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447 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The adult ear canal:
A. is usually straight
B. curves like a vertical figure 'S'
C. rises upward and forward, then descends to the drum
D. descends downward, then backward toward the drum
C. rises upward and forward, then descends to the drum
The isthmus is:
A. another name for the aperture
B. located at the second bend of the canal
C. where the canal narrows to enter the temporal bone
D. the area between the first and second bend
C. where the canal narrows to enter the temporal bone
The pinna and the external canal together:
A. gather and reinforce acoustical signals
B. with the irregular shape of the auricle, cause increases and decreases at different frequencies as the sound arrives at the ear
C. forms a resonating tube
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The average resonant frequency of the ear canal plus concha is:
A. 1500 Hz
B. 2700 Hz
C. 3500 Hz
D. 1000 Hz
B. 2700 Hz
The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the:
A. malleus
B. eustachian tube
C. oval window
D. tympanic membrane
D. tympanic membrane
The ear canal contains:
A. cilia, ceruminous glands, sebaceous glands
B. ceruminous glands, pinna, scaffoid fossa
C. umbo, isthmus, sebaceous glands
D. crus, apecture, sebaceous glands
A. cilia, ceruminous glands, sebaceous glands
The Vagus Nerve (Xth Cranial) is found:
A. along the bottom of the tympanic membrane
B. along the bottom of the ear canal
C. along the bottom of the intertragal notch
D. at the top of the isthmus
B. along the bottom of the ear canal
Which of the following terms is not part of the tympanic membrane?
A. pars tensa
B. crus
C. pars flaccida
D. umbo
B. crus
An otoscopic inspection should reveal:
A. an external auditory canal sloping upward and backward
B. no vision of any ossicles
C. a clear view of the Vagus Nerve (Xth Cranial)
D. a view of the pearly white tympanic membrane
D. a view of the pearly white tympanic membrane
Which of the following is a part of the pinna?
A. tragus
B. intertragal notch
C. triangular fossa
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Atresia refers to:
A. an active, draining ear
B. a swollen and itching condition of the external ear canal
C. a closure of the external auditory canal
D. impacted wax
C. a closure of the external auditory canal
Perforation of the eardrum can be caused by:
A. an infection
B. a fracture of the temporal bone
C. a nearby explosion
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The following are types of hearing loss:
A. conductive
B. central
C. sensorineural
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Conductive losses may be caused by:
A. a prolapsed canal
B. impacted cerumen
C. damaged hair cells
D. (a) and (b) above
D. (a) and (b) above
Which surgical technique repairs the tympanic membrane?
A. cholesteaplasty
B. lobectomy
C. myringoplasty
D. tympanosclerosis
C. myringoplasty
A cholesteatoma can be described as:
A. a pouch of skin filled with epithelial debris
B. an excess of dry, brown cerumen
C. an inflammation of the walls of the ear canal
D. none of the above
A. a pouch of skin filled with epithelial debris
When an excess of cerumen or a blockage of cerumen is detected, the hearing aid specialist should:
A. proceed with ear impression
B. refer the patient to a physician
C. proceed with routine testing procedures
D. remove cerumen with a Q-tip
B. refer the patient to a physician
A swollen ear may be caused by:
A. eczema
B. otitis externa
C. dermatitis
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Tympanosclerosis may be described as:
A. external perforation
B. monomeric spots
C. calcium deposits
D. an odorous epithelial sac
C. calcium deposits
A tympanic membrane perforation may cause a:
A. mixed loss
B. sensorineural loss
C. conductive loss
D. central loss
C. conductive loss
Theoretically, the increase in sound pressure provided by the middle ear structure is about:
A. 12 dB
B. 15 dB
C. 27 dB
D. none of the above
C. 27 dB
The footplate of the stapes fits into the:
A. incus
B. oval window
C. round window
D. incudostapedial junction
B. oval window
A type 'A' tympanogram would indicate:
A. possible ossicular discontinuity
B. chronic otitis media
C. mandatory referral
D. normal pressure and compliance
D. normal pressure and compliance
The difference in area size between the tympanic membrane and the footplate of the stapes increasing the sound pressure at the footplate is:
A. the transfer function or aerial ratio
B. hydraulic energy
C. impedance
D. static compliance
A. the transfer function or aerial ratio
The middle ear cavity contains:
A. anvil, stapes and cartilage
B. stapedius, incus, eustachian tube and isthmus
C. annular ligament, malleus, stapes and tensor tympani
D. incudostapedial junction, vagus nerve, stapedius and malleus
C. annular ligament, malleus, stapes and tensor tympani
The middle ear system is often referred to as:
A. an impedance matching transformer
B. attenuation method
C. stapedial acoustic reflex
D. fundamental transformer
A. an impedance matching transformer
The middle ear cavity, as a transducer, changes energy from one form to another. The energy change is from:
A. mechanical energy to acoustic energy
B. acoustic energy to mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
C. acoustic energy to electrical energy to hydraulic energy
D. mechanical energy to hydraulic energy to electrical energy
B. acoustic energy to mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
The middle ear muscles contract, resulting in:
A. an acoustic reflex
B. ossicular discontinuity
C. increase in mechanical energy
D. none of the above
A. an acoustic reflex
The eustachian tube begins in the lower portion of the tympanic cavity and ends at the:
A. helicotrema
B. promontory
C. incostapedial joint
D. nasopharynx
D. nasopharynx
The eustachian tube of a child is:
A. straight
B. short
C. horizontal
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
A cholesteatoma:
A. occurs in the middle ear
B. may perforate the eardrum
C. is usually accompanied by a constant odorous discharge
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Changes in either stiffness or mass occur when the normal middle ear function is altered by disease or trauma causing:
A. a swelling and/or redness in the external canal
B. a feeling of stuffiness or a complaint of hearing in a barrel
C. a feeling of itching deep within the ear
D. a decrease in acoustic feedback
B. a feeling of stuffiness or a complaint of hearing in a barrel
Otosclerosis:
A. occurs more often in women than men
B. occurs more often in Caucasians than other races
C. appears to be inherited
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Most dysfunctions of the outer or middle ear cause a:
A. mixed loss
B. conductive loss
C. sensory loss
D. neural loss
B. conductive loss
Otitis media may occur with:
A. spongy changes in the bony capsule
B. fluid in the middle ear
C. osteoarthritis
D. tinnitus
B. fluid in the middle ear
A plastic or steel strut replaces the stapes during a:
A. stapedectomy
B. stapes mobilization
C. fenestration
D. none of the above
A. stapedectomy
Treatment for chronic otitis media may include:
A. antibiotics
B. inflation of the eustachian tube
C. myringotomy
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
A radical mastiodectomy includes removal of:
A. malleus, incus and tympanic membrane
B. tympanic membrane, malleus and eustachian tube
C. ossicular chain and eustachian tube
D. ossicular chain, mastoid
D. ossicular chain, mastoid
The ossicular chain is supported and suspended by:
A. muscles only
B. ligaments, stapedius and promontory
C. stapedius, tensor tympani and ligaments
D. anvil, stapedius and ligaments
C. stapedius, tensor tympani and ligaments
The ear, due to its physical characteristics, enhances which frequencies?
A. 250-1,000 Hz
B. 2,000-5,000 Hz
C. 1,000-2,000 Hz
D. 4,000-6,000 Hz
B. 2,000-5,000 Hz
In a cross section of the cochlea, the minimum number of rows of hair cells you can see is:
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
C. 4
The total number of neural fibers or neurons in the human auditory nerve is about:
A. 10,000
B. 20,000
C. 30,000
D. 40,000
C. 30,000
The basilar membrane separates:
A. the scala media and the scala vestibuli
B. the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani
C. the scala media and the scala tympani
D. the scala tympani and the semicircular canals
C. the scala media and the scala tympani
The scala tympani is filled with:
A. strialymph
B. perilymph
C. endolymph
D. cortilymph
B. perilymph
The base of the cochlea;
A. begins at the oval window
B. is at the inner tip
C. consists of low frequency sounds
D. is wider than the apex
A. begins at the oval window
The fibers of the auditory nerve, at the point of maximum stimulation of the basilar membrane, discharge and recover at a rate of approximately:
A. up to 1Khz identical to the stimulus frequency
B. 3,000 times or cycles/sec
C. 500 times or cycles/sec
D. 250 times or cycles/sec
A. up to 1Khz identical to the stimulus frequency
The cochlea, acting as a frequency analyzer, distributes acoustic stimuli to places along the basilar membranes according to frequency. This forms the basis of a hypothesis called the:
A. critical band theory
B. square wave theory
C. Place Theory
D. Fourier Theory
C. Place Theory
Each of the semicircular canals:
A. are oriented at 90 degrees to one another
B. contain perilymph and endolymph
C. detect positioning and balance
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Collections of nerve fibers are called:
A. ganglia and synapses
B. membrane and nuclei
C. ganglia and nuclei
D. ganglia and cortex
C. ganglia and nuclei
Afferent fibers:
A. transmit from the cochlea to the brain
B. transmit from the brain to the cochlea
C. transmit from the middle ear to the cochlea
D. transmit from the tympanum to the brain
A. transmit from the cochlea to the brain
Which of the following is a result of tissue and structure damage?
A. a threshold shift
B. distortion of perception of frequencies
C. disturbance of perception of loudness
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
A sensorineural hearing loss is due to a disorder in the:
A. eustachian tube
B. middle ear
C. inner ear
D. ossicles
C. inner ear
A symptom of recruitment is:
A. tinnitus
B. vertigo
C. presbycusis
D. intolerance for loud sounds
D. intolerance for loud sounds
Malingering is a category of:
A. presbycusis
B. tinnitus
C. non-organic loss
D. sensorineural loss
C. non-organic loss
Meniere's syndrome consists of:
A. presbycusis and tinnitus
B. noise trauma and vertigo
C. tinnitus, vertigo and hearing loss
D. central deafness, aphasia and vertigo
C. tinnitus, vertigo and hearing loss
An organic disorder is when there is damage to:
A. the hearing mechanism
B. the neural pathways
C. the brain
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Loudness recruitment:
A. is always present in presbycusis
B. refers to abnormal loudness growth of clients with sensorineural hearing
C. only applies to patients with central processing problems
D. is medically correctable
B. refers to abnormal loudness growth of clients with sensorineural hearing
Tinnitus is:
A. a completely understood disorder
B. often managed by hearing instruments or tinnitus maskers
C. psychological in nature only
D. managed only by a labyrinthectomy
B. often managed by hearing instruments or tinnitus maskers
A characteristic of a conductive loss is:
A. a soft spoken patient
B. more affected in high frequencies than lows
C. continual vertigo
D. a loud talking patient
A. a soft spoken patient
Which is not a characteristic of a sensorineural loss?
A. difficulty understanding high frequency consonant sounds
B. recruitment
C. hearing better in noise than in quiet
D. tinnitus
C. hearing better in noise than in quiet
A dial on the audiometer to control the decibels of output is called:
A. a frequency dial
B. a hearing level dial
C. an attenuator dial
D. b & c above
D. b & c above
Audiometric zero for pure tones is higher than the standard reference level by about:
A. 35 dB
B. 20 dB
C. 10 dB
D. differs at each frequency
D. differs at each frequency
ANSI letters stand for:
A. Amplitude Narrowing in Short Increments
B. Alternate Non Sensitive Intensities
C. American National Safety Institute
D. American National Standards Institute
D. American National Standards Institute
The audiometer is designed so that zero on the attenuator dial:
A. corresponds to the same sound pressure level at each audiometer frequency
B. represents the level of normal hearing for that frequency
C. represents where the best ear can hear
D. you hear no sound when the dial is at 0
B. represents the level of normal hearing for that frequency
By air conduction, sound energy changes forms in which of the following manners:
A. acoustic energy, mechanical energy, chemical energy, electrical energy to hydraulic energy
B. mechanical energy, acoustic energy, chemical energy, hydraulic energy to electrical energy
C. acoustic energy, mechanical energy, hydraulic energy, electrical energy to chemical energy
D. electrical energy, mechanical energy, acoustic energy, hydraulic energy to chemical energy
C. acoustic energy, mechanical energy, hydraulic energy, electrical energy to chemical energy
The normal ear responds to a range of frequencies from:
A. 15-50,000 Hz
B. 20-20,000 Hz
C. 20-30,000 Hz
D. 30-30,000 Hz
B. 20-20,000 Hz
Sound waves, during bone conduction, transmit from the:
A. skull to the cochlea
B. ossicles to the cochlea
C. pinna to the ossicles
D. skull to the eighth nerve
A. skull to the cochlea
Which of the following describes a Phon?
A. A unit of measurement when comparing the loudness of one frequency to another frequency
B. A unit of measurement to determine the just noticeable difference (JND)
C. A unit to measure loudness
D. A unit of measurement for comparing the threshold of audibility with the threshold of comfort
A. A unit of measurement when comparing the loudness of one frequency to another frequency
Routine hearing testing should be performed:
A. in an anechoic chamber
B. in the home environment
C. in a sound controlled environment
D. in a room with a sound meter
C. in a sound controlled environment
Audiometric zero is:
A. 0 dB Hearing Level
B. 0 dB HL
C. the level where normal ears can hear at every frequency
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
In Pure Tone testing, threshold means:
A. the lowest intensity the client hears 50% of the time
B. the sound has a loudness of zero dB in a 2 cc coupler
C. the point at which the client reports the sound as most comfortable
D. 0 dB HL
A. the lowest intensity the client hears 50% of the time
What is the meaning of 40 dB threshold re: audiometric zero, at 500 Hz?
A. subject could not hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB
B. subject could barely hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB about 50% of the time
C. subject could hear a 500 Hz tone very well at 40 dB, and 5 dB lower
D. subject could hear a 500 Hz tone with the hearing dial set at zero
B. subject could barely hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB about 50% of the time
The problems produced by excessive ambient noise are:
A. greater for the lower frequencies than the higher frequencies
B. greater for the higher frequencies than the lower frequencies
C. affecting both high and low frequencies equally
D. not a problem because a headset covers the ears
A. greater for the lower frequencies than the higher frequencies
Before testing is done:
A. the client's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
B. you should carefully remove any impacted cerumen, if the client so requests
C. you should hand the earphones to the client so that he can put them on in a comfortable manner
D. none of the above
A. the client's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
The descending technique in pure tone audiometry is preferred because it:
A. is easier to hear when a sound stops than when it begins
B. is easier for the operator to explain to the client
C. can prevent 'hearing fatigue'
D. all of the above
A. is easier to hear when a sound stops than when it begins
Begin testing with the 1000 Hz tone because it:
A. is the center frequency of those most important to understanding speech
B. has good test re-test reliability
C. provides the opportunity for the client to become accustomed to the procedure
D. all of the above
B. has good test re-test reliability
The symbols used in the audiogram for air conduction are:
A. uniform for the United States only
B. uniform for Europe only
C. uniform worldwide
D. a circle for the left, and x for the right
C. uniform worldwide
Individuals with a noise induced hearing impairment can have a 'V' notch at which frequency?
A. 3000 Hz
B. 4000 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. any of the above
D. any of the above
The loss of acoustic energy as it travels from the test ear to the non-test ear is a definition of:
A. tonal deficiency effect
B. interaural attenuation
C. occlusion effect
D. auditory fatigue
B. interaural attenuation
To begin testing for air or bone conduction thresholds, tests should begin at which frequency?
A. 1000 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 500 Hz
D. 250 Hz
A. 1000 Hz
If the outer and middle ear parts are normal:
A. air thresholds will equal the bone thresholds
B. air thresholds will be better than bone thresholds
C. air thresholds will be worse than bone thresholds
D. you cannot measure bone thresholds
A. air thresholds will equal the bone thresholds
In bone conduction testing, the receiver should be:
A. placed so that it is in contact with the pinna as well as the mastoid
B. held in place by the person being tested
C. placed at the most sensitive spot on the mastoid of the test ear
D. held in place by a headband that exerts exactly one pound of pressure
C. placed at the most sensitive spot on the mastoid of the test ear
Sounds from the bone conduction receiver may stimulate the non-test ear at:
A. 10 dB or less
B. 20 dB - 30 dB
C. 30 dB - 40 dB
D. 40 dB or more
A. 10 dB or less
A source of information that helps to identify which ear is responding to bone conduction stimuli is:
A. tympanometry
B. acoustic reflex testing
C. bone conduction with masking
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Bone conduction testing directly stimulates:
A. the middle ear
B. semicircular canals
C. the cochlea
D. the pinna
C. the cochlea
Most conductive losses:
A. are medically correctable
B. display a breakdown or obstruction in the middle ear
C. display good discrimination
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Ambient noise in the environment during bone conduction testing will:
A. affect the test results in the lower frequencies
B. affect the test results in the mid frequencies
C. affect the test results in the high frequencies
D. all of the above
A. affect the test results in the lower frequencies
During the testing process, it is best to test bone conduction:
A. before air conduction testing
B. after air conduction testing
C. after the case history
D. after impedance audiometry
B. after air conduction testing
A conductive loss may be caused by:
A. perforations of the tympanic membrane
B. immobile middle ear ossicles
C. otitis media
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Bone conduction thresholds worse than air conduction thresholds may be caused by:
A. poor placement of the vibrator
B. a skull fracture
C. thickness of the skull
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Sound being presented to one ear and then routed to the opposite ear is known as:
A. cross hearing
B. shadow hearing
C. transcranial hearing
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
When the better ear 'answers' for the poorer ear what occurs?
A. shadow curve
B. central hearing
C. overmasking
D. interaural attenuation
A. shadow curve
Which noise is best for masking during pure tone air and bone conduction testing?
A. white noise
B. speech noise
C. narrow band noise
D. broad band noise
C. narrow band noise
Effective masking may be described as:
A. an increased masking noise that does not shift the threshold tone
B. a formula method to determine how much masking noise is appropriate
C. a psychoacoustic method like the one proposed by Hood
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Masking is performed during air conduction testing when:
A. a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the better ear and the poorer ear
B. a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the poorer ear and the bone conduction threshold of the better ear
C. a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the poorer ear and the bone conduction threshold of the better ear
D. a and b
D. a and b
Masking is performed during bone conduction testing whenever:
A. a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
B. a 0 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
C. a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
D. a and c
A. a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
The occlusion effect occurs during:
A. bone conduction testing causing thresholds to shift due to headphones being placed over the ear
B. air conduction testing causing thresholds to shift due to headphones being placed over the ear
C. impedance audiometry
D. bone conduction testing causing threshold to shift due to the oscillator being placed on the skull
A. bone conduction testing causing thresholds to shift due to headphones being placed over the ear
A masking dilemma occurs when:
A. it is impossible to mask
B. the patient displays a bilateral conductive loss
C. masking cannot be completed due to overmasking
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Undermasking is defined as:
A. occurring more often during air conduction testing
B. occurring more often during bone conduction testing
C. an excess of noise creating a false threshold
D. masking noise being at least 40 dB above the true threshold
A. occurring more often during air conduction testing
Central masking can effect a threshold by:
A. 5 dB
B. 20 dB
C. 40 dB
D. none of the above
A. 5 dB
In a sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction thresholds are:
A. better than bone conduction thresholds
B. worse than bone conduction thresholds
C. the same as bone conduction thresholds
D. in normal range
C. the same as bone conduction thresholds
An air-bone gap means the:
A. air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
B. air conduction thresholds are better that bone conduction thresholds
C. loss is purely conductive
D. loss is purely mixed
A. air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
A sensorineural component is the difference between:
A. AC thresholds and the range of normal hearing
B. BC thresholds and the range of normal hearing
C. AC thresholds and BC thresholds
D. BC thresholds and 0 dB HL
B. BC thresholds and the range of normal hearing
A pure conductive loss shows:
A. all bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
B. all air conduction thresholds out of normal range
C. some bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
D. a and b above
A. all bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
In a purely conductive loss:
A. the inner ear nerve cells are impaired
B. the outer or middle ear functions normally
C. sound is reduced before its arrival at the inner ear
D. nerve cells in the inner ear cannot respond readily to vibrations through the bones of the skull
C. sound is reduced before its arrival at the inner ear
A mixed loss exhibits:
A. a sensorineural component
B. a conductive component
C. normal hearing by bone conduction
D. a and b above
D. a and b above
An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than the middle frequency region is classified as a:
A. flat curve
B. rising curve
C. reverse slope
D. trough-shaped curve
D. trough-shaped curve
Pure Tone Average estimates:
A. SRT
B. the degree of difficulty in hearing
C. the average of 250, 500 and 1000 Hz ÷ 3
D. bone conduction thresholds
A. SRT
To calculate PTA in a hearing loss when thresholds drop 15-20 dB or more at any or all frequencies:
A. add the 3 frequency thresholds and ÷ 3
B. add the 2 frequencies with the most loss and ÷ 2
C. add the 2 frequencies with the least loss and ÷ 2
D. use 500 and 1000 Hz only and ÷ 2
C. add the 2 frequencies with the least loss and ÷ 2
PTA describes the following audiogram classification fairly accurately:
A. flat loss
B. fragmentary audiogram
C. sudden drop
D. a and b above
D. a and b above
Although pure tones sound artificial to us, they have the advantage of:
A. being subjective
B. measuring a specific frequency without involvement of other frequencies
C. depending entirely of the patient's response and motivation
D. using formulas as a substitute for speech tests
B. measuring a specific frequency without involvement of other frequencies
Speech Reception Threshold:
A. like an audiogram, differs at each frequency
B. is a level above SDT by about 8-10 dB
C. proves useful when testing someone who does not speak English
D. is always 20 dB for normal ears
B. is a level above SDT by about 8-10 dB
Dynamic Range is the usable range of hearing between:
A. SAT and MCL
B. SRT and MCL
C. SRT and UCL
D. MCL and UCL
C. SRT and UCL
The Most Comfortable Level is:
A. about 65 dB SPL for normal ears
B. about 45 dB HL for normal ears
C. the range of comfortable loudness
D. a and b above
D. a and b above
The range between threshold and MCL:
A. forms a flat line across the audiogram
B. is the same at each frequency
C. differs at each frequency
D. is a point on the HL dial, not frequency related
C. differs at each frequency
A patient with a conductive loss has:
A. a wider dynamic range than normal ears
B. the same dynamic range as normal ears
C. a narrower dynamic range than normal ears
D. a dynamic range that reduces by the amount of the conductive component
B. the same dynamic range as normal ears
When patients have a sensorineural loss, MCL:
A. retains a relationship with the lower boundary
B. extends downward, affecting the lower boundary
C. extends upward, increasing the dynamic range
D. pushes UCL upward, raising the dynamic range
A. retains a relationship with the lower boundary
Recruitment is:
A. common in patients with cochlear losses
B. a result of a large conductive component making sound louder
C. an abnormal increase in UCL
D. an advantage when fitting high frequency losses
A. common in patients with cochlear losses
When a patient has normal pure tone thresholds of 0 dB HL across frequencies, it is difficult to accurately measure:
A. SAT
B. SRT
C. MCL
D. UCL
A. SAT
When a patient has a large conductive component, it is difficult to accurately measure:
A. SAT
B. SRT
C. MCL
D. UCL
D. UCL
Speech discrimination tests:
A. are easily understood at any level above SRT
B. use spondiac words from single syllable word lists
C. approximate a sample of speech sounds in an ordinary conversation
D. contain redundancy unless they are too loud
C. approximate a sample of speech sounds in an ordinary conversation
The patient has pure tone air conduction thresholds of 40 dB HL at each frequency. If the patient has a conductive hearing loss, his MCL would be approximately:
A. 60 dB HL or less
B. 60-69 dB HL
C. 70-79 dB HL
D. 80 dB HL or above
D. 80 dB HL or above
Discriminating complex sounds depend on:
A. redundancy
B. timbre
C. resonance
D. frequency
B. timbre
In a complex sound, the fundamental frequency is the:
A. harmonic
B. loudest frequency
C. overtone
D. phoneme
B. loudest frequency
We recognize the different vowel sounds because of variations in:
A. the fundamental frequency
B. overtones
C. harmonics
D. timbre
D. timbre
A formant is:
A. a concentration of energy around certain frequencies
B. the lowest frequency in a complex tone
C. a weak, high frequency component or overtone
D. a phoneme composed of several frequencies
A. a concentration of energy around certain frequencies
The most important energy for recognizing speech sounds are:
A. harmonics and overtones
B. second and third formants
C. the fundamental frequencies
D. low frequency phonemes
B. second and third formants
The upward spread of masking occurs when:
A. a low frequency sound masks out a high frequency sound
B. a louder sound occurs immediately after a softer sound
C. one sound follows another closely in time
D. a high frequency sound is louder than a low frequency sound
A. a low frequency sound masks out a high frequency sound
Masking is required for discrimination tests when:
A. masking was used for bone conduction tests
B. masking was used for air conduction tests
C. MCL's differ by 40 dB or more
D. the discrimination test is conducted 40 dB above SRT
B. masking was used for air conduction tests
Binaural testing:
A. helps decide which ear to fit
B. is not important with similar audiograms
C. is unnecessary when SRT, MCL and UCL are the same for both ears
D. all of the above
A. helps decide which ear to fit
Tympanometry identifies:
A. the hearing acuity of the patient
B. a measure of the static compliance of the eustachean tube
C. a measure of the dynamic compliance of the TM
D. a measure of the central processing of the ear
C. a measure of the dynamic compliance of the TM
By convention, the range of pressures exerted in tympanometry range from:
A. +200mm (H20) to -200mm (H20)
B. +400mm (H20) to -400mm (H20)
C. +300mm (H20) to -300mm (H20)
D. +100mm (H20) to -100mm (H20)
A. +200mm (H20) to -200mm (H20)
The tympanogram measures:
A. the loudness of the sound
B. the intensity of the sound in the cavity between the probe tip and the first bend of the canal
C. the intensity of the sound in the cavity between the probe tip and the TM
D. the spectrum of the sound in the cavity
C. the intensity of the sound in the cavity between the probe tip and the TM
The point of maximum compliance in a tympanogram represents:
A. the absence of air pressure in the ear
B. the point at which the pressure exerted through the probe tip exactly matches the pressure within the middle ear
C. the point of best hearing thresholds
D. the point of worst hearing thresholds
B. the point at which the pressure exerted through the probe tip exactly matches the pressure within the middle ear
A '0'mm (H20) pressure reading means:
A. that there is a vacuum in the cavity
B. that the hearing acuity is within the range of normal limits
C. that no pressure is being exerted on the TM
D. that the pressure exerted matches the hearing loss
C. that no pressure is being exerted on the TM
The configuration and height of the tympanogram can be a factor in deciding the proper matrix for the fitting of a hearing aid:
A. A Type B tells us to decrease the output by 5 dB
B. A Type C tells us to increase the output by 20 dB
C. A Type C tells us to decrease the output by 15 dB
D. A high Type A tells us to decrease the output by 2-3 dB
D. A high Type A tells us to decrease the output by 2-3 dB
Tympanometry is effective in identifying:
A. middle ear pathologies
B. cochlear pathologies
C. VIIIth Cranial nerve pathologies
D. all of the above
A. middle ear pathologies
This figure represents what 'Type' of tympanogram?
A. Type A
B. Type As
C. Type Ad
D. Type B
A. Type A
This figure represents what 'Type' of tympanogram?
A. Type A
B. Type As
C. Type Ad
D. Type B
D. Type B
Figure 14-7 represents what 'Type' of tympanogram?
A. Type A
B. Type As
C. Type Ad
D. Type C
C. Type Ad
This figure represents what 'Type' of tympanogram?
A. Type A
B. Type As
C. Type Ad
D. Type C
D. Type C
This figure represents what 'Type' of tympanogram?
A. Type A
B. Type As
C. Type Ad
D. Type B
B. Type As
Sound cannot travel through the following medium or mediums:
A. gas
B. vacuum
C. gas or solid
D. solid or liquid
B. vacuum
Any complex sound can be broken down into individual frequencies by a technique known as:
A. standing wave analysis
B. Fourier spectral analysis
C. transverse wave energy analysis
D. stable molecular movement analysis
B. Fourier spectral analysis
How many octaves occur from 125 Hz to 2000 Hz?
A. 7 octaves
B. 5 octaves
C. 4 octaves
D. 3 octaves
C. 4 octaves
The quality or timbre of a sound is a property that depends on:
A. how many frequencies are in the complex sound
B. the relative strength of each frequency
C. the resonance of the sound cavities
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The speed of sound in air, in feet per second, is:
A. 340
B. 960
C. 1100
D. 1500
C. 1100
What does the term '67 dB' mean?
A. half the total range of intensities
B. 67 dB of acoustic power
C. sound pressure level of 67 dB
D. it is meaningless without a reference level
D. it is meaningless without a reference level
The decibel is:
A. an absolute value
B. used only as a measure of hearing loss
C. an absolute measure of sound loudness
D. a ratio between two intensities
D. a ratio between two intensities
The weakest sound normal human ears can hear in the most sensitive frequency range of the ear is an effective sound pressure of about:
A. .5 dB
B. 0 dB
C. 0.00002 dynes/cm2
D. 0.0002 dynes/cm2
D. 0.0002 dynes/cm2
A formant is:
A. a frequency region within a complex tone where certain harmonics have relatively large energy
B. a graph showing the loudness and frequency of the components of a complex sound
C. the relative strength of all frequencies in a complex sound
D. a synonym for pure tones
A. a frequency region within a complex tone where certain harmonics have relatively large energy
The normal human ear canal resonance is in the approximate range of:
A. 2500 - 8000 Hz
B. 5000 - 6000 Hz
C. 2500 - 4000 Hz
D. 100 -1500 Hz
C. 2500 - 4000 Hz
The harmonics of speech reinforce some frequencies more than others. The reinforced frequencies are:
A. a result of the Lombard effect
B. a result of the Stenger effect
C. formants
D. the fundamental frequency
C. formants
Vowels differ from consonants in that they:
A. use more open vocal cord voicing
B. have more high frequency energy
C. have less volume
D. are of shorter duration
A. use more open vocal cord voicing
When tilting the frequency response, the last number in a matrix, i.e. 110/37/15, means:
A. a 15 dB/octave rise
B. parallel venting produces this rise
C. the 15 dB difference occurs between 500 Hz and the first peak
D. this is the amount of dB required to eliminate the occlusion effect
C. the 15 dB difference occurs between 500 Hz and the first peak
The patient's MCL on a speech circuit of the audiometer is usually judged on:
A. the occlusion effect
B. the volume at 1000 Hz
C. the ear canal resonance
D. the high frequency energy required for clear speech
B. the volume at 1000 Hz
ANSI developed the Articulation Index (AI) to express:
A. speech power
B. speech clarity
C. speech voicing
D. speech articulation
B. speech clarity
'Positive reinforcement' involves:
A. praising the patient for each accomplishment
B. using the 'speech envelope' to counsel clients
C. power and clarity curves
D. presenting a tone that is only inaudible without the instrument on
D. presenting a tone that is only inaudible without the instrument on
Our quest of improving speech understanding begins by studying:
A. speech production
B. vowel consonant similarities
C. power vs intensity
D. all of the above
A. speech production
Most auditory systems follow a power law. This logarithmic concept is:
A. if we make a sound twice as intense, the sound is twice as loud
B. a 6 dB increase in sound pressure doubles the loudness
C. a 10 dB increase in sound pressure doubles the loudness
D. a 10 dB increase in loudness doubles the sound pressure
C. a 10 dB increase in sound pressure doubles the loudness
Sones compare:
A. loudness across frequencies
B. loudness up frequency
C. abnormal loudness growth
D. loudness in critical bands
B. loudness up frequency
Mels measure:
A. auditory fatigue
B. equal loudness contours
C. intensity
D. pitch
D. pitch
Dexterity of a patient's fingers enter into the choice of instruments because of difficulty in:
A. inserting the earmold into the ear
B. replacing the battery
C. adjusting the volume or any of the controls of the hearing aid
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
A bone conduction instrument should be used when:
A. a flat response is needed
B. a monaural fitting is required
C. pure tone testing indicates that bone conduction is worse than air conduction
D. the patient has chronic otitis media
D. the patient has chronic otitis media
A basic problem for clients with an asymmetrical hearing loss is:
A. discriminating speech from the side of the head with no usable hearing
B. an inability to locate sound
C. hearing in the presence of noise
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Pressure Measuring Instruments (PMI's) are:
A. built to the sound pressure standard of 20 micropascals
B. no better for determining hearing aid needs than the speech audiometer
C. usually unreliable for test re-test situations
D. more complicated to operate than a speech audiometer
A. built to the sound pressure standard of 20 micropascals
Properly selected hearing instruments should allow:
A. the patient to wear an instrument at a comfortable loudness level
B. improved communication ability of normal conversational speech in noise
C. better hearing, aided, than unaided
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Slope of loss can determine a successful fitting. A most favorable slope is:
A. flat or gradually falling
B. deep saucer shape
C. sharp drop at a lower frequency
D. irregular dips and peaks in thresholds
A. flat or gradually falling
Calculations of amplified sound to patients MCL do not include:
A. operating gain
B. functional gain
C. insertion gain
D. reserve gain
D. reserve gain
Calculating prescription formulas are compared to:
A. venting modifications
B. specification sheets
C. audiometric thresholds
D. horn effects
B. specification sheets
Some patients with binaural amplification can experience:
A. head shadow effect
B. auditory deprivation
C. degradation effect
D. bilateral effect
C. degradation effect
The following fitting requires amplification to two ears:
A. CROS
B. BICROS
C. binaural
D. bone conduction
C. binaural
Functional gain testing with CIC instruments is:
A. less time consuming than real-ear measurement with less test-retest variablility than sound field testing
B. more time consuming than real-ear measurement and is difficult for the patient to understand
C. simple for the patient to understand with less test-retest variablility than conventional sound field testing
D. difficult for the patient to understand but is less time consuming than real-ear measurement testing
C. simple for the patient to understand with less test-retest variablility than conventional sound field testing
With real ear measurement testing, which of the following is true:
A. placing the probe through the vent will appreciably change the frequency response
B. the probe should be within 5 mm of the eardrum in order to avoid standing waves
C. the probe should not extend beyond the tip of the hearing aid in order to avoid wave artifacts in the high frequency range
D. the probe should extend at least 4 mm beyond the tip of the hearing aid
B. the probe should be within 5 mm of the eardrum in order to avoid standing waves
The deeper microphone placement offers what advantage:
A. natural high frequency emphasis between 2700 and 4000 Hz
B. reduction of the occlusion effect
C. less gain requirements
D. increased headroom wth undistorted output
A. natural high frequency emphasis between 2700 and 4000 Hz
The deeper receiver placement offers what advanatage:
A. natural high frequency emphasis between 2700 and 4000 Hz
B. reduction of the occlusion effect
C. decrease in wind noise
D. increased headroom with undistorted output
D. increased headroom with undistorted output
CIC's offer a reduction in feedback for ALL but the following reasons:
A. less venting is required with CIC's
B. increased headroom with undistorted output
C. CIC's are more tightly fitting
D. less gain is required
B. increased headroom with undistorted output
The Occlusion Effect is due to:
A. increase in bone-conduction sound for frequencies below 2000 Hz
B. increase in bone-conduction sound for frequencies above 2000 Hz
C. increase in air particle movement channeled out of the ear canal
D. increase venting of the hearing aid mold
A. increase in bone-conduction sound for frequencies below 2000 Hz
When the wind is coming from directly ahead, wind noise is reduced in CIC's by the following amount:
A. 28 dB
B. 27 dB
C. 23 dB
D. 7 dB SPL
C. 23 dB
All but one of the following are considered possible disadvantages of CIC fittings:
A. introduction of programmable CIC's
B. lack of a volume control
C. cost
D. higher return rate
A. introduction of programmable CIC's
Earmold impressions for CIC's should:
A. extend to the second bend with medium viscosity, silicon material
B. extend at least 2 mm beyond the second bend with light viscosity, silicon material
C. extend to the second bend with light viscosity material using foam blocks
D. extend at least 2 mm beyond the second bend using medium viscosity, silicon material
D. extend at least 2 mm beyond the second bend using medium viscosity, silicon material
With CIC fittings, which of the following frequency modifications should be made:
A. less low frequency amplification should be provided due to the small pinhole vent
B. less high frequency amplification should be provided due to the deeper microphone placement
C. deletion of automatic gain reduction due to the lack of volume control
D. increased gain due to the difference in ear and 2 cc coupler gain differences
B. less high frequency amplification should be provided due to the deeper microphone placement
The Zeta Noise Blocker was:
A. an analog filter placed with a DSP hearing instrument
B. a successful early attempt at digital noise reduction technology
C. an example of a hybrid analog-digital hearing instrument
D. none of the above
C. an example of a hybrid analog-digital hearing instrument
The first commercially available digital signal processing hearing instrument:
A. was developed by Audiotone
B. included a body-worn electronic processor
C. was introduced in 1986
D. had better than average battery life
B. included a body-worn electronic processor
A programmable hearing instrument with 4 channels and 1 memory could be considered a ___________ programmable hearing instrument:
A. class 1
B. class 2
C. class 3
D. class 4
C. class 3
In digital signal processing, a set of mathematical steps involving multiplication, addition, and subtraction is referred to as:
A. an algorithm
B. binary conversion
C. analog to digital conversion
D. imaging
A. an algorithm
The number 512 would have a binary code of:
A. 100000101
B. 1000000000
C. 100000000
D. 1111111111
B. 1000000000
The sampling rate:
A. refers to how often the waveform amplitude is measured
B. has a direct bearing on the frequency bandwidth of the hearing instrument
C. must be at least twice as fast as the highest desired frequency
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Quantization is related to:
A. Aliasing
B. Nyquist Theory
C. number of bits
D. all of the above
C. number of bits
The number of bits impact the:
A. dynamic range of the hearing instrument
B. range of the hearing instrument transducers
C. frequency resolution of the hearing instrument
D. digital to analog conversion
A. dynamic range of the hearing instrument
Imaging occurs during the:
A. analog to digital conversion stage
B. signal processing stage
C. digital to analog conversion stage
D. receiver conversion of the electrical signal to an acoustic signal
C. digital to analog conversion stage
Which of the following is not an advantage attributable to digital signal processing in hearing instruments:
A. ability to use more channels for different types of signal processing
B. implementation of noise reduction and speech enhancement features
C. use of active filters for frequency response shaping
D. all of the above are advantages attributable to digital signal processing
C. use of active filters for frequency response shaping
One of the following does NOT apply to SIE-O fitted hearing aids:
A. phase issues are eliminated
B. the occlusion effect is minimized
C. the speaker uses a soft silicone dome or molded, vented acrylic tip to secure the speaker in the ear canal
D. allows for more gain than does a SIA instrument
A. phase issues are eliminated
Which statement is correct relative to the comparison between the SIE-O and SIE-S hearing instrument styles?
A. they provide the same overall performance
B. the SIE-O provides greater acoustic advantages than does the SIE-S
C. the SIE-S provides greater acoustic advantages than does the SIE-O
D. neither eliminates the occlusion effect because the speaker is placed in the ear canal
C. the SIE-S provides greater acoustic advantages than does the SIE-O
SIA hearing aids are designed primarily to:
A. reduce occlusion and the occlusion effect
B. provide for extended high-frequency amplification
C. provide maximum gain without acoustic feedback
D. avoid phase problems
A. reduce occlusion and the occlusion effect
SIA open-fit hearing aid applicable gains, without feedback cancellation, shows that the maximum stable gain before feedback to be closest to:
A. 10 dB
B. 20 dB
C. 30 dB
D. 40 dB
B. 20 dB
The Vent as a two-channel device, is identified with:
A. A two-channel hearing aid in which one channel is programmed for the vent, and the other channel for the frequency response of the aid
B. SIE-S hearing aids
C. any open fit or vented hearing aid
D. improved acoustic performance
C. any open fit or vented hearing aid
Small diameter tubing of SIA hearing aids has the effect of:
A. providing greater high-frequency amplification
B. providing greater low-frequency amplification
C. providing the same gain as larger diameter tubing
D. reducing the high-frequency gain
D. reducing the high-frequency gain
With SIE-S hearing aids:
A. the only signal is from the hearing aid and phase effects from a vent are not an issue
B. acoustic feedback can be managed only by use of feedback compression circuitry
C. the occlusion effect is reduced/eliminated with the use of a vented earpiece
D. sealing the canal destroys overall acoustic performance
A. the only signal is from the hearing aid and phase effects from a vent are not an issue
Evidence suggests that the practical, maximum stable high-frequency gain of an open-fit device, when feedback cancellation is activated, is closest to:
A. 20 dB
B. 25 dB
C. 30 dB
D. 35 dB
D. 35 dB
Performance verification of SIA, SIE-O, and SIE-S hearing aid fittings is best made by:
A. checking the programming software
B. real-ear probe microphone measurements
C. obtaining performance comments from the patient
D. 2-cc coupler measurements
B. real-ear probe microphone measurements
One of the following is NOT a listed advantage of both the SIA and SIE hearing aid fittings:
A. cosmetic improvement, rendering the instrument essentially 'invisible' when worn
B. improved efficiency in the dispensing office
C. emphasis on earmold mechanics rather than on electroacoustics
D. same-session fit with patient having an opportunity to experience immediately the final fit (cosmetics, sound, comfort)
C. emphasis on earmold mechanics rather than on electroacoustics
When you cup your hand behind the ear, sound:
A. increases by 10-15 dB
B. increases by 8-10 dB
C. increases by 5-8 dB
D. does not actually increase
C. increases by 5-8 dB
The first patent for a telephone type hearing instrument was in:
A. 1892
B. 1903
C. 1923
D. 1930
A. 1892
The first electric hearing instrument:
A. collected and amplified sound
B. was used by Beethoven
C. required vacuum tubes
D. used a bone conduction device
A. collected and amplified sound
The carbon granule microphone:
A. was invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876
B. caused static and fading with body movement
C. became commercially available in the 1950's
D. used a filament that generates heat
B. caused static and fading with body movement
Desk and suitcase sized hearing instruments, popular in the 1920's, had more gain and clarity because of:
A. the transistor
B. carbon granule microphones
C. magnetic earphones
D. vacuum tube amplifiers
D. vacuum tube amplifiers
Wearable instruments were a result of:
A. the arrival of the transistor
B. the miniature vacuum tube
C. the piezo-electrical microphone
D. the magnetic microphone
B. the miniature vacuum tube
Crystal microphones and receivers:
A. work well in high temperatures
B. use a filament that generates heat
C. are very fragile
D. couldn't withstand dry conditions
C. are very fragile
A FET changed the high impedance problems of the:
A. magnetic microphone
B. ceramic microphone
C. carbon granule microphone
D. electret microphone
B. ceramic microphone
Magnetic microphones:
A. have high impedance
B. have a good frequency response in the speech range
C. have a poor response in the extreme highs and lows
D. replaced the carbon microphones
B. have a good frequency response in the speech range
The miniature vacuum tube was introduced in about:
A. 1908
B. 1920
C. 1938
D. 1948
C. 1938
The three major concepts in the use of electricity are:
A. current, voltage and resistance
B. current, sound pressure and resistance
C. current, power and resistance
D. power, voltage and battery drain
A. current, voltage and resistance
A capacitor:
A. passes the low frequencies and blocks the high frequencies
B. blocks the low frequencies and passes the high frequencies
C. passes both low and high frequencies
D. blocks both low and high frequencies
B. blocks the low frequencies and passes the high frequencies
A resistor:
A. restricts low frequencies
B. restricts high frequencies
C. restricts the flow of electrons
D. reverses the flow of electrons
C. restricts the flow of electrons
'Energy cannot be created or destroyed' is:
A. Ohm's law
B. the law of conservation of energy
C. the law of electricity
D. the law of resistance
B. the law of conservation of energy
The following is not a transducer:
A. receiver
B. microphone
C. volume control
D. telephone coil
C. volume control
Electrical energy uses the atom. Atoms:
A. are electrically neutral
B. are electrically negative
C. are electrically positive
D. orbit around electrons
A. are electrically neutral
Part of the basic law of electrical energy is:
A. protons repel neutrons
B. protons repel electrons
C. protons attract electrons
D. electrons attract protons
C. protons attract electrons
To produce current:
A. protons move from atom to atom
B. atoms move from proton to electron
C. electrons move from atom to atom
D. electrons move from neutron to neutron
C. electrons move from atom to atom
A greater flow of current produces:
A. less battery gain
B. more volume
C. more timbre
D. less intensity
B. more volume
Semi-conductors act like a conductor with the application of:
A. heat, light or an electric field
B. copper, gold or silver
C. antimony, phosphorus or arsenic
D. boron, aluminum or gallium
A. heat, light or an electric field
The function of a microphone is to:
A. amplify the acoustic signal
B. pick up electro-magnetic signals
C. convert electrical energy into acoustic energy
D. convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
D. convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
Coupling in a hearing instrument refers to connecting:
A. the microphone to the amplifier
B. the diaphragm of the microphone to the electro-magnet
C. one stage of an amplifier to the next
D. solid state materials to create a junction
C. one stage of an amplifier to the next
The 'T' position on a hearing aid switch can be used to:
A. amplify a telephone conversation
B. couple a hearing aid into a loop inductor system
C. couple directly into the audio of a radio or TV set with a separate induction coil
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The following components can change or modify the frequency response of a hearing instrument:
A. a microphone
B. a volume control
C. an output potentiometer
D. an 'off' switch
A. a microphone
The following is a transducer:
A. electret microphone
B. amplifier
C. integrated circuit
D. volume control
A. electret microphone
Amplifiers:
A. shape the frequency response for the microphone
B. generate distortion
C. replaced dozens of transistors
D. are always linear
B. generate distortion
A linear amplifier has a 1:1 relationship. This means that if you rotate the volume control on a linear aid, you change:
A. the input only
B. the kneepoint only
C. the output only
D. the gain and the output
D. the gain and the output
Hard peak clipping occurs in a:
A. class A amplifier
B. class B amplifier
C. push-pull circuit
D. compression amplifier
A. class A amplifier
Peak rounding:
A. is instantaneous
B. is linear
C. causes harmonic distortion above the knee
D. uses a feedback loop before the volume control
C. causes harmonic distortion above the knee
There are two types of compression - input and output. The difference is:
A. with input compression, you can only control the output
B. with output compression, you can only control the input
C. one uses attack time, the other, release time
D. the placement of the feedback loop
D. the placement of the feedback loop
The signal/noise ratio of a hearing aid response is:
A. the amount of noise a hearing aid makes when an earmold does not fit the ear
B. of very little significance in fitting a hearing aid
C. the difference in decibels between the signal and the noise in the system
D. a comparison of the 90 dB and 60 dB input signals
C. the difference in decibels between the signal and the noise in the system
Acoustic gain is measured in:
A. dynes / cm2
B. Hertz
C. decibels SPL
D. decibels HL
C. decibels SPL
High Frequency Average (HFA) full-on gain is measured by averaging the gain at:
A. 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz
B. 400, 800, and 1600 Hz
C. 1000, 1600 and 2500 Hz
D. 2000, 3000 and 4000 Hz
C. 1000, 1600 and 2500 Hz
High Frequency Average SSPL 90 (HFA SSPL 90) refers to:
A. high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input
B. sound pressure level at the maximum frequency
C. reference test gain
D. reference test position
A. high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input
The Saturation Sound Pressure level should:
A. be between 120 and 130 dB for the average case
B. be less than 120 dB for tolerance problems
C. directly relate to the client's UCL
D. be closer to MCL than UCL
C. directly relate to the client's UCL
ANSI standards can compare:
A. one instrument to another
B. one kind of loss to another
C. patient's gain requirements
D. patient's output requirements
A. one instrument to another
The SSPL90 curve measures:
A. all the tones across frequency
B. the frequency and intensity of the loudest tone only
C. only the three frequencies necessary for HFA
D. the intensities of a tone until it saturates at 90 dB
A. all the tones across frequency
All ANSI instrument measurements are:
A. SPL
B. HL
C. SL
D. 0.02 dynes/cm2
A. SPL
Input sound pressure is measured:
A. at the microphone opening of the hearing instrument
B. at the receiver opening of the hearing instrument
C. at the microphone of the 2 cc coupler
D. at the tip of the 2 cc coupler
A. at the microphone opening of the hearing instrument
Gain control is another name for:
A. output potentiometer
B. amplifier
C. volume wheel
D. input at the microphone
C. volume wheel
A small pressure vent (0.020 to 0.030) in an earmold will:
A. have little or no effect on frequencies above 400 Hz
B. generally reduce levels at frequencies below 200 Hz
C. reduce atmospheric pressure build-up
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
A long canal on the earmold has the effect of:
A. accentuating the low frequencies
B. increasing the high frequencies
C. flattening the peaks of the mid-range frequencies
D. increasing both high and low frequencies without effecting the mid-range
A. accentuating the low frequencies
Venting an earmold:
A. is necessary in all high gain fittings
B. should always be used for low frequency losses
C. is the most common modification made on an earmold
D. should only be used to relieve a 'plugged' feeling on a new client
C. is the most common modification made on an earmold
The non-occluding earmold is excellent to use on:
A. a client with draining ears who does not want to see a physician
B. a CROS fitting
C. all cases of bilateral fittings
D. none of the above
B. a CROS fitting
Earmolds have two important parts:
A. shell and skeleton
B. vented and unvented
C. outer appearance and canal acoustics
D. hard and soft material
C. outer appearance and canal acoustics
The greatest acoustic change in an earmold or ITE is:
A. using dampers
B. parallel venting
C. tubing size
D. outer appearance
B. parallel venting
The greatest deciding factors in material selection for an earmold are:
A. power requirements
B. the compatibility with dampers
C. the style of mold
D. body temperature
A. power requirements
To shift the resonant peak upward between 1500-3000 Hz, use:
A. smaller ID tubing
B. smaller OD tubing
C. larger bore diameter
D. a longer canal
C. larger bore diameter
In general, mold modifications are as follows:
A. venting affects lows, damping the midrange and horn effects boost highs
B. damping affects lows, horn effects boost midrange and venting changes highs
C. horn modifications change lows, venting changes midrange and dampers affect highs
D. horn modifications change lows, damping the midrange and venting affects highs
A. venting affects lows, damping the midrange and horn effects boost highs
Which molds have the same outer appearance:
A. skeleton and 2 HF
B. standard and shell
C. half skeleton and half shell
D. Janssen and Acoustic modifier
A. skeleton and 2 HF
Residual hearing, in combination with the hearing instrument, will:
A. replace or restore hearing to normal
B. sound natural
C. help improve communication
D. allow the patient to adjust to the instrument in just a few days
C. help improve communication
At night, the battery in the instrument:
A. should be removed
B. can be left in the open battery door
C. is safe in the instrument as long as the switch is in the 'off' position
D. should be changed and ready for the next day
B. can be left in the open battery door
A BTE instrument, properly attached:
A. fits the contour of the ear
B. is slightly raised at the bottom of the instrument so the ear, itself, does not get sore
C. clears the top of the ear slightly to make room for glasses
D. cannot be worn while using glasses
A. fits the contour of the ear
An advantage of a CIC fitting is:
A. improved battery life
B. reduced acoustic feedback during phone use
C. decreased wind noise
D. b and c above
D. b and c above
When adjusting the volume control, the patient must:
A. find the exact spot where you require use gain
B. hear quiet speakers in a normal voice
C. hear loud speakers in a normal voice
D. find an area on the control where sounds are comfortable
D. find an area on the control where sounds are comfortable
When a standard instrument has a telephone coil, the patient:
A. can automatically hear better on the phone
B. needs to increase the volume control
C. switches to the 'T' position, then (b) above
D. has 'feedback' when putting the phone near the instrument
C. switches to the 'T' position, then (b) above
Advise the patient to wear the instrument:
A. every other day for two hours
B. regularly on a daily basis
C. only when the patient needs to hear
D. as little as possible to preserve natural hearing
B. regularly on a daily basis
Binaural amplification allows the patient to:
A. wear both instruments at a quieter volume setting
B. wear both instruments at a louder volume setting
C. hear better, even though they cannot locate the source of the sound
D. hear better when they tell the speaker to move to the good ear
A. wear both instruments at a quieter volume setting
The patient maintains the instrument by:
A. lubricating it weekly
B. keeping it clean and free of wax
C. washing it when washing the face or hair
D. storing it in the 'fridge' with the batteries
B. keeping it clean and free of wax
Teach the patient to:
A. operate the potentiometer settings
B. operate the OTM switches and noise switches
C. clean the microphone opening daily
D. all of the above
B. operate the OTM switches and noise switches
Basic verification involves:
A. checking MCL and UCL in quiet and noise
B. many volume control adjustments
C. teaching the patient to adjust tone and output potentiometers
D. instructions on T/C use
A. checking MCL and UCL in quiet and noise
Verification procedures:
A. check the accuracy of your fitting
B. do not allow you to adjust or modify effectively
C. demonstrate the ineffectiveness of restoring the patient to normal
D. are unnecessary when the patient is a previous user
A. check the accuracy of your fitting
An effective verification is:
A. listening to a watch tick
B. hearing the words in a song
C. a measurable improvement in communication
D. when the patient says he hears better
C. a measurable improvement in communication
Functional gain of the instrument:
A. is the same as the SSPL90 curve
B. is at or above RTP
C. cannot be calculated
D. is one method of fitting verification
D. is one method of fitting verification
Speech tests measured through the audiometer circuit:
A. are 20 dB less because of ANSI Standards
B. are 20 dB SPL more because of ANSI Standards
C. need no conversion when in free field
D. cannot be administered because the headset makes the hearing instrument 'feedback'
A. are 20 dB less because of ANSI Standards
Ideally, when presenting recorded words in noise:
A. the noise is 10 dB louder than the words
B. the noise and words are equal in loudness
C. the words are 10 dB louder than the noise
D. combined words and noise are 70 dBA or less
C. the words are 10 dB louder than the noise
Sound field is:
A. when sound is either absorbed or dissipated before it strikes a reflected surface
B. a controlled environment
C. an anechoic chamber
D. (a) and (c) above
B. a controlled environment
Most patients use enough gain in the hearing instrument to understand quiet speech at a level of:
A. 55 dB SPL
B. 60 dB SPL
C. 65 dB SPL
D. 70 dB SPL
A. 55 dB SPL
When UCL's are not balanced, a loud signal is perceived as:
A. coming from the center of the head
B. lateralizing to the ear with the higher output
C. lateralizing to the ear with the lower output
D. summing into a single hearing experience
B. lateralizing to the ear with the higher output
The following measurements use SPL as a reference:
A. probe microphones
B. sound field aided thresholds
C. ANSI specifications
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Which of the following is not a coupler used for measuring hearing aid performance:
A. Zwisks Ear Simulator
B. the human ear
C. 2cc Hard Walled coupler
D. Knowles Electronic Manikin for Acoustic Response
A. Zwisks Ear Simulator
A Real Ear Measurement System incorporates all of the following:
A. Signal Generator, Reference Microphone, Measurement Microphone, Display Device
B. Signal Enhancer, Computer, Measurement Microphone, Speaker
C. Display Device, Reference Microphone, 2cc Coupler, Probe Tube
D. Computer, Reference Microphone, Speaker, Graphic Equalizer
A. Signal Generator, Reference Microphone, Measurement Microphone, Display Device
REUR Measurements are taken in:
A. an open human ear canal
B. 2cc hard walled coupler
C. an ear canal with a hearing aid inserted and turned on
D. an open ear canal on KEMAR
A. an open human ear canal
At what distance from the Tympanic Membrane should the end of the probe tube be placed:
A. within 5 millimeters
B. even with the end of the earmold
C. 10 millimeters from the end of the earmold
D. touching the TM
A. within 5 millimeters
When testing compression hearing aids which signal type is best to use:
A. Fast Fourier Transform
B. swept Pure Tones
C. 70dB
D. NAL-R
A. Fast Fourier Transform
Loud speaker placement should be:
A. 1 meter at 45° azimuth
B. 1.5 meters at 90° azimuth
C. .5 meters at 0° azimuth
D. does not make any difference
A. 1 meter at 45° azimuth
Which of the following is not included in correct test protocols:
A. plugging the hearing aid vent to control feedback
B. adjusting the Probe Tube to minimize Standing Waves
C. using the same stimulus type and level for all measurements
D. inserting the instrument with the power turned off
A. plugging the hearing aid vent to control feedback
RESR Measurements for compression hearing aids have been replaced with:
A. A family of curves starting at a soft level and gradually increasing in intensity
B. SSPL-90 curves in a test box
C. Real Ear aided responses
D. SSPL-90 curves on KEMAR
A. A family of curves starting at a soft level and gradually increasing in intensity
Which of he following Real Ear targets has been documented to be the best for non-linear hearing aids:
A. none have been proven to be better than any other
B. NAL-Revised
C. DSL(I/O)
D. IHAFF
A. none have been proven to be better than any other
Insertion Loss occurs when:
A. The level in the ear canal with a hearing aid inserted is less than the input level
B. the level in the ear canal with a hearing aid inserted is greater than the input level
C. rarely happens during REOR measurements
D. is an artifact of the sound field
A. The level in the ear canal with a hearing aid inserted is less than the input level
Follow-up care is a variety of procedures which comprise:
A. long term management of the client's needs and use of amplification
B. a process which never ends while the client is under the care of the hearing aid specialist
C. bringing out the best that the instrument can give
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Emphasizing counseling to maximize amplification benefits is:
A. a new technique
B. a program that should start before the fitting
C. beneficial to only a few
D. not within the scope of the hearing aid specialist's responsibilities
B. a program that should start before the fitting
Aural rehabilitation:
A. is unnecessary for previous users
B. only involves the patient during the fitting
C. produces unreasonable expectations
D. continues for as long as the patient wears an instrument
D. continues for as long as the patient wears an instrument
Patients are always aware of:
A. impacted wax
B. hard earmold tubing
C. corroded battery contacts
D. the way they hear today
D. the way they hear today
When the patient experiences difficulties, one of the problems could be:
A. a procedural flaw in the original hearing loss assessment
B. an error in judgement in hearing instrument selection
C. misestimation of some aspect of the hearing problem
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
User satisfaction must include:
A. optimal acoustic response
B. patient preference
C. best aided response
D. best instrument for noisy environments
B. patient preference
Client acceptance involves counseling on:
A. personal family problems
B. emotional and social concerns
C. attitude and motivation
D. (b) and (c) above
D. (b) and (c) above
Friends and family help patients wearing hearing instruments to hear better by:
A. talking louder, close to the ear
B. sitting the patient in the middle of the room
C. encouraging the patient to have a light behind them
D. combining visual clues
D. combining visual clues
Your counseling avoids:
A. unreasonable expectations
B. using visual clues
C. service reminders
D. the use of counselors, special workers and psychologists
A. unreasonable expectations
Family and friends can have a negative influence on the patient by:
A. showing the patient how to handle the instrument
B. expressing frustration that the patient does not have 'normal' hearing
C. helping the patient to insert the instrument
D. encouraging instrument use
B. expressing frustration that the patient does not have 'normal' hearing
When a hearing aid sounds weak, hollow, distorted, or intermittent, the first check is:
A. a plugged receiver
B. faulty volume control
C. a weak battery
D. broken microphone wire
C. a weak battery
An otoscope helps when cleaning the:
A. microphone
B. receiver
C. earhook
D. earmold
B. receiver
When a hearing aid is dead, you can check receiver and microphone function by:
A. turning the instrument to telecoil
B. advancing the volume control to full on with the instrument on 'M'
C. opening the battery door to see if you hear a 'click'
D. cleaning the receiver with a wax loop
A. turning the instrument to telecoil
A hearing aid that works with the battery door slightly open, but shuts off when you close the door has:
A. wires touching the battery
B. a broken microphone wire
C. a faulty volume control
D. a weak battery
A. wires touching the battery
You CANNOT use feedback checks when:
A. adjusting a tone pot
B. adjusting an output pot
C. checking volume control intermittency
D. checking the telephone coil
D. checking the telephone coil
An earhook damper is plugged when, during a feedback check:
A. feedback remains unchanged with volume control rotation
B. feedback occurs only with the volume control at MAX
C. the instrument makes no sound during any test
D. the instrument feeds back only when the coupler is removed
D. the instrument feeds back only when the coupler is removed
A sign of a dirty volume control is:
A. the instrument is dead
B. constant feedback
C. intermittent static
D. motorboating
C. intermittent static
Reduction of background noise can be improved by:
A. using a windscreen
B. reducing tubing size
C. directional microphones
D. none of the above
C. directional microphones
When a new hearing instrument has feedback at the patient's comfortable level, the problem is usually:
A. too much wax in the ear canal
B. smaller vent than appropriate
C. manufacturer's error
D. split receiver tubing
A. too much wax in the ear canal
An ITE or Canal aid has internal feedback when:
A. the receiver tubing has excess wax
B. the receiver tubing is not completely sealed to the sound bore
C. the vent size is too large
D. the patient loses weight
B. the receiver tubing is not completely sealed to the sound bore
The auditory system functions within which three elements:
A. loudness, pitch and frequency
B. intensity, frequency and pitch
C. intensity, frequency and time
D. loudness, time and fidelity
C. intensity, frequency and time
Joe's ear has a sharply sloping high frequency hearing loss.
What acoustical modification may prove helpful?
a. large parallel vent
b. use of filters to filter out lows
C. lengthen the tubing
d. make i.d. of tubing smaller
e. use an aid on telecoil switch instead of microphone
a. large parallel vent
In the cochlea, high frequencies are analyzed at the:
a. helicotrema
b. apex
c. base
d. near the middle
c. base
Malingering is a category of:
a. tinnitus
b. presbycusis
C. non-organic loss
d. sensorineural loss
C. non-organic loss
6. The decibel expresses:
a. the threshold of hearing.
b. the ratio between two sound pressures
C. the pitch of a tone
d. the loudness of sound
d. the loudness of sound
Earmold tubing comes in several inside diameters. The size
most often recommended by manufacturers is:
a. #16
b. #15
C. #14
d. #13
d. #13
If the battery drain of a hearing aid curcuit is 2mA and the battery capacity is.250 mAR, what is the expected battery life
a. 31.25 hours
b. 62.5 hours
C. 125hours
d. 250 hours
C. 125 hours
In a mixed hearing loss::
a. air conduction scores are normal, bone is reduced
b. air and bone are both reduced approximately the same
c. air and bone are both reduced, but there is an air- bone gap
d. bone scores are normal, but air is reduced
e. none of the above
c. air and bone are both reduced, but there is an air- bone gap
Which of the following is NOT a method of output limiting:
a. peak clipping
b. diode clipping
c. electrical oscillation
d. dynamic range compression
c. electrical oscillation
The Eustachian tube in adults:
A. connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx
B. serves as a ventilation tube to the middle ear
C. is normally closed
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Ohm's law is another name for the law of conservation of energy

T or F
False
Which is true of the oval window?
a. it is an opening between the middle ear and inner ear
b. is an opening into which the stapes footplate fits
c. is the boundary line between the middle and inner ear
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
Instructions to the person being tested should be:
a. unnecessary most of the time
b. carefully given and checked to see that the client understands
c. brief and to the point .
d. limited only to how the client should respond
b. carefully given and checked to see that the client understands
. If a person has UCL of 90 dB and an SRT of 45 dB, the dynamic
range is
a. 90 dB
b. 45 dB
c. 135 dB
d. cannot be computed from the information given
b. 45 dB
Which of the following is part of the inner ear?
a. vestibule
b. endolymph
c. tectorial membrane
d. all Of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
The pure tone average is obtained by:
a. averaging the response at 0.5, 1 and 2 kHz
b. averaging the response at all frequencies tested
c. using the same formula as for obtaining the DR
d. none of the above
a. averaging the response at 0.5, 1 and 2 kHz
A person with a dynamic range of 50 dB and a -TD of 100 dBHL
would probably:
a. have no trouble listening to a phonograph record
b. be uncomfortable with a live orchestra playing the
same music
c. 'have dificulty with quiet conversation
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
A formant is:
a. a graph showing the amplitude and frequency of a complex sound
b. the fundamental frequency plus all harmonics
C. the relative strength of all frequencies in a complex sound
d. a synonym for pure tones-
e. a frequency region within which certain harmonics have relatively large energy
e. a frequency region within which certain harmonics have relatively large energy
Sound will travel fastest through:
a. air
b. wood
C. steel
d. water
C. steel
Presence of cerumen, size and shape of the canal can be determined 'by:
a. the shape of the earmold
b. examination of the ear with an otoscope
C. the audiometrid threshold pattern
d. use of a cotton block or an otoblock
b. examination of the ear with an otoscope
One of the things that makes the decibel system useful is 'that:
a. exactly one decibel is the, smallest change in loudness that can be detected by the human ear at all frequencies
b.' it uses a convenient range of 0 - 134 units to permit us to deal with a range of 1 to 5,000,000 units
C. by a coincidence, 0 dB happens to be the weakest sound that can be heard by the best human ears
d. decibels are precise, unchanging units which means the qame thing under all circumstances
e. all of the above
a. exactly one decibel is the smallest change in loudness that can be detected by the human ear at all frequencies
A congenital hearing loss is one that:
a.- can be sensorineural or conductive
b. is present at birth
C. can be caused by infection of the mother during pregnancy
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Little acoustic energy is lost in removing the eardrum

T or F
False
The ossicles form a link between:
a. the concha and the round window
b. the tympanic membrane and the scala tympani
c. the cochlea and the middle ear
d. the tympanic membrane and the oval window
d. the tympanic membrane and the oval window
Decibels:
a. can be added together
b. are based on a logarithmic scale
c. are the unit measurement for the pitch of a sound
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
b. are based on a logarithmic scale
Before conducting audiometric tests:
a. the subject's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
b. you should carefully, remove impacted cerumen, if the subject so requests
c. hand the earphones to the client so that he/she can put them on in a comfortable manner
d. none of the above
a. the subject's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
A cholesteatoma is:
a. an infection of the inner ear that can cause otitis internia
b. a tumor that can be found in the middle ear
c. a condition of the ear canal that may result in poor earmold fit
d. none of the above
b. a tumor that can be found in the middle ear
The reference level of 0.002 dynes per square centimeters refers to:
a. the weakest sound that normal human ears can hear
b. the weakest sound that the best human ears can hear
c. zero decibels on the audiometer
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
b. the weakest sound that the best human ears can hear
A spondee is a two syllable word with:
a. equal stress on both syllables
b. more stress on the first syllable
c. more ostress on the last syllable
d. none of the above
a. equal stress on both syllables
The field of electronics relating to hearing aid amplification
a. is only a study of wave forms
b. constitutes concepts difficult for the person untrained
in electronics to understand
c. can be mastered with a very short course of training
d. is the study of transverse wave analysis
c. can be mastered with a very short course of training
The electrical resistance of a wire is inversely proportional
to its length.

T or F
False
How many octaves are there between 100 Hz and 6400 Hz?
a. 6
b. 6.4
C. 64
d. 4.6
e. none of the above
a. 6
A person might benefit from a hearing aid, even though his loss is so severe that amplification will not enable him to understand speech readily because:
a. his hearing, though bad now, could, because of lack of exercise, become much worse
b. the hearing aid will cure his deafness
C. the hearing aid may enable him to perceive sound clues
d. all-hard of hearing persons should be fitted with a hearing aid
C. the hearing aid may enable him to perceive sound clues
A person with a mild hearing impairment:
a. may have difficulty hearing faint and/or distant speech
b. may show articulation problems (omissions, substitutions,and distortions of speech sounds)
c. would understand conversational speech only if it were loud
d. may only hear sound or loud voices close to the ear
a. may have difficulty hearing faint and/or distant speech
Betty Ear complains of tolerance problems with her new hearing aid. What acoustical modification can you make that may be helpful?
a. plug the vent
b. increase size of vent
C. use longer tubing
d. use filters-in earhook
e. change earmold material
b. increase size of vent
Frequency is related to the psychological factor of:
a. pitch
b. compression.
C. loudness
d. duration
a. pitch
The requirement of a listening guide generally indicates that there is a problem:
a. in that the client should be trained in lip reading before attempting to wear the aids
b. in the initial selection and fitting of the instrument
C. in that the client needs a short course (6-8) weeks in auditory retraining
d. all of the above
b. in the initial selection and fitting of the instrument
The normal intact tympanic membrane is pink to bright red in color.

T F
False
Sound pressure is measured in dynes/ cm. 2

T F
True
A person wears an amplification system that consists of one microphone with a receiver in each ear. What does he wear?
a. body-aid
b. Simple CROS
C. Y--Cord
d. BICROS
e. Binaural
C. Y--Cord
As a sound wave travels it consists at time of molecules that are closer together. This part of the wave is called a:
a. decibel
b. frequency
C. compression
d. rarefaction
C. compression
A sënsorineural hearing loss is a disorder in the:
a.. eustachian tube
b. middle ear
C. inner ear
d. ossicles
C. inner ear
Why can body aids provide more amplification than behind the ear aids?
a. battery is larger
b. can use tubes instead of transistors
C. microphone is much larger
d. its located at the chest so loud sounds won't hurt
the ear
e. microphone is more distant from the receiver
e. microphone is more distant from the receiver
Identifying clients and selecting the appropriate masking level with conductive hearing losses is:
a. a simple process with few problems
b. very difficult without impedance tests
C. only difficult when one ear is non-functioning
d. no problem as long as there is less than 40dB difference between the two ears
b. very difficult without impedance tests
A hearing aid:
a. improves your hearing
b. improves the signal to noise ratio
C. amplifies sound
d. is an absolute necessity for those peoples who can't learn how to read lips
b. improves the signal to noise ratio
A battery achieves its "pumping" action by:
a. storing anode and cathode charges in an electrolyte
b. a process called OHMS LAW
c. removing electronics from the storage device
d. separating and holding- the positive and negative charges onto two separate terminals
separating and holding- the positive and negative charges onto two separate terminals
Essentially, a capacitor passes high frequencies and blocks low frequencies.

T F
true
Where are the low frequencies analyzed in the cochlea?
a. apex
b. near the middle
c. near the oval window
d. base
e. all of the above
a. apex
The gain of a hearing instrument may be measured at:
a. full on gain
b. reference test gain control setting
c. 50 dB input for AGC instruments
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The nerve fibers of the hearing nerve, at the point of maximal stimulation of the basilar membrane, will discharge (i.e. discharge and recover) at the rate of:
a. up to 1 KHz, identical to stimulus frequency
b. 1000 times or cycles/sec.
c. 500 times or cycles/sec.
d. 750 times of cycles/sec.
a. up to 1 KHz, identical to stimulus frequency
What is true of the external auditory canal?
a. the outer 2/3 is skin over bone
b. the inner 1/3 is skin over cartilage.
c. it is usually straight
d. it has hair cells
e. none of the above
d. it has hair cells
At what Sound. Pressure Level, for normal ears, does sound become painful?
a. 110 dB SPL
b. 140 dB-SPL
c. .1000 dynes/cm. sq.
d. 10-16 watts/sq. cm.
b. 140 dB-SPL
If a sound consists of more than one frequency without a pattern, it is called a:
a. sine wave
b. noise
c. reverberation
d. transverse wave
b. noise
Which of the following is part of the helix? (Outer ear?)
a. scaphoid fossa
b. scala vestibuli
c. intertragial notch
d. a, b and c
e. a and c only
e. a and c only
The pure-tone audiometer is designed so that zero on the
attenuator dial represents:
a. 0.0002 dynes/cm2
b. average normal hearing for that frequency
c. the softest sound that the best ears can hear
d. the level of masking needed for that frequency
b. average normal hearing for that frequency
The air condution test should incorporate masking whenever
there is a difference between the air conduction threshold
in the test ear and the bone conduction threshold of the
non-test ear of:
a. 10 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB
d. 40 dB
What does the term 67 dB mean?
a, half of the total range of intensities (0-134)
b. 67 dB of acoustic power
c. sound pressure level of 67 dB
d. means nothing since no standard reference is given
e. 67 dB for a 1000 Hz tone
d. means nothing since no standard reference is given
A hearing aid can be described as:
a. an all-in-the-ear instrument
b. an ear trumpet
c. a body worn instrument
d. any of the above
d. any of the above
Determining minimum intensity levels at which-the individual
reponds to selected frequencies is accomplished with the:
a. tympanometer
b. tuning fork
c. audiometer
d. probe microphone
c. audiometer
The harmonic just above 200 Hz would be:
a. 300 Hz
b. 400Hz
c. 500 Hz
d. 600 Hz
e. 800 Hz
b. 400Hz
Any disarticulation between the incus and stapes will cause:
a. a malfunction of the semicircular canals which in turn cause a feeling of dizziness
b. a decrease in the passage of high frequency sounds
c. a decrease in the passage of both high frequency and 1,ow frequency sounds
d. a decrease in the passage of low frequency sounds
c. a decrease in the passage of both high frequency and 1,ow frequency sounds
The cause, cure and treatment of tinnitus:
a. have been well understood for the last 25 years
b.- have been understood for the last 10 years
c. are of little importance to the hearing aid specialist
d. are not well understood
d. are not well understood
Sound waves travel in expanding circles on the surface.

T or F
False
The lowest frequency that goes to make up most complex sounds is:
a. usually the loudest
b. said to predominate
C. called the fundamental frequency
d. a and c only
e. a,b and c
e. a,b and c
Interaural attenuation values vary from person to person
but it is greater at 250 Hz and less in the higher frequencies

T or F
True
The transistor is a solid state device which acts like a variable resistor and is controlled by the input current.

T F
True
The aid is set at the reference test gain position. You have an input of 60 dB SPL from 200-5000 Hz and you express the difference between input and output as a curve. What have you measured?
a. full on gain
b. frequency range
C. attack and release time
d. basic frequency response
e. maximum power output
d. basic frequency response
Most aided measurements, including those done in a sound controlled environment, are "sound field" measurements which can have "acceptable" ambient noise levels of up to:
a. 3OdBSPL
b. 4OdBSPL
C. 50 dB SPL
d. 6OdBSPL
b. 4OdBSPL
If a sound consists of only one frequency, it is called a:
a. reverberation
b. noise
C. pure tone
d. complex sound
C. pure tone
Probably the most common cause of otitis media is:
a. sinus infection
b. a cold
C. allergy
d. measles
b. a cold
A descending test technique is commonly used in hearing instrument testing because:
a. it is the easiest to explain to the client
b. it is the easiest for the client to hear
c. it can prevent "hearing fatique"
d. all of the above
b. it is the easiest for the client to hear
The PTA, even when computed from only two frequencies, is a good indication of what the SRT will be.

T F
True
In bone conduction, which parts of the ear are involved:
a. the external and middle ear only
b. the external and inner ear only
c. the middle and inner ear only
d. the external, middle, and inner ear
e. the inner ear only
e. the inner ear only
The volume or gain control of a hearing aid regulates the
'amount of the input.

T F
False
When the impression material is removed from' the mixing
bowl, the packing of the ear should be completed within:
a. 30 seconds
b. 45 seconds
C. 60 seconds
d. 90 seconds
a. 30 seconds
77. Intensity and frequency, can be measured by electrical instruments.

T F
True
Masking is employed dur'ing hearing testing to:
a. eliminate the "automatic finger" response
b. eliminate participation of the non-test ear
c. improve the threshold sensitivity of the test ear
d. obtain all of the above
b. eliminate participation of the non-test ear
The human ear:
a. is associated with equilibrium
b. has most of its important mechanism hidden deep
with in the. skull
C. helps us tell which direction we are moving in
d. a and b only
e. a, b and c
e. a, b and c
An empathic understanding-of the client's personality,
experience, problems and expectations is important in the
hearing instrument fitting process.

T F
True
The tympanic cavity:
a. is normally a fluid-filled cavity
b. contains three tiny bones called the Malleus, Hammer, and Stapes
c. contains two-muscles: the stapedius and the Tympanic Tensoid Muscles
d. B and C ONLY
d. B and C ONLY
The spectrum of input signals on the hearing aid microphone:
A. is the same for all styles of hearing aids -
B. is affected by the head and body of a hearing aid wearer -
C. is unaffected by microphone placement
D. is unchanged by the pinna effect of the ear
B. is affected by the head and body of a hearing aid wearer
Intensity is:
a. the same as loudness
b. related to the amplitude of a sound wave
c. related to.the maximum sound pressure developed
d. a, b and c
e. b and c only
e. b and c only
CROS (non-occluding) type ear,molds are useful when it is
necessary to significantly reduce frequencies below:
a. 250 Hz
b. 500 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
d; 2000 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
84. The decibel is a ratio between two intensities.

T or F
True
Frequency and Pitch:
a. are two completely different things, having no relationship to each other
b. are identical
C. are not the same, but one is related to the other
c. are related on an absolute one-to-one basis
e. are the same as intensity and loudness
C. are not the same, but one is related to the other
In bone conduction testing the vibrator should be:
a. placed so that it contacts the pinna as well as the mastoid
b. held in place by the person being tested
C. held in place by a headband that exerts exactly one pound of pressure
d. placed at the most sensitive position in the mastoid area
d. placed at the most sensitive position in the mastoid area
An average hearing loss is generally considered in reference to:
a. bone conduction testing
b. PB word lists
C. air conduction testing
d. a combination of all three
C. air conduction testing
The quality or timbre of a sound is a property that depends on:
a. the harmonics'
b. the overtones
C. the number of frequencies in a complex sound
d. the strength of each frequency in the sound
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
The telecoil:
a. utilizes a magnetic induction pickup
b. -uses electromagnetic leakage
c. is used as one method of coupling assistive listening devices to hearing aids
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
At the time of delivery of the instrument(s) you should make sure that:
a. the earmold is comfortably and properly fitted
b. you review important information said at the first contact
c. the client understands how to control the volume, and change batteries
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
A person complains of a plugged up feeling from his ear-mold. What can you do to help?
a. enlarge the sound bore
b. alternate aid between ears
c. recommend a bone conduction aid
d. use filters
e. vent the mold
e. vent the mold
A phoneme is composed of several frequencies of varying
intensities.

T or F
True
Examples of phonetically balanced words are: HOTDOG and
FOOTBALL.

T or F
False
Noises in the head such as roaring, hissing, buzzing ringing, etc. are:
a. recruitment -
b. trauma
c. tinnitus
d. harmonics
c. tinnitus
The amount of electricity flowing from a battery through the circuit is called the:
a. milliamperes
b. milliwatts
c. resistance
d. current
d. current
Any complex sound can be broken down into individual
frequencies by a technique known as Fourier Spectral Analysis

T or F
True
The organ of Corti:
a. is located in the scala media
b. is located in the scala tympani
c. is located in the scala vestibuli
d. is located in the middle ear
e. is located in the eustachian tube
a. is located in the scala media
The bone conduction testing, because there is no headphone
over the test ear:
a. the room noise may affect the results
b. the test tone will be picked up more quickly in the ear
c. the test tone may crossover to the non-test ear at a lesser intensity
d. all of the above
a. the room noise may affect the results
The electrical signal generated at the microphone is coupled
to the amplifier which increases its:
a. frequency range
b. voltage
c. wattage
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
The scala tympani is filled with:
a. hair cells
b. ceruien
c. the tectorial membrane
d. endolymph
e. perilymph
e. perilymph
The reference level for "zero" dB on the speech audiometer is
a. 45 dB re: 0.0002 dynes/cm2 for a 1000 Hz tone
b. 40 dB re: 0.0002 dynes/cm2 for a 1000 Hz tone
c. 30 dB re: 0.0002 dynes/cm2 for a 1000 Hz tone
d. 20 dB re: 0.0002 dynes/cm2 for a 1000 Hz tone
d. 20 dB re: 0.0002 dynes/cm2 for a 1000 Hz tone
The middle ear may be considered a transformer because it causes an increase in sound pressure.

T or F
True
Another name for the pinna is:
a. external ear
b. lobule
c. tragus
d. auricle
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
Excessive ambient noises produce problems for low frequency
test signal more than high frequency signals.

T or F
False
Even though integrated circuits use more power, their smaller
size give them a great advantage over vacuum tubes.

T or F
False
Loudness is:
a. related to the effective sound pressure
b. related to the "sone"
c. an auditory sensation
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
The preferred masking noise to be used for speech audiometry is:
a. narrowband noise
b. noise "shaped" to resemble the speech spectrum
c. sither a or b above
d. none of the above
b. noise "shaped" to resemble the speech spectrum
The acoustic reflex threshold for normal hearing individuals generally occurs below the uncomfortable listening level.

T or F
True
The standard unit of measurement for frequency is:
a. octaves.
b. pure tones
C. complex tones
d. cycles per second
e. harmonics
d. cycles per second
The pure tone average is useful information, as part of the audiological evaluation process.

T F
True
In fitting a hearing instrument one method of choosing gain is:
a. equal to the SRT
b. 15-20 dB more than the SRT
C. 15-20 dB less than the SRT
d. of no importance when fitting serisorineural cases
C. 15-20 dB less than the SRT
Which of the following would be overtones if the fundamental frequency was 500 Hz?
a. 600 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
d. b and c only
e. a, b and c only
d. b and c only
Bone conduction thresho.lds'.are defined as:
a. the weakest bone conduction signal detected at least 50% of the time
b. the weakest signal detected in the opposite ear
c. the weakest signal where words are understood by bone conduction
d. none of the above
a. the weakest bone conduction signal detected at least 50% of the time
Perforations in the tympanic membrane are of little importance to the hearing instrument specialist.

T F
False
The outer rim of the auricle is the
a. pinna
b. tragus
C. helix
d. concha
C. helix
Master hearing aid units incorporate the adjustment of gain, slope, AGC, MPO and a recording unit to print the results.

T F
False
s a practical matter it should be noted that whenever the gain requirements exceed 40 dB at 1000 Hz, it may be necessary to:
a. flatten the indicated response curve
b. increase the response above 1000 Hz
C. increase the response below 1000 Hz
d. increase the high and low response
a. flatten the indicated response curve
A hearing aid dispenser needs to know about hearing disorders:
a. to add to his knowledge about how the hearing mechanism work
b. to allow him to know when to send his client to a physician
c. to help him understand the medical problems of his clients
d. to enable him to tell his clients what caused his problem
e. a, b, c only
f. a,b,c, and d
e. a, b, c only
The function of a microphone is to:
a. amplify the acoustic signals
b. pick up electro-magnetic signals
c. convert electrical energy to acoustic energy
d. convert acoustic energy to electric energy
d. convert acoustic energy to electric energy
The exact function.of the middle ear muscles is well agree upon.

T or F
False
The major parts of the inner ear are:
a. vestibule, cochlea and perilymPh
b. vestibule, cochlea and semi-circular canals
c. vestibule, cochlea and oval window
d. vestibule, semi-circular canals and stapes
e. vestibule, semi-circular canals and endolymph
b. vestibule, cochlea and semi-circular canals
Otosclerosis occurs:
a. more often in women than men
b. more often in caucasians than other races
c. as an inherited tendency
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The output sound pressure level produced by the. Hearing aid receiver is usually measured in a standarized 2 cc coupler.

T or F
True
The average adult's external auditory canal is approximately what size?
a. 2 inches long and 1/2 inch in diameter
b. 1 to 1 1/2 inches long and 1/2 inch in diameter
c. 1 1/2 to 2 inches long and 1/4 inch in diameter
d. 1 to 1 1/2 inches long and 1/4 inch in diameter
e. none of the above
d. 1 to 1 1/2 inches long and 1/4 inch in diameter
The most commonly used microphone in hearing aids today is: a. crystal microphone
b. electret microphone
c. . magnetic microphone
d. ceramic microphone
b. electret microphone
An early surgical procedure made a tiny window or opening in a semicircular canal so sound would bypass the oval window, which was called:
a. an atresia
b. a. fenestration
C. a stapedectoxny
d. chronic otitis media
b. a. fenestration
At what frequency do "phons" and "decibels" correspond?
a. 1000 Hz
b. 2000 Hz
C. 500 Hz
d. 4000 Hz
e. 6000 Hz
a. 1000 Hz
A dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the:
a.. eustachian tube
b. malleus
c. tympanic membrane
d. oval window
c. tympanic membrane
A case history is obtained prior to testing in order to:
a. impress the client with a feeling of confidence
b. determine which tests are necessary
C. determine which ear will be best to enhance
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Dynes per square centimeter (dynes/sq. cm.) is the unit measurement of
a. sound pressure level
b. sound pressure
C. effective sound pressure
d. maximum sound pressure
e. acoustic power
d. maximum sound pressure
The three parts of a transistor are:
a. microphone, amplifier and receiver
b emitter, collector and base
C. diaphragm, pole piece and magnet
c. magnet, piezo-electric and ceramic
b emitter, collector and base
A complete removal of the stapes is called:
a. a masto.idectomy
b. a nerve deafness
C. a stapes mobilzation
d. a stapedectomy
d. a stapedectomy
The length of the human cochlea from base to apex is about:
a. 1 inch
b. 1 3/4 inches
c. 5 mm
d.. 10 cm
c. 5 mm
The new equipment available to the hearing instrument specialist can be used to:
a. measure eardrum mobility
b. test hearing with or without hearing instruments
c. analyze the acoustic output of hearing instruments
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The color of the healthy eardrum is:
a. pink
b. red
c. pearly gray
d. light amber
c. pearly gray
Using a battery of overlapping tests rather than one test is desirable because:
a. it gives the client more experience at responding
b. it greatly improves diagnostic capabilities
c. it means more income for the office
d. all of the above
b. it greatly improves diagnostic capabilities
The Speech Discrimination Score (SDS) serves the purpose of:
a. indicating how the client functions without amplification.
b. obtaining the client's PB max
c. indicating how the client functions with amplification
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which of the following is a term for closure of the external auditory canal?
a. otosclerosis
b. atresia
c. otitis
d. stenosis
e. none of the above
b. atresia
The reflex action which may protect the ear from excessive acoustic stimulation is dependent on the proper: function of the:
a. round window membrane
b. eustachian tube
c. stapedius muscle
d. none of the above
c. stapedius muscle
Audiometric zero is the same as:
a. 0.0002 dynes/cm2
b. .DR
c. MCL
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
The basilar membrane separates:
a. scala media and scala vestibule
b. scala vestiubli and scala tympani
c. scala media and scala tympani
d. scala tympani and vestiubli
e. scala tympani and semi-circular canals
c. scala media and scala tympani
The eardrum:
a. is also called the Tympanic Membrane
b. is extremely strong
c. is usually thinner and more elastic in children than in adults
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
The decibel
a. is an absolute measure of sound intensity
b. is an absolute measure of sound loudness
c. should never be qualified as a reference to a standard
d. is used only as a measure of hearing loss
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
Which instrument produces a pure tone?
a. Clarinet
b. Violin
c. Audiometer
d. Church Bell
e. Human Voice
c. Audiometer
What type of accessory or modification for a basic hearing aid might assist the wearer in attending to a speaker in a noisy environment?
a. directional microphone
b. external receiver
c. plugging the vent in the earmold
d. variable gain control
a. directional microphone