the repressed feelings usually come out in some other form and cause feelings of anxiety. To deal with these feelings, a person then relies on another defense mechanism.
As soon as you recognize a stressor, your body reacts. This quick physical warning is the alarm stage or the "fight or _________" response.
Flight. As soon as a person feels fear, their adrenal glands release adrenaline and the heart rate and breathing rate speeds up. Blood rushes from the stomach and other internal organs to a person’s arms, legs, and brain. This adrenaline prepares a person to fight with their greatest energy or to flee at their top speed.
Various types of headaches can be physical symptoms of stress. A ___________ headache is a very severe headache that can be triggered by stress.
Migraine. A migraine headache can be preceded by temporary vision problems and often is accompanied by nausea. When arteries to the brain constrict as a result of stress, the supply of blood to parts of the brain may decrease and cause temporary vision problems or other symptoms. Then the arteries dilate (expand) again and pressure on the nerve endings in the artery walls cause the severe throbbing of a migraine headache.
In his studies of stress, Dr. Hans Selye found that a person’s body adapts to a stressor through a set pattern of physical reactions. He termed this adjustment as the _____________ _______________ syndrome.
General adaptation. The three stages of this syndrome are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. The quick physical warning that occurs when your body reacts to a stressor is known as the alarm stage. Resistance is when your body fights or flees the stressor, and if stress lasts too long, you may move into the exhaustion stage.
Stress is your body’s response to physical or mental demands or pressures. The physical or mental demands that cause the stress are called ____________.
Stressors. The word stress is commonly used in place of the word stressor. Physical stressors might be hunger, thirst, or cold. A mental stressor might be an argument with a spouse or family member.

The physical responses of your body to stressors, regardless of the type of stressor, include increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and the release of certain hormones.
Stressors can be both positive and negative. Positive use of stress is called ____________.
Eustress. According to General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), positive stress, such as going on a date or to a job interview is called eustress. Sometimes, a person’s nervousness may motivate them to seek a positive response. People can learn to use stress to their advantage.
Dr. Hans Selye coined the word ____________ for harmful, unpleasant stress.
Distress. According to General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), negative stress, such as losing your job or being in a car accident is called distress. Distress that is not controlled can result in physical and emotional disruption, illness, and even death.

Other examples of distress are chronic pain, lack of meaningful relationships, physical confrontation, and anxiety and depression.
There are three stages to the General Adaptation Syndrome. The second stage is called ________________.
Resistance. This stage starts when the body fights or flees. During this stage, the body works to resist a threatening stressor. Even though a person may not be able to fight or run, the body responds as if it were in danger.
In the resistance stage, a person handles stress by using psychological defense mechanisms. These defense mechanisms are sometimes called ___________ mechanisms.
Coping. Coping means acting to deal with a problem or difficulty. Using a coping mechanism such as humor or denial may help you to control certain symptoms of stress. For example, a person may be able to handle a bad situation by joking instead of losing their temper.
If stress lasts too long, a person may move into the third stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome known as the _____________ stage.
Exhaustion. In the exhaustion stage, the body’s defenses against stress are used up. During this stage, a person has a greater chance of becoming ill than when the body is well rested.
__________ stress can occur when someone is not able to respond immediately to a threat (real or imaginary). It involves the body remaining in a high state of arousal for a long time.
Chronic. Humans react to stress with the fight or flight response. The heart and breathing rates speed up, sweating increases, the muscles become tense and digestion stops. Chronic stress occurs when this reaction goes on for an extended period of time.
Earthquakes, floods, fires, serious accidents, or physical assaults are obvious stressors. Survivors of traumatic events may develop a condition called _______ _____________ stress disorder.
Post traumatic. Some symptoms of this disorder are loss of interest in former friends and activities, extreme anxiety, and reliving in dreams and memories the traumatic event that brought on the condition. Post-traumatic stress disorder may develop immediately after the event, or it may show up months or years later, triggered by a recent stressful experience.
A person’s response to stressors depends upon their personality and how well they learn to manage stress. Scientists who study the effects of stress on health often refer to two primary personality types as type ___ and type B.
A. Someone with a Type A personality is very productive. He or she often feels that there is not enough time to do everything and has difficulty relaxing. People with Type B personalities are described as being relaxed, cooperative rather than competitive, and satisfied with lower output.
Severe, prolonged distress can result in a number of physical health problems. Some physical disorders that result from stress are ________________.
Psychosomatic. A psychosomatic illness is a physical disorder that is caused by stress rather than by disease or injury to the body. Psychosomatic illnesses are really physical problems that are triggered or complicated by stress. There are many kinds of psychosomatic illnesses such as sleep disorders, skin disorders, and digestive problems.
Exercise is a good defense against stress. Increasing physical activity stimulates the release of ________________.
Endorphins. Endorphins are a type of chemical released by the brain to reduce pain. During exercise, the level of endorphins circulating in the blood is higher than at other times. These chemicals are thought to be responsible for the strong feeling of well-being and relaxation experienced by long distance runners.
Defense mechanisms often serve a good purpose and may be necessary for survival. ________________ is the act of making an excuse for a behavior.
Rationalization. Rationalization is an attempt to preserve self-esteem and to avoid feeling of guilt. People are rationalizing when they make up a reason for something. They may do this because the real reason is more difficult to face.

People who rationalize are often unaware that they are hiding from the truth. Their actions seem right and reasonable to them.
It is very easy to rely on the protection of a defense mechanism rather than to face the real cause of the pain or discomfort. ___________ is the refusal to recognize reality.
Denial. People are using denial when they behave as if something is true, when in reality it is not true. This defense mechanism protects them from facing an unpleasant fact that they cannot yet accept.
_________________ is an emotional state characterized by exaggerated feelings of sadness, melancholy, dejection, worthlessness, emptiness, and hopelessness that are inappropriate and out of proportion to reality.
Depression. Some of the common symptoms of depression are persistent sad moods, feelings of hopelessness, sleep or eating disorders, or thoughts of death or suicide. Everyone feels “down” or “blue” at times, but depression is characterized by a more chronic state of feeling low.
____________ disorder is a mood disorder characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression.
Bipolar. These extreme mood swings alternate between feeling euphoric and energetic to feeling depressed, powerless and listless.
Sperm cell development starts at about age 11 in boys and is influenced by the release of the hormone ________ from the pituitary gland.
ICSH (interstitial cell-stimulating hormone). ICSH stimulates specific cells within the testes to begin producing the male sex hormone testosterone. Testosterone in turn is primarily responsible for the gradual development of the male secondary sex characteristics at the onset of puberty.
Fertilization occurs in a narrow tube called the _____________ tube that connects an ovary and the uterus.
Fallopian. The process begins when an egg is released from one of the woman’s ovaries and enters the Fallopian tube. The egg remains in the Fallopian tube for approximately two days. In order for fertilization to occur, sperm must also be in the Fallopian tube during this time.
In human reproduction, the fertilized egg is implanted in the ___________ and grows into a fetus.
Uterus. Assuming that it has been fertilized in the fallopian tube, the egg moves on to the uterus. The uterus, or womb, is the muscular organ in which a fetus develops.

A fertilized egg is also called a zygote.
The uterus is lined with a thick spongy tissue called the ______________, which provides a fertilized egg with nourishment during the early stages of development.
Endometrium. The endometrium is flushed out of the woman's body once a month during the menstrual cycle, assuming that the woman does not become pregnant.
By time it reaches the uterus, a layer of cells that develops into an organ called the _____________ surrounds the embryo.
Placenta. The placenta provides nourishment to the embryo by absorbing nutrients and oxygen from the mother’s bloodstream. The placenta also serves as a filter, screening out many harmful substances. In addition, the placenta receives the waste products from the embryo and passes them into the mother’s bloodstream.
The embryo is wrapped in a protective covering called the _____________ sac.
Amniotic. The amniotic sac is filled with a fluid that helps cushion the embryo from jolts and bumps. The amniotic sac grows along with the embryo.
From the third month until birth, the embryo is called a __________.
Fetus. The fetus is still surrounded by the amniotic sac and the placenta has formed along the uterine lining. The fetus continues to grow rapidly, and bone starts to replace the cartilage in its skeleton. By the end of the sixth month, the fetus is about one foot long and weighs slightly over a pound.
Approximately 40 weeks after fertilization, the baby is ready to be born. Birth occurs in three stages. The process of birth is called _________.
Labor. During the first stage of labor, there are usually mild muscle contractions in the mother’s abdomen as muscles in the uterus begin to push the baby against the cervix, which is the lower portion of the womb. During the second stage of labor, the baby passes through the cervix and moves into the birth canal. After the baby is born, the muscles of the uterus continue to contract, causing the placenta to separate from the lining of the uterus.
Each male has two testes. The testes are originally formed inside the body near the abdomen. However, just before birth, they descend into a pouch of loose skin called the ____________.
Scrotum. The testes are inside the scrotum, which hang outside the body where the temperature is a few degrees cooler than inside the body. The testes need a lower temperature to produce active, healthy sperm.
Once sperm cells leave the testes they travel to the penis through a series of tubes. The first tube that the sperm cells enter is the vas deferens, which connects the testes to the _____________ gland.
Prostate. The prostate gland is a small, walnut-sized gland located below the bladder. As the sperm cells pass through the prostate gland, they combine with a thin, milky fluid produced by the prostate gland and fluids produced by the seminal vesicles. The combination of these fluids is called semen.
Once sperm cells leave the testes they travel to the penis through a series of tubes. The final tube through which the semen travels is the ___________.
Urethra. The opening of the urethra is at the top of the penis. The process by which the sperm leaves the penis is ejaculation. The urethra also carries urine from the bladder out of the body. Valves near the location where the urethra leaves the urinary bladder prevent urine from mixing with semen.
The _________ is the external, cylinder-shaped organ through which urine and sperm pass out of the body.
Penis. At birth, the end of the penis is covered by foreskin. Some parents choose to have the foreskin removed from the infant shortly after birth. Normally, the penis is limp, but during certain states of arousal, the spongy tissue and blood vessels of the penis will fill with blood, causing an erection.
The entry into puberty is a gradual maturing process for young girls and boys. For young girls, the onset of menstruation, called ____________, occurs around age 13 but may come somewhat earlier or later.
Menarche. Menarche is usually preceded by a growth spurt that includes the budding of breasts and the growth of pubic and underarm hair.
After ovulation, the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle starts when the remnants of the graafian follicle restructure themselves into a corpus ____________.
Luteum. The corpus luteum remains inside the ovary, secreting estrogen and progesterone. If pregnancy occurs, the corpus luteum monitors progesterone and estrogen levels throughout the pregnancy. If pregnancy doesn’t occur, high levels of progesterone signal to the pituitary to stop the release of luteinizing hormone and the corpus luteum starts to degenerate on about day 24. When estrogen and progesterone levels drop significantly by day 28, the endometrium is discharged from the uterus and out the vagina. Thus begins the menstrual cycle.
Although used interchangeably with contraception, birth ___________ is an umbrella term that refers to all of the procedures you might use to prevent the birth of a child.
Control. Birth control includes all available contraceptive measures as well as sterilization, use of the intrauterine device (IUD), and abortion procedures.
_________________ is a specific term for any procedure used to prevent the fertilization of an ovum.
Contraception. Contraceptive measures vary widely in the mechanisms they use to accomplish this task. They also vary considerably in their method of use and their rate of success in preventing conception. A few examples of contraceptive methods are the use of condoms, oral contraceptives, spermicides, and diaphragms.
Withdrawal, or ___________ interruptus, is the contraceptive practice in which the erect penis is removed from the vagina just before ejaculation of semen.
Coitus. Theoretically this procedure prevents sperm from entering the deeper structures of the female reproductive system. However, this method is said to be ineffective as the clear preejaculate fluid can contain viable sperm, which may get deposited near the cervical opening before withdrawal of the penis.
The ___________ is a soft rubber cup with a springlike metal rim that, when properly fitted and inserted by the user, rests in the top of the vagina.
Diaphragm. In its proper position, the diaphragm covers the cervical opening. The diaphragm is always used with a spermicidal jelly or cream. Diaphragms and other vaginal barrier methods provide some protection against sexually transmitted diseases.
A ___________ is a contraceptive device that also helps to protect against STDs.
Condom. Using a condom properly with every act of sexual intercourse helps protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
For the vast majority of women in their late forties through their mid-fifties, a gradual decline in reproductive system function, called ____________, occurs.
Menopause. Menopause is a normal physiological process; however, it can be a health concern for some women who experience unpleasant side effects. As ovarian function and hormone production diminish, a period of adjustment must be made by the hypothalamus, ovaries, uterus, and other estrogen-sensitive tissues.
____________ should never be considered a first-line, preferred form of fertility control.
Abortion. Abortion should be used only when responsible control of one’s fertility could not be achieved. The decision to abort a fetus has been a highly controversial one.
On the basis of the landmark 1973 U.S. Supreme Court case _______ v. Wade, the United States joined many of the world’s most populated countries in legalizing abortions within certain guidelines.
Roe. For the first 3 months, the decision to abort lies with the woman and her doctor. For the next 3 months, state law may regulate the abortion procedure in ways that are reasonably related to maternal health. During the third trimester, when the fetus is judged capable of surviving if born, any state may regulate or even prohibit abortion except where abortion is necessary to preserve the life or health of the mother.
Induced abortions undertaken during the sixth through ninth weeks of pregnancy are generally done through ____________ aspiration of the uterine contents.
Vacuum. Vacuum aspiration is the most commonly performed abortion procedure. Vacuum aspiration may require dilation of the cervical canal and the use of a local anesthetic.
________-___________ syndrome is a mental disorder which affects some women who have had an abortion. The symptoms are similar to post traumatic stress disorder.
Post-abortion. Symptoms of Post-abortion syndrome include difficulty with personal relationships, drug abuse, nightmares, sexual problems, difficulty communicating, problems with self esteem and suicide.
By the eighteenth month, typical children have both the language and the insight to correctly identify their gender. They have established a ___________ identity.
Gender. Although at birth children receive their external genitals, which in essence “cast the die,” parents and society also contribute to the femininity or masculinity for traditional reinforcement.
During preschool years, children receive the second component of the scripting required for the full development of the psychosocial sexuality. The process whereby gender _______________ is transmitted to the child is usually more obvious than the practices observed during the gender identity period.
Preference. Many parents begin to control the child’s exposure to experiences traditionally reserved for children of the opposite gender. This is particularly true for boys. Many parents will stop play activities that they think are too feminine.
_____________, or the blending of both feminine and masculine qualities, is more clearly evident in our society now than ever before.
Androgyny. For example, it is more acceptable to see men involved in raising children and doing housework. It is also more acceptable to see women entering the workplace in jobs traditionally managed by men and participating in sports traditionally played by men.
A predictable sexual response pattern for males and females was identified by Masters and Johnson. It consists of four stages. The first is the ____________ stage.
Excitement. This is the initial arousal stage of the sexual response pattern. Each of the stages involves predictable changes in the structural characteristics and physiological function in both the male and the female.
The ___________ stage is the second stage in the sexual response pattern of males and females.
Plateau. In this stage, there is a leveling off of arousal immediately before orgasm.
The third stage of the sexual response pattern for males and females is the ___________ stage.
Orgasmic. During this stage, neuromuscular tension is released.
The final stage of the sexual response pattern for males and females is the ______________ stage.
Resolution. The body returns to a preexcitement state during this stage.
During the sexual response cycle, ______________ is the engorgement of tissues that results when more blood is flowing into an organ than is flowing out.
Vasocongestion. For a male, this causes the penis to become erect; for a female, the clitoris and the labia are engorged with blood.
Synonymous with abstinence, ____________ can be defined as the self-imposed avoidance of sexual intimacy.
Celibacy. There are many reasons people may choose not to have a sexually intimate relationship. For some, it may be for religious reasons. For most who choose celibacy, however, the reason is simply that it seems appropriate for them.

Celibacy may be short-term or last a lifetime, and no identified physical or psychological complications appear to result from a celibate lifestyle.
In men, ____________ dysfunction is the inability to achieve an erection.
Erectile. Also known as impotence, erectile dysfunction may be caused by chronic diseases such as diabetes, vascular problems, or numerous psychogenic factors including anxiety, guilt, fear, and poor self-concept. Treatments include drug therapy, vascular surgery, penile implants, and couple counseling.
In women, ______________ is known as painful intercourse.
Dyspareunia. This condition could be caused by insufficient sexual arousal, communication problems with partner, infections, inflammations, structural abnormalities, or insufficient lubrication.

Treatment could include individual and couple counseling with a focus on relaxation and communication. Medical strategies might also be employed to reduce infections and structural abnormalities.
Passionate love, also described as romantic love or _____________, is a state of extreme absorption in another.
Infatuation. This type of love is characterized by intense feelings of tenderness, elation, anxiety, sexual desire, and ecstasy. Often appearing early in a relationship, passionate love typically does not last very long. Passionate love is driven by the excitement of being closely involved with a person whose character is not fully known.
If a relationship progresses, passionate love is replaced by _____________ love.
Companionate. This type of love is less intense than passionate love. It is characterized by friendly affection and a deep attachment that is based on extensive familiarity with the loved one. The love is enduring and capable of sustaining long-term mutual growth.
Although it actually means any close, mutual, verbal or nonverbal behavior within a relationship, when most people hear the word ____________, they think about shared touching, kissing, and even intercourse.
Intimacy. Sexuality experts prefer to view intimate behavior as sharing deep feelings and experiences with a partner or sharing profound physical pleasures with a partner.
Although the majority of people will experience marriage, alternatives to marriage exist. The most common alternative to marriage is _______________.
Singlehood. For many people, being single is a lifestyle that affords the potential for pursuing intimacy and provides for an uncluttered path for independence and self-directedness. Other people are single because of divorce, separation, death, or the absence of the opportunity to establish a partnership.
_____________, or the sharing of living quarters by unmarried people, represents another alternative to marriage.
Cohabitation. Although cohabitation may seem to imply a vision of sexual intimacy between male and female roommates, several forms of shared living arrangements can be viewed as cohabitation. For some couples, cohabitation is only a part-time arrangement for weekends, during summer vacation, or on a variable schedule. Platonic cohabitation can exist without establishing an intimate relationship. Close friends and people of retirement age might be included in a group called cohabitants.
Sexual _______________ refers to the direction in which people focus their sexual interests.
Orientation. Sexual orientation includes heterosexual (opposite gender), homosexual (same gender) and bisexual (both genders).
The most common sexual orientation throughout the world is known as ______________, which refers to an attraction to opposite-gender partners.
Heterosexuality. For reasons related to species survival, heterosexuality has its most basic roots in the biological dimension of human sexuality. Beyond its biological roots, heterosexuality has significant cultural and religious support in virtually every country in the world. Most societies expect men to be attracted to women and women to be attracted to men.
_______________ refers to an attraction between same-gender partners.
Homosexuality. The term homosexuality comes from the Greek word homos, meaning “same.” The term homosexuality may be used with regard to males or females. In the mid-1990s, some research pointed to differences in the sizes of certain brain structures as a possible basis for homosexuality. However, there is no one theory that explains this developmental process. Most homosexuals report that no one event “triggered” their homosexuality.
People whose preference for sexual partners includes both genders are referred to as ____________.
Bisexuals. Bisexuals may fall into one of three groups: those who are (1) genuinely attracted to both genders, (2) homosexual but also feel the need to behave heterosexually, or (3) aroused physically by the same gender but attracted emotionally to the opposite gender. Some people participate in a bisexual lifestyle for extended periods, whereas others move quickly to a more exclusive orientation.
A ____________ is a preference for unusual sexual practices.
Paraphilia. A paraphilia involves special erotic activities, some of which have the potential to harm nonconsenting individuals. There are a variety of paraphilias such as zoophilia, pedophilia, incest, fetishism, exhibitionism, masochism, sadism, and sadomasochism.
Death can be a very difficult concept to define. ____________ determinants of death refer to measures of bodily functions.
Clinical. Often judged by a physician who can then sign a legal document called a medical death certificate, these clinical criteria include the following: lack of heartbeat and breathing, lack of central nervous system function, and the presence of rigor mortis.
Direct _______________ usually involves the administration of large amounts of depressant drugs which eventually causes all central nervous system functions to stop.
Euthanasia. Although direct euthanasia is commonly practiced on house pets and laboratory animals, it is illegal for humans in the U.S., Canada, and other developed countries. However, in February 1992, the Netherlands became the first developed country to enact legislation that permits euthanasia under strict guidelines.
Physicians orders of do not resuscitate (DNR) is an example of _____________ or passive euthanasia.
Indirect. Indirect euthanasia is increasingly occurring in a number of hospitals, nursing homes, and medical centers. Physicians who withhold lifesaving techniques or drug therapy treatments or who disconnect life support systems from terminally ill patients are practicing indirect euthanasia.
Because some physicians and families find it difficult to support indirect euthanasia, many people are starting to use legal documents, called advance medical _____________.
Directives. One of these medical directives is the living will, which confirms a dying person’s desire to be allowed to die peacefully and with a measure of dignity if a time should arise when there is little hope for recovery from a terminal illness or severe injury.

The living will requires that physicians or family members carry out a person’s wishes to die naturally without receiving life-sustaining treatments.
In addition to the living will, the ___________ power of attorney for health care is another important advance medical directive that can assist terminally ill or incapacitated patients.
Durable. The durable power of attorney for health care is a legal document that designates who will make medical decisions for an individual if they become incapacitated. It can also be called a health care proxy. It’s usually used when a patient is in a vegetative state and cannot communicate their medical wishes.
A process of self-adjustment has been observed in people who have a terminal illness. The stages in this process have helped form the basis for the modern movement of death education. Perhaps the most widely recognized name in the area is __________-________.
Kubler-Ross. As a psychiatrist working closely with terminally ill patients at the University of Chicago’s Billings Hospital, Kübler-Ross was able to observe the emotional reactions of dying people. In her classic book On Death and Dying, Kübler-Ross summarized the psychological stages that dying people often experience.
In Kübler-Ross’ stages of dying, __________ is the stage of disbelief.
Denial. In the denial stage, patients refuse to believe that they actually will die. Denial can serve as a temporary defense mechanism and can allow patients the time to accept their prognosis on their own terms.
In Kübler-Ross’ stages of dying, __________ is a common emotional reaction after denial.
Anger. Patients can feel as if they have been cheated. By expressing anger, patients are able to vent some of their fears, jealousies, anxieties, and frustrations. Patients often direct their anger at relatives, physicians, nurses, religious symbols, and normally healthy people.
Terminally ill people often follow the anger stage with the _____________ stage.
Bargaining. Patients who desperately want to avoid their inevitable deaths attempt to strike bargains, often with God or a church leader. Some people undergo religious conversions. The goal is to buy time by promising to repent for past sins, to restructure and rededicate their lives, or to make a large financial contribution to a religious cause.
When patients realize that bargaining can only postpone their fate, they may begin the ______________ stage.
Depression. In a sense, terminally ill people are grieving for their own anticipated death. They may become quite withdrawn and refuse to visit with close relatives and friends. Prolonged periods of silence or crying are normal components of this stage.
During the _______________ stage, patients fully realize that they are going to die.
Acceptance. Acceptance ensures a relative sense of peace for most dying people. Anger, resentment, and depression are usually gone. Kübler-Ross describes this stage as one without much feeling. Patients feel neither happy nor sad. Many are calm and introspective and prefer to be left either alone or with a few close relatives or friends.
The emotional feelings that people experience after the death of a friend or relative are collectively called _________.
Grief. Mourning is the process of expressing these emotional feelings in a culturally defined manner. The expression of grief is seen as a valuable process that gradually permits people to detach themselves from the deceased. Although people experience grief in remarkably different ways, most people have physical discomfort, sense of numbness, feelings of detachment from others, preoccupation with the image of the deceased, guilt, or hostility.
_____________ is the process of using formaldehyde-based fluids to replace the blood components.
Embalming. Embalming helps preserve the body and return it to a natural look. It permits friends and family members to view the body without being subjected to the odors associated with tissue decomposition. Embalming is often an optional procedure except when death results from specific communicable diseases.
Bodies are disposed of in one of four ways. ___________ burial is the most common method.
Ground. About 75% of all bodies are placed in ground burial. The casket is almost always placed in a metal or concrete vault before being buried. The vault serves to further protect the body and to prevent collapse of ground because of the decaying of caskets. Use of a vault is required by most cemeteries.
A second type of disposition is _____________, which refers to a nonground burial.
Entombment. Most often, entombment occurs in structures called mausoleums. A mausoleum has a series of shelves where caskets can be sealed in vault like areas called niches. Entombment can also occur in the basements of buildings, especially in old, large, churches. The bodies of famous church leaders are sometimes entombed in vault-like spaces called crypts.
An ___________ is an inscription on a grave marker or monument.
Epitaph.
A transition such as divorce, separation, or loss of a job at around age 40 is sometimes called a mid-life ____________.
Crisis. Researchers have long recognized that the early forties are a time of self-evaluation. People in their forties often ask themselves whether or not they have accomplished their goals. They think about the goals they have yet to accomplish and may question their earlier choices.
A chronic problem that affects women more than men is ________________, a condition in which bones become weak and brittle.
Osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is caused by a loss of calcium from the bone. The bones of people with osteoporosis tend to break easily, and vertebrae of the spine can collapse. In serious cases, enough vertebrae collapse that the back becomes permanently humped.
_______________ reflects the process of contributing to the collective good.
Generativity. This is a midlife developmental task in which one begins repaying society for its support through contributions associated with parenting, creativity, and occupation.
Young _______________ is a time of major transitions for people.
Adulthood. In their late teens or early twenties, most young people become independent. They often live away from their parents for the first time. They have new responsibilities to a job or to advanced education. Some young adults choose to marry while others choose to live alone or with friends. For many young adults, the new choices and feelings of independence can be both exciting and frightening.
In the context of health, _______________ refers to a process in which individuals or groups of people gain increasing measures of control over their health.
Empowerment. To take control of health matters, people or groups must learn to liberate themselves from a variety of barriers that tend to restrict health enhancement, including the complicated and expensive health care system, limited access to health care or fitness facilities, the fear of discovering an illness or serious health condition, and the concern that one might be viewed as a health nut.
Empowerment is the key to successful ______________ based health promotion.
Community. Empowerment involves individuals or groups taking responsibility for their own health and well being.
There are five developmental tasks that reflect the broad undergraduate college student age range of 18 to 40 years of age. Forming an initial adult ___________ is the first developmental task of this age group and is important in order to have a productive and satisfying life.
Identity. For most of a person’s youth, they are recognized as someone’s son or daughter. As people emerge into adults, they usually wish to obtain their own unique identity in society. Through experiences in achieving an adult identity, young people will eventually be capable of answering the central question of young adulthood: “Who am I?”
In contemporary society, the primary responsibility for socialization during childhood and adolescence is assigned to the family. By the end of young adulthood, most people are ready to accomplish the second developmental task of establishing _______________.
Independence. Travel, peer relationships, marriage, military service, and college have been traditional avenues for disengagement from the family. Generally, a person’s ability and willingness to follow one of these paths will help them to establish independence. Their success is based on their willingness to use available resources.
Assuming _________________ is the third developmental task that younger people are expected to progress in.
Responsibility. For adults, the opportunity to assume responsibility can come from a variety of sources. Sometimes responsibility may be accepted voluntarily such as when a person joins an organization, obtains a job, or establishes a new relationship. A more basic responsibility of an adult is to maintain and improve their health.
The fourth developmental task is developing _________ skills.
Social. The need to interact socially may at times compromise one’s health. Generally, however, social interaction contributes to one’s total health and is an important aid in helping a person have a productive and satisfying life
Recent studies indicate that electronic media such as ATM machines, video games, voice mail, faxes and email may be causing ____________ rates in the US to rise.
Shyness. Technology allows people to avoid social interaction. One study found that greater use of the Internet was associated with a decline in communication with family members, reduction in the size of social circles and higher levels of depression and loneliness.
People with ___________ __________ fear humiliation or embarrassment while being observed by others.
Social phobia. The most common example of social phobia is fear of public speaking.
The fifth developmental task of developing __________ usually presents itself to people between young adulthood and midlife, when it appears important to establish one or more intimate relationships.
Intimacy. Intimacy may stem from a marriage relationship or close friendship. People vary in their number of intimate relationships, with some having many intimate friends, and others having only one or two deep relationships. The number doesn’t matter; what does matter is that each person has someone with whom to share intimate thoughts, feelings, and emotions.
One example of an ____________ relationship is controlling behavior, when one partner attempts to manage the daily activities of the other partner.
Unhealthy. There are many signs to an unhealthy relationship, they include emotional and physical abuse, excessive jealousy, dishonesty, irresponsibility and drug abuse.
By _________ adulthood, the aging process has changed a person’s physical appearance.
Older. Changes in the skin, hair, bones, and senses continue. The sense of taste diminishes, causing some people to neglect nutrition. Muscle strength and mass diminish, often causing a drop in body weight and a change in shape, especially in men.
Because joints are less flexible, some older people develop ________________, a condition in which joints become painful.
Osteoarthritis. Older people adapt slowly to changes in temperature. Their cells respond more slowly to injury, so healing takes longer than it once did.
Age increases the likelihood of loss. Some older people experience a loss of short-term memory. About one in 20 adults develops ___________________ disease, a serious disorder in which the person slowly loses the ability to remember and reason.
Alzheimer’s. Some medicines also affect mental ability. Mental disorders, however, are not a normal part of aging.
Accepting the physical decline of aging is the first developmental task that must be confronted by elderly people. Physically, emotionally, socially, and occupationally, elderly people must accept at least some decline. For areas of decline in which some measure of reversal is possible, the elderly have an opportunity to seek ________________.
Rehabilitation. Whether through an individually designed program or through the aid of a skilled professional, the elderly can bring back some function to a previously high level. For example, the regular use of light weights can improve an older person’s ability to get out of a chair.
The second developmental task of the elderly is to maintain the highest level of physical function possible. Often used in combination with rehabilitation is _______________, whereby an alternative to the area of loss is introduced.
Remediation. Examples of remediation include the use of hearing aids, audio cassettes, and prescription shoes. By using alternative resources, function can often be returned and actually improved. For a growing number of older adults, remediation and rehabilitation are rarely necessary because of the high level of physical fitness that they enjoy.
The third developmental task of the elderly is to establish a sense of ___________, or a sense of wholeness, concerning the journey that may be nearly complete.
Integrity. The elderly must look back over their lives to see the value in what they were able to accomplish. They must address critical questions such as, “Would I do it over again?”, “Am I satisfied with what I managed to accomplish?”, “Can I accept the fact that others will have experiences to which I can never return?”.

If the elderly can answer these questions positively, then they will feel a sense of wholeness, personal value, and worth. Having established this sense of integrity, they will believe that their lives have had meaning and fullness and that they have helped society.
A person’s health is composed of six interacting, dynamic dimensions. By becoming familiar with these dimensions, a person can more easily recognize what it is about their health that may or may not be helping them to master their developmental tasks. In certain situations where strength is required, the ____________ dimension of one’s health may be the most important.
Physical. A number of physiological and structural characteristics help people accomplish their developmental tasks including their level of susceptibility to disease, body weight, visual ability, strength, coordination, level of endurance, and powers of recuperation.
The ________________ dimension of health includes the degree to which a person is able to cope with stress, remain flexible, and compromise to resolve conflict.
Emotional. This dimension may be the one that is most closely related to a person’s feelings. A person’s growth and development can be associated with some vulnerability, which may lead to feelings of rejection and failure that could reduce a person’s overall productivity and satisfaction. People who consistently try to improve their emotional health appear to lead lives of greater enjoyment than those who let feelings of vulnerability overwhelm them or block their creativity.
Whether it’s called social graces, skills, or insights, ___________ ability is the third dimension of total health.
Social. Because most of a person’s growth and development occurs in the presence of others, this dimension of health may be a critically important factor in a person’s life.
The ability to process and act on information, clarify values and beliefs, and exercise decision making skills is part of the _______________ dimension.
Intellectual. Coping skills, flexibility, or the knack of saying the right thing at the right time may not serve a person as well as does the ability to use information or understand a new idea.
Although religious beliefs and practices could be included in the _____________ dimension of health, the category could be extended to include a person’s relationship with other living things.
Spiritual. Many experts state that the spiritual dimension of health is a valuable resource during periods of personal stress. The spiritual dimension of health is so significant that some health professionals believe it to be the actual “core of wellness.” Spiritual health can be enhanced in a variety of ways through new experiences with nature, art, body movement, or music.
Spiritual health includes one’s __________, ethics, intrinsic values and beliefs.
Morals. People with spiritual health seek meaning and purpose in their lives and have a deep appreciation for a sense of unity and community.
The sixth dimension of health is the _________________ dimension, which reflects the fact that employment satisfaction is directly related to many aspects of a person’s health.
Occupational. When people feel good about their jobs, they tend to feel good about themselves and are more likely to have a healthier lifestyle. Usually, people have positive feelings about their employment situation if their jobs provide both external rewards such as adequate salary and benefits and internal rewards such as positive social interactions and the opportunity for creative input.
People drink for many reasons. Alcohol abuse by college students usually takes place through a drinking pattern called __________ drinking.
Binge. Binge drinking refers to the consumption of five drinks in a row, at least once during the previous 2-week period. College students who fit the category of “heavy drinkers” rarely consume small amounts of alcohol each day, but instead binge on 1 or 2 nights a week. Binge drinking can be very dangerous.

Drunk driving, physical violence, property destruction, date rape, police arrest, and lowered academic performance are all highly associated with binge drinking.
Alcohol, also known as ethyl alcohol or ethanol, is the principal product of _________________.
Fermentation. In this process, yeast cells act on the sugar content of fruits and grains to produce alcohol and carbon dioxide.
The alcohol content in distilled beverages such as whiskey, gin, rum, and vodka, is expressed using the term
Proof. This is a number that is twice the percentage of alcohol by volume in a beverage. For example, 140 proof gin is 70% pure alcohol. Most proofs in distilled beverages range from 80 to 160. The pure grain alcohol that is often added to fruit punches and similar beverages has a proof of almost 200.
Alcohol is classified as a CNS (Central Nervous System) ______________ drug.
Depressant. The primary depressant effect of alcohol is seen in the brain and spinal cord. Many people think of alcohol as a stimulant because of the way most users feel after consuming a few drinks. Any temporary sensations of jubilation, boldness, or relief are attributed to alcohol’s ability as a depressant drug to release personal inhibitions and provide temporary relief from tension.
The passage of nutrients or alcohol through the walls of the stomach or intestinal tract into the bloodstream is known as _______________.
Absorption. Absorption of alcohol is influenced by several factors, most of which can be controlled by the individual. Factors include the strength of the beverage, the number of drinks consumed, speed of consumption, presence of food, body chemistry, and gender of the user. Women tend to absorb alcohol more quickly.
_________ is the percentage of alcohol in a measured quantity of blood and can be determined directly through the analysis of a blood sample or indirectly through the analysis of exhaled air.
BAC (Blood alcohol concentration). A person’s BAC rises when alcohol is consumed faster than it can be removed (oxidized) by the liver. When the BAC reaches 0.05%, initial measurable changes in mood and behavior take place. Inhibitions and everyday tensions appear to be released. At a level of 0.10% (one part alcohol to 1000 parts blood), the drinker typically loses significant motor coordination. Most states consider a drinker at this BAC to be legally intoxicated.
Alcohol is removed from the bloodstream principally through the process of _______________.
Oxidation. Oxidation occurs at a constant rate (about 1/4 to 1/3 oz of pure alcohol per hour) that cannot be appreciably altered. Since each typical drink of beer, wine, or distilled spirits contains about 1/2 oz. of pure alcohol, it takes about 2 hours for the body to fully oxidize one typical alcoholic drink.

Although people have attempted to sober up by drinking hot coffee, taking cold showers, or exercising, the oxidation rate of alcohol is unaffected. Passage of time remains the only effective remedy for diminishing alcohol’s effects.
A potentially fatal elevation of the BAC, often resulting from heavy, rapid consumption of alcohol is known as __________ alcohol intoxication.
Acute. People who drink heavily in a rather short time may be setting themselves up for an extremely unpleasant, toxic, potentially life-threatening experience because of their high BAC. The first danger signal of acute alcohol intoxication is signs of shock, when a person cannot be aroused from a deep stupor where the person has a weak, rapid pulse. Involuntary vomiting can be another potentially dangerous situation for a person who has drunk too much alcohol.
Pathological changes to the liver resulting from chronic, heavy alcohol consumption are known as _____________.
Cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a frequent cause of death among heavy alcohol users. The liver is the main organ responsible for metabolizing alcohol. Heavy drinking causes the liver to become fatty and enlarged, leading to liver dysfunction. Cirrhosis or scarring eventually appears which can lead to liver failure and death.
A growing body of scientific evidence indicates that alcohol use by pregnant women can result in birth defects in unborn children. Characteristic birth defects noted in the children of some women who consume alcohol during their pregnancies is known as _________ alcohol syndrome.
Fetal. Exposure to alcohol during pregnancy can have disastrous consequences for the developing fetus. Low birth weight, facial abnormalities, and heart problems are often seen in infants with fetal alcohol syndrome. Recent estimates indicate that the full expression of this syndrome occurs at a rate of between 1 and 3 per 1000 births.
______________ is a primary, chronic disease with genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors influencing its development and manifestations.
Alcoholism. Alcoholism is often progressive and fatal. It is characterized by impaired control over drinking, preoccupation with alcohol, use of alcohol despite adverse consequences, and distortions in thinking, most notably denial. Each of these symptoms may be continuous or periodic.
Perhaps the single greatest influence on alcohol research has been the finding that part of the vulnerability to alcoholism is ___________.
Genetic. Some research suggests that as much as 50 to 60% of a person’s risk of becoming an alcoholic are determined by genetic factors.
Within the last decade, ________________ is a new term that has been used to describe the relationship between drug-dependent people and those around them.
Codependence. The term implies a kind of dual addiction. The alcoholic and the person close to the alcoholic are both addicted, one to alcohol and the other to the alcoholic. People who are codependent often find themselves denying the addiction and enabling the alcohol dependent person. Codependent people often become drug or alcohol dependent themselves and may suffer a variety of psychological consequences related to guilt, loss of self-esteem, depression, and anxiety.
Alcoholics ___________ is a voluntary support group of recovering alcoholics who meet regularly to help each other get and stay sober.
Anonymous. Over 19,000 groups exist in the United States. AA encourages alcoholics to admit their lack of power over alcohol and to turn their lives over to a higher power. Members of AA are encouraged not to be judgmental about the behavior of other members. They support anyone with a problem caused by alcohol.
An _______________ is a recurrent, irrational, unwanted thought or impulse.
Obsession. An obsession is a recurrent, irrational thought, while a compulsion is a recurrent, irrational action.
An irrational, repetitive, forced action, usually associated with an obsession is called a ______________.
Compulsion. In terms of tobacco use, a compulsion is a strong emotional desire to continue tobacco use despite restrictions on smoking and the awareness of health risks. Very likely, the user is compelled to engage in uninterrupted tobacco use in fear of the unpleasant physical, emotional, and social effects that result from discontinuing use.

In compulsion, indulgence is seen as rewarding oneself for aligning with a particular group or behavior pattern. Indulgence is made possible by the existence of various reward systems built around the use of tobacco.
The physiologically active, dependence-producing drug found in tobacco is known as ____________.
Nicotine. In the brain, nicotine stimulates the production of excitatory neurotransmitters, including norepinephrine, dopamine, acetylcholine, and serotonin, that generate a pleasurable sensation of arousal. Wanting to maintain this feeling of arousal, the smoker inhales again and again. Nicotine may also stimulate the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In response to the ACTH, beta endorphins are produced in specific areas of the brain, leading to the mild feelings of euphoria.
________ is the process of adopting the admired behavior patterns of another person.
Modeling. In the view of behavioral scientists, dependence on tobacco can also be explained on the basis of psychosocial factors. Because tobacco use is a learned behavior, it is reasonable to accept that modeling acts as a stimulus to experimental smoking.

Modeling suggests that susceptible people smoke to emulate or model their behavior after smokers whom they admire or with whom they share other types of social or emotional bonds. Particularly for young adolescents, smoking behavior correlates with the smoking behavior of slightly older peers and very young adults, older siblings, and parents.
Diseases associated with smokeless tobacco include oral cancer, periodontal disease and cancer of the digestive and ___________ systems.
Urinary. Inadvertently swallowed saliva contains dissolved carcinogens, which creates cancer risks for both the digestive and urinary systems of the body.
Cigarette, cigar, and pipe smoke can be described on the basis of two phases or components. The _______________ phase is the portion of tobacco smoke composed of small suspended particles.
Particulate. This phase includes nicotine, water, and a variety of powerful chemical compounds known collectively as tar. As tar is drawn down the airway, the larger particles settle along its length, while the smaller particles reach the alveoli, or small saclike ends of the airway, where air comes in close association with the bloodstream. Most carcinogenic (cancer causing) compounds are found within the tar.
Like the particulate phase, the ____________ phase of tobacco smoke is composed of a variety of physiological active compounds, including carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, ammonia, hydrogen cyanide, isoprene, acetaldehyde, and acetone.
Gaseous. At least 43 of these compounds have been determined to be carcinogenic (cancer causing). Carbon monoxide is the most damaging compound found in this component of tobacco smoke.
Burning tobacco forms ___________ ____________ gas, which is one of the most harmful components of tobacco smoke.
Carbon monoxide. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas that possesses a very strong physiological attraction for hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying component of each red blood cell. When carbon monoxide is inhaled, it quickly bonds with hemoglobin and forms a new compound, carboxyhemoglobin. The presence of excessive levels of carbon monoxide in the blood of smokers leads to shortness of breath and lowered endurance. Carbon monoxide influences the type and extent of cardiovascular disease found among tobacco users.
Secondhand tobacco smoke can increase the risk of acute _________ attacks that require hospital emergency care.
Asthma. Secondhand tobacco smoke is an indoor air pollutant widely recognized as a major health risk, especially for children.
Nicotine increases blood _____________ adhesiveness.
Platelet. Platelets are the components of blood that causes it to clot, or coagulate, after an injury. Nicotine makes these platelets more likely to adhere to one another, or “clump,” which can cause blood clots to develop in the arteries. Heart attacks occur when clots form within the coronary arteries or are transported to the heart from other areas of the body.
Chronic obstructive lung disease (COLD) is a chronic disorder in which airflow in and out of the lungs becomes progressively limited. COLD is made up of two separate, but related diseases. Chronic ____________ is the persistent inflammation and infection of the smaller airways within the lung.
Bronchitis. With chronic bronchitis, excess mucus is produced in response to the effects of smoking on airway tissue, and the walls of the bronchi become inflamed and infected. This produces a characteristic narrowing of the air passages. Breathing becomes difficult, and activity can become severely restricted. People who stop smoking can reverse chronic bronchitis.
Pulmonary ____________ is an irreversible disease process in which the alveoli are destroyed.
Emphysema. Chest pressure builds when air becomes trapped by narrowed air passages and the thin-walled sacs (alveoli) rupture. Emphysema patients often develop a “barrel chest” as they lose the ability to exhale fully. Patients with chronic obstructive lung disease tend to die a very unpleasant, prolonged death, often from a general collapse of normal cardiorespiratory function that results in congestive heart failure.
Studies indicate that a smoker’s risk of ________________ disease decreases quickly after quitting regardless of how long they smoked.
Cardiovascular. According to the American Heart Association, the risk of heart disease decreases rapidly after smoking cessation, no matter how long the individual smoked. Research shows that within 3 years of smoking cessation, the risk of heart disease is almost the same as for someone who never smoked.
Smoking ________ therapies are available in a variety of forms, including nicotine gum, trans dermal patches, nicotine inhalation devices, and oral medications that affect neurotransmitters.
Cessation. The chewing gum has been on the market for a number of years and when used correctly along with smoking cessation counseling, has demonstrated a success rate of 40% or more.

To aid smoking cessation efforts, nicotine replacement products can be used alone or with other therapies. Zyban and Wellbutrin are antidepressant medications that increase the production of dopamine, a neurotransmitter. Dopamine production declines when a smoker quits, creating the craving to smoke. Prozac, a serotonin-specific antidepressant, has also shown promise in boosting success rates of smokers who try to quit.
According to a 2002 survey on cigarette smoking in the US, ____ percent of Americans smoke.
22.5%. The survey also revealed men (25.2%) were more likely to smoke than women (20%). American Indians and Alaska natives had the highest number of smokers (40.8%) while Asian or Pacific Islanders had the lowest number (13.3%). Blacks (22%) and whites (23%) were about the same. Hispanics reported 16.7%.
The process of developing an addiction has been a much-studied topic. Three common aspects of addictive behavior are ______________, compulsion, and loss of control.
Exposure. An addiction can begin after a person is exposed to a drug or a behavior that he or she finds pleasurable. When more energy, time, and money are spent pursuing the drug use or behavior, the person can be said to have a compulsion for the drug or behavior. Over time, the search for highs changes to a search to avoid the effect of withdrawal from the drug or behavior. Addicted people lose their ability to control their behavior.
________ _____ __________ refers to the tendency of addicted people to continue undesirable behavior regardless of overwhelming negative consequences.
Loss of control. For alcoholics, this might mean continuing to drink even after losing their job, family, and health. The same would apply to any addictive behavior; for example, illicit drug use, overeating, smoking etc.
_______________ drugs cause intoxication, altering a persons feelings, behavior, perceptions and moods.
Psychoactive. Psychoactive drugs refer to any substance capable of altering feelings, moods, or perceptions. They include stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, opiates, and inhalants.
Psychoactive drugs have strong potential for the development of ________________.
Dependence. When users take a psychoactive drug, the patterns of nervous system function are altered. If these altered functions provide perceived benefits for the user, drug use may continue, perhaps at increasingly larger dosages. If persistent use continues, the user can develop a dependence on the drug. Pharmacologists have identified two types of dependences--physical and psychological.
_______________ is an acquired reaction to a drug in which continued intake of the same dose has diminishing effects.
Tolerance. Continued use of most drugs can lead to tolerance. The user needs larger doses of the drug to get the original effect. The continued use of depressants (including alcohol) and opiates can cause users to quickly develop a tolerance to the drug.

Furthermore, tolerance developed for one drug may carry over to another drug within the same general category. For example, a heavy abuser of alcohol may require a larger dose of a preoperative sedative to become relaxed before surgery than the average person.
In general, ______________ excite or increase the activity of the central nervous system.
Stimulants. Also called “uppers,” stimulants arouse the CNS by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and the rate of brain function. Users feel uplifted and less fatigued. Examples of stimulant drugs include caffeine, amphetamines, and cocaine. Most stimulants produce psychological dependence and tolerance relatively quickly, but they are unlikely to produce significant physical dependence when judged by life-threatening withdrawal symptoms.
________________ sedate the user, slowing down central nervous system function.
Depressants. Drugs included in this category are alcohol, barbiturates, and tranquilizers. Depressants produce tolerance in abusers, as well as strong psychological and physical dependence.
________________ drugs are psychoactive drugs that produce hallucinations, which are perceived distortions of reality.
Hallucinogenic. Also known as psychedelic drugs or phantasticants, hallucinogens reached their height of popularity during the 1960s. Hallucinogenic drugs include laboratory produced lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), mescaline, and psilocybin. Consumption of hallucinogens does not seem to produce physical dependence and only mild levels of
_____________, or marijuana, has been labeled a mild hallucinogen for a number of years, and some experts now consider it to be a drug category in itself.
Cannabis. Marijuana produces mild effects like those of both stimulants and depressants. The potency of marijuana’s hallucinogenic effect is determined by the percentage of the active ingredient tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) present in the product.

THC is a fat-soluble substance and thus is absorbed and retained in fat tissues within the body. Before being excreted, THC can remain in the body for up to a month. With the sophistication of today’s drug tests, trace amounts of THC can be detected for up to 3 weeks after consumption.
Alcohol, tobacco and marijuana are often called ____________ drugs.
Gateway. They are often referred to as gateway drugs because their use is believed to lead to the use of the stronger drugs (i.e. cocaine, heroin, etc.). In other words, people who start using cocaine don't jump right to cocaine--they generally start out with alcohol, tobacco, or marijuana first.
______________, or opiates, are among the most dependence-producing drugs
Narcotics. Medically, narcotics are used to relieve pain and induce sleep. On the basis of origin, narcotics can be subgrouped into the natural, quasisynthetic, and synthetic narcotics.
A ______________ drug effect is a dangerous consequence of taking different drugs in the same general category at the same time.
Synergistic. The combination exaggerates each individual drug’s effects. For example, the combined use of alcohol and tranquilizers produces a synergistic effect greater than the total effect of each of the two drugs taken separately. In this instance, a much-amplified, perhaps fatal sedation will occur.
_____________ are a class of drugs that includes a variety of volatile compounds that generally produce unpredictable, drunklike effects in users.
Inhalants. Inhalants are psychoactive drugs that enter the body through inhalation. Users of inhalants may also have some delusions and hallucinations. Some users may become quite aggressive. Drugs in this category may include anesthetic gases, vasodilators, petroleum products and commercial solvents, and certain aerosols.
__________ (men or women?) are more likely to use, abuse, and be dependent on illicit drugs.
Men. Men account for about 80% of arrests for drug abuse violations, 70% of admissions for treatment, and 65% of drug related deaths.
Illicit drugs and prescription drugs are not the only drugs with potential for health risks. When used on a routine basis, _______ medications should be carefully discussed with a physician or pharmacist.
OTC (Over the counter). Unlike prescription drugs, OTC drugs can be purchased without a prescription. They are easily purchased because they have been deemed unlikely to be abused and have a low potential for causing harm. However, when used on a routine basis over an extended period of time, their use should be carefully discussed with a physician or pharmacist.

Over the counter medications include aspirin, cold medicine and laxatives.
___________________ endurance is the ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to process and transport oxygen required by muscle cells over a period of time.
___________________ endurance is the ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to process and transport oxygen required by muscle cells over a period of time.
_______________ energy production is the body’s means of energy production when the necessary amount of oxygen is not available.
Anaerobic. This is the type of energy production that fuels many intense, short-duration activities. For example, rope-climbing, weight lifting for strength and sprinting are short duration activities that quickly cause muscle fatigue and are considered anaerobic activities.

Activities that are not generally associated with anaerobic energy production such as walking and distance jogging become anaerobic activities when they are either increased in intensity or continued for an extended period.
____________ energy production is the body’s means of energy production when the respiratory and circulatory systems are able to process and transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to muscle cells.
Aerobic. If a person usually works or plays at a low intensity, but for a long duration, they have developed an ability to maintain aerobic energy production. As long as a person’s body can meet its energy demands in this oxygen-rich mode, it will not convert to anaerobic energy production.

Marathon runners, serious joggers, distance swimmers, aerobic dancers, and bikers can perform because of their highly developed aerobic fitness. The cardiorespiratory systems of these aerobically fit people take in, transport, and use oxygen in the most efficient manner possible.
___________ improves memory and alertness and can help people perform cognitive tasks at peak levels.
Exercise. Research indicates that exercise alters mood by effecting brain chemicals, specifically levels of endorphins and neurotransmitters. Endorphins decrease pain, suppress fatigue and produce euphoria. Neurotransmitters reduce stress and increase alertness.
The best way to add muscle mass is through ________________ training such as weight training.
Resistance. Greater muscle mass makes possible a higher rate of metabolism and faster energy use, which helps maintain a healthy body weight.
Muscular strength can be improved best by training activities that use the _____________ principle.
Overload. Muscular strength is increased by overloading or gradually increasing resistance your muscles must move. Weight lifting is an example of this type of exercise.
_____________ exercises are muscular strength exercises in which the resistance is so great that the object cannot be moved.
Isometric. In isometric exercises, the person's muscles contract against an immovable object (i.e. a wall), usually with increasingly greater effort. Because of the difficulty of precisely evaluating the training effects, isometric exercises are not usually used as a primary means of developing muscular strength and can be dangerous for people with hypertension (high blood pressure).
Muscular training exercises in which traditional barbells and dumbbells with fixed resistances are used are referred to as as _______________ resistance exercises.
Progressive. Also called isotonic or same-tension exercises, progressive resistance exercises are currently the most popular type of strength-building exercises. Progressive resistance exercises include the use of traditional free weights as well as Universal and Nautilus machines.

People who perform these types of exercises use various muscle groups to move or lift specific fixed resistances or weights. Although during a given repetitive exercise the weight resistance remains the same, the muscular contraction effort required varies according to the joint angles in the range of motion.
______________ exercises use mechanical devices that provide resistances that consistently overload muscles throughout the entire range of motion.
Isokinetic. The resistance will move only at a preset speed regardless of the force applied to it. For the exercise to be effective, the user must apply maximum force. Isokinetic training requires elaborate, expensive equipment. The use of isokinetic equipment may be limited to certain athletic teams, diagnostic centers, or rehabilitation clinics.
Supported by the respiratory and circulatory system, muscular _________________ is the ability of a muscle or muscle group to function over time.
Endurance. Muscular endurance is a component of physical fitness that is associated with strength. When muscles contract and their individual muscle fibers shorten, energy is needed. Energy production requires that oxygen and nutrients be delivered by the circulatory system to the muscles. After these products are transformed into energy by individual muscle cells, the body must remove the potentially toxic waste by-products.
The ability of joints to function through an intended range of motion is known as _____________.
Flexibility. This fitness trait, like others, differs from point to point within a body and among different people. Not every joint in one’s body is equally flexible, and over the course of time, use or disuse will alter the flexibility of a given joint. Gender, age, genetically determined body build, and current level of physical fitness will affect a person’s flexibility.

Failure to use joints regularly will quickly result in a loss of elasticity in the connective tissue and shortening of muscles associated with the joints.
Body _______________ is the makeup of the body in terms of muscle, bone, fat, and other elements.
Composition. Of particular interest to fitness experts are the percentages of body fat and fat-free weight. Health experts are especially concerned about the large number of people in our society who are overweight and obese. Increasingly, cardiorespiratory fitness trainers are recognizing the importance of body composition and are including strength-training exercises to help reduce body fat.
Small amounts of _______ are essential to the body. They help insulate, support and cushion organs and are major fuel sources during rest and light activity.
Fat. Two fats, linoleic acid and alpha linolenic acid are essential dietary components.
______________ of training refers to the number of times per week a person should exercise.
Frequency. Frequency of training refers to the number of times per week a person should exercise. The American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommends that people exercise three to five times per week. For most people, exercising more than five times a week does not significantly improve their level of conditioning. Likewise, an average of only two workouts per week does not seem to produce a measurable improvement in cardiorespiratory conditioning.
The American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommends that healthy adults exercise at an intensity level of between 60% and 90% of their maximum heart rate. This level of intensity is called the ________.
THR (target heart rate). The THR refers to the minimum number of times the heart needs to contract each minute to have a positive effect on a person’s heart, lungs, and blood vessels. This improvement is called the training effect. Intensity of activity below the THR will be insufficient to make a significant improvement in a person’s fitness level. Although intensity below the THR will still help a person expend calories and lose weight, it will probably do little to make them more aerobically fit.
_________________, which are the body’s primary source of energy, are chemical compounds composed of sugar units.
Carbohydrates. Each gram of carbohydrate contains 4 calories. Since the average person requires approximately 2000 calories per day and about 60% of our calories come from carbohydrates, we obtain roughly 1200 calories per day from carbohydrates.
_______________ fats are fats that are difficult for the body to use.
Saturated. Saturated fats, including those found in animal sources and in vegetable oils to which hydrogen has been added, becoming trans-fatty acids, need to be carefully limited in a modern healthy diet. Concern over the presence of trans-fatty acids is associated with changes to the cell membrane, including those cells lining the artery wall. This possibly prevents these vessel wall cells from freeing cholesterol from their surfaces.
_____________, which are the primary components of muscle and connective tissue, are compounds composed of chains of amino acids.
Proteins. Proteins are found in every living cell. Of the 20 naturally occurring amino acids, the body can synthesize all but nine essential amino acids which come from the foods we eat. A food that contains all nine essential amino acids is called a complete protein food.

Sources of complete protein are animal products including milk, meat, cheese, and eggs. A food source that does not contain all nine essential amino acids is an incomplete protein food. Vegetables, grains, and legumes are principal sources of incomplete protein.
Many traditional food pairings, such as beans and rice or corn and beans, emerged as dietary staples because they are ______________ proteins.
Complementary. Certain combinations of vegetable proteins, such as beans and rice, allow each vegetable to make up for the missing amino acids in the other protein. These combinations are called complementary proteins.
Organic compounds that facilitate the action of enzymes are called ___________
Vitamins. Vitamins are required in small amounts for normal growth, reproduction, and maintenance of health. Vitamins differ from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in that they do not provide calories or serve as structural elements for our bodies.

Vitamins are coenzymes. By facilitating the action of enzymes, vitamins help initiate a wide variety of body responses, including energy production, use of minerals, and growth of healthy tissue. Vitamins can be classified as water soluble or fat-soluble.
Inorganic materials, called ____________, make up nearly 5% of the body.
Minerals. Minerals function primarily as structural elements in teeth, muscles, hemoglobin, and hormones. They are also critical in the regulation of body processes, including muscle contraction, heart function, blood clotting, protein synthesis, and red blood cell formation.

Approximately 21 minerals have been recognized as essential for human health. Major minerals are those that are seen in relatively high amounts in body tissue. Examples of major minerals are calcium, phosphorus, sulfur, sodium, potassium, and magnesium. Examples of trace elements, minerals seen in small amounts in body tissues, include zinc, iron, copper, selenium, and iodine.
_________ refers to nondigestible carbohydrates provided by plants.
Fiber. Found in cereal, fruits, and vegetables, fiber consumption is essential for good health. Fiber isn’t digested, but instead moves through the digestive tract and out of the body.

Fiber is classified into two large groups on the basis of water solubility. Insoluble fibers are those that can absorb water from the intestinal tract. Soluble fibers turn to a gel within the intestinal tract and in so doing bind to liver bile, to which cholesterol is attached.
A primary form of fat found in the blood is known as _________________.
Cholesterol. A high blood level of cholesterol has been reported to be a risk factor for the development of cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol is necessary in all animal tissue and is manufactured by our bodies.

Evidence first reported more than a decade ago suggests that increased intake of saturated fats may increase serum cholesterol levels. However, the relationship between intake of dietary cholesterol and serum cholesterol levels remain unclear. Nevertheless, most doctors still recommend that people restrict their dietary intake of cholesterol to 300 mg
________________ is the abnormal depletion of fluids from the body.
Dehydration. Water may be the most essential nutrient. Humans could survive for weeks or even years without some essential nutrients, but without water, most humans would die of dehydration within a week.
________ is used in the digestion and absorption of food and is the medium in which most of the chemical reactions take place within the body.
Water. More than half our body weight comes from water. Water provides the medium for nutrient and waste transport, controls body temperature, and plays a key role in nearly all of the body’s biochemical reactions. Adults require six to ten glasses of water each day, depending on their activity level and environment.
Food _____________ are chemical compounds that are intentionally added to our food supply to change some aspect of the food, such as its color or texture.
Additives. Today’s food manufacturers add chemical compounds to the food supply for several reasons such as: (1) to maintain the nutritional value of the food; (2) to maintain the food’s freshness by preventing changes in its color, flavor, and texture; (3) to contribute to the processing of the food by controlling its texture, acidity, and thickness; and (4) to make the food more appealing to the consumer by enhancing the flavor and standardizing its color.
An ___________________ is a diet that excludes all meat but does include the consumption of eggs and dairy products.
Ovolactovegetarian. Depending on the particular pattern of consuming eggs and milk or using one but not the other, ovolactovegetarianism can be an extremely sound approach to healthful eating during the adult years. This type of diet provides the body with the essential amino acids and limits the high intake of fats seen in more conventional diets. The exclusion of meat as a protein source lowers the total fat intake, and the consumption of milk or eggs allows an adequate amount of saturated fat to remain in the diet.
A __________ vegetarian diet excludes all animal products, including eggs and dairy products.
Vegan. When compared with the ovolactovegetarian diet, the vegan diet requires greater nutritional understanding to avoid malnourishment. One potential difficulty for the novice vegan is in obtaining all of the essential amino acids. Since a single plant doesn’t contain all the essential amino acids, the vegan must learn to consistently use a complementary diet.

Vegans often have trouble maintaining adequate intakes of iron, zinc, and calcium. In addition, vitamin D deficiencies can occur.
A ____________ caloric balance is when caloric intake is greater than caloric expenditure.
Positive. When the body is supplied with more energy than it can use, a predictable response is seen--the storage of excess energy in the form of fat. This continuous buildup of fat can eventually result in obesity. Being average to slightly below average weight relates positively with lower levels of premature death.

Among the health problems caused by or complicated by obesity are increased surgical risk, hypertension, various forms of heart disease, stroke, type II diabetes, and deterioration of joints.
The weight range deemed appropriate for people of a specific gender, age, and frame size is referred to as _______________ weight.
Desirable. Nutritionists have traditionally said that obesity is present when fat accumulation produces a body weight that is more than 20% above an ideal or desirable weight.

People are labeled "overweight" if their weight is between 1% and 19% above their desirable weight. As weight increases above the 20% level, the label "obese" is routinely applied. When people are between 20% and 40% above desirable weight, their obesity is described to be mild. When people are 41 to 99% above their desirable weight, they are defined as having moderate obesity.
A numerical expression of body weigh based on height and weight is referred to as the __________.
BMI (body mass index). The BMI indicates the relationship of body weight (expressed in kilograms) to height (expressed in meters) for both men and women. The BMI does not reflect body composition or consider the degree of fat accumulated within the central body cavity, nor is it adjusted for age. A BMI greater than 27.8 for men or 27.3 for women indicates obesity.
Electrical _______________ is a method to test for the percentage of body fat using resistance to the flow of electrical current.
Impedance. This computerized assessment procedure measures the electrical impedance to a weak electrical flow directed through the body. Electrodes are attached to the arm and leg. Because adipose tissue resists the passage of the electrical current more than muscle tissue does, electrical impedance can be used to accurately calculate the percentage of body fat.
_______ _________ is a genetically programmed range of body weight beyond which a person finds it difficult to gain or lose additional weight.
Set point. Traditional theory has suggested that the energy expenditure and energy storage centers of the body possess a genetically programmed awareness of the body’s most physiologically desirable weight. To honor this set point for desirable weight, the body adjusts its baseline use of energy, the basal metabolic rate, upward or downward to accommodate an excessive intake of calories or an inadequate intake of calories.
Obesity can be categorized according to the way in which feeding patterns seem to produce it. _______________ obesity is a form of obesity seen in people who possess an abnormally large number of fat cells.
Detailed Explanation:
Hypercellular. Many researchers believe that the number of fat cells a person has will be initially determined during the first 2 ears of life. Babies who are overfed will develop a greater number of fat cells than babies who receive a balanced diet of appropriate, infant-sized portions. Late childhood and adolescence are also times during which excessive weight gain may result in the formation of additional fat cells.
A form of obesity in which fat cells are enlarged but not excessive in numbers is called _______________ obesity
Hypertrophic. This form of obesity is related to a long-term positive caloric balance during adulthood. Over a period of years, existing fat cells increase in size to accommodate excess food intake. Hypertrophic obesity is generally associated with excessive fat around the waist and is thought to contribute to conditions such as diabetes mellitus, high levels of fat in the blood, high blood pressure, and heart disease.
The amount of energy (in calories) your body requires to maintain basic functions such as blood circulation and glandular activity is called ___________.
BMR (basal metabolic rate). Even when a person is totally relaxed or sleeping, these vital body functions continue to expend calories. Basal metabolism changes as people age. For both males and females, the BMR is relatively high at birth and continues to increase until the age of 2. Except for a slight rise at puberty, their BMR will then gradually decline throughout life.
Nutritional needs change as adults age. Lowering of the basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the primary factor that causes older adults to require ________ calorie intake.
Lower. As adults age, the basal metabolic rate slows down and there is a tendency to decrease physical activity. This results in a decreased need for calories. Other age related changes affecting nutrition include physical changes to the teeth, salivary glands, taste buds and changes to the gastrointestinal tract.
Greater ___________ _______ makes possible a higher rate of metabolism which helps to maintain a healthy body weight.
Muscle mass. There are a number of factors which affect metabolism. The most important is the amount of lean muscle mass that your body contains. Lean muscle mass constantly burns energy, even when you aren't working out. It also burns more calories than any other part of your body. The more lean muscle mass you have, the higher your metabolism will be.
The active chemical compound found in most over-the-counter diet products is called _________.
PPA (phenylpropanolamine). People with high blood pressure, thyroid conditions, diabetes, depression, or glaucoma should not use these products. Some OTC medications have been found to have serious or lethal side effects. The FDA also continues to voice concern about OTC weight loss and energy-promotion products containing ephedrine, which has been linked to heart attacks and strokes.
_______________ is a surgical procedure that involves sealing off about half of the stomach with surgical staples.
Gastroplasty. Once the procedure has been completed, the reduced capacity of the stomach decreases the amount of food that can be processed at any one time. As a result, patients feel full quickly after eating a small meal. The procedure is reversible, but carries the risks associated with surgery and the costs of a major surgical procedure.
____________ nervosa is a disorder of emotional origin in which appetite and hunger are suppressed and marked weight loss occurs.
Anorexia. This self-induced starvation is life-threatening in 5% to 20% of cases. Some people may lose up to 50% of their body weight, which eventually leads to failure of the heart, lungs, and kidneys. Although this condition may seem weight-loss oriented, some experts believe that the anorexic person is attempting to meet a much deeper need for control. Psychological intervention in combination with medical and dietary support can return the anorexic person to a more life-sustaining pattern of eating.
____________ nervosa is a disorder of emotional origin in which binge eating patterns are established and usually accompanied by purging.
Bulimia. As with anorexic people, most people with bulimia are young women, although the incidence in men is growing. People with bulimia lose or maintain weight not because they stop eating, but because they eat and then purge their digestive system by vomiting, using laxatives, or taking syrup of ipecac, a dangerous drug used to stimulate vomiting after an accidental poisoning.

People with bulimia may gorge themselves with food (up to 10,000 calories in a sitting) and then disappear to return later seemingly unaffected by the amount of food they ate.
For a disease to be transferred, a person must come into contact with the disease-producing agent, or ___________, such as a virus, bacterium, or fungus.
Pathogen. When pathogens enter the body, they are sometimes able to resist body defense systems, flourish, and produce an illness. We commonly call this an infection. Because of their small size, pathogens are sometimes referred to as microorganisms, microbes, or germs.
The process of how a disease spreads is broken down into a "chain of infection" consisting of six links. The first link in the chain of infection is the disease-causing _________.
Agent. Whereas some diseases cause serious infectious illnesses such as HIV, which causes AIDS, others produce far less serious infections such as the common cold. Through mutation, some pathogenic agents, particularly viruses, become more virulent than they once were.
Infectious agents must have the support and protection of a favorable environment to survive. This environment forms the second link in the chain of infection and is referred to as the ____________ in which the agent resides.
Reservoir. In many of the most common infectious diseases, the reservoirs in which the pathogenic organisms live are the bodies of already infected people. Here the agents thrive before being spread to others. These infected people are the hosts for particular disease agents.

For other infectious diseases, however, the reservoirs in which the agents are maintained are the bodies of animals. Another type of reservoir in which disease-causing agents can reside is on or in nonliving environments, such as the
For pathogenic agents to cause diseases and illnesses in others, it is necessary that they leave their reservoirs. The third link in the chain of infection is the ____________ of exit, or the point at which agents leave their reservoirs.
Portal. In terms of infectious diseases that involve human reservoirs, the principal portals of exit are the digestive system, urinary system, respiratory system, reproductive system, and the blood.
The fourth link in the chain of infection is the mode of ________________, or the way that pathogens are passed from reservoirs to susceptible hosts.
Transmission. Two principal methods are direct transmission and indirect transmission.

Direct transmission methods are observed in human-to-human transmission. These include contact between body surfaces such as touching, kissing, and sexual intercourse; droplet spread, which is inhalation of contaminated air droplets; and fecal-oral spread which occurs when feces on the hands are brought into contact with the mouth.

Indirect transmission occurs between infected and uninfected people when infectious agents travel by means of nonhuman materials such as water, food items, soil, towels, clothing, and eating utensils.
In the chain of infection, pathogenic agents enter the bodies of uninfected people through the portal of _________.
Entry. This is the fifth link in the chain of infection. As with the portals of exit, there are three primary portals of entry for pathogenic agents to enter the bodies of uninfected people--through the digestive system, respiratory system, and reproductive system. In addition, a break in the skin provides another portal of entry.

In most infectious conditions, the portals of entry prove to be within the same systems as the portals of exit were for the infected people.
The sixth link in the chain of infection is the _______ ________.
New host. All people are in theory at risk for contracting infectious diseases and thus could be identified as susceptible hosts. In practice, however, factors such as overall health, acquired immunity, health care services, and health-related behavior can influence susceptibility to infectious diseases. Not every pathogenic agent will move all the way through the chain of infection because various links in the chain can be broken.
The occurrence of more than the expected number of cases of a disease in a particular community or region is called an ____________.
Epidemic. A related term is pandemic, which refers to widespread (worldwide) epidemics which effect a large segment of the population.
When a new host is assaulted by a pathogenic agent, a reasonably predictable sequence of events takes place. This is known as the five stages of infection. The first stage of infection is the ______________ stage.
Incubation. This stage lasts from the time a pathogen enters the body until it multiplies enough to produce signs and symptoms of the disease. The length of this stage can last from a few hours to many months, depending on the virulence of the organisms, the concentration of organisms, the host’s level of immune responsiveness, and other health problems.

This stage has also been called a silent stage. Transmission of the pathogen to a new host is possible, but not probable during this state. During this stage, it's possible for a host to be infected, but not be infectious.
The second stage of infection is referred to as the ______________ stage.
Prodromal. The incubation stage is followed by a short period during which the host may experience a variety of signs and symptoms such as watery eyes, runny nose, slight fever, and overall tiredness. These symptoms are nonspecific in nature and may not be overwhelming enough to force the host to rest. During this stage, the pathogenic agent continues to multiply. Now the host is capable of transferring pathogens to a new host.
The third stage of infection is known as the _____________ stage, also called the acme or acute stage, and is often the most unpleasant stage for the host.
Clinical. At this time, the disease reaches its highest point of development. All of the clinical or observable signs and symptoms for the particular disease can be seen or analyzed by appropriate laboratory tests. The likelihood of transmitting the disease to others is highest during this peak stage.
In the fourth stage, or the ____________ stage, the first signs of recovery occur.
Decline. The infection is ending or, in some cases, being reduced to a subclinical level. Relapse may occur if the person overextends themself. In HIV and AIDS, this is almost always the last stage before death.
The fifth stage of infection is known as the _______________ stage, also called the convalescence stage, and is characterized by apparent recovery from the invading agent.
Recovery. Disease transmission during this stage is possible, but not probable. Until the host’s overall health has been strengthened, he or she may be especially susceptible to another disease pathogen.

After the recovery stage, further susceptibility to the pathogenic agent should be reduced because of the body’s buildup of immunity. The buildup of immunity is not always permanent. For example, many sexually transmitted diseases can be contracted repeatedly.
The body is protected by two types or components of defenses. _______________ defenses are first-line defenses, since they physically separate the internal body from the external environment.
Mechanical. Included among these are the skin, the mucous membranes that line the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, earwax, the tiny hairs and cilia that filter incoming air, and even tears. These defenses serve as a shield against foreign materials that may contain pathogenic agents. These defenses can be weakened, however, as is done when tobacco smoke kills the cilia that protect the airway or when contact lenses decrease tearing, leading to irritation and eye infection.
The second component of the body’s protective defenses is the cellular system, or more commonly, the _____________ system.
Immune. This system is far more specific with the elimination of microorganisms, foreign proteins, and cells foreign to the body as its primary mission.

A wellness-oriented lifestyle including sound nutrition, effective stress management, and regular exercise oversees the important division of the immune system. The microorganism, foreign proteins, or abnormal cells whose presence activate the immune system are identified collectively as antigens.
_______ is a type of acquired immunity resulting from the body’s response to pathogens introduced into the body through immunizations.
AAI (artificially acquired immunity). AAI occurs when the body is exposed to weakened or killed infectious agents introduced through vaccination or immunization. The body engages the infectious agents and essentially produces a record of how to fight the same battle again.
A type of acquired immunity resulting from the body’s response to naturally occurring pathogens is called __________
NAI (naturally acquired immunity). This type of immunity occurs when the body is naturally exposed to infectious agents. Thus when we catch an infectious disease, we fight the infection and in the process become immune from developing that illness again should reinfection occur.
_________ is temporary immunity achieved by providing antibodies to a person exposed to a particular pathogen.
PAI (passively acquired immunity). This third type of immunity results when antibodies are introduced into the body. These antibodies are for a variety of specific infections and are produced outside the body (either in animals or by the genetic manipulation of microorganisms). When introduced into the human body, they provide immediate protection until a more natural form of immunity can be developed.
Also known as the common cold, acute ____________ is the sudden onset of nasal inflammation.
Rhinitis. This highly contagious viral infection can be caused by any of the nearly 200 known rhinoviruses. Colds are particularly common during periods in which people spend time in crowded indoor environments such as classrooms. Runny nose, watery eyes, general aches and pains, a listless feeling, and a slight fever may all accompany a cold in its early stages. Eventually, the nasal passages swell and the inflammation may spread to the throat.
_______________ is a general term under which a variety of infectious respiratory conditions can be placed.
Pneumonia. Bacterial, viral, fungal, rickettsial, mycoplasmal, and parasitic forms of pneumonia exist. However, bacterial pneumonia is the most common form and is often seen in conjunction with other illnesses that weaken the body’s immune system. Pneumonia is often the specific condition causing death among the frail elderly.
_______________ is a viral infection characterized by weakness, fatigue, swollen glands, sore throat, and low-grade fever.
Mononucleosis. Mono is a viral infection in which the body produces an excess number of mononuclear leukocytes (a type of white blood cell). Mental fatigue and depression are sometimes reported side effects of mono. Even after the acute symptoms disappear, weakness and fatigue can remain for months.

Mono is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic symptoms. Also, the Monospot blood smear can be used to determine the prevalence of abnormal white blood cells. Since this disease is caused by a virus, antibiotic therapy is not recommended.
________ is an illness that causes severe exhaustion, fatigue, aches, and depression and mostly affects women in their thirties and forties.
CFS (chronic fatigue syndrome). Examinations done on the first people with CFS revealed antibodies to the Epstein-Barr virus. Opinions vary widely as to whether the condition is a specific viral infection or some other disorder. Some physicians view CFS as a psychological disorder.
The ___________-______ virus is believed to cause chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS), mononucleosis, and multiple sclerosis (MS).
Epstein-Barr.
__________ is a potentially fatal condition resulting from the proliferation of certain bacteria in the vagina that enter the general blood circulation.
TSS (Toxic shock syndrome). Superabsorbent varieties of tampons can irritate the vaginal lining three times more quickly than regular tampons. This vaginal irritation is enhanced when the tampons remain in the vagina for over 5 hours. Once this irritation has begun, the staphylococcal bacteria have relatively easy access to the bloodstream. Proliferation of these bacteria in the circulatory system and their resultant toxins produce TSS. Left untreated, the victim can die--usually as a result of cardiovascular failure.
_____________ is an inflammatory process in the liver and can be caused by several viruses.
Hepatitis. Types A, B, C, and D have been recognized. Additionally, hepatitis can result indirectly from alcohol and drug abuse. General symptoms include fever, nausea, appetite loss, abdominal pain, and jaundice.

Type A is often associated with eating fecal contaminated food.

Type B (HBV) is spread in various ways including sexual contact, intravenous drug use, tattooing, and though medical and dental practice. Chronic HBV infection has been associated with liver cirrhosis and liver cancer.

Type C is contracted in similar ways as HBV and eventually causes serious or fatal liver disease.

The newly identified type D hepatitis is very difficult to treat, but is found almost exclusively in people already suffering from type B hepatitis.
AIDS is caused by HIV, a virus that attacks the __________ ___ cells of the immune system.
Helper T. When HIV attacks the helper T cells, people lose the ability to fight off a variety of infections that normally would be easily controlled. Infections then develop during a period in which people are vulnerable (that's why these infections are called opportunistic infections).

HIV-infected patients become vulnerable to infection by bacteria, protozoa, fungi, and a number of viruses. HIV is known to be spread only by direct sexual contact involving the exchange of body fluids, the sharing of hypodermic needles, transfusion of infected blood, and perinatal transmission.
Once referred to as venereal diseases, _________'s are infectious diseases that are spread primarily through intimate sexual contact.
STD (sexually transmitted diseases). The current emphasis is on the successful prevention and treatment of STDs rather than on the ethics of sexuality. The following points about STDs are important for all people to keep in mind:

(1) more than one STD can exist in a person at a given point in time

(2) the symptoms of STDs can vary over time and from person to person

(3) little immunity is developed for STDs

(4) STDs can predispose people to additional health problems, including infertility, birth defects in their children, cancer, and long-term disability.
Caused by a nongonoccal bacterium, ____________ is considered to be the most prevalent STD in the United States today.
Chlamydia. Chlamydia trachomatis is the bacterial agent that causes the Chlamydia infection. Chlamydia is the most common cause of nonspecific urethritis (NSU). NSU refers to infections of the urethra and surrounding tissues that are not caused by the bacterium responsible for gonorrhea. About 80% of men with chlamydia show signs and symptoms, including painful urination and a whitish pus discharge from the penis. Most women report no overt signs or symptoms.
A causative agent for genital warts, __________ is a sexually transmitted virus capable of causing precancerous changes in the cervix.
HPV (human papillomavirus). For women, risk factors for HPV include: (1) sexual activity before age 20, (2) intercourse with three or more partners before age 35, and (3) intercourse with a partner who has three or more partners.

HPV is associated with the development of genital warts. These pinkish-white lesions may be found in raised clusters that resemble tiny heads of cauliflower. Found most commonly on the penis, scrotum, labia, cervix, and around the anus, genital warts are the most common symptomatic viral STD in this country.
___________ is really a family of more than 50 viruses, some of which produce recognized diseases in humans (chicken pox, shingles, mononucleosis and others).
Herpes. One subgroup called herpes simplex 1 virus (HSV 1) produces an infection called labial herpes. Labial herpes produces common fever blisters or cold sores seen around the lips and oral cavity. Herpes simplex 2 (HSV 2) is a different strain that produces similar clumps of blister-like lesions in the genital region.

Both HSV 1 and HSV 2 can cause what is known as "genital herpes".
The bacterium of ___________, Treponema pallidum, a spirochete, is transmitted from an infected person to a new host through intimate contact.
Syphilis. Moist, warm tissue like the linings of the reproductive, urinary, and digestive systems offer an ideal environment for the agent. After infection, an asymptomatic incubation period of 10 to 90 days gives way to the characteristic primary stage of the disease. Lasting 1 to 5 weeks, the primary stage of syphilis is associated with the formation of a small, raised, painless sore called a chancre. The extremely contagious secondary stage of the disease is seen 6 to 12 weeks after initial infection. Syphilis is treated with penicillin, tetracycline, or erythromycin.
The term ______________ system refers to the body’s blood vessels.
Vascular. Although people seem to be most familiar with the arteries and the veins, arterioles, capillaries, and venules are also included in the vascular system. Arterioles are the farther smaller-diameter extensions of arteries. These arterioles lead eventually to capillaries, the smallest extensions of the vascular system. At the capillary level, exchanges of oxygen, food, and waste occur between cells and the blood. Blood pressure is highest in arteries and lowest in veins
Two upper chambers, called _________, and two lower chambers, called ventricles, form the heart.
Atria. The heart is a four-chambered pump designed to create the pressure required to circulate blood throughout the body. Usually considered to be about the size of a person’s clenched fist, this organ lies slightly tilted between the lungs in the central portion of the chest.

The thin-walled atrial chambers are considered collecting chambers, whereas the thick-walled muscular ventricles are considered the pumping chambers. The right and left sides of the heart are divided by a partition called the septum.
The average-sized adult has approximately _______ quarts of blood in his or her circulatory system.
Six. Blood's functions, which are performed continuously, include the following: transportation of nutrients, oxygen, wastes, hormones, and enzymes; regulation of water content of body cells and fluids; buffering to help maintain appropriate pH balance of body fluids; and prevention of blood loss by coagulating or clotting.
A _______________ risk factor is an attribute that a person has or is exposed to that increases the likelihood that he or she will develop some form of heart disease.
Cardiovascular. The American Heart Association encourages people to protect and enhance their heart health by examining the 10 cardiovascular risk factors that are related to various forms of heart disease. Three risk factors that can’t be changed are increasing age, male gender, and heredity.
There are four cardiovascular risk factors that are influenced by lifestyle choices. ____________ is the major risk factor associated with sudden cardiac death.
Smoking. Smokers have two to four times the risk of dying from sudden cardiac arrest than nonsmokers. Cigarette or tobacco smoke also adversely affects nonsmokers who are exposed to environmental tobacco smoke. For people who have smoked a pack or less of cigarettes per day, within 3 years after quitting smoking, their heart disease risk is virtually the same as those who never smoked.
A lack of _____________ is a significant risk factor for heart disease.
Exercise. Regular aerobic exercise helps strengthen the heart muscle, maintain healthy blood vessels, and improve the ability of the vascular system to transfer blood and oxygen to all parts of the body. Additionally, physical activity helps lower overall blood cholesterol levels for most people, encourages weigh loss and retention of lean muscle mass, and allows people to moderate the stress in their lives.
___________ is a debilitating chronic disease that has a significant effect on the human body.
Diabetes. In addition to increasing the risk of developing kidney disease, blindness, and nerve damage, diabetes increases the likelihood of developing heart and blood vessel diseases. The cardiovascular damage is thought to occur when diabetes begins to alter normal cholesterol and blood fat levels. With weight management, exercise, dietary changes, and drug therapy, diabetes can be relatively well controlled in most people.
A form of cardiovascular disease (CVD), ____________ heart disease, also known as coronary artery disease, involves damage to the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.
Coronary. The bulk of the blood to the heart muscle is supplied by the coronary arteries. Any damage to these important vessels can cause a reduction in the blood (and the vital oxygen and nutrients it contains) that reaches a specific area of heart muscle. The ultimate result of inadequate blood supply is a heart attack.
The principal cause for the development of coronary heart disease is ________________, which is a buildup of plaque on the inner walls of arteries.
Atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis produces a narrowing of the coronary arteries which stems from the long term buildup of plaque. This buildup reduces the blood supply to the specific portions of the heart. Some arteries of the heart can become so blocked that all blood supply is stopped.

Heart muscle tissue begins to die when it is deprived of oxygen and nutrients; this has the potential to result in myocardial infarction or heart attack.
When coronary arteries become narrowed, _________ pain, or angina pectoris, is often felt.
Chest. This pain results from a reduced supply of oxygen to heart muscle tissue. Usually, angina is felt when the patient becomes stressed or exercises too strenuously. Angina reportedly can range from a feeling of mild indigestion to a severe viselike pressure in the chest. The pain may extend from the center of the chest to the arms and even up to the jaw. Generally, the more severe the blockage, the more pain is felt.
Cholesterol is attached to structures called lipoproteins. Two major classes of lipoproteins exist. _________ is the type of lipoprotein that transports the largest amount of cholesterol in the blood stream.
LDL (Low-density lipoprotein). High levels of LDL are a significant cause of atherosclerosis. LDL carries the greatest percentage of cholesterol in the bloodstream and are more likely to deposit excess cholesterol onto the artery walls. LDLs are often called the “bad cholesterol.”
Also known as the “good cholesterol”, _________ transports cholesterol from the bloodstream to the liver, where it is eventually removed from the body.
HDL (high-density lipoprotein). High levels of HDL are related to a reduction in heart disease. HDLs are thought to transport cholesterol out of the bloodstream.

Certain lifestyle changes such as quitting smoking, reducing obesity, increasing physical activity, and decreasing dietary fats help many people increase their level of HDLs.
Once the extent of heart attack damage is identified, a physician or team of physicians can decide on a medical course of action. Currently popular is an extensive form of surgery called coronary artery ___________ surgery.
Bypass. The purpose of this surgery is to detour or bypass areas of coronary artery obstruction by using a section of a vein from the patient’s leg or an artery from the patient’s chest and grafting it from the aorta to a location just beyond the area of obstruction. Multiple areas of obstruction result in double, triple, or quadruple bypasses.
______________, an alternative to bypass surgery, involves the surgical insertion of a doughnut-shaped “balloon” directly into the narrowed coronary artery.
Angioplasty. When this balloon is inflated, plaque and fatty deposits are compressed against the artery walls, widening the space through which blood flows. These balloons usually remain within the artery for less than 1 hour. Renarrowing of the artery will occur in about one quarter of angioplasty patients. Balloon angioplasty can be used for blockages in the heart, kidneys, arms, and legs.
______________ refers to a consistently elevated blood pressure.
Hypertension. Throughout the body, hypertension makes arteries and arterioles become less elastic and thus incapable of dilating (expanding) under a heavy workload. Brittle, calcified blood vessels can burst unexpectedly and produce serious strokes, kidney failure, or retinal hemorrhage. It also appears that blood and fat clots are more easily formed and dislodged in a vascular system affected by hypertension. Hypertension can be a cause of heart attacks.
_________ is a general term of a wide variety of crises that result from blood vessel damage in the brain.
Stroke. African-Americans have a 60% greater risk of stroke than white Americans do, probably because African-Americans have a greater likelihood of having hypertension than white Americans. Just as the heart muscle needs an adequate blood supply, so does the brain. Any disturbance in the proper supply of oxygen and nutrients to the brain can pose a threat.
A __________________ occlusion is a blockage to arteries supplying blood to the cerebral cortex of the brain.
Cerebrovascular. Similar to coronary occlusions, a cerebrovascular occlusion can be started by a clot that forms within an artery, called a thrombus, or by a clot that travels to another part of the body to the brain, called an embolism. The resultant accidents (cerebral thrombosis or cerebral embolism) cause between 70% and 80% of all strokes. The portion of the brain deprived of oxygen and nutrients can literally die.
An _______________ is a ballooning or outpouching on a weakened area of an artery.
Detailed Explanation:
Aneurysm. Aneurysms may occur in various locations of the body and are not always life threatening. The development of aneurysms is not fully understood, although there seems to be a relationship between aneurysms and hypertension. When a cerebral aneurysm bursts, a stroke results.
______________ heart disease is the final stage in a series of complications started by a streptococcal infection of the throat (strep throat).
Rheumatic. If left untreated, this bacterial infection can result in an inflammatory disease called rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever is a whole body reaction that can produce fever, joint pain, skin rashes, and possible brain and heart damage. Damage from rheumatic fever centers on the heart’s valves. For some reason, the bacteria tend to proliferate in the heart valves. Defective heart valves may fail either to open fully or to close fully.
_________ is damage resulting from restricted blood flow to the extremities, especially the legs and feet.
PAD (Peripheral artery disease). PAD, also called peripheral vascular disease (PVD), is a blood vessel disease characterized by pathological changes to the arteries and arterioles. These changes result from years of damage to the peripheral blood vessels.

Important causes of PAD are cigarette smoking, a high-fat diet, obesity, and sedentary occupations. PAD severely restricts blood flow to the extremities. The reduction in blood flow is responsible for leg pain or cramping during exercise, numbness, tingling, coldness, and loss of hair in the affected limb.
______________ heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump out all the blood that returns to it, which can lead to dangerous fluid accumulations in veins, lungs, and kidneys.
Congestive. During congestive heart failure, the heart continues to work, but it cannot function well enough to maintain appropriate circulation. Venous blood flow starts to “back up.” Swelling occurs, especially in the legs and ankles. Fluid can collect in the lungs and cause breathing difficulties and shortness of breath, and kidney function may be damaged. Without medical care, congestive heart failure can be fatal.
When an illness is __________, the effect of being ill may extend over long periods of time, perhaps even an entire life.
Chronic. People with chronic illness must eventually find a balance between day-to-day function and the continuous presence of their condition. Cancer is usually an illness that is chronic in nature.
Genetic _____________ develop when dividing cells miscopy genetic information.
Mutations. If the gene that is miscopied is a protooncogene, the oncogene that results will stimulate the formation of cancerous cells. A variety of factors including aging, free radical formation, radiation, and an array of carcinogens are associated with the miscopying of the complex genetic information that comprises the genes found within the cell, including those intended to prevent cancer.
One possible explanation for the conversion of protooncogenes into oncogenes involves the presence of environmental agents known as _______________.
Carcinogens. Over an extended period, carcinogens, such as chemicals found in tobacco smoke, polluted air and water, toxic wastes, and even the high fat content of foods, may convert protooncogenes into oncogenes. These carcinogens may work alone or in combination. Thus people might develop lung cancer if they are exposed to the right combination of carcinogens over an extended period.
Because cancerous cells do not possess the ____________ inhibition (a control mechanism that influences the number of cells that can occupy a particular space) of normal cells, they can accumulate and eventually alter the structure of a body organ or break though its wall into neighboring areas.
Contact. Additionally, the absence of cellular cohesiveness (a property seen in normal cells that “keeps them at home”) allows cancer cells to spread through the circulatory or lymphatic system to distant points via metastasis.
Noncancerous, or ___________ tumors do not spread.
Benign. These tumors are usually enclosed by a fibrous membrane and do not spread from their point of origin as cancerous tumors can. Benign tumors can be dangerous when they crowd out normal tissue within a confined space.
Cancers are named on the basis of the type of tissue in which they occur. _____________ is most frequently found in the skin, nose, mouth, throat, stomach, intestinal tract, glands, nerves, breasts, urinary and genital structures, lungs, kidneys, and liver.
Carcinoma. Approximately 85% of all malignant tumors are classified as carcinomas.
Melanoma is a cancer which arises from the melanin-containing cells of ______
Skin. It is found most often in individuals who have had extensive sun exposure, particularly a deep, penetrating sunburn. Although once rare, the amount of this cancer has increased markedly in recent years. It remains among the most deadly forms of cancer.
The American Cancer Society recommends the letters A,B,C,D and E to help people remember the symptoms of _____________.
Melanoma. Early detection is the key to successful treatment of the skin cancer melanoma. The letters to help remember the symptoms are A for asymmetry, B for border irregularity, C is for color change, and D for diameter and E for elevation.
________ cancer is one of the most lethal forms of cancer that is frequently diagnosed.
Lung. Primarily because of the advanced stage at which symptoms first appear, only 14% of all lung cancer victims survive 5 years beyond diagnosis. By the time victims are sufficiently concerned about their persistent cough, blood streaked sputum, and chest pain, it is often too late for treatment to be effective. Today it is known that a genetic predisposition is important in the development of lung cancer. When people who are genetically at risk also smoke, their level of risk for developing lung cancer is hundreds of times greater than it is for nonsmokers.
Surpassed only by lung cancer, __________ cancer is the second leading cause of death from cancer in women.
Breast. Now, nearly 1 in 8 women will develop breast cancer. Although women and men are at some risk for developing breast cancer, women whose menstrual periods began when they were young and for whom menopause was late, women who had no children or had their first child later in life, and women with a family history of breast cancer are at greater risk. If a lump is found, a breast biopsy can determine what the lump is. If the lump is cancerous, treatment is highly effective if the cancer is found at an early stage.
The American Cancer Society recommends women begin routine mammograms at age ______.
40. Mammograms are the best tool for the early detection of breast cancer.
A cancer screening procedure in which cells are removed from the cervix and examined for precancerous changes is known as a ________ test.
Pap. The death rate from uterine cancer has dropped greatly since 1950, largely because of the use of the Pap test. Without screening, a 20-year-old of average risk has a 250 in 10,000 chance of getting cervical cancer and a 118 in 10,000 chance of dying from it. With screening, a 20-year-old of average risk has a 35 in 10,000 chance of getting this form of cancer and only an 11 in 10,000 chance of dying from it.
In 2006, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announced the approval of Gardasil, the first vaccine developed to prevent ___________ cancer.
Cervical. Gardasil protects against four types of HPV virus that together account for 90% of genital warts and 70% of cervical cancers. HPV is the most common sexually-transmitted infection in the United States.
Because of its vague symptoms, ____________ cancer has been referred to as a silent cancer.
Ovarian. Digestive disturbances, gas, and stomach distention are often its only symptoms. Diagnosis of this highly lethal cancer is made using transvaginal ultrasound and surgery. A new three-drug combination, which includes Taxol, has extended average remission by nearly two years. This is the first significant progress on the treatment of ovarian cance
Cancer of the ____________ is among the least common forms of cancer; however, it represents the most common solid tumor in men between the ages of 20 and 34 years.
Testicle. Testicular cancer has a tendency to run in families and is more common in men whose testicles were undescended during childhood. Symptoms of cancer of the testicles include a small, painless lump on the side of the testicle, a swollen or enlarged testicle, or heaviness or a dragging sensation in the groin or scrotum. Risk factors include confirmed injury, mumps, and hormonal treatments given to the mother before the child’s birth.
Cancer of the _____________ is the third most common form of cancer in men and a leading cause of death from cancer in older men.
Prostate. On the basis of current statistics, approximately 1 out of 6 men will develop this form of cancer. Men with a family history of prostate cancer are at a greater risk of developing this form of cancer than men without this family history.

Symptoms of prostate disease include difficulty in urinating, frequent urination, continued wetness, blood in the urine, low back pain, and an ache in the upper thighs. Traditionally, prostate cancer has been treated through surgery or the use of radiation and chemotherapy, with a survival rate of 99% when diagnosed early and 87% overall.
Cancer of the colon and __________ has a combined incidence and death rate second only to that of lung cancer.
Rectum. Two types of tumors, carcinoma and lymphoma, can be found in both the colon and rectum. When diagnosed in a localized state, colorectal cancer has a relatively high survival rate of 90% through the first five years. Symptoms associated with colon and rectal cancers include bleeding from the rectum, blood in the stool, or a change in bowel habits. The treatment of colorectal cancer involves surgery combined with the use of chemotherapy drugs. A colostomy is required in 15% of the cases of colon and rectal cancer.
_____________ cancer is one of the most lethal forms of cancer, with a survival rate of only 4% at 5 years after diagnosis.
Pancreatic. Because of the organ’s important roles in both digestion and metabolic processes, its destruction leaves the body in a state incompatible with living. The disease is more common in men than women and occurs most frequently in African-American men. Early detection is difficult because of the absence of symptoms until late in its course. To date, little in the way of effective treatment has been found.
The oldest approach to cancer therapy is the _____________ of tissue suspected to contain cancerous cells.
Removal. When undertaken early in the course of the disease, surgery is particularly suited for cancers of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, breast, uterus, prostate gland, and testicle. Minimal procedures are undertaken whenever possible, and radiation or chemotherapy is often used with surgery to ensure maximum effectiveness.
______________ is capable of killing cancer cells by altering their genetic material while it is in an exposed state during cell division.
Radiation. Since neighboring cells also divide, they are exposed to the damaging effects of radiation as well. However, by carefully planning the length of exposure and time of treatment and by focusing the radiation with precision, damage to noncancerous cells can be held to a minimum.
______________ drugs work by destroying cancer cells’ ability to use important materials or carry out cell division in a normal manner.
Chemotherapy. Because chemotherapy influences cell division, it will influence noncancerous cells that divide frequently. Among the cells most susceptible to this influence are those that make up bone marrow, the lining of the intestinal tract, and the hair follicles. People who are undergoing chemotherapy often have side effects directly related to these changes such as immune system suppression, diarrhea, and hair loss.
________________ refers to the use of a variety of substances to trigger a person’s own immune system to attack cancer cells or prevent cancer cells from becoming activated.
Immunotherapy. These new forms of immunotherapy are the use of interferon, monoclonal antibodies, interleukin-2, tumor necrosis factor (TNF), and certain bone marrow growth regulators. These products are being manufactured using genetic engineering techniques.
____________ is a hormone which is required by the body for the effective metabolism of glucose (blood sugar). It's release from the pancreas corresponds to the changing levels of glucose within the blood.
Insulin. Insulin helps to activate the glucose transport mechanism. In addition to its role in the transport of glucose into sensitive cells, insulin is also required for the conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver and the formation of fatty acids in adipose cells.
For proper nerve conduction to occur within portions of the brain and spinal cord, an insulating sheath of myelin must surround neurons. In the progressive disease __________ ___________, the cells that produce myelin are destroyed and myelin production ceases.
MS (Multiple Sclerosis). This disruption of normal neurological functioning eventually reaches an extent to which vital functions of the body can no longer be carried out. The cause of MS is not fully understood. Research continues to focus on virus-induced autoimmune mechanisms in which T cells attack viral–infected myelin-producing cells. The initial symptoms of the condition are often visual impairment, prickling and burning in the extremities, or an altered gait.
In insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, or _______ ___ diabetes, the body produces little or no insulin.
Type I. The onset of Type I diabetes generally occurs before the age of 35, and most often during childhood. A person gets this type of diabetes when their immune system inadvertently destroys the insulin-producing cells of the pancreas in response to a viral infection.

Since the body does not have the means to produce its own insulin, insulin is obtained either from animals or through genetically engineered bacteria and is taken by injection or through the use of an insulin pump that provides a constant supply of insulin to the body.
With Type 2 diabetes, the problem is insulin ________________--the pancreas produces insulin, but the body doesn't respond to it properly.
Resistance. Type 2 diabetes was once known as non-insulin dependent diabetes. The body resists the effects of insulin, which means that the cells don't absorb a lot of the sugar (glucose) that's in the blood, resulting in high blood sugar levels.
90-95% of the people with diabetes have type 2. Generally, it affects people older than 40 years of age, but in the last twenty years, it has become a lot more common in _____________.
Children. This is thought to be connected to the rising rates of childhood obesity. It's estimated that 90% of type 2 diabetes cases are preventable through weight loss, healthy diet and exercise.
Two main types of asthma have been identified. In ___________ asthma, certain allergens produce sudden and extensive bronchoconstriction that narrows the airways.
Extrinsic. Allergens such as pollen, house dust, house-dust mites, animal fur, and feathers contribute to this type of asthma. Increased sputum production further narrows the bronchioles and restricts the passage of air. This narrowing fosters the development of chronic inflammation of the airways, which is the most damaging aspect of asthma. Wheezing is most pronounced when the victim attempts to exhale air through the narrowed air passages. For many asthmatic people, exercise, cigarette smoke, and particular foods or drugs can cause an asthma attack.
The least common form of asthma is ___________ asthma.
Intrinsic. This type of asthma is caused by stress or is a consequence of frequent respiratory tract infections. Allergens are not involved in this form of asthma.
________ is the most familiar of a class of chronic conditions known as autoimmune disorders.
SLE (Systemic lupus erythematosus). Collectively, these conditions reflect an extensive and inappropriate attack by the body’s immune system on its own tissues, which then serve as self-antigens. The name systemic lupus erythematosus reflects the widespread destruction of fibrous connective tissues and the appearance of a reddish rash that imparts a characteristic “mask” to the face.

The course of the condition is gradual, with intermittent periods of inflammation, stiffness, fatigue, pleurisy, and discomfort over wide areas of the body, including muscles, joints, and skin. Management of this condition usually involves the long-term use of prednisone to suppress the adrenal gland’s cortisone.
_____________, or murder, is the intentional killing of one person by another.
Homicide. The United States leads the industrialized world in homicide rates. The 1996 murder rate was 7.4 per 100,000 inhabitants. The most vulnerable group of homicide victims are African-Americans. Homicide is the leading cause of death for male African-Americans ages 15 to 44.
____________ abuse refers to violence committed against a domestic partner.
Partner. Most often the victims are women, and a significant percentage of these women are spouses or former spouses of the assailant. The most vulnerable female victims are African-American and Hispanics, live in large cities, are young and unmarried, and are from lower socioeconomic groups. However, women across all economic, racial, and age categories are potential victims.
Harm that is committed against a child is referred to as __________ abuse.
Child. Like many cases of partner abuse, child abuse tends to be a silent crime. It is estimated that about 1 million children are victims of child abuse and neglect each year. Children are abused in various ways. Physical abuse reflects physical injury such as bruises, burns, abrasions, cuts, and fractures of the bones and skull. Sexual abuse includes acts that lead to sexual gratification of the abuser. Child neglect is also a form of child abuse and includes an extreme failure to provide children with adequate clothing, food, shelter, and medical attention.
Elder abuse can take many forms, but the most common is _____________.
Neglect. Abuse of the elderly is most often committed by family members. Forms of abuse include sexual, financial, physical, emotional and neglect. Neglect is reported in 55 percent of cases. Only 1 in 6 cases of elder abuse is reported.
Criminal acts directed at a person or group solely because of a specific characteristic, such as race, religion, ethnic background, or political belief are referred to as bias and _________ crimes.
Hate. Victims are often verbally and physically attacked, their houses are spray painted with various slurs, and many are forced to move from one neighborhood or community to another. According to the FBI, there are 7,500 hate crime incidents in the United States per year.
____________ is a crime involving an assailant’s planned efforts to pursue an intended victim.
Stalking. Most stalkers are male. Many of these stalkers are excessively possessive or jealous and pursue people with whom they formerly had a relationship. Some stalkers pursue people with whom they have had only an imaginary relationship. Some stalkers have served time in prison and have waited years to “get back” at their victims.
________ rape is a form of acquaintance rape that involves forced sexual intercourse by a dating partner.
Date. Studies on a number of campuses suggest that about 20% of college women report having experienced date rape. An even higher percentage of women report being kissed and touched against their will. Alcohol is frequently a significant contributing factor in these rape situations. Some men have reported being psychologically coerced into intercourse by their female dating partners.
The Drug Induced Rape Prevention and Punishment Act of 1996 adds up to ______ years to the prison sentence of any rapist who uses a drug to incapacitate a victim.
20. Drugs used for date rape include Rohypnol, GHB and ketamine.
Sexual ______________ consists of unwanted attention of a sexual nature that creates embarrassment or stress.
Harassment. Examples of sexual harassment include unwanted physical contact, excessive pressure for dates, sexually explicit humor, sexual innuendos or remarks, offers of job advancement based on sexual favors, and overt sexual assault.

Unlike more overt forms of sexual victimization, sexual harassment may be applied in a subtle manner and can, in some cases, go unnoticed by co-workers and fellow students.
________________ injuries are injuries that have occurred without anyone intending that any harm be done.
Unintentional. Common examples include injuries resulting from car crashes, falls, fires, drownings, firearm accidents, recreational accidents, and residential accidents. Each year, unintentional injuries account for over 150,000 deaths and millions of nonfatal injuries.
Nearly 60% of all motor vehicle crashes are caused by ______________.
Speeding.
About 75% of all motor vehicle accidents occur close to _________.
Home. About 75% of all car accidents occur within 25 miles of home and at speeds below 40 MPH.
_____________ injuries are injuries that are committed on purpose.
Intentional. With the exception of suicide, intentional injuries reflect violence committed by one person acting against another person. Categories of intentional injuries include homicide, robbery, rape, suicide, assault, child abuse, spouse abuse, and elder abuse. Each year in the United States, intentional injuries cause about 50,000 deaths and another 2 million nonfatal injuries.
__________ (Men or Women?) commit the most suicides.
Men. Men commit suicide four times more often than women do and 72% of all suicides are committed by white men.
___________ (Men or Women?) are more likely to attempt suicide.
Women. Women are three times more likely to attempt suicide than men. Men usually use violent means to commit suicide and are therefore successful (i.e. guns, hanging, jumping from buildings, etc). Women employ slower methods (i.e. pills, cutting wrists) and are often saved by emergency medical intervention.
_______________ is a system of medical practice that combines allopathic principles with specific attention to postural mechanics of the body.
Osteopathy. At one time, allopathy and osteopathy were clearly different health care professions in terms of their healing philosophies and modes of practice. Today, MDs and DO’s receive similar educations and engage in very similar forms of practice. Both can function as primary care physicians or board-certified specialists. The differences that exist are in terms of the osteopathic physician’s greater tendency to use manipulation in treating health problems.
________________ health care includes acupuncture, chiropractic, homeopathy, naturopathy, herbalism, reflexology, and ayurveda.
Alternative.
______________ treatment is manipulation of the vertebral column to relieve pressure and cure illness.
Chiropractic. This system is based on manual manipulation of the spine to correct misalignments. Recent studies have shown that chiropractic treatment of some types of low-back pain can be more effective than conventional care. With about 50,000 practitioners in the US, chiropractic health care is the third-largest health profession and is used by 15 to 20 million people.
______________ is the insertion of fine needles into the body to alter electroenergy fields and cure disease.
Acupuncture. For Americans, this is the most familiar component of the 3,000-year-old Chinese medical system. This system is based on balancing the active and passive forces with the patient’s body to strengthen the chi, or life force. Acupuncturists place hair-thin needles at certain points in the body to stimulate the patient’s chi. Researchers have produced persuasive evidence of acupuncture’s effectiveness as an anesthetic and as an antidote to chronic pain, migraines, dysmenorrhea, and osteoarthritis.
_______________ is the use of minute doses of herbs or minerals to stimulate healing.
Homeopathy. The theory on which homeopathy is based, the Law of Similars, is that if large doses of a substance can cause a problem, tiny doses can trigger healing of that same problem. A few small studies have shown homeopathy to be at least somewhat effective in treating hay fever, diarrhea, and flu symptoms.
______________ is a system of treatment that avoids drugs and surgery and emphasizes the use of natural agents to correct underlying imbalances.
Naturopathy. Proponents of naturopathy believe that when the mind and the body are in balance and receiving the proper care with a healthy diet, adequate rest, and minimal stress, the body’s own vital forces are sufficient to fight off disease. Getting rid of an ailment is only the first step toward correcting the underlying imbalance that allowed the ailment to take hold. Correcting the imbalance might be as simple as rectifying a shortage of a particular nutrient.
____________ is a traditional Indian medicine based on herbal remedies.
Ayurveda. This system takes a preventive approach and focuses on the whole person. This system employs diet, tailored to the patient’s constitutional type; herbs; yoga and breathing exercises; meditation; massages; and purges, enemas, and aromatherapy. Research has shown ayurveda to be effective in treating rheumatoid arthritis, headaches, and chronic sinusitis.
_______________ provide services related to an understanding of behavior patterns or perceptions.
Psychologists. Over 40 states have certifications or laws that prohibit unqualified people from using the term psychologist. Legitimate psychologists have received advanced graduate training in clinical, counseling, industrial, or educational psychology. These practitioners will have passed state certification examinations that allow them to offer health services to the public.
_____________ are highly trained clinicians who practice care of the feet.
Podiatrists. Although not MDs or Dos, doctors of podiatric medicine (DPM) treat a variety of conditions related to the feet, including corns, bunions, warts, bone spurs, hammertoes, fractures, diabetes-related conditions, athletic conditions, and structural abnormalities.

Podiatrists perform surgeries and prescribe medications and corrective shoes for abnormalities of the feet. Doctors of podiatric medicine follow an education path similar to that taken by MDs and DOs.
Many professional nurses continue their education and earn master’s and doctoral degrees in nursing or other health-related fields. Some professional nurses specialize in a clinical area and become certified as nurse _________________.
Practitioners. Working under the supervision of physicians, nurse practitioners perform many of the diagnostic and treatment procedures performed by physicians. The ability of these highly trained nurses to function at this level provides communities with additional primary care providers, as well as freeing physicians to deal with more complex cases.
The emergence of the _______-_______ movement is the trend toward individuals taking increased responsibility for prevention or management of certain health conditions.
Self-care. Many people are developing the expertise to prevent or manage numerous types of illness, injuries, and conditions. They are learning to assess their health status and treat, monitor, and rehabilitate themselves in a manner that was once thought possible only with the direct help of a physician or some other health care specialist.
Health ________________ is a financial agreement between an insurance company and an individual or group for the payment of health costs.
Insurance. After paying a premium to an insurance company, the policyholder is covered for specific benefits. Each policy is different in terms of coverage for illnesses and injuries. Merely having an insurance policy does not mean that all health care expenses will be covered.
_________s are health care delivery plans under which health care providers agree to meet the covered medical needs of subscribers for a prepaid amount of money.
HMO (Health Maintenance Organizations). For a fixed monthly fee, enrollees are given comprehensive health care with an emphasis on preventive health care. Enrollees receive their care from physicians, specialists, allied health professionals, and educators who are hired or contractually retained by the HMO. In theory, HMOs were to be the ideal blend of medical care and health promotion; however, there is growing concern that that too many HMOs are being too tightly controlled by a profit motive.
A ______________ is an established amount that an insured person must pay before the insurance company pays for medical costs.
Deductible. For example, a $75 deductible would mean that an insured person would have to pay the first $75 for each visit to the hospital.
Created in 1965 by amendments to the Social Security Act, ____________ represents a governmental form of health insurance.
Medicare. Medicare provides health care reimbursements primarily for people aged 65 years or older. Medicare is a contributory program where all employed citizens contribute a portion of their salaries during their working years. When they reach age 65, some of their health care expenses are covered by Medicare. Regardless of their age, people who require kidney dialysis or transplants are covered by Medicare.
The Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003 is now referred to as Medicare Part _____.
D. Beginning in 2006, Medicare Part D provides prescription coverage through third-party providers for a premium of about $35 a month.
The ________________ effect is the warming of the Earth’s surface that is produced when solar heat becomes trapped by layers of carbon dioxide and other gases.
Greenhouse. As first predicted a decade ago, the progressive increase in carbon dioxide appears to have resulted in a greenhouse effect. This effect has caused a slight but progressive warming of the earth’s surface. An increase of only 1.5 degrees since 1860, resulting from increased trapping of industrial gases, has resulted in a shift of the world’s hydrologic cycles. Today, the atmosphere is more laden with moisture and air circulation patterns have shifted, leading to greater extremes in all aspects of weather.
__________ ___________ is an increase in the earth’s atmospheric temperature when averaged across seasons and geographical regions.
Global warming.
_________ rain is rain that has a lower pH than that normally associated with rain.
Acid. Nitrogen and sulfur compounds are pollutants produced by a variety of industrial processes, including the burning of high sulfur content fuels. When nitrogen and sulfur oxides combine with moisture in the atmosphere, they are converted to nitric and sulfuric acid. The resulting acid rain, acid snow, and acid fog are responsible for the destruction of aquatic life and vegetation in the eastern United States and Canada.
In urban areas located in cooler climates, sulfur oxides and particulate matter combine with moisture to form a grayish haze known as _______.
Smog. Smog contributes to respiratory problems that are common in these areas during the winter months. In warmer areas, brown-air smog develops when hydrocarbons and particulate matter from automobile exhaust interact in the presence of sunlight. This photochemical smog produces ozone.
The _________ layer is a layer of triatomic oxygen that surrounds the Earth and filters much of the sun’s radiation before it can reach the Earth’s surface.
Ozone. Nitrous oxides and materials containing chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) can destroy this protective ozone layer within the stratosphere. Nitrous oxides come from the burning of fossil fuels like coal and gasoline. CFCs are used in air conditioners, many fast-food containers, insulation materials, and solvents.
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are widespread air pollutants from ___________ fuel combustion.
Fossil. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs)are produced by fossil fuel combustion in vehicles and home furnaces and from second hand tobacco smoke.
__________ gas is a naturally occurring radioactive gas produced by the decay of uranium.
Radon. Radon gas is a form of indoor air pollution whose role as a serious health risk is currently under investigation. This radioactive gas enters buildings through a variety of routes from underlying rock formations and stone building materials where it is found. Because radon gas can concentrate when air is stagnant, energy efficient airtight homes, schoolrooms, and buildings are most affected. Tests conducted on homes in various parts of the country suggest that 20% of all homes have higher than normal levels and 10% have dangerously high levels.
The __________ monitors and regulates the quality of municipal drinking water supplies.
EPA (Environmental Protection Agency). The EPA regulates the maximum contaminant level (MCL) in municipal drinking water. The MCL standardizes the amounts of biological pollutants, pesticides, and toxic chemicals in drinking water supplies.
_______________ agents in the form of bacteria, viruses, and protozoa enter the water supply through human and animal wastes.
Pathogenic. Communities with sewage treatment systems designed around a combined sanitary and storm system can, during heavy rain or snowmelt, allow untreated sewage to rush through the processing plant. In addition, pathogenic organisms can enter the water supply when sewage is flushed from boats. Pathogenic agents are also introduced into the water supply from animal wastes at feedlots at meat processing facilities.
Public health departments protect water supplies against _____________ contamination by testing water for the presence of fecal coliform bacteria.
Biological. Biological water pollutants from untreated sewage and drainage from leaking home septic systems include various species of disease-causing viruses, bacteria and protozoa. The presence of fecal coliform bacteria in water indicates contamination by sewage.
________________ is the enrichment of a body of water with nutrients, which causes overabundant growth of plants.
Eutrophication. Aquatic plants tend to thrive in water rich in nitrates and phosphates. This overabundance leads to eutrophication, which can render a stream, pond, or lake unusable. During hot, dry summers, aquatic plants die in large numbers. Since the decay of vegetation requires aerobic bacterial action, the biochemical oxygen demand will be high. To satisfy the biochemical oxygen demand, much of the water’s oxygen is used, causing fish and other life to die.
_________s are a group of hydrocarbons causing a great deal of concern because of their presence in the water supply.
PCB (polychlorinated biphenyls). PCBs are, on the basis of their chemical structure, very stable, heat-resistant compounds that have been used extensively in transformers and electrical capacitors. In many areas of the country, discarded electrical equipment has broken open and released PCBs into the surrounding water supply. In lab animals, PCBs produce liver and kidney damage, gastric and reproductive disorders, skin lesions, and tumors.
Power plants that use water from lakes and rivers to cool their stream turbines cause ___________ pollution.
Thermal. When this heated water is returned to its source, temperatures in the water may rise significantly. As temperatures increase, the oxygen-carrying capacity of the water decreases and the balance of aquatic life forms is altered. In water that is raised only 10 degrees Celsius, entire species of fish can disappear and aquatic plants can proliferate out of control.
The greatest effect on our land comes from the products our society discards. The trash that is collected from our homes is referred to as ________.
MSW (municipal solid waste). Each year Americans dispose of paper, newspaper, cardboard, clothing, yard waste, wood pallets, food waste, cafeteria waste, glass, metal, disposable tableware, and an endless variety of other types of MSW. Each individual American produces over 4.3 pounds of MSW each year.

MSW makes up only a small amount of the solid waste discarded in this country. Agricultural, mining, and industrial wastes contribute much more to our solid waste problems.
An agent used to destroy insects and other pests is known as a ______________.
Pesticide. Since Rachel Carson wrote Silent Spring in 1962, the public has been aware of the potential dangers associated with the uses of some pesticides. Although Carson’s primary concern was with the pesticide DDT, a number of other hazardous pesticides have been removed from the marketplace. Tighter controls established by the EPA have restricted the availability of other, less hazardous pesticides.

Farmers argue that they need to use effective poisons to save their crops from insect destruction. However, concern is now focused on the effects of pesticides on food and water supplies.
_____________ radiation is a form of radiation capable of releasing electrons from atoms.
Ionizing. Fission, the decay of radioactive materials, produces not only a great amount of energy, but also ionizing radiation in the form of radioactive particles. We are exposed to various forms of ionizing radiation daily through natural radiation, including ultraviolet radiation from the sun and natural radioactive mineral deposits, and synthetic radiation, including waste from nuclear reactors, industrial products, and x-ray examinations.
The health effects of _______________ exposure depend on many factors including the duration, type, dose of exposure, and individual sensitivity.
Radiation. Heavy exposure can produce radiation sickness or immediate death. Lesser exposure can be quite harmful as well. Of particular concern are the effects of radiation on egg and sperm production, embryonic development, and dangerous or irreversible changes to the eyes and skin.