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208 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
RBC form: Acanthocyte (spur cell)

associated with what pathology (2)
Liver disease

Abetalipoproteinemia
RBC form: Basophilic Stippling

associated with what pathology (4)
Thalessemia, Anemia of chronic disease, Iron deficiency, Lead poisoning

BASte the ox TAIL
RBC form: Bite cell

associated with what pathology
G6PD deficiency
RBC form: Elliptocyte

associated with what pathology
Hereditary elliptocytosis
RBC form: Macro-ovalocyte
associated with what pathology (2)
Megaloblastic anemia (also hypersegmented PMNs), Marrow failure
RBC form: Ringed sideroblasts

associated with what pathology
Sideroblastic anemia
RBC form: Schistocyte, helmet cell

associated with what pathology (3)
DIC
TTP/HUS
Traumatic hemolysis
RBC form: sickle cell

associated with what pathology
Sickle Cell anemia
RBC form: Spherocyte (2)

associated with what pathology
Hereditary spherocytosis

Autoimmune hemolysis
RBC form: Teardrop cell

associated with what pathology
Bone marrow infiltration (eg myelofibrosis)
RBC form: Target cell

associated with what pathology
HbC disease, Asplenia, Liver disease, Thalassemia

HALT said the hunter to his TARGET
RBC form: Heinz bodies

associated with what pathology (2)

what causes it
a-thalessemia, G6PD deficiency

oxidation of Fe (2+ --> 3+) --> denatures Hb precipitation, damage to RBC membrane --> bite cells
RBC form: Howwel jolly body

associated with what pathology

process?
functional hyposplenia or asplenia

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs
5 etiologies of microcytic, hypochromic (MCV < 80) anemia
Iron deficiency
a-thaleesemia
b-thalassemia
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron defiency anemia

a. description of anemia
b. causes (3)
a. microcytic, hypochromic

b. decreased Fe in chronic bleeding, malnutrition, or high demand (pregnancy)
Patient has
-Iron deficiency anemia
-Dysphagia due to esophageal webs
-atrophic glossitis

dx?
What would you see on blood smear?
Plummer-Vinson syndrome (Fe deficiency)

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia
a-thalassemia

what is the defect?

what populations is it endemic to?
alpha-globin (component of Hb) gene mutation --> low a-globin synthesis, buildup of beta and gamma chains

Endemic in Asia and Africa
a-thalassemeia

what forms if there is a 4-gene deletion of a-globin gene
Formation of Hb barts (lots of gamma chains) --> hydrops fetalis (death)

see microcytic, hypochromic anemia
a-thalassemeia

what forms if there is a 3-gene deletion of a-globin gene

1-2 gene deletion
HbH disease (buildup of beta 4)
-see microcytic, hypochromic anemia

no anemia
Beta thalessemia

what is the defect?

prevalent in what population
point mutations in splicing sites and promoter sequences of beta chain of Hb

Mediterranean popultions
B-thalassemia minor (heterozygote)
a. pathological
b. clinical
c. diagnosis how?
a. Beta chain is underproduced
b. asymptomatic
c. high HbA2 (>3.5%) on electrophoresis
B-thalessemia major (homozygote)
a. pathological
b. what do you see on blood smear (2)
c. what do you see on skull xray and face

d. treat
a. beta chain absent (homozygotic for mutations)

b. severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia, target cells

c. marrow expansion (crew cut on xray) --> skeletal deformities, chipmunk facies

d. blood transfusion (can cause secondary hemochromatosis)
What happens to HbF (a2g2) in beta-thalassemia?
HbF increases (both major and minor)
What is the result of an HbS/B-thalassemia heterozygote
Mild to moderate sickle cell disease depending on amount of b-globin production
Lead poisoning

what 2 things does it inhibit to decrease heme synthesis?

Why do you see basophilic stippling?
inhibits ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase --> decreases heme synth

Inhibits rRNA degradation --> buildup of ribosomes --> basophilic stippling
On blood smear, you see
-microcytic, hypochromic anemia
-ringed sideroblasts with iron-laden macrophages

Labs:
-high iron, normal TIBC, high ferritin

dx?
2 possible causes?
treat?
Sideroblastic anemia = defect in heme synthesis

Hereditary (x-linked defect in aminolevulinic acid synthase), or reversible (alcohol, lead)

Treat with B6
4 symptoms of Lead poisoning
LEAD

-Lead lines in gingivae and on long bone epiphyses (xray) - Burton's lines

-Encephalopathy and Erythrocyte basophilic stippling

-Abdominal colic and sideroblastic Anemia

-Drops of wrist and foot
Treatment for lead poisoning in
a. adults
b. kids
a. Dimercaprol and EDTA

b. succimer

it 'sucks' to be a kid who eats lead
Macrocytic anemia

MCV > ?

Cause?
MCV > 100

Impaired DNA sythesis --> maturation of cytoplasm > maturation of nucleus

--> ineffective erythropoiesis --> pancytpenia
Patient has macrocytic anemia
-hypersegmented PMNs
-glossitis
-low folate
-high homocysteine
-normal methylmalonic acid

dx?
Megaloblastic anemia caused by folate deficiency
-Malnutrition (alcoholic)
-Malabsorption
-Impaired metabolism (eg. methotrexate, trimethoprim)
-Hemolytic anemia, pregnancy (increased requirement)

what can these cause? what would you see on blood smear?
folate deficiency

macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia
Patient has Macrocytiic anemia +
-Hypersegmented PMNs
-glossitis
-low B12
-high homocysteine
-high methylmalonic acid

4 possible etiologies

dx?
Megaloblastic anemia caused by B12 deficiency

1. insufficient intake (vegans)
2. malabsorption (Crohns)
3. pernicious anemia
4. Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)
Patient has neurologic symptoms:
-peripheral neuropathy with sensorimotor dysfunction

- Loss of Posterior columns (vibration and proprioception)

-Loss of lateral corticospinal tract (spasticity)

-Dementia

See macrocytic anemia

dx?

cause?
Subacute combined degeneration due to B12 deficiency

(fatty acid synthesis pathways disrupted by B12 loss)
-Liver Disease
-Alcoholism
-Reticulocytosis
-Congenital metaobolic deficiencies of purine or pyrimidine
-5-FU, AZT, hydroxyurea

All cause what?
Nonmegaloblastic, macrocytic anemia
What is reticulocytosis?

Seen in what kind of anemia?
reticulocytes (immature RBCs) are bigger than mature RBCs --> increased MCV

seen in nonmegaloblastic, macrocytic anemia
3 drugs that cause non megaloblastic macrocytic anemia
5-FU, AZT, hydroxyurea
Patient has anemia

You find: low haptoglobin, high LDH, hemoglobin in urine

what is happening
intravascular hemolysis --> normochromic, normocytic anemia
-Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
-Aortic stenosis
-Prosthetic valve
-G6PD deficiency

all cause what
intravascular hemolysis --> normochromic, normocytic anemia
Patient with anemia has
-High LDH, high unconjugated bilirubin --> jaundice

what is happening
what cells clean it up?
extravascular hemolysis

(macrophages in spleen clear up RBCs)
Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle cell anemia

type of anemia
extravascular hemolysis --> normochromic, normocytic anemia
Patient with a chronic infection develops non-hemolytic, normocytic anemia

what is the pathophysiology?

What would you expect the levels of Fe, TIBC, and ferritin to be?

What can happen over time?
inflammation --> high hepcidin --> decreased release of iron from macrophages

low iron
low TIBC
high ferritin

Can become microcytic, hypochromic if long-standing
Patient has
-fatigue
-malaise
-pallor
-purpura
-mucosal bleeding
-petechiae
-infection

blood smear: normal cell morphology

BM biopsy: hypocelular, fatty infiltrate

dx?
treat?
aplastic anemia (pancytopenia)

Treat:
-withdraw agent
-immunosuppression (antithymocyte globin, cyclosporin)
-allogeneic BM transplant
-RBC and patelet transfusion
-G-CSF or GM-CSF
How can kidney disease cause normocytic anemia?
decreased erythropoietin --> decreased hematopoiesis
Patient presents with anemia symptoms, splenomegaly
-On blood smear, you see increased MCHC (Hb conc), increased RDW (anisocytosis)
-RBCs look small and round, without a central pallor
-positive osmotic fragility test


dx?
treat?
what might you see on a blood smear after treatment?
pathogenesis?
Hereditary spherocytosis (extravacular normocytic anemia)

Splenectomy

May see howell-jolly bodies (basophilic nuclear remnants normally removed by spleen)
Patient has a defect in proteins interacting with RBC membrane cytoskeleton and plasma membrane (ankyrin, band 4.1, spectrin)

dx?

Type of anemia?

what would happen in B19 infection?
hereditary spherocytosis --> premature removal of RBCs by spleen

intrinsic hemolytic normocytic anemia

Aplastic crisis
Patient is exposed to sulfa drugs/infections/fava beans, experiences
-back pain
hemogloiburia a few days later

labs: you see RBCs with Heinz bodies and bite cells

dx?
Why are these stimuli destroying cells?

genetics?
G6PD deficiency (intravascular homolytic normocytic anemia)

Defect in G6PD --> low glutathione --> increased RBC susceptibility to oxidant stress

X-linked
What causes hemolytic anemia in a newborn?

genetics?
Pyruvate kinase deficinecy (extravascular hemolytic, normocytic anemia) --> low ATP --> rigid RBCs

autosomal recessive
Sickle cell anemia
a. type of anemia
b. intra or extravascular
a. normocytic, hemolytic
b. extravascular
Sickle cell

rate of trait carrying in African Americans?

rate of disease
8% have HbS trait

0.2% have the disease
Sickle cell disease

a. what would you see on skull xray

b. what would you see on blood smear
a. "crewcut" from marrow expansion from increased erythropoiesis

b. anisocytosis, poiklocytosis, nucleated RBCs, crescent-shaped RBCs
2 conditions where you see "crew cut" look of skull on Xray and why
sickle cell and thalaessemias

due to BM expansion due to increased erythropoiesis
What is the pathogenesis in sickle cell disease?
point mutation in b-chain of HbS (position 6, Glu--> Val) --> sickled HbS --> deoxygenated HbS polymerizes --> anemia, veno-occlusion
2 instances the precipitate sickle cell symptoms?
low oxygen, dehydration
Heterozygoes to sickle cell have resistance to what disease?
malaria
-parvovirus B19 --> aplastic crisis
-high risk of encapsulated organism infection
-salmonella osteomyelitis
-pain
-renal papillary necrosis, microhematuria
-splenic sequestration crisis

all caused by what
sickle cell anemia
Why do newborns have few symptoms of sickle cell disease
have low HbS, high HbF
African american patient gets dehydrated, experiences
-extreme pain
-lots of infections

blood smear shows: anisocytosis, poiklocytosis, nucleated RBCs

dx?
treat?
Sickle cell anemia (leads to splenic dysfunction)

treat with hydroxyurea (to increase HbF) and BM transplant
genetic defect in
a. sickle cell

b. HbC defect
a. Position 6 in HbS beta chain (Glu --> Val)

b. Mutation in position 6 (Glu --> Lys)
HbC

how does the course of HbSC differ from HbSS?
HbSC (1 of each mutant gene - HbS and HbC) have a milder disease than HbSS patients
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
a. type of anemia
b. what happens
c. what do you see in urine
a. Hemolytic, normocytic anemia, intravascular

b. Impaired synthesis of GPI --> loss of DAF, other GPI linked proteins that prevent complement destruction of RBCs

c. increase in urine hemosiderin
4 types of extrinsic hemolytic normocytic anemia
1. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2. microangiopathic anemia
3. macroangiopathic anemia
4. infection
2 types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

what are some conditions associated with each of these
Warm agglutinin (IgG) - chronic anemia caused by SLE, CLL, drugs

Cold agglutinin (IgM) - acute anemia seen in cold, CLL, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mono
What is the pathogenesis of erythroblastosis fetalis
in newborns, Rh or other blood antigen incompatibility --> mother's antibodies attack fetal RBCs
Coombs test - what does it test for?

what is the difference between direct and indirect?
tests for autoimmune hemolytic anemia

direct: add anti-Ig Ab to patient's RBCs --> if they agglutinate, it means RBCs have Ig on them

Indirect: add normal RBCs to patient's serum --> agglutinate if serum has anti-RBC surface Ig
Microagniopathic anemia
a. intra or extravascular
b. pathogenesis

c. associated with what conditions (4)
a. intra
b. RBCs damaged when passing through an obstruction or narrow vessel --> schistocytes

c. DIC, TTP-HUS, SLE, malignant HTN
Cause of macroangiopathic anemia
prosthetic heart valves, aortic stenosis --> mechanical destruction
Type of anemia that shows
-low serum iron
-high transferrin/TIBC
-low ferritin
-%transferrin saturation is way down
Iron deficiency

(primary defect is low serum Fe)
Type of anemia that shows
-low serum Fe
-low transferrin/TIBC
-high ferritin
-no change in transferrin saturation
anemia of chronic disease (primary defect is high ferritin)

Low transferrin due to a adaptation by body to store iron in cells to deprive pathogens of circulating iron
Type of anemia that shows

-normal serum iron and ferritin
-high transferrin/TIBC
-low transferrin saturation
Pregnancy/OCP

primary defect is in increased transferrin/TIBC)
Type of anemia that shows

-high serum rion
-low transferrin/TIBC
-high ferritin
-very high transferrin sat
hemochromatosis

primary defect is high serum iron
Type of anemia that shows

-high serum iron
-low transferrin
-normal ferritin
-high transferrin saturation
lead poisoning
what are porphyrias

lead poisoning?
porphyrias = defect in heme synthesis --> acumulation of heme precursors

lead --> inhibits enzymes needed in heme synthesis
Child exposed to lead paint has mental retardation
-microcytic anemia, GI sympotms, kidney disease

condition?
affected enzyme?
accumulated substrate?
lead poisoning

ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase

protoporphyrin (blood)
Patient is exposed to battery/ammunition/radiator factory

condition?
affected enzyme?
accumulated substrate?
lead poisoning

ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase

protoporphyrin (blood)
Patient has
-painful abdomen
-red wine-colored urine
-polyneuropathy
-psychological disturbances
-precipitated by drugs

condition?
affected enzyme?
accumulated substrate?
treat?
acute intermittent porphyria

Porphobilinogen deaminase (uroporphyrinogen I synthetase)

Porphobilinogen, d-ALA, uroporphyrin (urine)

glucose and heme (inhibits ALA synthase)
Most common porphyria that causes blistering cutaneous photosensitivity, tea-colored urine

condition?
affected enzyme?
accumulated substrate?
porphyria cutanea tarda

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

uroporphyrin
Sideroblastic anemia
a. genetics
b. what enzyme does it inhibit
x-linked

g-ALA synthetase (rate limiting step of heme synth)
effect of heme on ALA synthase activity
increased heme --> decreased ALA synthase acitivity
What does the prothrombin time test?
Measures serum coagulation time --> tests factors I, II, V, VII, and X (extrinsic coagulation pathway)
What does PTT test for?
Tests function of all coagulation factors except VII and XIII (intrinsic and extrinsic)
Difference between Prothromin time and partial prothrombin time as far as procedure?
PT - add tissue factor

PTT - don't add tissue factor
Hemophilia A vs. B

what are the defects?

What test would you see an abnormality in?
A = factor VIII (increased PTT)

B = factor IX (increased PTT)

both are defects in the intrinsic clotting pathway
Macorhemorrhage in hemophilia

what does it cause?
hemarthroses (bleed into joints), easy bruising, PTT
Vitamin K deficiency
a. what is the effect

b, what tests would you see an abnormality in
a. factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, S

increase in PT, PTT
Patient experiences
-mucous membrane bleeding
-epistaxis
-petechiae
-purpura
-increased bleeding time
-decreased platelet count

what is defective
platelets
disease in which there is a deficiency of Gp1b --> defective platelet to collagen adhesion

effect on platelet count, bleeding time?
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

low platelet count, high bleeding time
Patient has high bleeding time, blood smear shows no platelet clumping

-normal platelet count

dx? what is happening?
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

low GpIIb/IIIa --> defect in platelet to platelet adhesion
Patient has defect in anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies --> peripheral platelet destruction

labs show increase in megakaryocytes

dx?
effect on platelet count, bleeding time?
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

low platelet count, high bleeding time
Patient experiences
-neurological symptoms
-renal symptoms
-fever
-thrombocytopenia
-microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

labs: schistocytes, increased LDH

dx?
what is going on?
effect on platelet count, bleeding time?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic Purpura

deficiency of ADAMTS 13 (vWF metalloprotase) -->decreased degradation of vWF multimers --> platelet aggregation, thrombosis --> decreased platelet survival

low platelet count, high bleeding time
What is the difference between leukemia and lymphoma
leukemia = lymphoid neoplasm with widespread BM involvement, see tumor cells in peripheral blood

lymphoma = discrete tumor mases arising from LNs
Patient has an infection
-you see high WBC count with a left shift
-high leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

what is going on
leukemoid reaction
Patient is a young/old man who comes in with fever, night sweats, wt. loss
-you see mediastinal lymphadenopathy
-on LN biopsy, you see binucleate giant cells (2 owl eyes)

dx?
patholog?
virus association?
prognosis?
Hodgkin's lymphoma

localized, single group of nodes, contiguous spread

50% associated with EBV

good prognosis if high lymphocytes, fewer RS cells
who is affected most

hodkin's vs. non-hodgkins
Hodgkin's = young and old (bimodal), men

Non-Hodgkin's = 20-40 yo
What occurs in Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
Multiple peripheral LNs have tumors, non-contiguous spread, extranodal involvement occurs
Type of cells seen mostly in Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B cells (except if lymphoblastic T origin)
Associated conditions/virus

Hodgkin's vs non-hodgkins
Hodgkin's = EBV (50%)

Non-Hodgkins = HIV, immunosuppression
What is a Reed Sternberg cell?
origin? (cell type, surface markers)
What does it indicate?
Binucleate or bilobed "owl's eye"

CD30 and CD15 positive B cell origin

indicates Hodgkin's (but not sufficient to diagnose)
What type of RS cell variant is seen in nodular sclerosis type of Hodgkin's lymphoma
Lacunar cell
Hodgkin's lymphoma types

most common?
2nd?
3rd?
rare?
nodular slcerosing (65-75%)

Mixed cellularity (25%)

Lymphocyte predominant (6%)

Lymphocyte depleted
Young woman comes in with fever, night sweats, wt loss
-has LN involvement in anterior mediastinum and another LN above the diaphragm
-You can see collagen banding, lacunar cells, and lymphocytes > RS cells

dx?
prognosis?
Nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's

Excellent
Older man comes in with fever, night sweats, and wt. loss
-mediastinal lymphadenopathy
-You see Lymphocytes = RS cells

dx? prognosis?
Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's Lymphoma

Intermediate
Type of Hodgkin's lymphoma affecting males <35 yo, see far more lymphocytes than RS cells

dx? prog?
Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma

Excellent
Patient is an older male with fever, night sweats, and wt. loss
-see mediastinal lymphadenopathy
-see very few lymphocytes and even less RS cells

dx? Prog?
What would indicate a better prognosis?
Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's (rare)

poor prog

better prog if increased lymphocyte to RS cell ratio
population affected
a. Burkitt's Lymphoma
b. Diffuse Large B cell lymphoma
c. Mantle cell lymphoma
d. follicular lympohoma
a. adolescents or young adults
b. older adults, 20% in children
c. older males
d. adults
genetic mutation
a. Burkitt's Lymphoma
b. Diffuse Large B cell lymphoma
c. Mantle cell lymphoma
d. follicular lympohoma
a. t(8;14) c-myc moves next to heavy chain Ig (14)

b.

c. t(11;14)

d. t(14;18) bcl2 expression
Patient is a young adult with HIV, presents with a pelvic/abdomen lesion that is unresponsive to antibiotics

Patient has an EBV infection

See starry sky appearance on biopsy (sheets of lymphocytes interspersed w/macrophages)

dx?
genetics?
Burkitt's (non Hodgkin's, neoplasm of B cells)

t(8;14) cmyc to heavy chain Ig
Type of Burkitt's

a. with jaw lesion
b. with pelvic or abdomen lesion
a. endemic (Africa)

b. sporadic
Most common adult Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

type of cells
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

Mature B cells, 20% mature T cells
Type of lymphoma with predominant CD5+ antigen naive pregerminal center B cells
Mantle cell (non Hodgkin's)
Type of lymphoma that centers in follicle center B cells

Most common indolent non -hodgkin's lymphoma

what is the genetic variant?
Follicular lymphoma

t(14;18), bcl2 expression inhibits apoptosis
2 Non hodgkins lymphomas of mature T cells
Adult T cell lympohoma and Mycosis fungoides/sezary syndrome
Cause of adult T cell lymphoma

How do adults present?
What countries?

Course?
HTLV-1

Adults with cutaneous lesions
Japan, W. Africa, Carribean

Aggressive
Most common form of cutaneous T cell lymphoma?

How does it present?

Types of cells?
mycosis fungoides/sezary syndrome

adults present with cutaneous patches/nodules

indolent CD4+ T cells
What is the most common primary tumor arising within bone in the elderly (>40-50yo)
multiple myeloma
Multiple myeloma

a. what is overproliferating? appearance?
b. what do these produce? (which Ab's)
c. what should you see on protein electrophoresis?
plasma cell (fried egg appearance)

IgG or IgA

see M spike of gamma globulins
Patient has
-hyperCalcemia
-Renal insufficiency
-Anemia
-Bone lytic lesions/Back pain

See Bence Jones protein in urine, rouleuax formation of RBCs in blood smear

dx?
multiple myeloma

CRAB
hyperCalcemia
Renal insuff.
Anemia
Bone lesions
Increased susceptibility to infection
Primary amyloidosis
Punched out lesions on bone xray

type of tumor association
Multiple myeloma
How is Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia different from multiple myeloma?
M spike --> IgM, hyperviscosity symptoms

No lytic bone lesions
What is monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
monoclonal plasma cell expansion without the symptoms of multiple myeloma
Leukemia

what grows?
effects?
unregulated growth of leukocytes in BM --> anemia (RBCs), infections (WBCs low), hemorrhage (platelets low), can get leukemic infiltrates in liver, spleen, and LNs
Type of lymphoid neoplasm most responsive to surgery
ALL
Type of lymphoid neoplasm that affect children primarily?

How does it present?
ALL

BM involvment (childhood) or mediastinal mass (adolescent males)
ALL

what is happening?

where might it spread?
Bone Marrow replaced by lymphoblasts

may spread to testes and CNS
2 markers that are used to diagnose ALL
TdT, CALLA
ALL what genetic variant confers a better prognosis
t(12;21)
What leukemia?

->60 yo
-smudge cells in peripheral blood smear
-warm Ab autoimmune hemolytic anemia (IgG)

dx?

what if there is more peripheral blood lympocytosis
Small Lymphocytic lymphoma/ Chronic lymphocytic lymphoma

chronic has more peripheral blood lymphocytosis
Mature B cell lymphoma in the elderly

cells have filamentous, hairlike projections

stains TRAP pos
Hairy cell luekemia
Pateint is an adult, experiences fatigue, SOB, bleeding, and lots of infections

-on blood smear, you see auer rods, lots of circulating myeloblasts

dx?
treat?
Acute myelogenous leukemia

Responds to all-trans retinoic acid (vitamin A) --> induces differentiation of myeloblasts
Patient is 30-60yo, has lots of PMNs, metamyelocytes, basophils, splenomegaly

-very low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

type of leukemia?
Cause?
treat?
Chronic Myelogenous elukemia

Philadelphia chromosome t[9;22], bcr-abl (myeloid stem cell proliferation)

responds to imatinib (anti-bcr-abl tyrosine kinase)
What happens to CML in a blast crisis
accelerates to transform to AML or ALL
How do you differentiate CML from leukemoid rxn
CML has very low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
Age associations
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. CLL
a. < 15yo
b. about 60 yo
c. 30-60yo
d. > 60yo
Acute vs. chromic leukemias
a. type of cell
b. age
c. course
acute - blasts, children/elderly, short and drastic course

chronic - mature cells, midlife, longer and less devestating
2 types of acute leukemias

what type of cells
ALL - preB or preT lymphoblasts

AML - myeloblasts
2 types of chronic leukemias
CLL - lymphocytes, non-Ab-producing B cells

CML - myeloid stem cells, blast crisis
What are auer bodies?

Where do you see them?
One danger with treatment?
Peroxidase-positive cytoplasmic inclusios in granuloctes and myeloblasts

seen in acute promyelocytic leukemia
--> treatment can release Auer rods, cause DIC
Chromosomal translocation
a. CML
b. Burkitt's
c. follicular lymphoma
d. M3 AML
e. Ewing's
f. Mantle Cell lymphoma
a. t(9;22) Philadelphia
b. t(8;14) cmyc
c. t(14;18) bcl-2
d. t(15;17)
e. t(11;22)
f. t(11;14)
Birbeck granules (tennis rackets on EM

what are the defective cells and what do they express
Histiocytosis (Langerhans)

proliferative disorder of dendritic (langerhan's)

express S-100 and CD1a
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders
-high RBC, WBC, platelet
-Philadelphia chromosome neg
-JAK2 pos
Polycythemia vera = abnormal clone of hematopoietic stem cells, increasingly sensitive to growth factors
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders
-RBC, WBC normal, no philly chromosome
-high platelets
-30-50% pos for JAK2 mutation
Essential thrombocytosis
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders
-low RBCs
-variable WBCs and platelets
-negative philly chromosome
-positive JAK2 mutation (30-50%)
Myelofibrosis = fibrotic obliteration of bone marrow, tear drop cell

"BM is crying because it is fibrosed)
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders
-low RBCS
-high WBCs, platelets
-positive philly chromosome
-negative JAK2 mutation
CML
What is JAK 2?

What kinds of disorders are seen when it is mutated?
hematopoietic growth factor signaling

myeloproliferative disorders other than CML
Types of polycythemia

low plasma volume
-normal RBC mass, O2 sat, EPO
Relative
Type of polycythemia
-high RBC mass, low O2 sat, high EPO
-normal plasma volume

associated w/ lung disease, congenital heart disease, high altitude
appropriate absolute
Type of polycythemia

High RBC mass, high EP
due to ectopic EPO
inappropriate absolute
Type of polycythemia

High plasma volume, very high RBC mass, high EPO

associated with RCC, Wlms' tumor, cyst, HCC, hydronephrosis
Polycythemia vera
Anticoagulant used for immediate use in
-pulmonary embolism
-stroke
-acute coronary syndrome
-MI
-DVT
-used in pregnancy

what is the drug? How does it work? How do you track its effectiveness
Heparin

Activates antithrombin --> lowers thrombin and factor Xa (short half life)

measure PTT
Patient was given heparin and is now bleeding too much

how do you reverse its affects
protamine sulfate = positively charged molecule that binds negatively charged heparin
4 negative side effects of heparin
Bleeding
Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Osteoperosis
Drug-Drug interaction
4 benefits of using newer, low molecular weight heparins

1 negative
-act more on Xa
-better bioavail.
-2-4 times longer half life
-subcut. injection, don't need to monitor

-hard to reverse
what occurs in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Heparin binds platelet factor IV --> Ab production that binds to and activates platelets --> hypercoagulable state, but also thrombocytopenia (increased platelet clearance)
2 Drugs used as an alternative to heparin for anticoagulating patients with HIT

derived from what?

MOA?
Lepirudin, Bivalirudin

hirundin

directly inhibits thrombin
Drug used for chronic anticoagulation
-can cross the placenta, so don't use if pregnant

MOA?
How is it metabolized?
How should you monitor the affect?
Warfarin

Interferes with synth and carboxylation of vit K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, S

Metabolized by Cyt p450

Follow PT/INR, has effect on EXtrinsic pathway

"EX PresidenT went to WAR"
Extrinsic, PT, Warfarin
4 negative effects of warfarin
bleeding
teratogenic
skin/tissue necrosis (acquired protein C deficiency) --> uninhibited factor V/VIII --> clotting
drug-drug interaction
You give warfarin and now the patient is bleeding too much. How do you reverse?


what if you need rapid reversal?
vitamin K

fresh frozen plasma
Heparin vs. Warfarin

structure
H = large, anionic, acidic polymer

W = small, lipid-soluble
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Route of administration
H = parenteral (IV, SC)

W = oral
Heparin vs. Warfarin

site of action
H = blood

W = liver
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Onset of action
H = rapid (sec)

W = slow (depends on half lives of normal clotting factors)
Heparin vs. Warfarin

MOA
H = activates antithrombin --> decreased thrombin, Xa

W = impairs synth of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX X (antagonizes vit K)
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Duration
H = acute (hrs)

W = chronic (days)
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Inhibits coagulation in vitro?
H = yes

W = no
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Treatment of acute OD
H = protamine sulfate

W = IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Monitoring
H = PTT (intrinsic)

W = PT/INR (extrinsic)
Heparin vs. Warfarin

Crosses placenta
H = No

W = Yes (teratogenic)
Streptokinase, urokinas, tPA (alteplase), APSAC (anistreplase)

type of drug?

used for what?

MOA?
thrombolytic

Early MI, early ischemic stroke

Aids in conversion of plasminogen to plasmin --> cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots
Patient is given thrombolytics

what should happen to PT, PTT, and platelet count
PT up
PTT up
Platelet count normal
Thrombolytics

toxicity?

contraindications?
tox = bleeding
-active bleeding
-hx of intracranial bleed, severe HTN, or known bleeding diathesis
-recent surgery
Patient was given thrombolytics and is now bleeding too much

how do you reverse
aminocaproic acid (inhibits fibrinolysis)
Effect of thrombolytics on
a. fibrin
b. fibrinogen
a. fiberin --> D dimers (fibrin split products)

b. fibrinogen --> degradation products
Asprin

MOA?

Use?

tox (5)?
Inhibits COX1 and 2 (irreversibly acetylates) --> prevent TxA2 --> increases bleeding time (no effect on PT or PTT)

antipyretic, analgesic anti-inflamm, antiplatelet

gastric ulcer, bleeding, hyperventilation, Reye's, tinnitus
Drug used in acute coronary syndrome, coronary syndrome to decrease the incidence of recurrence of thrombotic stroke

MOA

tox
clopidogrel, ticlopidine

inhibtits platelet agg by irreversibly blocking ADP receptors --> no IIb/IIIa expression --> inhibited fibrinogen cross linking of platelets

ticlopidine causes neutropenia
Monoclonal Ab that binds to glycoprotein receptor IIb/IIIa on activated platelets, preventing aggregation

use?

tox?
abciximab

acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

bleeding, thromboycytopenia
Cancer drugs - where in the cell cycle do these work?

Vinca alkaloids and taxols
M
Cancer drugs - where in the cell cycle do these work?

Antimetabolites
DNA synth
Cancer drugs - where in the cell cycle do these work?

Etoposide
DNA synth, G2
Cancer drugs - where in the cell cycle do these work?

Bleomycin
G2 (synth components needed for mitosis)
Antineoplastics

decrease thymine synthesis (2)
methotrexate, 5-FU
Antineoplastics

decrease purine synthesis
6-MP
Antineoplastics

cross link DNA (2)
alkylating agents, cisplatin
Antineoplastics

intercalate DNA (2)
dactinomycin, doxorubicin
Antineoplastics


inhibit topoisomerase II
etoposide
Antineoplastics

inhibit microtubules (inhibits cell division)
vinca alkaloids
Antineoplastics

inhibits microtubule dissassembly
paclitaxel
Antimetabolits

drug used for: Leukemia, lymphoma choriocarcinoma, sarcoma
+
abortion, ectopic pregnancy, RA, psoriasis

MOA

tox (4)
Methotrexate

Folic acid analog that inhibits DHFR --> low dTMP --> low DNA and protein synth

1. myelosuppression (save w/leucovorin)
2. fatty change in liver (macrovesicular)
3. Mucositis
4. teratogenic
Drug to treat colon cancer and other solid tumors, basal cell carcinoma (topical)

synergy with MTX

MOA
tox
5-FU

pyrimidine analog, activated to 5F-dUMP --> complexes with folinic acid, inhibits thymidylate synthase --> low dTMP --> low DNA and protein synth

myelosuppression (not reversible by leucovorin), photosensitivty
Overdose treatment

methotrexate vs. 5-FU
Myelosuppression

meth = leucovorin
5-FU = thymidine
Drug to treat Leukemia or lymphoma, but NOT CLL or Hodgkin's

Purine analog

MOA?

toxicity
6-MP

purine analog activated by HGPRTase --> decreased de novo purine synth

Bone marrow, GI, liver
What is the effect of allopurinol on 6-MP and why?
allopurinol --> increased toxicity of 6-MP (BM, GI, liver)

Because 6-MP is metabolized by xanthine oxidase
Drug to treat ALL that works just like 6-MP

toxicity?
6-thioguanine

BM suppression, liver

BUT you can give it with allopurinol
Drug used to treat AML, ALL, high grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

MOA

Tox
cytarabine (ara-C)

pyrimidine antagonist --> inhibits DNA polymerase

leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, megaloblastic anemia
Drug to use in
-Wilms' tumor
-Ewing's sarcoma
-Rhabdomyosarcoma
-childhood tumors

MOA

Tox
Dactinomycin

Intercalates DNA

Myelosuppression
Drug for Hodgkin's lymphoma, myeloma, sarcoma, and solid tumors (breast, ovary, lung)

MOA

Tox
Doxorubicin (adriamycin), daunorubicin

generates free radicals, intercalates DNA --> breaks--> decreased replication

cardiotox, meylosuppression, alopecia, toxic to tissues with extravasation
Drug used in testicular cancer, Hodgkin's

MOA
tox
Bleomycin

Induces free radicals --> strand breaks

pulm fibrosis, skin changes, but minimal myelosuppression
Drug for small cell carcinoma of lung and prostate, testicular carcinoma

MOA

tox
inhibits topoisomerase II --> increased DNA degradation

myelosuppression, GI irritation, alopecia
Alkylating agent used in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, breast, ovarian carcinoma, immunsuppression

MOA

Tox
cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

activated by liver, covalently links DNA at guanine N-7

Myelosuppression, hemorrhagic cystitis, prevented partially with mesna
Alkylating agents

Used for brain tumors (including glioblastoma multiforme)

MOA

Tox
Nitrosoureas (carmustine, lomustine, semustine, streptozocin)

Bioactivation, crosses BBB

CNS tox (dizzy, ataxia)
Alkylating agents

Used for CML and to ablate bone marrow before transplant

MOA

tox (2)
Busulfan

alkylates DNA

pulm fibrosis, hyperpigmentation
Microtubule inhibitors (2)

Used for Hodgkin's, Wilm's, and choriocarcinoma

MOA

tox
vincristine, vinblastine

Inhibit tubulin polymerization in M phase -> spindle cannot form

vincristine --> neurotox (areflexia, peripheral neuritis), paralytic ileus

vinblastine - bone marrow
"vinBLASTine BLASTS BM"
Microtubule inhibitors

used for ovarian and breast carcinomas

MOA

tox
pacliTAXel, TAXols

hyperstabilize polymerized microtubules in M phase --> mitotic spindle cannot break down (no anaphase)

Myelosuppression ,hypersensitivity
Drug that is used for testicular, bladder, ovary, and lung carcinomas

cross links DNA

tox?
cisplatin, carboplatin

nephrotoxic, acoustic nerve damage
Hydroxyurea

MOA

Increases level of what substance?

use

tox
inhibits ribonucleotide reductase --> decreased DNA synth (s phase)

Melanoma, CML, sickle cell (increases HbF)

BM suppression, GI upset
Prednisone

USe?

Tox?
CLL, Hodgkin's (MOPP), autoimmune

cushing-like; immunosuppression, cataracts, acne, osteoperosis, HTN, peptic ulcer hyperglycemia, psychosis, insomnia
Drug used in breast cancer, to prevent osteoperosis

MOA

Tox
SERM = receptor antagonist in breast, agonist in bone -> blocks binding of estrogen

tamoxifen - increases risk of endometrial carcinoma (agonist effects), hot flashes

raloxifene = no increase in endometrial carcinoma (b/c it is an antagonist)
Drug used to treat metastatic breast cancer

MOA

tox
Trastuzumab (herceptin)

Monoclonal Ab against HER-2 -> helps kill breast cancer cells that overexpress HER-2 (antibodies?)

Cardiotox
Drug used for CML, GI stromal tumors

MOA

tox
Imatinib

Philadelphia chromosome bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

fluid retention
Monoclonal Ab for non-hodgkin's lymphoma, RA (w/methotrexate)

MOA
rituximab

monoclonal Ab against CD20 (found on most B cell neoplasms)