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162 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the vision of public health in America?
Healthy People in Healthy Communities
What is the mission of public health in America?
Promote Health & Prevent Disease
Since 1900, Americans have experienced

A. Eradication of measles
B. An increased emphasis on preventive behaviors
C. A stable average life span
D. An increase in mortality from infectious diseases
B. An increased emphasis on preventive behaviors
Healthy People: The Surgeon General's Report on Health Promotion and Disease Prevention

A. was the first document to ever present a message about health in the United States
B. summarized the research available up to the point it was published
C. provided technical information for health care practitioners and academic institutions
D. was the last published document containing health-related goals for the nation
B. summarized the research available up to the point it was published
"Any combination of planned learning experiences based on sound theories that provide individuals, groups, and communities the opportunity to acquire information and the skills needed to make quality health decisions" accurately defines:

A. health promotion
B. health education
C. disease prevention
D. health indices
B. health education
Which of the following is NOT a typical setting and function for a health educator?

A. Voluntary health agencies, for prevention programming
B. Hospitals, for patient care
C. Worksites, for employee wellness
D. Schools, for student instruction
B. Hospitals, for patient care
When a woman has a pap smear done, she is actually involved with

A. primary prevention
B. incidental prevention
C. tertiary prevention
D. secondary prevention
D. secondary prevention
The Competency Update Project (CUP) addressed all of the following questions, EXCEPT:

A. Are there differences in the roles of entry-level health educators and advanced-level health education specialists based upon degrees held and years of work experience in health education?
B. Are there commonalities in the roles of the entry-level and advanced level health education specialists across practice settings?
C. What is the current generic role of the entry-level health education specialist compared with the role previously defined?
D. What are the differences among areas of responsibility, competencies, and sub-competencies from one setting to another?
D. What are the differences among areas of responsibility, competencies, and sub-competencies from one setting to another?
Which of the following areas of responsibility is not included in the recent update?

A. Create individual and community needs for health education
B. Communicate and advocate for Health and Health Education
C. Administer health education strategies, interventions, and programs
D. Plan health education strategies, interventions, and programs
A. Create individual and community needs for health education
All of the following are assumptions of Health Promotion EXCEPT:

A. Disease occurrence theories and principles are difficult to understand and use
B. For health behavior change to be permanent, an individual must be motivated and ready to change
C. Health status can be changed
D. Behavior can be changed, and those changes can influence health
A. Disease occurrence theories and principles are difficult to understand and use
A logic model

A. always takes the same shape and form
B. attempts to convey verbally the connection between activities and outcomes
C. includes inputs, outputs, and outcomes
D. should not include the purpose or mission of a program
C. includes inputs, outputs, and outcomes
Properly trained health educators

A. need a master's degree as the entry level requirement
B. are aware of the limitations of the discipline
C. don't really need to take the CHES exam
D. should be able to provide direct care to patients in community settings
B. are aware of the limitations of the discipline
T or F
According to our text, the turning point that marked the beginning of health promotion as a significant component of national health policy occurred in 1974.
T
T or F
Health promotion is based on the premise that human behavior is governed by personal factors alone.
F - Health promotion is based on the premise that human behavior is governed by personal factors and the environment
T or F
In 1999, the Role Delineation Project published generic roles for entry level and advanced level health educators.
F - Their work, the Framework, was published in 1985 and included entry-level educator roles
T or F
The advanced level health education responsibilities were endorsed by the American Medical Association and the National Commission for Health Education Credentialing.
F - the AMA has not endorsed
T or F
The four major phases of the CUP included administering a 19 page questionnaire to over 4,000 practicing health educators.
T
T or F
According to the CUP Model Hierarchical approach, there are entirely different areas of responsibility for advanced level health educators than there are at the entry level.
F - only the competencies and sub-competencies were different
T or F
In order to sit for the CHES examination, an individual must provide an official transcript that reflects at least 45 semester hours or 52 quarter hours of health and health-related courses.
F - they must provide a bachelor's, master's or PhD degree plus 25 semester or 37 quarter hours work
T or F
Each of the seven areas of responsibility on the CHES exam represents an equal percentage of the material on the CHES exam.
F
T or F
A joint committee of the Society for Public Health Education and the American Association for Health Education uses the Framework to review and approve undergraduate health education programs.
T
T or F
Processes that could be accomplished under the "activities" component of the Logic Model can include educating, screenings, and establishing partnerships.
T
In order to understand the various program planning models, effectively adapt to any planning situation, and understand processes related to program planning, health educators should:

A. focus on basic behavior change instead of complex models
B. develop a working knowledge of the Generalized Model for Program Planning
C. limit themselves to one 'best' model for consistency
D. borrow models from other disciplines
B. develop a working knowledge of the Generalized Model for Program Planning
Responsibility II for Health Educators includes all of the following competencies EXCEPT:

A. formulate appropriate and measurable program objectives.
B. involve people and organizations in program planning.
C. report anticipated obstacles early in the planning process.
D. develop a logical sequence plan for health education practice
C. report anticipated obstacles early in the planning process.
A program planning model that begins with the outcome and is comprised of eight specific phases or steps is called:

A. SMART
B. PRECEDE-PROCEED
C. MATCH
D. PLAN EIGHT
B. PRECEDE-PROCEED
Which of the following levels of influence is NOT included in the selection of intervention approaches portion of MATCH?

A. Influence governments
B. Influence schools
C. Influence individuals
D. Influence organizations
B. Influence schools
All of the following are key elements that best characterize the practice of social marketing EXCEPT:

A. Outcome evaluation
B. Audience segmentation and profiling
C. product distribution based on audience research
D. Facilitator-centered program development
D. Facilitator-centered program development
In Phase 3 of CDCynergy Lite, program planners should:

A. conduct necessary audience research to segment intended audience
B. assess factors and variables that can affect the project's direction, including SWOT
C. develop and test concepts, messages, and materials with intended audiences
D. list causes of each problem that will be addressed
A. conduct necessary audience research to segment intended audience
Which of the following phases of the SMART model includes identification of appropriate communication messages?

A. Market analysis
B. Develop interventions, materials, & pretest
C. Consumer analysis
D. Channel Analysis
D. Channel Analysis
Which of the following planning models was used to develop Healthy People 2010?

A. MAPP
B. APEX-PH
C. Healthy People in Healthy Communities
D. A Systematic Approach to Health Promotion
D. A Systematic Approach to Health Promotion
The MAPP program planning model

A. encourages planners to use one assessment only in order to streamline data analysis
B. discourages partnerships because of potential conflict of interest.
C. uses a process called visioning, involving 50-100 participants
D. represents a planning approach common to hospitals and schools.
C. uses a process called visioning, involving 50-100 participants
wissen
saber (yo sé)
The concept that steps in the planning process are sequential is referred to as functionality.
F - it is referred to as fluidity
The criteria used to establish a prioritization matrix for planning include 'more or less changeable' and 'more or less functional.'
F - matrix includes 'more or less changeable' and 'more or less important.'
A health educator who has access to data about employee sick days, health screenings, and safety records could use this information in the Educational and Ecological Assessment step of the PRECEDE PROCEED model.
F - the Educational and Ecological Assessment step includes predisposing, enabling, or reinforcing behaviors.
One environmental risk factor for heart disease could be the lack of exercise facilities.
T
Health communication is the use of strategies to inform and influence individual and community decisions to enhance health.
T
The central focus of the SMART model is consumers.
T
SWOT analysis is common among planners who want to minimize planning time and move quickly to action steps.
F - it identifies strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats in an organization
The Health Communication Model was produced by the American Heart Association and has four phases.
F - it was produced by the National Cancer Institute
In selecting a planning model, health educators are most successful when they choose one model and use all of its phases or steps without using other components or models.
F - some plans should use components from a variety of models
Community themes, local public health system, community health status, and forces of change assessments are all components of the MAPP model.
T
Health educators who are starting the program planning process use

A. tasks associated with just Area I of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators
B. tasks associated with areas I, II, V, VI, and VII of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators
C. tasks associated with all seven of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators
D. tasks associated with other activities and theories outside the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators
B. tasks associated with areas I, II, V, VI, and VII of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators
In writing a rationale, Health Educators need to identify appropriate background information. The best place to start is with

A. a "wish list" of needed equipment
B. a needs assessment of the priority population
C. a literature search
D. a survey of interested partners
C. a literature search
All of the following are ways that Health Educators can determine the values and benefits that should be emphasized in a rationale, EXCEPT:

A. examine relevant recent meeting minutes and decisions
B. analyze implementation questions that have been previously raised
C. remove all mention of previous problems or failures
D. conduct an informal survey of influential decision makers
C. remove all mention of previous problems or failures
Value or benefits statements for programming that is focused at the worksite level include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. opportunity to generate revenue
B. opportunity for cost savings
C. recruitment tool
D. increased worker morale
A. opportunity to generate revenue
Value or benefits statements for programming that is focused at the community level

A. are identical to those at the worksite
B. provide a model for other organizations
C. contradict those at the worksite
D. often include increased taxpayer burden
B. provide a model for other organizations
Value or benefits statements for programming that is focused at the individual level

A. often include increased out-of-pocket and premium costs for medical care
B. include increased knowledge about the relationship between lifestyle and health
C. include decreasing opportunities for individuals to take control
D. create friction because of conflicting goals
B. include increased knowledge about the relationship between lifestyle and health
Successful planning committees should

A. avoid having subcommittees
B. not include 'influencers'
C. regularly re-evaluate membership
D. limit themselves to planners, not stakeholders
C. regularly re-evaluate membership
According to your textbook, a solid committee should have all of the following EXCEPT:

A. political leaders
B. 'doers'
C. good leadership
D. a representative of sponsoring agency
A. political leaders
A rationale for a health promotion program should

A. identify the problem at the local level before mentioning any other levels
B. not include costs, as they will appear later in the process
C. state why the program will be successful
D. be presented in a pyramid format, narrow at the top and wide at the base
C. state why the program will be successful
In describing values or benefits associated with health promotion programming, health educators

A. can omit all but the economic benefits
B. will improve their chances of success by detailing all the past failures
C. need to limit discussion to only one benefit
D. should back up statements with supporting data
D. should back up statements with supporting data
T or F

Health promotion program planning is a multi-step process.
T
T or F

Without the support of the decision-makers, it is difficult or impossible for health educators to plan and implement programs.
T
T or F

To prepare an effective rationale, it is best to avoid stating a proposed solution to problems identified in the rationale.
F - A rationale should include a proposed solution, which includes the name and purpose of the program
T or F

Epidemiological data result from the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specific populations.
T
T or F

One source of information for a rationale is to compare the health needs of the priority population with those of other citizens of the state or nation.
T
T or F

When program planners systematically find, appraise, and use evidence as the basis for decision-making when planning a health promotion program, it is called appraisal-based practice.
F - This is evidence-based practice
T or F

The size of a planning committee should not exceed 10-15 members.
F
T or F

It is beneficial to ask whether or not decision-makers are willing to change the organizational culture to promote health at a worksite.
T
T or F

The greater the number of individuals who are represented by planning committee members, the more likely there will be a feeling of program ownership.
T
T or F

The conceptual format for creating a rationale presented in your textbook is in the form of a circle, representing equal emphasis of all steps.
F - it is an inverted triangle, with broad global thinking at the top, down to the point of the proposed solution
Which of the following is NOT a reason why a needs assessment should be completed before the other steps of the program planning process?

A. it can determine the internal capacity of a community to address specific needs
B. it is the most expensive and should be completed while funds are available
C. it is a logical place to start
D. it can provide a reference point for comparison with future assessments
B. it is the most expensive and should be completed while funds are available
Competencies that can be found under Area of Responsibility I for Health Educators include all of the following EXCEPT

A. access existing health-related data
B. infer needs for health education from obtained data
C. determine factors that influence learning
D. initiate a plan of action
D. initiate a plan of action
Self-report data are appealing to those who collect data because they

A. involve expert interpretation
B. are objective assessments of experiences
C. are unbiased
D. are quick to administer
D. are quick to administer
Using indirect measures to learn about behaviors within a population is called using

A. calculated measure
B. representative observation
C. biometric assessment
D. proxy measure
D. proxy measure
The data collection method that is apt to have the lowest response rate is the

A. written questionnaire
B. face-to-face interview
C. group interview
D. telephone interview
A. written questionnaire
A small number of people having a conversation about feelings, opinions, perceptions, and attitudes concerning an idea or issue is called

A. a focus group
B. a community forum
C. a quantitative module
D. a nominal group process
A. a focus group
As a data collection method, direct observation

A. generally has a very low response rate
B. can be obtrusive or unobtrusive
C. is rarely biased, because of multiple observers
D. is the most costly type of data collection
B. can be obtrusive or unobtrusive
One advantage of face-to-face interviews is

A. they can cover a wide geographic area
B. low cost
C. flexibility
D. limited sample size
C. flexibility
As it relates to assessing needs, the term "mapping" refers to

A. a packaged assessment instrument that can be used in specific locations only
B. designing questionnaires in segments
C. a visual representation of data by geography or location
D. reviewing infectious disease information within the priority population
C. a visual representation of data by geography or location
Which of the following factors is NOT characteristic of action or participatory research?

A. collaboration
B. focus on social change
C. acquisition of knowledge through group study
D. community empowerment
C. acquisition of knowledge through group study
T or F

There are some instances in program planning when a needs assessment is not necessary or recommended
T
T or F

Primary data are data that have been collected and published by someone else.
F - It is data you have collected yourself
T or F

Key informants are not always in positions of formal authority.
T
T or F

At a community forum, participants may also be asked to respond in writing to some questions.
T
T or F

Photovoice is a form of participatory data collection.
T
T or F

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention publishes the United States Census data in the Statistical Abstract of the United States.
F - It is published in the National Vital Statistics System
T or F

HIPAA refers to the Health Insurance Protective Assessment Agency, dealing with issues of data collection.
F - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
T or F

The Basic Priority Rating (BPR) process is a way to take quantifiable measures and turn them into a qualitative expression of data.
F - it allows researchers to quantify the subjective process of prioritization
T or F

When prioritizing needs, planners can benefit from exploring any existing health promotion programs to avoid duplicating efforts.
T
T or F

Validating a prioritized need means demonstrating that the need can be reproduced using similar measures of assessment.
F - it confirms that a need identified is indeed a need that must be addressed
Qualitative measures

A. use deductive reasoning
B. often take a shorter time to collect
C. are objective
D. interpret information
D. interpret information
Which level of measure uses an absolute zero?

A. Interval
B. Ratio
C. Ordinal
D. Nominal
B. Ratio
Attitudes, beliefs, motivation, and personality traits are all examples of data that measure which of the following?

A. Health variables
B. Cognitive variables
C. Psychosocial variables
D. Quality of life variables
C. Psychosocial variables
The type of reliability measure that generates evidence of stability over a period of time is called

A. interrater reliability
B. parallel forms reliability
C. test-retest reliability
D. intrarater reliability
C. test-retest reliability
Sensitivity means

A. the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have a disease or condition
B. the ability of a test to identify correctly those with a disease or condition
C. an interviewer is able to remain culturally neutral
D. an interviewer is too emotional to continue face-to-face data collection
B. the ability of a test to identify correctly those with a disease or condition
Which of the following would NOT be helpful to a health educator trying to determine whether to use an existing measurement instrument?

A. file a petition to cover liability issues
B. conduct a literature search to discover instruments being used
C. obtain a copy of available instruments
D. obtain permission from the author of the instrument
A. file a petition to cover liability issues
For sampling, the universe is

A. all individuals unspecified by time or place
B. the building block for the population
C. the same as the entire population
D. the smallest unit
A. all individuals unspecified by time or place
A health educator who wants to be sure the variable of ethnicity is represented in a sample should use which of the following methods to choose that sample?

A. systematic sample
B. stratified random sample
C. cluster sample
D. simple random sample
B. stratified random sample
Which of the following provides the quickest answer to analyzing sample size from a statistical standpoint?

A. Precision and reliability
B. Power analysis
C. Central limit theorem
D. Specificity analysis
C. Central limit theorem
Health educators who are going to administer a data collection instrument should

A. inform participants about how the process will work
B. be sure that participants understand they need to complete the entire instrument
C. not reveal to participants that their names will be published with results
D. report the identity of any participant who committed any illegal activity to the authorities
A. inform participants about how the process will work
T or F

Quantitative measures produce numerical data such as counts.
T
T or F

The highest level in the measurement hierarchy is interval.
F - Ratio is the highest level
T or F

If a health educator asks a colleague to review a survey about on-the-job stress, the health educator is checking face validity.
T
T or F

Criterion-related validity is the degree to which a measure correlates with other measures with which it is theoretically expected to correlate.
F - Criterion-related validity is the degree to which a measure correlates with data generated from a measure (criterion) of the phenomenon being studied, usually an individual's behavior or performance
T or F

There are several good quantitative procedures for determining the fairness of a measure.
F - there are no quantitative measures for fairness
T or F

Structured, or closed questions provide the greatest freedom for respondents to answer the questions.
F - open-ended questions do
T or F

A survey item that provides answers on a continuum from strongly disagree to strongly agree is one example of a Likert scale.
T
T or F

A sampling unit must consist of one individual only.
F
T or F

The fishbowl method of sampling is not as precise as simple random sampling.
T
T or F

A pilot test should be administered to a representative sample of the priority population.
T
A mission statement

A. is a long narrative that details future plans
B. is used for a short time, and then replaced with a new one
C. is a measurable variable
D. helps to guide planners to formulate goals and objectives
D. helps to guide planners to formulate goals and objectives
A future event toward which a committed endeavor is directed is called a(n)

A. mission statement
B. objective
C. vision statement
D. goal
D. goal
Evaluation measures for program objectives include

A. morbidity and mortality data
B. modified or new behaviors
C. improved attitude and increased awareness
D. staff performance and attendance
A. morbidity and mortality data
Which of the following is NOT a question planners should consider when writing objectives?

A. Can the objectives be accessed by the priority populations?
B. Can the objective be realistically achieved?
C. Does the program have adequate resources to obtain the objective?
D. Are the objectives consistent with existing policies and procedures?
A. Can the objectives be accessed by the priority populations?
The outcome component of an objective

A. states what conditions will remain the same
B. is usually identified as the subject of the sentence
C. describes who will change as a result of the program
D. describes the final result of the program
D. describes the final result of the program
Environment objectives should include all of the following EXCEPT a

A. quality of life indicator
B. specific outcome
C. priority population
D. condition
A. quality of life indicator
"By 2010, increase to at least 60% the proportion of men in Sioux City who have had a PSA level drawn" is an example of a(n)

A. learning objective
B. environmental objective
C. behavioral objective
D. outcome objective
C. behavioral objective
The three major sections of Healthy People 2010 are

A. Understanding and Improving Health, Objectives for Improving Health, and Tracking Healthy People 2010
B. Understanding and Improving Health, Determinants of Health Model, and Leading Health Indicators
C. Statistical Overview, Quality of Life Model, and Improving Health Strategies
D. Midcourse Review, Eliminate Health Disparities, and Increase Years of Life
A. Understanding and Improving Health, Objectives for Improving Health, and Tracking Healthy People 2010
Respiratory diseases, health communication, family planning, and oral health are all

A. the highest priorities for health in America in 2010
B. focus areas for Healthy People 2010
C. new areas of health concern that weren't present in Healthy People 2000
D. objectives for health in America in 2010
B. focus areas for Healthy People 2010
What percentage of original objectives from Healthy People 2010 was either dropped or could not be assessed at midcourse?

A. 40%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 50%
A. 40%
T or F

Mission statements, goals, and objectives are applicable to Areas II and IV of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators.
T
T or F

Statements that represent progress toward a goal by specifying intermediate accomplishments are called strategies.
F - Statements that represent progress toward a goal by specifying intermediate accomplishments are called objectives
T or F

Outcome objectives can be written in terms of reduction of risk or quality of life measures.
T
T or F

Associate, conceptualize, enumerate, recall, and summarize are all words that can be used to create measurable goal statements.
F - They are all words that can be used to create measurable objective statements
T or F

Several different criterion-setting techniques were used in the writing of Healthy People 2010 Objectives and Healthy People 2010 Midcourse Review.
T
T or F

"By January 1, program volunteers will have weight loss materials in the hands of 1,000 citizens" is an example of a learning objective.
F - it is a process, formative, or administrative objective
T or F

The two overarching goals for Healthy People 2010 are to increase quality and years of healthy life and to decrease substance misuse and abuse among Americans.
F - to increase quality and years of healthy life and to decrease health disparities
T or F

Objectives stated within the 28 Focus Areas of Healthy People 2010 are divided into measurable objectives and developmental objectives.
T
T or F


Tracking Healthy People 2010 provides a list of resources for Americans to use to gather data about specific health issues.
F
T or F

Of the 281 Healthy People 2010 objectives whose progress could be evaluated at mid-course review, over half had moved toward, met, or exceeded their target.
T
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a theory?

A. A theory is a set of interrelated concepts.
B. A theory presents a systematic view.
C. A theory is a tool that can make basic concepts more complex.
D. A theory attempts to explain and predict.
C. A theory is a tool that can make basic concepts more complex.
The operational form of a construct is a(n)

A. variable
B. logic model
C. concept
D. theory
A. variable
The ecological perspective for behavior change theories

A. is fulfilled when individual participants accomplish their goals
B. recognizes five levels of influence
C. emphasizes the difference among factors within levels of a health problem
D. is a single level strategy for cause of behavior
B. recognizes five levels of influence
A weight loss program that uses weekly dues is an example of

A. positive reinforcement
B. negative punishment
C. negative reinforcement
D. positive punishment
C. negative reinforcement
The Theory of Reasoned Action

A. was tailored just for health-related behavior.
B. considers intention as a person's readiness to perform a behavior
C. considers the attitude toward the behavior as the way to remove positive and negative values
D. uses subjective norm as a measure of internal intention.
B. considers intention as a person's readiness to perform a behavior
The Health Belief Model

A. incorporates many components of the Theory of Reasoned Action.
B. is the newest behavior change model
C. considers individual perceptions as a factor in behavior.
D. is based on punishment models.
C. considers individual perceptions as a factor in behavior.
A person who purchases new running shoes and a pedometer is in what phase of the Transtheoretical Model?

A. Action
B. Preparation
C. Pre-contemplation
D. Contemplation
B. Preparation
An emerging theory that is used to explain how a person comes to a decision to take action and translates that decision into action is called

A. The Health Action Process Approach Model
B. The Motivational Process Model
C. The Precaution Adoption Process Model
D. The Self-efficacy Model
C. The Precaution Adoption Process Model
Reciprocal determinism and locus of control

A. are two terms that mean the same thing
B. are the basis of the Stimulus Response Theory
C. are components of the Health Belief Model
D. grew out of the Social Learning Theory
D. grew out of the Social Learning Theory
Within the constructs of the Social Cognitive Theory, beliefs about the likely outcomes of certain behaviors are called

A. self-efficacy
B. expectations
C. locus of control
D. expectancies
B. expectations
T or F

Models are generally more specific than theories because they attempt to explain underlying processes of learning.
F
T or F

Area II of the Responsibilities and Competencies for Health Educators is the only area that relates to using Health Promotion theories and models.
F - all areas relate to theories and models
T or F

The approach of a continuum theory is to identify variables that influence action and combine them in a prediction equation.
T
T or F

According to the Stimulus-Response Theory, the two broad categories of Environmental consequences include reinforcement and punishment.
T
T or F

The Theory of Planned Behavior includes attitude toward a behavior, a subjective norm, and the concept of stimulus-response.
F - that is the theory of reasoned action
T or F

Perceived behavioral control refers to people's perceptions of their ability to perform a given behavior.
T
T or F

The Elaboration Likelihood Model of Persuasion was designed to help explain how persuasion messages aimed at changing attitudes were received and processed by people.
T
T or F

The concept of decisional balance is a method to help people improve their flexibility by improving balance.
F - Decisional balance refers to the pros and cons of behavioral change
T or F

Vicarious reinforcement is having the participants learn from experiencing positive benefits of a behavior they have changed.
F - It is having a participant witness someone else being reinforced for a behavior
T or F

The Community Readiness Model is a continuum theory for communities.
F - it is a stage theory
All of the following are characteristics of those in communities EXCEPT

A. residence in different countries
B. membership
C. common symbol systems
D. shared values and norms
A. residence in different countries
The methods of professional change that deal with issues beyond the individual, family, and small group level are called

A. grass-roots participation
B. macro practice
C. citizen participation
D. social capital
B. macro practice
Which of the following is NOT an assumption that must be made by those who assist with community organizing?

A. a holistic approach is the worst approach for diversified communities
B. people want to and can change
C. self-developed changes in community living are more apt to have permanence than imposed changes
D. communities of people often need help, just like individuals do
A. a holistic approach is the worst approach for diversified communities people want to and can change
Internal recognition of a community issue or concern is referred to as

A. garden variety organizing
B. top-down organizing
C. citizen-initiated organizing
D. administrative organizing
C. citizen-initiated organizing
When someone from outside of a community recognizes a problem within that community

A. gatekeepers should be sought out
B. the first step is to act quickly before the problem gets worse
C. the political leadership should be contacted first
D. it may take some early aggressive action to address the problem
A. gatekeepers should be sought out
Supporting participants of a community organization effort

A. are a small core group, committed to resolving the concern
B. become involved on an irregular basis
C. take part in most group activities and are willing to do the work needed
D. are seldom involved, but may contribute in non-active ways
D. are seldom involved, but may contribute in non-active ways
Health educators who work with groups of volunteers should remember that

A. volunteer schedules should be light, with minimal tasks
B. volunteers should receive frequent feedback and signs of appreciation
C. it's best to avoid knowing volunteers personally
D. volunteers don't like to spend time training
B. volunteers should receive frequent feedback and signs of appreciation
A successful coalition

A. avoids problems by excluding the local media
B. attacks the large problems as a whole
C. uses a project-by-project approach
D. involves community volunteer agencies
D. involves community volunteer agencies
Secondary building blocks in a community map are

A. assets located within the community, but largely controlled by outsiders
B. assets and capacities located inside the neighborhood, largely under neighborhood control
C. resources originating outside the neighborhood, controlled by outsiders
D. resources originating in a similar neighborhood, controlled by insiders
A. assets located within the community, but largely controlled by outsiders
Guidelines to reaching consensus include

A. work toward the "one best way" attitude to save time
B. end any conflict as soon as it arises
C. determine and follow the majority vote
D. avoid "either/or" thinking
D. avoid "either/or" thinking
T or F

Because community organization is so limited in scope, this function only relates to Area of Responsibility III, Implementing Health Education Strategies, Interventions, and Programs.
F - Community organization is very broad in scope and relates to many areas, including II and IV.
T or F

According to your text, community organizing is the science of building consensus within the democratic process.
F - it is defined as the is the "art" of building consensus within the democratic process
T or F

The best known categories of community organization are locality development, social planning, and social action.
T
T or F

The first step in community organizing is recognizing the issue.
T
T or F

Humor, gestures, expectations, and values of different groups within a community should be avoided by those trying to work within that community.
F - they should be used when appropriate
T or F

Primary building blocks are the least accessible assets in the mapping community capacity model.
F
T or F

Community stakeholders must be the ones to establish priorities and set goals if community organizing is to succeed.
T
T or F

Welfare expenditures, public capital information expenditures, and public information are considered secondary building blocks.
F - those are "potential building blocks"
T or F

Looping back is the middle step in the community organizing and building process.
F - looping back is the last step, used to see if changes need to be made in any previous steps
T or F

The PATCH model has been highly successful as a team approach to community building.
T