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208 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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2. What is the number-one killer of American women?
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Heart Disease
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3. How many chambers does the heart contain?
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4
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4. The portion of the circulation governed by the right side of the heart is the _______________ circulation.
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pulmanary
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5. The left side of the heart pumps blood in the _______________ circulation.
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se-stemic
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6. The two upper chambers of the heart in which blood collects before passing to the lower chambers are called
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the atrea
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7. The large blood vessel through which waste-laden, oxygen-poor blood travels is called the
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venicara
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8. The large artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and distributes it to the rest of the body is called the
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aorta
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9. The largest artery in the body is the
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aorta
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10. Systole is the
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contraction of the heart
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11. Diastole is the
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relaxation of the heart
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11. Diastole is the
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relaxation of the heart
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12. The arteries that branch from the aorta and provide blood to the heart muscle itself are _______________ arteries.
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corinary
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13. The small blood vessels that connect the arteries and veins are the
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capilarys
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17. Blood cell fragments that are necessary for the clotting of blood are called
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platelies
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22. The form of cholesterol that carries cholesterol out from the liver to other parts of the body and leads to cholesterol deposits on the artery walls is
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LDL
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23. The form of cholesterol that draws cholesterol out of the walls of the arteries and returns it to the liver for recycling is
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HDL
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24. The National Cholesterol Education Program recommends that all adults, beginning at age 20, have their lipoproteins measured at least once every
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5 years
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25. A desirable level of total cholesterol for adults is less than _______________ mg/deciliter.
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200
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26. Which of the following combinations would place someone at greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
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Low HDL
High LDL |
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27. It is estimated that patients can reduce their risk for heart attack by 2 percent for every _____ percent they reduce their total cholesterol.
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1%
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28. What is thought to be the closest thing we have to a magic bullet against heart disease?
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exercise
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30. The recommended level of LDL cholesterol for adults is
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less than 100 mg per deciliter
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32. Evidence suggests that after a heart attack the risk of _________ rises.
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diabietes
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34. Which of the following does NOT raise triglyceride levels?
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low carbohyrdrate diet
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38. The incidence of stroke more than doubles each decade after what age?
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55
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40. Compared to white Americans, the incidence of cardiovascular disease among African Americans is
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higher
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43. C-reactive protein is released into the bloodstream in response to
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infilmation
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44. Which of the following is associated with metabolic syndrome?
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inselence reisistence
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46. The LDL particle size that poses the greatest risk for CVD is
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pattern B
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47. Blood viscosity can be reduced by
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donating blood regularly
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50. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program guidelines’ TLC diet, saturated fat intake should be ___________ of total daily calories.
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at 7% of less
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51. When the heart contracts, called _____, blood pressure _____; when the heart relaxes, called _____, blood pressure _____.
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sistol / increases / disotol / decreases
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52. Which one of the following blood pressure readings would be considered optimal for a young adult?
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110/70
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53. A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to measure
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blood pressure
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54. The cutoff point for blood pressure at or above which an adult is diagnosed with hypertension is
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140/90
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56. A blood pressure reading of 121/81 is classified as
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prehypertension
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59. If an artery in a limb becomes blocked, it causes
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PAD / perihitial arterial disease
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60. When a coronary artery becomes blocked, the result is
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a heart attack
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61. Chest pain caused by lack of oxygen to the heart is called
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angina
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62. Damage to the heart muscle because of lack of blood supply is called
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miocardial infaction
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63. Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include
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difficulty breathing
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69. Most deaths from heart attacks occur within ___________ from the onset of symptoms.
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2 hours
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70. A test that measures the electrical activity of the heart is called a(n)
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electro cardiogram
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73. Consuming aspirin on a regular basis reduces the risk of
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plattits forming cloats
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74. Repeat clogging of an artery after balloon angioplasty is called
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restenosis
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75. Which of the following is a treatment for heart disease?
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baloon angeila plastic
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76. A cerebrovascular accident is another name for a
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stroke
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77. The type of stroke that is caused by a rupture of blood vessels is called
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hemoragic
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78. Atherosclerosis is most closely associated with which type of stroke?
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thrombotic
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79. A wandering clot that causes a stroke is called a(n)
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embolus
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81. A hemorrhagic stroke may occur as a result of
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an aneurysm
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82. A blood-filled pocket bulging out from a weak spot in the artery wall is called a(n)
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an aneurysm
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84. A test that uses a computer to construct a picture of the brain using X ray images is
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a ct scan
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92. Rheumatic fever is a disease process that begins with
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strepthroat
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98. Which of the following fats also contains cholesterol?
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butter
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99. The National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) recommends that daily cholesterol intake not exceed
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300 mg
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100. Which of the following is a good source of fiber in the diet?
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kidney beans
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101. Which of the following is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
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salmon
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103. People with no CVD risk factors should have their blood pressure measured by a professional
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once every 2 years
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105. How often should people over 20 have their cholesterol checked?
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every 5 years
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1. Which of the following kills more people than cancer does?
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none
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2. Which of the following factors contributes to about 30 percent of all cancer deaths?
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tobacco use
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4. A tumor that is NOT cancerous is called
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benine
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7. When a malignant tumor spreads to sites distant from the primary tumor, the process is known as
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motastasis
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9. The most common form of cancer is
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carisnoma
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11. Cancers arising from connective and fibrous tissues such as bone, cartilage, or muscle are called
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sarcomas
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12. Sarcomas arise from
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connection and fibrous tissue
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13. Leukemia is cancer of the
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blood forming cells
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14. A physician who specializes in the study of tumors is known as a(n)
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an oncologist
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16. The most common cause of cancer death in the United States is
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lung cancer
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18. Smoking is responsible for what percentage of lung cancer?
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87%
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19. Which of the following poses the greatest threat for the development of lung cancer among nonsmokers?
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exposure to enviorment tobacco smoke
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22. A technique that detects lung cancer earlier than X-rays do is
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spiral ct scans
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23. When there are no symptoms or other evidence of previously diagnosed disease, a cancer patient is said to
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be in remission
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24. One type of cancer that seems to be linked to a diet high in red meat is
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colon cancer
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25. After what age should a stool blood test be a standard annual screening test?
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50
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26. Sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy is recommended to screen for ____________ cancer.
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colon and rectile
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28. A signal of colon and rectal cancer is
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rectal bleeding
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29. The most common form of cancer in women is ____________ cancer; the most common cause of cancer death in women is ____________.
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breast
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33. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for breast cancer?
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early motherhood
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34. The American Cancer Society recommends routine use of mammography to detect breast cancer for women over age
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40
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36. Techniques for early detection of prostate cancer include a digital rectal exam and
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a prostate spectorila antigen blood test
PSA |
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38. The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is
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HPV
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39. Scraping cells from the cervix for examination to screen for cancerous changes is called
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pap test
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40. It is recommended that girls get an HPV/cervical cancer vaccine at what age?
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11-12 years
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41. In some cases, cervical dysplasia develops into
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cervical cancer
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42. Cancer of the lining of the uterus is called ____________ cancer.
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indometrial
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46. Ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation
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can cause immediate sunburns
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48. The most dangerous form of skin cancer is
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melanoma
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49. _____________ are more likely to develop and die from melanoma.
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men
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55. The most common treatment for skin cancer is
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surgical removal
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61. Which of the following cancers is significantly more prevalent outside the United States?
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stomach cancer
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64. A section of DNA that controls the production of a particular protein is a
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gene
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66. Ultraviolet rays are
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cancer initiators
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67. Estrogen is an example of a
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cancer promoter
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68. A diet high in ________ is linked to increased risk of colon, stomach, and prostate cancers.
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fat and meat
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69. Smoking is responsible for about ____ of ALL cancer deaths.
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30%
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70. Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases are
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phyto chemicals
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71. Which one of the following is a good source of phytochemicals?
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broccali
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72. Diets high in which of the following foods are associated with increased risk of cancer?
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red meats
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74. Obesity increases a persons risk of
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breast and colon cancer
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75. Fifteen percent of the world’s cancers are caused by
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microbes
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76. A potentially dangerous additive found in processed meats is
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nitrate
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79. Methods for precise visualization of tumors do NOT include
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conventrioral xray
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80. A test using computerized X ray images to detect tumors is called a(n)
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ct scan
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1. An organism that causes disease is a(n)
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pathogen
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3. Vessels and organs that pick up excess fluids, filter out disease-causing organisms and other waste products, and return cleansed fluid to the general circulation belong to the _______________ system.
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lyphatic
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4. An infection that travels throughout the body is called
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systemic
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6. One of the best ways to break the chain of infection is to
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wash hands frequently
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7. Tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions are rich in ________ and _________ that break down and destroy many microorganisms.
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antibodys / enzymes
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8. The body’s first line of defense against invasion of organisms is
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skin
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10. Microscopic, hairlike structures that sweep mucus and foreign substances out of the lungs are called
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a cilia
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11. White blood cells are produced in the
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bone marrow
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12. A type of white blood cell that engulfs foreign organisms and infected, damaged, or aged cells, and that is particularly prevalent during the inflammatory response is a
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nuetrophil
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13. Macrophages
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act as scavengers
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14. White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are _________ cells.
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natural killer
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18. Swollen lymph nodes are an indication of
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infection
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19. Lymphocytes that stimulate other lymphocytes to increase are called _____________ cells.
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helper T
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20. Lymphocytes that can get rid of cells of the body that have been invaded by foreign organisms or have turned cancerous are called
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killer t cells
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21. Chemicals responsible for the dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels in allergic reactions are called
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histomines
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22. Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called _______________ cells.
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B
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23. A marker on the surface of a foreign substance that triggers the immune response is called a(n)
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antigen
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24. Lymphocytes generated during an initial infection that circulate in the body for years and quickly destroy the specific antigens if they ever appear again are called ____________ cells.
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memory t cells
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26. The release of histamines does NOT cause _______________ in the affected area.
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infection
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27. During this type of immune system response, the body’s defense system literally eats invading pathogens.
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natural immunity
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28. T and B cells change after contact with the pathogen in a(n) _______________ immune response.
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aquired
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29. Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells are part of the ________ response to invading pathogens
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naturaed
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30. Antibodies have complementary surface markers that work with _______ like a lock and key.
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antigens
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34. Cell-mediated immune response
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is a function of killer T cells
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36. The phase of the immune response in which suppressor T cells halt the immune response and restore the body’s natural balance is called
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slow down
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37. The ability of memory lymphocytes to remember previous infections is known as
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aquired immunituy
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39. Lynette has begun feeling feverish and has a sore throat. Which phase of the immune response is she experiencing?
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prodromal
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41. A preparation of killed or weakened pathogens injected or taken orally to stimulate the body to produce antibodies is called a(n
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vaccine
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43. Vaccines made from pathogens that have been killed in the laboratory, yet retain their ability to stimulate the production of antibodies, are used to provide protection against
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influenza
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44. Vaccines confer _______________ immunity.
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active
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45. A person who is exposed to a disease and who is subsequently injected with antibodies produced by others has been given
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passive immunity
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46. Serum that contains a variety of antibodies and is injected to provide temporary immunity is called
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gamma globulin
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47. When the body recognizes a relatively harmless substance as a dangerous antigen and mounts an immune response, this response is called
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an allergic reaction
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48. Substances that provoke allergies are known as
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allergens
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49. Which of the following is NOT considered a common allergen?
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virus's
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50. The substance that increases the inflammatory response and the secretion of mucus following exposure to an allergen is
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histimine
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52. Key components of a typical asthma attack include all of the following, EXCEPT
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anaphylaxis
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54. Streptococcus and staphylococcus are examples of
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bacteria
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56. Johnny has a red, sore throat with white patches on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, fever, and a headache. Which of the following bacteria caused Johnny’s symptoms?
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stepylococus
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57. A common bacterium found on the skin in healthy people, but capable of causing infection if it enters the body, is
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staffalococus, staff
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60. Lyme disease is transmitted by a
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deer tick
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62. Tetanus is also known as
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lock jaw
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64. Generally, antibiotics are useful against
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bacteria
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65. Viral diseases are the most common form of _______________ disease.
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contagious
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66. Colds are almost always transmitted by
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hand to hand contact
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68. Influenza is highly contagious and spread via
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respiratory droplets
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70. A vaccine is available to prevent infection by
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influenza virus
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73. Viral encephalitis causes inflammation of the tissue in the
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brain
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74. The mildest form of hepatitis is hepatitis
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a
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75. Hepatitis B is transmitted mainly by
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intimate sexual contact
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76. Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes associated with hepatitis is called
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Jondus
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77. Which virus can cause irreversible paralysis and death in some infected individuals?
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pollio myolitus
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78. Most rabies-related deaths in the United State are traced to bites or scratches from
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bats
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79. Warts on the hands are caused by infection with a type of
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virus
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80. Molds, mushrooms, and yeasts belong to which classification?
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fungi
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83. Microscopic, single-celled organisms that often cause recurrent diseases are called
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protozoa
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85. The largest organisms that can enter the body to cause infection are
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parasitic worms
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86. An infectious agent that consists only of protein is a
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prion
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88. Which of the following infections is transmitted by a mosquito bite?
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west nile virus
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89. An example of an infection that was spread widely via air travel by infected people is
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sars/ sever acute respiratory syndrome
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2. Which country has the highest STD rate of any developed nation?
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united states
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5. The average time span between the initial HIV infection and the onset of disease symptoms in untreated people is _______________ years.
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11 years
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6. Shortly after HIV infection, about 50 percent of those infected will develop
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flu like symptoms
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11. Studies have found that women who frequently used _______________ for contraception were at greater risk for HIV transmission.
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spermicides with iroxide / non oxyn1-9
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14. The transmission of HIV from mother to child is called
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paranatal
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15. Vertical transmission of HIV is
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mother to child
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16. Worldwide, the most common route of HIV infection is
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heterosexual content
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19. The infection most often seen in people with HIV infection is
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pnumositis carniphemonaina
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21. The initial screening test for HIV antibodies is the
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elisa test
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23. The status of the immune system in someone with HIV infection can be monitored by checking
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CD4 t cell counts
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24. In people with HIV infection, the amount of virus in the body can be measured with a(n)
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HIV-RNA- assay
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25. A test that shows how fast HIV from a patient’s blood sample can reproduce itself is known as
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HIV replication capacity
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28. A widely used drug in the treatment of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is
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Zydogats AZT
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30. A class of antiviral drugs that block HIV from entering and infecting cells is known as
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entry inhibitors
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31. All of the following guidelines are important when considering HIV testing, EXCEPT that you should
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wait for symptoms to appear
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32. Long-term antiviral therapy for HIV infection
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very expensive
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33. Drugs frequently used to treat opportunistic infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis are
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antibiotics
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36. Which of the following will NOT offer a high protection against HIV transmission during oral sex?
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oral conriceptives
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37. Chlamydia is the most prevalent _______________ STD.
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bacterial
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38. Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of _______________ in men under age 35.
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epididimytus
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44. Gonococcal conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the
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eye lid
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47. An infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the pelvic cavity and fallopian tubes is called
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pelvic inflamatory disease
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48. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common complication of
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gonorrheu and chalmydia
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50. The organism that causes genital warts is
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HPV
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52. The family of viruses that causes genital warts is
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HPV
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53. The incubation period of HPV is
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1 month to 2 years from contact
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54. Which of the following is linked to the development of cervical cancer?
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genital HPV infection
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55. HPV infection in pregnant women can be transmitted to the newborn, occasionally causing warts to form on the infant’s
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vocal chords
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58. The herpes virus most often responsible for cold sores is
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HSV1
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59. Genital herpes is most often caused by
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HSV2
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63. A drug used to treat herpes is
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acyclovir
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65. Inflammation of the liver is known as
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hepitius
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69. The spiral-shaped organism that causes syphilis is a
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bacterium
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70. A chancre is a sign of
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syphilis
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75. A common sexually transmitted disease caused by an organism is
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trichomoniasis
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77. If left untreated, trichomoniasis can increase the risk of
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HIV transmission
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78. The drug of choice in treating trichomoniasis is
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Flagyl
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79. The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of reproductive age is
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bacterial vaginosis
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81. A highly contagious parasitic STD is
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pubic lice
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82. Which of the following often occurs after a change in sexual partners?
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bacterial vaginosis
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83. Which of the following has been associated with an increased risk of bacterial vaginosis?
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douching
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84. Men who have sex with other men should be vaccinated for
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hepitidus A
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86. The most effective approach to avoiding STDs is
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abstinence
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