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231 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Assess head and neck, in what position?
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Sitting
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How do you assess Cranial Nerve X?
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Depress tongue with tongue blade, note movement as person says "ahhh"
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What are normal bowel sounds?
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High pitched, gurgling, cascading sounds occuring irregularly from 5 to 30x per minute.
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Auscultate carotid arteries?
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Bell for bruits
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Moving arm towards shoulder?
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Circumduction
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Babinski reflex
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Stroke lateral aspect of sole of foot from heel to ball; positive is good in infants bad in adults
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Protruden
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Bulging abdomen
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Walk 15 to 20?
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Gait
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Lubricating for vaginal exam
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Warm water
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Cranial Nerve XI
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Shrug shoulders against resistance
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How do you act with an anxious patient?
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Be calm and unhurried
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Abnormal chest sounds?
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adventitious sounds
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Shortening of the vertebral column
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Aging, 60+
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Xiphoid and abdominal pulse?
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What is normal pulse
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Straining/painful urination
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Incontinence
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A perfectly "slient abdomen" is uncommon. What do you do?
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You must listen for 5 minutes by your watch before deciding bowel sounds are completely absent
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Cerebella function?
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Gait and Romberg test
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Trouble starting urine stream is what?
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Hesitancy
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What is the best way to prevent infection?
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Handwashing
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Numbing or tingling sensation?
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Paresthesia
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Order of assessing abdomen?
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Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
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What is abduction?
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Take away from midline of body
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Describe anal canal?
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3.8 cm long outlet of GI
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What is the Romberg test?
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Swaying when eyes are closed
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Scoliosis?
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Lateral curvature of thoracic and lumbar spine
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Enlargement of prostate?
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Benign prostate hypertrophy
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Loss of appetite, voluntary starvation
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Anorexia nervosa
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Heartburn
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Pyrosis
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Stomach growling
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Borborygmus
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RLQ
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Right Lower Quadrant
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Difficulty swallowing
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Dysphagia
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Loud, high pitched, rushing, tinkling sound
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Hyperactive sound
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Enlarged liver
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Hepatomegaly
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Fluid in the peritoneal
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Ascites
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Lineae albicantes
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Striae
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Vascular blowing type sound
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Bruits
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Absent Sound
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Hypoactive
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Occult Blood
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Melena
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Eructation
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Belching
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Blood in Emesis
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Hematemesis
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Abduction
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Moving body part away from the body
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Immobility of a joint
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Ankylosis
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Moving body part toward the body
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Adduction
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S shaped curvature of the throacic & lumbar spine
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Scoliosis
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Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder
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Circumduction
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Turning the forearm so that the palm is up
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Supination
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Straightening a limb at a joint
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extension
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Bending a limb at a joint
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flexion
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Moving sole of foot outward at ankle
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eversion
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Inability to perform coordinated movements
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Ataxia
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Absence of menstruation
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Amenorrhea
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hard painless nodules in uterine wall
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Fibroid
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Hematuria
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Red tinged or bloody urine
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Painful intercourse
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Dyspareunia
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Clitoria
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Small, elongated rectile tissue in the female
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Gardicil
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HPV vaccine
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Prolapse of rectum into vagina
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Rectocele
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STD characterized by purulent vaginal discharge
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Gonorrhea
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External genitalia of female
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Vulva
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Accessory organs of the uterus
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Adnexa
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Two or more pregnancies
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Multipara
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Abdominal cramping & pain without menstruation
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Dysmenorrhea
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Onset of first menstruation
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Menarche
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Prolapse of urinary bladder into the vagina
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Cystocele
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Painful urination
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Dysuria
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Inflammation of vagina
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Vaginitis
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Ongoing disorder that causes inflammation of the GI tract
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Crohn's disease
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Pyloric stenosis is defined as a(n):
A. abnormal enlargement of the pyloric sphincter. B. inflammation of the pyloric sphincter. C. congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. D. None of the above |
Congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter
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Ascites is defined as:
A. a bowel obstruction. B. a proximal part of the large intestine. C. an abnormal enlargement of the spleen. D. an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity. |
An abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity
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Moles:
A. are common on the abdomen. B. are uncommon on the abdomen. C. always require a biopsy. D. are no cause for concern. |
are common on the abdomen
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The right upper quadrant of the abdomen contains which of the following organs?
A. Spleen B. Liver C. Cecum D. Left ureter |
Liver
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Which of the following refers to the four layers of large, flat abdominal muscles?
A. Linea alba B. Rectus abdominus C. Ventral abdominal wall D. None of the above |
Ventral abdominal wall
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Pyrosis is defined as:
A. an inflammation of the peritoneum. B. a burning sensation in the upper abdomen. C. a congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. D. an abnormally sunken abdominal wall. |
a burning sensation in the upper abdomen
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The abdomen normally moves when breathing until the age of ____ years.
A. 4 B. 7 C. 14 D. 75 |
7
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Which is true for aging adults?
A. Decreased salivation leads to dry mouth. B. Gastric acid secretion increases. C. Liver size increases. D. None of the above |
Decreased salivation leads to dry mouth
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In which of the following ethnic groups would you expect to see the lowest incidence of osteoporosis?
A. Blacks B. Whites C. Asians D. American Indians |
Blacks
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Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are hard and nontender and are associated with:
A. osteoarthritis. B. rheumatoid arthritis. C. Dupuytren's contracture. D. metacarpophalangeal bursitis. |
Osteoarthritis
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The divisions of the spinal vertebrae include which of the following?
A. Cervical, thoracic, and scaphoid B. Scapular, clavicular, and lumbar C. Thoracic, lumbar, and coccygeal D. Cervical, lumbar, and iliac |
Thoracic, lumbar, and coccygeal
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Which of the following muscles may be congenitally absent in certain individuals?
A. Palmaris shortus B. Palmaris longus C. Peroneus secondus D. Synovius membraneous |
Palmaris Longus
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When testing for muscle strength, the examiner does which of the following?
A. Observes muscles for the degree of contraction when the individual lifts a heavy object B. Applies an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension C. Measures the degree of force that it takes to overcome joint flexion or extension D. Measures the degree of flexion and extension with a goniometer |
Applies an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension.
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The knee joint is the articulation of three bones, the:
A. femur, fibula, and patella. B. femur, radius, and olecranon process. C. fibula, tibia, and patella. D. femur, tibia, and patella. |
femur, tibia, and patella
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When assessing an individual for the presence of a herniated nucleus pulposus, which of the following maneuvers would you ask the individual to perform?
A. Raise the legs straight while keeping the knee extended B. Bend over and attempt to touch the ground while keeping the legs straight C. Do a knee bend D. Abduct and adduct the legs while keeping the knee extended |
Raise the legs straight while keeping the knee extended
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Crepitation is an audible sound that is produced by:
A. roughened articular surfaces moving over each other. B. tendons or ligaments that slip over bones during motion. C. joints that are stretched when placed in hyperflexion or hyperextension. D. an inflamed bursa. |
roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.
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Bundles of muscle fibers that compose skeletal muscle are identified as:
A. fasciculi. B. fasciculations. C. ligaments. D. tendons. |
fasciculi
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Which of the following physiological processes takes place within the musculoskeletal system?
A. Hematopoiesis B. Hemolysis C. Hemoptysis D. Hemianopsia |
Hematopoiesis
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The musculoskeletal system provides which of the following functions to the human body?
A. Protection and storage B. Movement and elimination C. Storage and control D. Propulsion and preservation |
Protection and storage
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The extrapyramidal system is located in which of the following parts of the brain?
A. The hypothalamus B. The cerebellum C. The basal ganglia D. The medulla |
The basal ganglia
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Testing the deep tendon reflexes gives the examiner information regarding the intactness of the:
A. corticospinal tract. B. medulla. C. reflex arc at specific levels in the spinal cord. D. upper motor and lower motor neuron synaptic junction. |
Reflex arc at specific levels in the spinal cord
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An abnormal sensation of burning or tingling is best described as:
A. paralysis. B. paresis. C. paresthesia. D. paraphasia. |
Paresthesia
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Automatic associated movements of the body are under the control and regulation of:
A. the basal ganglia. B. the thalamus. C. the hypothalamus. D. Wernicke's area. |
the basal ganglia
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Involuntary muscle movements may be described by which of the following terms?
A. Ataxia B. Flaccidity C. Athetosis D. Vestibular |
Athetosis
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Clonus that may be seen when testing deep tendon reflexes is characterized by a(n):
A. additional contraction of the muscle that is of greater intensity than the first. B. set of rapid, rhythmic contractions of the same muscle. C. parallel response in the opposite extremity. D. contraction of the muscle that appears after the tendon is hit the second time. |
Set of rapid, rhythmic contractions of the same muscle
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The presence of primitive reflexes in a newborn infant is indicative of which of the following?
A. Immaturity of the nervous system B. Prematurity of the infant C. Mental retardation D. Spinal cord alterations (e.g., spina bifida) |
Immaturity of the nervous system
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Which of the following procedures is associated with testing cerebellar function?
A. Muscle strength B. Rapid alternating movements C. Rhomboid maneuver D. Superficial pain and touch |
Rapid alternating movements
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The complex motor system that coordinates movement, maintains equilibrium, and helps maintain posture is identified as the:
A. extrapyramidal system. B. cerebellum. C. upper and lower motor neurons. D. basal ganglia. |
Cerebellum
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During your assessment of extraocular movements, you note that there is some back-and-forth oscillation of the eyes in the extreme lateral gaze. Your impression of this response is:
A. the individual needs to be referred for a more complete eye examination. B. this is indicative of a disease of the vestibular system and needs further evaluation. C. this is an expected response during this examination and the expected movement of the eyes during this procedure. D. this examination should be repeated in about 15 minutes after the eyes have had time to rest to determine whether the same phenomenon occurs. |
This is an expected response during this examination and the expected movement of the eyes during this procedure.
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Which of the following pairs represents a type of reflex arc and its corresponding response?
A. Deep tendon—Babinski B. Superficial—abdominal C. Pathologic—knee jerk D. Visceral—corneal light reflex |
Superficial-abdominal
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An area of the body that is supplied mainly from one spinal segment through a particular spinal nerve is identified as a:
A. dermatome. B. dermatomee. C. dermatophyte. D. dermoblast. |
Dermatome
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The corona is:
A. a shoulder where the glans joins the shaft. B. a hood or flap of skin over the glans. C. a corpus spongiosum cone of erectile tissue. D. folds of thin skin on the scrotal wall. |
A shoulder where the glans joins the shaft
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Soft, pointed, fleshy papules that occur on the genitalia caused by HPV are known as:
A. chancres. B. condylomata acuminata. C. cystitis. D. varicoceles. |
Condylomata acuminata
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Orchitis is/are:
A. a meatus opening on the dorsal side of the glans or shaft. B. hard, subcutaneous plaques associated with painful bending of the erect penis. C. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes. D. an acute inflammation of the testes. |
An acute inflammation of the testes
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The ejaculatory duct is:
A. the joining of the vas deferens and the seminal vesicle. B. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis. C. a narrow tunnel inferior to the inguinal ligament. D. a narrow tunnel superior to the inguinal ligament. |
the joining of the vas deferens and the seminal vesicle
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The penis:
A. is composed of two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum. B. is composed of glans, shaft, and scrotum. C. contains the urethra, ejaculatory duct, and testes. D. All of the above |
is composed of two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum
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Acute inflammation of the testes is:
A. herpes progenitalis. B. priapism. C. orchitis. D. paraphimosis. |
Orchitis
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A retention cyst in the epididymis filled with milky fluid containing sperm is called a:
A. varicocele. B. spermatocele. C. Peyronie's disease. D. prepuce. |
Spermatocele
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The rugae:
A. is a corpus spongiosum cone of erectile tissue. B. is folds of thin skin of the scrotal wall. C. controls the size of the scrotum. D. is an acute inflammation of the testes. |
Is folds of thin skin of the scrotal wall.
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Which of the following conditions requires no further assessment?
A. "Anus moist, color darker than adjacent tissues. No lesions or discharge. Opening tightly closed." B. "Anal area dark pink, moist, with 0.5-cm shiny blue skin sac at 5 o'clock." C. "Anus with small retractable mass at 5 o'clock." D. All of the above |
Anus moist, color darker than adjacent tissues. No lesions or discharge. Opening tightly closed
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Urinary frequency commonly occurs with:
A. benign prostatic hypertrophy. B. prostatitis. C. prostate carcinoma. D. All of the above |
All of the above
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Pruritus is the presence of:
A. an itching or burning sensation in the skin. B. a longitudinal tear in the superficial mucosa at the anal margin. C. blood in the stool. D. excessive fat in the stool. |
An itching or burning sensation in the skin
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Long-term use of laxatives frequently leads to:
A. hemorrhoids. B. chronically inflamed gastrointestinal tract. C. dependence. D. fistula formation. |
Dependence
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Usually, toilet training is recommended:
A. after 2 years age of age. B. after nerves around the sphincter fully myelinate. C. when the child is ready. D. All of the above |
All of the above
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Prostate cancer affects approximately one in six men; prevalence is higher in some continents than others. Which continent has the lowest prevalence rate?
A. North America B. Australia C. Northwestern Europe D. Asia |
Asia
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The etiology of a pilonidal cyst is:
A. chronic use of laxatives. B. a tear in the superficial mucosa. C. a congenital disorder. D. trauma. |
A congenital disorder
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Which of the following is the most likely cause for an anorectal fistula?
A. A tear in the superficial mucosa B. Chronically inflamed gastrointestinal tract C. Trauma D. Chronic use of laxatives |
Chronically inflamed GI tract
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Hematuria is a term used for:
A. bloody discharge. B. blood in the urine. C. bleeding after intercourse. D. urine in the blood. |
Blood in the urine
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The most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the United States is:
A. gonorrhea. B. syphilis. C. chlamydia. D. HIV. |
Chlamydia
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Cessation of menses is known as:
A. menarche. B. menopause. C. salpingitis. D. adnexa. |
Menopause
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A deep recess formed by the peritoneum between the rectum and the cervix is called:
A. Chadwick's sign. B. a cystocele. C. a rectocele. D. a rectouterine pouch. |
A rectouterine pouch
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A caruncle is a(n):
A. vestibular gland located on either side of the vaginal orifice. B. small, red mass protruding from the urethral meatus. C. aberrant growth of endometrial tissue. D. hard, painless nodule in the uterine wall. |
Small, red mass protruding from the urethral meatus
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Adnexa is/are:
A. an absence of menstruation. B. uterine accessory organs. C. a membranous fold of tissue partly closing the vaginal orifice. D. painful intercourse. |
Uterine accessory organs
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Dysmenorrhea is a synonym for:
A. painful intercourse. B. bowel spasms with defecation. C. cramping with urination. D. abdominal cramping and pain associated with menstruation. |
Abdominal cramping and pain associated with menstruation
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Vaginal lubrication during intercourse is produced by:
A. Skene's glands. B. Bartholin's glands. C. sebaceous glands. D. None of the above |
Bartholin's glands
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Select the sequence of techniques used during an examiniation of the abdomen.
A. percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation B. inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation C. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation D. auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion |
inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
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Which of the following may be noted through inspection of the abdomen?
A. fluid waves and abdominal contour B. umbilical eversion and Murphy's sign C. Venous pattern, peristaltic waves, and abdominal contour D. peritoneal irritation, general tympany and peristaltic waves |
Venous patter, peristaltic waves, and abdominal contour
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Right upper quadrant tenderness may indicate pathology in the:
A. liver, pancreas, or ascending colon. B. liver and stomach C. sigmoid colon, spleen, or rectum D. appendix or ileocecal valve |
Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon.
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Hyperactive bowel sounds are:
A. high pitched. B. Rushing C. Tinkling D. all of the above |
All the above
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The absence of bowel sounds is established after listening for:
A. 1 full minute B. 3 full minutes C. 5 full minutes D. None of the above |
5 full minutes
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Auscultation of the abdomen may reveal bruits of the ____ arteries.
A. aortic, renal, iliac, and femoral B. jugular, aortic, carotid, and femoral C. pulmonic, aortic, and portal D. renal, iliac, internal jugular, and basilic |
Aortic, renal, iliac, and femoral
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The range of normal liver span in the right midclavicular line in the adult is.
A. 2-5 cm B. 4-8 cm C. 8-14 cm D. 6-12 cm |
6-12 cm
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The left upper quadrant (LUQ) contains the:
A. Liver B. Appendix C. Left Ovary D. Spleen |
Spleen
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Striae, which occurs when the elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the skin are broken following rapid or prolonged stretching, have a distinct color when of long duration. This color is:
A. pink B. blue C. purple-blue D. silvery white |
Silvery White
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Auscultation of the abdomen is begun in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) because:
A. bowel sounds are always normally present here. B. peristalsis through the descending colon is usually active C. this is the location of the pyloric sphincter D. vascular sounds are best heard in this area. |
Bowel sounds are always normally present here.
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A dull percussion note forward of the left midaxillary line is:
A. normal, an expected finding B. expected between the 8th & 12th ribs C. found is the examination follows a large meal D. indicative of splenic enlargement |
Indicative of splenic enlargement
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Shifting dullness is a test for:
A. Ascites B. Splenic Enlargement C. Inflammation of the kidney D. hepatomegaly |
Ascites
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Tenderness during abdominal palpation is expected when palpating:
A. the liver edge B. the spleen C. the sigmoid colon D. the kidneys |
The Sigmoid Colon
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Murphy's sign is best described as:
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Pain felt when taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approximate location of the inflamed gallbladder.
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During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:
A. adduct and extend B. Supinate, evert, and retract C. Extend, adduct, invert, and rotate D. Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate. |
Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
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Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:
A. scapula and clavicle B. radius and ulna C. patella and condyle of fibula D. femur and acetabulum |
Radius and Ulna
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Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:
A. Medial and lateral menisci B. Patellar tendon and ligament C. Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle D. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments |
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
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The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determing the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:
A. be worse in the morning B. be worse later in the day C. be worse in the morning after improve during the day D. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat. |
Occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat.
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Examination of the shoulder includes four motions. These are:
A. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation B. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination C. circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation D. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction |
forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation
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During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:
A. adduct and extend B. Supinate, evert, and retract C. Extend, adduct, invert, and rotate D. Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate. |
Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
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Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:
A. scapula and clavicle B. radius and ulna C. patella and condyle of fibula D. femur and acetabulum |
Radius and Ulna
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Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:
A. Medial and lateral menisci B. Patellar tendon and ligament C. Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle D. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments |
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
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During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:
A. adduct and extend B. Supinate, evert, and retract C. Extend, adduct, invert, and rotate D. Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate. |
Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
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The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determing the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:
A. be worse in the morning B. be worse later in the day C. be worse in the morning after improve during the day D. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat. |
Occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat.
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Examination of the shoulder includes four motions. These are:
A. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation B. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination C. circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation D. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction |
forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation
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Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:
A. scapula and clavicle B. radius and ulna C. patella and condyle of fibula D. femur and acetabulum |
Radius and Ulna
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Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:
A. Medial and lateral menisci B. Patellar tendon and ligament C. Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle D. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments |
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
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The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determing the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:
A. be worse in the morning B. be worse later in the day C. be worse in the morning after improve during the day D. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat. |
Occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat.
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Examination of the shoulder includes four motions. These are:
A. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation B. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination C. circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation D. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction |
forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation
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During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:
A. adduct and extend B. Supinate, evert, and retract C. Extend, adduct, invert, and rotate D. Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate. |
Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
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Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:
A. scapula and clavicle B. radius and ulna C. patella and condyle of fibula D. femur and acetabulum |
Radius and Ulna
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Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:
A. Medial and lateral menisci B. Patellar tendon and ligament C. Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle D. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments |
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
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During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:
A. adduct and extend B. Supinate, evert, and retract C. Extend, adduct, invert, and rotate D. Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate. |
Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
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The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determing the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:
A. be worse in the morning B. be worse later in the day C. be worse in the morning after improve during the day D. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat. |
Occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat.
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Examination of the shoulder includes four motions. These are:
A. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation B. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination C. circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation D. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction |
forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation
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Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:
A. scapula and clavicle B. radius and ulna C. patella and condyle of fibula D. femur and acetabulum |
Radius and Ulna
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Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:
A. Medial and lateral menisci B. Patellar tendon and ligament C. Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle D. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments |
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
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The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determing the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:
A. be worse in the morning B. be worse later in the day C. be worse in the morning after improve during the day D. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat. |
Occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat.
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Examination of the shoulder includes four motions. These are:
A. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation B. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination C. circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation D. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction |
forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation
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Examination of the shoulder includes four motions. These are:
A. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation. B. Abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination C. circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation D. elevation, retraction, protraction and circumduction |
Forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction and external rotation
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The bulge sign is a test for:
A. swelling in the suprapatellar pouch B. carpal tunnel syndrom C. Heberden's nodes D. Olecranon bursa inflammation |
Swelling in the suprapatellar pouch
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The examiner is going to measure the patient's legs for length discrepancy. The normal finding would be:
A. no difference in measurements B. 0.5 cm difference C. Within 1 cm of each other D. 2 cm difference |
Within 1 cm of each other
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Turning the forearm so that the palm is up
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Supination
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Bending a limb at a joint
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Flexion
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Lowering a body part
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Depression
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Turning the forearm so that the palm is down
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Pronation
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Straightening a limb at a joint
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Extension
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Raising a body part
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Elevation
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Moving a limb away from the midline of the body
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Abduction
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Moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground
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Retraction
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Moving a limb toward the midline of the body
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Adduction
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Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle
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Eversion
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Moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground
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Protraction
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Moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle
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Inversion
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Moving the head around a central axis
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Rotation
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The medical record indicates that a person has an injury to Broca's area. When meeting this person you expect:
A. Difficulty speaking B. Receptive aphasia C. Visual disturbances D. Emotional lability |
Difficulty speaking
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The control of body temperature is located in:
A. Wernicke's area B. The thalamus C. The cerebellum D. The hypothalamus |
The Hypothalamus
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To test for sterognosis, you would:
A. have the person close his or her eyes, then raise the person's arm and ask the person to describe its location B. touch the person with a tuning fork C. place a coin in the person's hand and ask him or her to identify it. D. touch the person with a cold object |
Place a coin in the person's hand and ask him or her to identify it.
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During the examination of an infant, use a cotton tipped applicator to stimulate the anal sphincter. The absence of a response suggests a lesion of:
A. L2 B. T12 C. S2 D. C5 |
S2
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During a neurologic examination, the tendon reflex fails to appear. Before striking the tendon again, the examiner might use the technique of:
A. two point discrimination B. Reinforcement C. Vibration D. Graphesthesia |
Reinforcement
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Cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following tests?
A. Muscle size and strength B. Cranial nerve examination C. Coordination - hop on one foot D. Spinothalamic Test |
Coordination - hop on one foot
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To elicit a Babinski reflex:
A. gently tap the Achilles tendon B. stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball. C. Present a noxious odor to a person D. Observe the person walking heel to toe |
Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball
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A positive Babinski sign is:
A. dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes. B. plantar flexion of the big toe with a fanning of all toes C. the expected response in healthy adults D. Withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus |
Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
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The cremasteric response:
A. is positive when disease of the pyramidal tract is present B. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh C. is a reflex of the receptors in the muscles of the abdomen D. is not a valid neurologic examination |
Is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
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Senile tremors may resemble parkinsonism, except that senile tremors do not include:
A. nodding the head as if responding yes or no B. Rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement C. tremor of the hands D. tongue protrusion |
Rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
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People who have Parkinson's disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech?
A. a garbled manner B. loud, urgent C. slow, monotonous D. word confusion |
Slow, Monotonous
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Cranial Nerve __: Movement of the tongue
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Cranial Nerve XII: Hypoglossal
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Cranial Nerve __: Vision
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II - Optic
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Cranial Nerve __: Lateral Movement of the eyes
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Cranial Nerve VI: Abducens
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Cranial Nerve ___: Hearing and equilibrium
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Cranial Nerve VIII: Acoustic
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Cranial Nerve __: Talking, swallowing, carotid sinus, and carotid reflex
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Cranial Nerve X: Vagus
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Cranial Nerve __: Smell
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Cranial Nerve I: Olfactory
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Cranial Nerve __: Motor - Extraocular movement, opening of eyelids; pupil constriction
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Cranial Nerve III: Oculomotor
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Cranial Nerve __: Mastication and sensation of face, scalp, cornea. Lateral movement of eye
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Cranial Nerve V: Trigeminal
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Cranial Nerve ___: phonation, swallowing, taste posterior third of tongue
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Cranial Nerve IX: Glossopharyngeal
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Cranial Nerve __: Movement of trapezius and sternomastoid mucles
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Cranial Nerve XI: Spinal
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Cranial Nerve __: down and inward movement of the eye
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Cranial Nerve IV: Trochlear
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Cranial Nerve __: Facial muscles, close eyes, labial speech, taste
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Cranial Neve VII: Facial
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Red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge that is a sign of syphilis
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Chancre
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Undescended testes
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Cryptorchidism
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Inflammation of the urinary bladder.
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Cystitis
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Structure composed of coiled ducts located over the superior and posterior surface of the testes, which stores sperm
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Epididymis
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Weak spot in abdominal muscle wall through which a loop of bowel may protrude
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Hernia
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A sexually transmitted disease characterized by cluster of small painful vesicles, caused by a virus
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Herpes Genitalis
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Acute inflammation of testis, usually associated with mumps
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Orchitis
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(Foreskin) the hood or flap of skin over the glans penis that often is removed surgically after birth by circumcision
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Prepuce
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Duct carrying sperm from the epididymis through the abdomen and then into the urethra
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Vas deferens
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Vaginal lubrication is provided during intercourse by:
A. the labia minora B. Sebaceous follicles C. Skene's glands D. Bartholin's glands |
Bartholin's glands
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A young woman has come for her first gynecologic examination. Because the patient has not had any children, the examiner would expect the cervical os to appear:
A. Smooth and circular B. irregular and slit-like C. Irregular and circular D. Smooth and enlarged |
Smooth and Circular
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A woman has come for an examination because of a missed menstrual period and a positive home pregnancy test. Examination reveals a cervix that appears cyanotic. This is referred to as:
A. Goodell's sign B. Hegar's sign C. Tanner's sign D. Chadwick's sign |
Chadwick's Sign
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For a woman, history of her mother's health during pregnancy is important. A medication that requires frequent follow-up is:
A. corticosteriod B. Theophylline C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Aminoglycoside |
Diethylstilbestrol
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A woman has come for health care complaining of thick, white discharge with intense itching. These symptoms are suggestive of:
A. Atrophic Vaginitis B. Trichomoniasis C. Chlamydia D. Candidiasis |
Candidiasis
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To prepare the vaginal speculum for insertion, the examiner:
A. lubricates it with water-soluble lubricant B. lubricates it with petrolatum C. warms it under the light, then inserts it into the vagina D. Lubricates it with warm water |
Lubricates it with warm water
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Before withdrawing the speculum, the examiner swabs the cervix with a swab soaked in acetic acid. This examination is done to assess for:
A. herpes B. Contact Dermatitis C. Human Papillomavirus D. Carcinoma |
Human Papillomavirus
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Select the best description of the uterus.
A. Anteverted, round asymmetrical organ B. pear-shaped, thick walled organ flattened anteroposteriorly C. retroverted, almond shaped asymmetrical organ D. midposition, thick walled oval organ |
Pear shaped, thick walled organ flattened anteroposteriorly
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In placing a finger on either side of the cervix and moving it side to side, you are assessing:
A. the diameter of the fallopian tube B. cervical motion tenderness C. the ovaries D. the uterus |
Cervical motion tenderness
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Which of the following is (are)_ normal, common find(s) on inspection and palpation of the vulva and perineum?
A. labia majora that are wide apart and gaping B. palpable Bartholin's glands C. Clear, thin discharge from paraurethral glands D. bulging at introitus during Valsalva maneuver |
Labia majora that are wide apart and gaping
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Which of the following is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease in the United States?
A. Chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. Trichomoniasis D. syphilis E. bacterial vaginosis |
Chlamydia
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What quadrant is the stomach in?
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Left Upper Quadrant
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Inside the abdominal cavity, all the internal organs are called the:
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Viscera
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The solid viscera are those that maintain a characteristic shape which include:
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liver, pancreas, spleen, adrenal glands, kidneys, ovaries and uterus
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The shape of hollow viscera depends on the contents which include all the following except:
Stomach, Gallbladder, Spleen, small intestine, colon and bladder. |
Spleen
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What are the four quadrants of the abdominal wall:
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Right upper, left upper, right lower and left lower quadrants
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Which organ is not in the right upper quadrant?
Liver Stomach Duodenum Gallbladder |
Stomach
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Which organ is not in the left upper Quadrant?
Gallbladder Spleen Stomach Left lobe of liver |
Gallbladder
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What quadrant is the appendix located in?
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Right lower Quadrant
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Which quadrant is the Sigmoid Colon located in?
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Left Lower Quadrant
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Aorta, Uterus and Bladder are located:
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Midline
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Black stools may be tarry due to what from the gastrointestinal bleeding?
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Occult blood
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