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522 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Define "hazardous material"
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a substance (product or chemical) that poses an unreasonable risk to people, environment, and property
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Who sets training and equipment standards for hazmat first responders?
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OSHA (federal).
Training and equipment standards are delineated in OSHA Title 29 CFR 1910 |
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What agencies other than OSHA participate in regulating hazardous materials responses?
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Environmental Protection Agency
Department of Justice (re: WMD) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) |
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What are the levels of Hazmat First Responder training?
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Awareness: 8 hours
Operations: 24 hours Technician: 160 hours Specialist: 240 hours |
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What must hazmat responders know at the Operational level?
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how to respond to hazamat incidents to protect individuals, environment, and property in a defensive manner.
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What are primary responsibilities of a hazmat responder at the operational level?
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• Recognize presence of haz mat
• ID specific contaminant • Establish scene control and defensive action plan • Protect self, others, environment, and property per SOPs and resource guides |
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Which mode of material transportation is most regulated for hazmat?
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waterways
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Hazardous materials in what physical state are of most concern to responders?
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Hazardous materials in their gaseous state, as gases are hardest to contain and control. This is why fire is such a big concern: it increases the hazard by changing solids and liquids to gases.
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Aside from physical state, what factors are most significant to first responders?
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The material and the quantity
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Flash Point is a key property of hazardous materials.
What is the "flash point"? |
The flash point is the minimum temp at which a liquid will give off enough vapor to ignite with air, but not enough to sustain combustion.
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Gases don't have a flash point. TRUE or FALSE?
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True. They're already in vapor form and ready to burn.
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What makes gasoline so dangerous?
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It has a flash point of -45°F, and will sustain combustion at -40°F to -35°F.
Moreover, it's boiling point is 100° - 104°F, which is the ambient temp in some places during the summer. When it boils, it expands, and can cause container failure. |
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The Flammable Range is a key property of hazardous materials.
Define "flammable range" |
The range of percentages of a particular gas in air in which the gas will burn or explode if ignited. The bottom of the range is the Lower Explosive Limit and the top of the range is the Upper Explosive Limit.
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What is the Lower Explosive Limit of a particular gas?
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The lowest concentration of that gas, in air, that will produce a fire if ignited.
If the concentration is less than the LEL, the atmosphere is too LEAN to burn. |
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What is the Upper Explosive Limit of a particular gas?
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The highest concentration of that gas, in air, that will produce a fire if ignited.
If the concentration is greater than the UEL, the atmosphere is too RICH to burn. |
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Which of the following gases has the greatest flammable range?
Gasoline Hydrogen Acetylene |
Acetylene
Gas 1.4% to 7.6% Hydrogen 4.0% to 75% Acetylene 2.5% to 100% |
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The wider the flammable range, the more volatile (and potentially dangerous) a substance is. TRUE or FALSE
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True
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Vapor Pressure is a key property of hazardous materials.
Define "vapor pressure" |
Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by vapors released by a liquid. The higher the vapor pressure, the easier a substance evaporates.
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Which of the following substances exerts the most vapor pressure?
acetone, chlorine, motor oil, sarin |
chlorine. (hard to contain!)
motor oil .01 mmHg sarin 2.1 mmHg acetone 180 mmHg chlorine 5168 mmHg |
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Boiling point is a key property of hazardous materials.
Define "boiling point" |
The boiling point is the temp at which a liquid changes to a gas.
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What is the danger posed by hazardous materials that have a low boiling point?
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When the liquid boils, it expands, and can cause its container to fail catastrophically. This is known as a BLEVE: boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion
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Vapor Density is a key property of hazardous materials
Define "vapor density" |
Vapor density is the weight of a gas compared to air. Air has a vapor density of 1. Gases with VP < 1 are lighter than air; gases with a VP > 1 are heavier than air.
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Does methane gas rise or sink when released into the air?
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It rises. Methane has a vapor density of .55
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Does chlorine gas rise or sink when released into the air?
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It sinks. Chlorine has a vapor density of 2.5
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Why does vapor density matter to hazmat operational responders?
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It indicates where to monitor for the gas: above the leak or source, or at ground level.
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Solubility is a key property of hazardous materials.
Define "solubility" |
Solubility indicates how readily a material dissolves in water, and is measured by percentage.
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What is another term for solubility?
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miscibility
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How soluble are hydrocarbons?
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Hydrocarbons, such as gasoline and diesel, are not soluble, and float on water.
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What are polar solvents?
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Polar solvents are materials that are soluble in water; they mix rather than float or sink.
Alcohol and methanol are examples. |
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Specific Gravity is a key property of hazardous materials.
Define "specific gravity" |
Specific gravity is the weight of a liquid as compared to water. Water has a specific gravity of 1. Materials with a SG < 1 float; materials with a SG > 1 sink.
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Methylene chloride has a specific gravity of 1.33. Does it sink or float in water?
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It sinks.
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Gasoline has a specific gravity of .6
Does it sink or float in water? |
It floats
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Reactivity is a key property of hazardous materials.
Define "reactivity" |
Reactivity is the ability of one material to have a vigorous chemical reaction when combined with another material.
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The reactivity of substances with ____ or ______ are of particular concern to hazmat operational responders
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The reactivity of substances with air or water are of particular concern to hazmat operational responders. For example, there are petroleum products that ignite spontaneously when combined with an oxidizer (such as air).
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The hazards posed by hazardous materials can be broken into two general categories. Those categories are?
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Health hazards - endanger health once the contaminant contacts body: poisons, corrosives, diseases
Physical - heat or radioactivity |
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The National Fire Academy came up with an acronym to delineate the various types of hazards that hazardous materials pose, TRACEM. What do the letters stand for?
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T = thermal
R = radiological A = asphyxiant C = chemical E = etiological M = mechanical |
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Thermal hazards can be caused by either extremely cold or extremely hot hazardous materials. TRUE or FALSE?
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True.
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Gases that turn to liquid at or below -130°F are, by definition, __________.
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cryogenic
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What is/are the thermal hazard(s) posed by cryogenic materials, such as liquified oxygen or liquified natural gas?
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They can freeze skin instantly. They vaporize rapidly, creating a large cloud, and are very flammable.
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A hazardous material that poses a thermal hazard may also pose other hazards. For instance, fluorine is cryogenic and...
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corrosive, poisonous, and reactive
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According to Dept of Transportation, materials that pose a thermal hazard are liquids above ______°F, and solids above ___°F
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DOT designates the following as thermal hazards:
liquids > 212°F solids > 464°F |
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Material that poses explosive and radiological hazards, also poses _______ hazards.
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thermal
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Where might hazmat operational responders expect to find radiological hazards?
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• medical and research facilities
• industrial facilities • nuclear power facilities |
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Ionizing radiation is the most harmful kind of radiation. Why?
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Because it physically alters atoms within human tissue, interfering with their normal functioning
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What are the three types of ionizing radiation?
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alpha, beta, gamma
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What type of radiation has the following characteristics?
loses energy rapidly, doesn't travel far, usually blocked by human skin, very harmful if ingested or inhaled |
alpha
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What type of radiation has the following characteristics?
can travel long distances, easily passes through human body, can penetrate thick materials |
gamma
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What type of radiation has the following characteristics?
travels 20 ft through air, stopped by thick clothing, penetrates human skin, very harmful if ingested or inhaled |
beta
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X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, like _____ radiation. However, X-rays have very low energy and do not penetrate far.
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gamma
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What units are used for measuring radiation?
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Roentgen (R)
Radiation Absorbed Dose (RAD) Roentgen Equivalent in Man (REM) also Milli-rem (MREM), 1/1000 of REM |
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1 RAD of gamma radiation is more damaging than 1 RAD of alpha. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. RAD measures absorption in humans, and gamma radiation passes through. By that measure, alpha radiation is more damaging
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What does the REM measure indicate?
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The radiation dose limits for humans. MREM is used for smaller dose measures. For reference, the average person is exposed to 360 MREM a year.
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The two main considerations in categorizing exposure to radiation are?
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How much?
How long? |
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What is an acute dose of radiation? What are its effects?
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An acute dose is exposure to a large dose for a short time. The body cannot repair damaged cells fast enough, and physical effects are noticeable.
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What is a chronic dose of radiation?
What are its effects? |
A chronic dose is exposure to a small amount over a long period of time. The body CAN repair affected cells and physical effects aren't noticeable. Workers at nuclear and medical facilities generally have been exposed to chronic doses of radiation.
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What is the most common precaution taken in shipping radiological materials?
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shipped in very small amounts
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What are the three key components of radiological protection strategies?
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Time, Distance, Shielding
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Describe the Time, Distance, Shielding concept behind radiological protection strategies.
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Limit time near source.
The further distance you are away, the less exposure you'll experience. Shielding behind thick materials can prevent penetration and exposure: concrete and lead, for instance. |
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What are the two types of Asphyxiation hazards?
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Simple and chemical
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How do simple asphyxiation hazards endanger responders?
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Simple asphyxiation hazards are gases that displace oxygen in the environment; acetylene, nitrogen, and methane, for example. Responders must have supplied oxygen to breathe.
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What are chemical asphyxiation hazards?
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Chemical asphyxiation hazards are gases that prohibit body from using oxygen at a molecular level. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide are two such instances.
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Chemical Hazards are broken into two broad categories. Name them.
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Local Effect
Systemic Effect |
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Describe local effect chemical hazards
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They affect the single area that they contact, generally skin and mucous membranes. Sulfuric acid that burns skin or ammonia that irritates mucous membranes are two examples.
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Describe systemic effect chemical hazards.
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These have body-wide effects, including causing seizures and cardiac arrest. Such contaminants are often absorbed into skin or blood. Examples include pesticides.
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What are the routes of entry for chemical hazards?
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Inhalation
Ingestion Contact Absorption |
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Hazmat PPE prevents contaminants from entering body by inhalation by providing
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Respiratory protection
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When a hazardous material presents an inhalation threat, what type of protection is required?
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Respiratory protection
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In order to prevent against the direct contact route of entry for chemical hazards, what PPE is required?
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A protective top layer.
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Some of the major categories of toxic substances include...? Name 5.
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Irritants
Convulsants Corrosives Carcinogens Mutagens |
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What are the toxic health effects of irritants?
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Cause inflammation to eyes, skin, and respiratory system
ex: Xylene |
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What are the toxic health effects of convulsants?
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Cause uncontrollable muscle contractions
ex: Phosphine |
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What are the toxic health effects of corrosives?
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Destroy or burn living tissue
ex: sulfuric acid |
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What are the toxic health effects of carcinogens?
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Cause cancer in organs throughout body.
ex: polyvinyl chloride (PVC) |
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What are the toxic health effects of mutagens?
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They alter the DNA of a cell
ex: aluminum chloride |
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define Lethal Dose (LD).
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A lethal dose is the minimum amount of solid or liquid that when ingested, absorbed or injected through the skin, will kill.
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define Median Lethal Dose (LD50)
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The median lethal dose is a statistically derived single dose that can be expected to cause death in 50% of animals when administered orally.
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Common symptoms of chemical exposure include:
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unconsciousness, confusion, dizziness, lightheadedness, blurred vision, coughing; burning eyes, nose, and/or throat; numbness of hands/feet, loss of coordination, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, headache
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What are etiological hazards?
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Hazards caused by micro-organisms. Examples include biological weapons such as anthrax and cultivated strains of small pox, and diseases, such as tuberculosis, AIDS, typhoid.
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Biological weapons are hard to produce and disseminate. TRUE or FALSE?
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True.
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Diseases are hazards that are easy to protect against. TRUE or FALSE?
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True.
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What are mechanical hazards?
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Explosions and burns caused by hazardous material reactions or container failure.
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A tank explosion is an example of a mechanical hazard. What are some of the particular effects of this hazard?
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metal parts fragment and become projectiles
fire or heat burns tissue blast wave damages tissue |
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Define contamination
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Transfer of hazardous materials to people, the environment, or equipment
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What are the two types of contamination?
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Primary and Secondary
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Describe primary contamination
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Primary contamination occurs in the hot zone through direct contact with hazardous material (could be in form of a vapor cloud, smoke, spray, etc.)
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Describe secondary contamination
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The spread of the contaminant outside of the hot zone, transferred by people, tools, air currents, or runoff
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By recognizing the presence of hazardous materials, first responders can avoid _______ contamination.
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primary
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By not walking or driving into hazardous liquids or a vapor cloud, responders are avoiding _________ contamination.
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primary
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First responders must maintain ___________ awareness to avoid contamination.
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situational
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One way to protect against contamination is to establish __________ _______.
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isolation zones
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What is decontamination?
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Removing hazardous materials to prevent the spread of contaminants
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Decreasing contamination to a level that is no longer harmful qualifies as decontamination. TRUE or FALSE?
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True.
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All personnel and equipment leaving the hot zone must be decontaminated. TRUE or FALSE?
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True.
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Once the hazard is recognized, what is the most important process for first responders to get started?
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Decontamination, to stop the spread.
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Decontamination must be performed by operational level personnel. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. Decon CAN be performed by operational level personnel, but may also be handled by technician level personnel or higher.
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Three factors that contribute to the complexity of a hazmat incident include:
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• size of event
• hazard • weather |
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Three basic principles of decontamination are:
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1) Get it off
2) Keep it off 3) Contain it |
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What is wet decontamination?
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Using water or another agent to wash the hazard off. Utilizes shower systems or hose streams, and when possible, provides for collection of the water used in the process.
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What is dry decontamination?
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Brushing, vacuuming, or scraping off the hazard. Removing and disposing of clothes. Generally employed when hazardous material is powder.
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What is physical decontamination?
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Removal of the hazardous material without changing it chemically.
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What is chemical decontamination?
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Using a chemical process to make the hazardous material less harmful.
ex: using bleach on an etiological material |
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Name three levels of decontamination
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Emergency
Mass Technical |
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Describe emergency decontamination
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• Quick removal of majority of hazmat, usually with copious amounts of water
• No time for formal decon corridor • Minimal equipment, reduces hazard quickly. Disadvantages: water not contained, and hazard not completely eliminated |
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What are emergency decontamination steps?
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Remove victim
Wash exposed parts Remove clothing Quickly wash |
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Describe technical decontamination
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Use of chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove contaminants.
Primarily performed on entry team personnel. Utilizes specialized equipment and tools. Very thorough and systematic. Runoff is contained. |
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Describe mass decontamination
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Decontamination of multiple people at a time.
Requires specialized tents and equipment. More technical than emergency decon. |
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Protective equipment and clothing must be worn if a _________ hazard exists.
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potential
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No single combination of protective clothing and respiratory protection works for all hazards. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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What are the EPA levels of protective equipment for hazmat incidents?
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A, B, C, and D
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NFPA levels of protective clothing and equipment include:
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structural firefighting, high-temperature, and chemical protective clothing
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An EPA level A hazmat suit includes...?
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A fully encapsulating suit with positive pressure SCBA
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When must a level A suit be worn at a hazmat incident?
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the hazard is unknown
breathing it in is a hazard absorption is a hazard |
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What are some of the drawbacks of wearing a level A suit?
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heat & humidity related issues
difficulty communicating visibility mobility |
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An EPA level B suit includes...?
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A hooded, splash-protective suit with positive-pressure SCBA; butyl gloves and boots are NOT attached to suit.
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An EPA level B suit provides what levels of respiratory and skin protection?
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Highest level of respiratory protection, but a lesser level of skin protection than a class A suit.
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An EPA level B suit is primarily used when the hazard involves unknown gases or vapors. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. It is used primarily against gases and vapors that are known.
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Which level of EPA hazmat suit is generally used by decon workers?
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a level B suit.
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A level B suit can be used when there are no absorption issues pertaining to the hazmat incident. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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What level of EPA hazmat suit would be made of Tyvec?
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a level C suit
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An EPA level C hazmat suit includes...?
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A hooded splash suit with an air-purifying respirator.
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What level of respiratory and absorption protection does an EPA level C suit provide?
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less respiratory protection than A & B,
less skin protection than A & B. |
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The use of a level C hazmat suit is precluded when the air is toxic or when it ... ?
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is oxygen-deficient
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What precaution must be taken periodically when level C hazmat suits are being used?
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the air must be monitored periodically to ensure that the oxygen levels are sufficient
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The hazard must be known when wearing certain levels of EPA hazmat suits. Which levels?
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B, C, and D
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EPA level D hazmat suits are worn only when ... ?
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No hazard exists
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What levels of respiratory and skin protection does an EPA level D hazmat suit provide?
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EPA level D suits provide no respiratory protection and minimal skin protection.
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What NFPA standard lists the three hazmat protective ensembles recognized by the association?
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NFPA 472
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Structural firefighting gear worn as hazmat protection includes...?
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turnout jacket and pants, gloves, boots, and SCBA
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Name some of the shortcomings of structural firefighting gear in terms of hazmat protection.
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NOT corrosive-resistant
NOT vapor tight soaks up liquids can be gaps at wrists, neck, ankles |
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When is structural FF gear appropriate at a hazmat incident?
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• contact w/ liquid hazmat unlikely
• area concentrations do not contain high levels of chems toxic to skin • fire protection is needed |
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Structural firefighting gear is only worn outside the hazmat hot zone. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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According to NFPA 472, what are the two types of high-temperature protective clothing?
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proximity suits
and fire entry suits |
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What is the capacity of a fire entry suit?
(Max temperature) |
2000°F
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High-temperature protective clothing is also effective against toxic liquids. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. It is used ONLY for thermal hazards.
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The NFPA's design criteria for chemical protective clothing is:
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designed for a
known degree of protection against a known concentration of a known hazard |
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What types of hazards does chemical protective clothing protect against?
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It's hazard-specific, but in particular ensembles can protect against chemical, physical, and biological hazards.
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NFPA conforming chemical protective clothing must be totally encapsulating. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. It depends on the hazard.
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According to the NFPA standard, what types of damage can make chemical protective clothing ineffective?
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permeation
degradation penetration |
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According to NFPA 472, manufacturers must provide what kind of documentation regarding permeation of chemical protective clothing by hazards?
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charts with "breakthrough times" that indicate how long before the chemical passes or soaks through the protective clothing.
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By picking the right chemical protective clothing (CPC) for the hazard, officers can maximize __________ ____.
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breakthrough time
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Chemical degradation of CPC occurs when ... ?
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the hazard alters the characteristics of the CPC's material, causing
• cracks • brittleness, • discoloration |
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Penetration damage to CPC occurs when the hazard enters through an opening, puncture, or seam. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. ...through an opening or puncture when the seams are sealed.
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One type of NFPA chemical protective clothing is Liquid Splash Clothing. It provides protection against splashes, but not gases. When paired with an SCBA, it is equivalent to what level of EPA hazmat suit?
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EPA level B suit
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Liquid Splash Protective Clothing is tested for __________ resistance from an NFPA list of commonly encountered hazards.
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permeation
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The NFPA specifies that Vapor Protective Clothing must be tested for permeation resistance against particular chemicals. How many?
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21
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Vapor Protective Clothing must meet standards for both chemical and flame resistance. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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Per NFPA, Vapor Protective Clothing must be totally encapsulating and worn with a/an ____.
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SCBA
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Vapor Protective Clothing that conforms to NFPA 472 is equivalent to what level of EPA hazmat suit?
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a level A suit
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Name some drawbacks to the use of Vapor Protective Clothing
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body heat issues, limited mobility, vision restricted, communication is difficult, and the time a responder can work is limited
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What types of hazards does respiratory protection work against?
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irritants
asphyxiants poisons toxins |
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What are the three broad types of respiratory protection?
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self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
supplied-air respirators (SARs) air-purifying respirators (APRs) |
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Surrounding air is totally excluded by an open-circuit SCBA. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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Identify some advantages of an SCBA
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• maneuverability
• can be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres |
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Identify some disadvantages of an SCBA
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• weight
• limited air supply • bulky profile • impairs vision • muffles communication |
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A positive-pressure SCBA provides the highest level of respiratory protection. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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Describe a closed-circuit SCBA
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Recycles user's exhaled air, filtering out CO2 and utilizing a small oxygen cylinder to supplement the return air.
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Identify some advantages of a closed-circuit SCBA
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Same maneuverability as with any SCBA and longer air supply time (can last 4 hours plus).
Great to use with a level A suit, as fogging and heat of exhaled air are limited. |
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Identify some disadvantages of a closed-circuit SCBA
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extremely expensive
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Describe a Supplied Air Respirator system
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• continuous air supply from hose and a remote source of air
• user attached to a hose, up to 300 ft. • small emergency air cylinder for emergency evacuation (Emergency Breathing Support System EBSS) |
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Supplied Air Respirators are often used with level A suits. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. Air hose leading to air supply can't penetrate suit.
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Supplied Air Respirators are often used for hazmat incidents in what kind of type of environment?
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confined space
airports |
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SARs used at hazmat or terrorist incidents must provide positive pressure to the facepiece. TRUE or FALSE?
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True.
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Describe an air purifying respirator (APR)
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An APR uses a contaminant-specific filter attached to a facemask to clean air as it is inhaled.
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Identify the three types of filters used with APRs
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particulate filters
gas filters combination filters |
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A Powered Air Purifying Respirator (PAPR) can be used in hazmat incidents where positive pressure SCBA are used. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. PAPRs do not provide positive pressure.
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Filters for APRs can be stored indefinitely and used when necessary. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. APR filters have a shelf life.
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Unlike APRs, PAPRs can be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres. TRUE or FALSE?
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False
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The hazard must be known before a responder uses an APR. TRUE or FALSE?
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True
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How much oxygen must be present in the atmosphere before an air purifying respirator can be used?
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19.5%
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During the anthrax scares, what type of respiratory protection was typically used at the incident scenes?
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Powered air-purifying respirators
(PAPRs) |
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What are three limitations to use of APRs?
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• filters have limited shelf life
• atmosphere must contain normal oxygen levels • atmosphere must be constantly monitored |
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Name 5 clues that hazardous materials may be involved at an incident.
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• occupancy type
• container shape • placards, labels, markings • senses • detection equipment |
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Operational level hazmat responders can most effectively identify hazardous materials are present by using monitoring equipment. TRUE or FALSE?
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False. Operations level responders do not use monitoring devices.
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How can firefighters most readily identify which occupancies have hazardous materials on site?
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By conducting pre-inspections. These need to be reviewed and updated to keep crews prepared.
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While some occupancies that contain hazardous materials are obvious, such as fuel storage facilities, paint stores, metal plating shops, etc., others are not. Name some less obvious occupancies.
|
dry cleaners, print shops, warehouses, and self-storage
|
|
|
Container shapes can confirm the presence of hazardous materials. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What are three general categories of containers?
|
fixed facility
pressure or nonpressure bulk |
|
|
Fixed facility containers can be above or below ground, and pressurized or nonpressurized. Name five types of above-ground nonpressurized tanks.
|
horizontal tanks, cone roof tanks, floating roof tanks, internal floating roof tanks, and lifter roof tanks
|
|
|
Fixed facility containers can be above or below ground, and pressurized or nonpressurized. What are below-ground nonpressurized tanks made of and what do they typically hold?
|
Made of steel or fiberglass; fill and venting pipes are near tank; commonly hold petroleum products. You'd find such tanks at gas stations.
|
|
|
What is the max pressure in psi for a nonpressurized fixed facility container?
|
≤ .5 psi
|
|
|
What is the pressure range allowed in an above-ground, low-pressure fixed facility container?
|
.5 to 15 psi
|
|
|
Above-ground, high-pressure fixed facility containers hold contents at above what pressure?
|
15 psi
|
|
|
What are the most common types of fixed facility above-ground pressure containers?
|
dome roof, horizontal, spheroid, spherical
|
|
|
Describe an above-ground, nonpressure horizontal fixed-facility tank.
|
• steel cylinder with flat ends
• generally painted white • commonly holds flammable or combustible liquids, corrosives, poisons, and a lot of other stuff. |
|
|
Describe an above-ground, nonpressure cone roof fixed-facility tank.
|
• steel construction
• weak roof to shell seams - fail when overpressurized • commonly holds flammable or combustible liquids, corrosives |
|
|
Describe an above-ground, nonpressure floating roof fixed-facility tank.
|
• roof floats on liquid, reduces vapor space
• roof rises and falls with level of liquid • rubber seal around roof to keep liquid in, weather out • commonly holds flammable and combustible liquids |
|
|
A dome roof fixed facility tank is nonpressurized, low pressure, or high pressure?
|
low pressure
|
|
|
What kind of materials would a dome roofed fixed facility tank typically hold?
|
flammable and combustible liquids or solvents
|
|
|
A spheroid fixed facility container is egg-shaped and generally on stilts. Is it a nonpressure, low-pressure, or high-pressure tank?
|
low-pressure, up to 15 psi
|
|
|
What is the upper capacity of a spheroid fixed facility container?
|
3 million gallons
|
|
|
A spheroid container commonly holds what?
|
liquid petroleum gas, methane, propane, gasoline, crude oil
|
|
|
A spherical fixed facility container is often supported off the ground. Is it a nonpressure, low-pressure, or high-pressure container?
|
high-pressure
|
|
|
What is the upper capacity of a spherical fixed facility container?
|
600,000 gallons
|
|
|
What does a spherical fixed facility container generally hold?
|
liquid petroleum gas
CNG chlorine |
|
|
What are some of the issues that make rail tank cars dangerous during bulk transport?
|
• connected to other tank cars that could contain anything
• large size and quantities in motion |
|
|
It is important that FFs recognize rail cars containing hazardous materials at the farthest distance possible away from the site. TRUE or FALSE
|
True
|
|
|
Name the three types of rail car containers used for bulk transport.
|
nonpressure tank cars
pressure tank cars cryogenic tank cars |
|
|
A cylindrical tank rail car with round ends and loading and unloading fittings on top or bottom is a nonpressure, pressure, or cryogenic rail car?
|
nonpressure
|
|
|
A cylindrical tank rail car is a nonpressure container. What is its pressure limit?
|
Must be < 25 psi
|
|
|
A nonpressure cylindrical rail car may have up to 8 separate compartments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. It can have up to 6 separate compartments with different capacities. Can be used to hold different grades of gasoline, for instance.
|
|
|
What do nonpressure cylindrical rail cars commonly hold?
|
flammable and combustible liquids
poisons corrosives flammable solids |
|
|
Pressure tank rail cars are designed to contain contents with pressures greater than ___ psi.
|
> 25 psi
|
|
|
The range of capacities of pressure tank rail cars is ...
|
4,000 to 45,000 gallons
|
|
|
What is the visible difference between a pressure tank rail car and a nonpressure tank rail car?
|
While both are cylindrical with rounded ends, a pressure tank rail car has a protective cover over the fittings while a nonpressure tank rail car does not. (Also, nonpressure can be loaded and unloaded from top or bottom, depending on design; pressure loads and unloads from top only).
|
|
|
The contents of a pressure tank rail car are contained in up to 6 separate compartments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. A pressure tank rail car has a single compartment.
A NONPRESSURE tank rail car may have up to 6 compartments. |
|
|
A pressure tank rail car typically carries ...
|
flammable liquids
poison gases |
|
|
Cryogenic rail tanks transport refrigerated liquids at what temperature?
|
less than or equal to -130° F
|
|
|
Cryogenic rail tanks transport refrigerated liquids at what level of pressure?
|
low pressure, < 25 psi
|
|
|
Describe the construction of a cryogenic rail tank.
|
Stainless steel inner tank, steel outer tank, insulation or vacuum between tanks. Fittings are in a protective cabinet.
|
|
|
How long can a cryogenic rail tank maintain the low temperature of its contents?
|
30 days
|
|
|
What types of liquids does a cryogenic liquid tank typically contain?
|
argon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, LNG, and ethylene
|
|
|
What do hopper railroad cars typically carry?
|
Dry bulk products
|
|
|
Describe a hopper (rail) car
|
Steel tank, tapererd bottom at both ends to help with offloading. Can be sectioned and may or may not be covered by a lid, depending on contents.
|
|
|
Cargo tank trucks transport hazardous materials over roadways. What characteristics of these cargo tanks provide an indication of what the contents may be?
|
Construction
Shape Fittings and Attachments |
|
|
A nonpressure liquid (cargo) tank is made of what material and has what shape?
|
made of aluminum (or steel, if its old), and has an elliptical (oval) shape.
|
|
|
What is the max capacity and max pressure of a nonpressure liquid (cargo) tank?
|
9,000 gallons
< 3 psi |
|
|
A nonpressure liquid (cargo) tank has multiple compartments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
Where are the valves located on a nonpressure liquid tank?
|
Bottom
|
|
|
What kinds of liquids does a nonpressure liquid (cargo) tank typically contain?
|
gasoline, fuel oil, alcohol, and other liquids, including food and nonhazardous liquids, but also including other flammable and combustible liquids
|
|
|
Describe the shape and construction of a low-pressure chemical tank (cargo).
|
round and constructed of steel with external stiffening rings
|
|
|
What is the max capacity and pressure of a low-pressure chemical tank (cargo)?
|
7,000 gallons
< 40 psi |
|
|
A low-pressure chemical tank (cargo) may have multiple compartments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What does a low-pressure chemical tank (cargo) typically transport?
|
flammable and/or combustible liquids, acids, caustics, and poisons
|
|
|
Describe the shape and construction of a corrosive liquids (cargo) tank
|
smaller diameter round steel tank with external stiffening rings
|
|
|
What is the max capacity and pressure of a corrosive liquids (cargo) tank?
|
7,000 gallons
75 psi |
|
|
What does a corrosive liquids (cargo) tank typically transport?
|
acids
|
|
|
A corrosive liquid (cargo) tank typically has a single compartment. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
Describe the shape and construction of a high-pressure (cargo) tank.
|
Steel tank with large rounded ends and protected piping at bottom, often painted white. (May be marked "Flammable Gas" or "Compressed Gas")
|
|
|
What is the max capacity and the pressure of a high-pressure (cargo) tank?
|
11,500 gallons
> 100 psi |
|
|
A high-pressure (cargo) tank may have multiple compartments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. A high-pressure (cargo) tank has a single steel compartment.
|
|
|
What does a high-pressure (cargo) tank typically transport?
|
propane, butane, anhydrous ammonia, and other gases that have been liquefied under pressure
|
|
|
Describe the shape and construction of a cryogenic liquid (cargo) tank
|
Large, round tank with flat ends.
Double-shell, well-insulated steel tank with loading and unloading valves enclosed in cabinet at rear. May be marked "Refrigerated Liquid" |
|
|
What is the max pressure in a cryogenic liquid (cargo) tank?
|
22 psi
|
|
|
What would a cryogenic liquid (cargo) tank typically transport?
|
Gases that have been liquefied by lowering their temperature. Most often nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen.
|
|
|
Describe the appearance and construction of a compressed gas tube trailer.
|
Several small diameter steel cylinders stacked and banded together with protected valves at rear.
|
|
|
At what pressure do the compressed gas cylinders of a compressed gas tube trailer maintain their contents?
|
3,000 to 5,000 psi
|
|
|
What specific gases does a compressed gas tube trailer typically transport?
|
air, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, helium, etc.
|
|
|
Describe the shape and construction of a dry bulk cargo tanker (truck)
|
Shapes vary, but it has hoppers.
(Often V- shaped tank with funnels at ends). |
|
|
A dry bulk cargo tanker may have contents under pressure, but typically does not. If there is pressure, it must be under ___ psi.
|
22 psi
|
|
|
What materials does a dry bulk cargo tanker typically carry?
|
calcium carbide, corrosives, fertilizers, cement
|
|
|
What is the most common type of intermodal tank?
|
Nonpressure intermodal tank
|
|
|
A nonpressure intermodal tank may have pressures of up to 100 psi. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True. IM-101 will have pressures of between 25.4 - 100 psi
|
|
|
What are the pressure ranges of the nonpressure intermodal tanks, IM-101 and IM-102?
|
IM-101, 25.4 - 100 psi
IM-102, 14.5 - 25.4 psi |
|
|
What do IM-102 nonpressure intermodal tanks typically transport?
|
alcohols, pesticides, resins
|
|
|
What do IM-101 nonpressure intermodal tanks typically transport?
|
Liquids and solids, both hazardous and nonhazardous. Pretty much anything but gases.
|
|
|
A pressure intermodal tank transports contents at what pressure range?
|
100 - 500 psi
|
|
|
What does a pressure intermodal tank typically transport?
|
Gases liquefied by pressure. Examples include LPG and anhydrous ammonia
|
|
|
What do cryogenic intermodal tanks typically transport? (Also termed "specialized intermodal tanks")
|
Gases liquefied by cold temperatures. Examples include argon, oxygen, helium.
|
|
|
What do tube module intermodal containers typically transport?
|
Gases in individual high-pressure cylinders (3,000 - 5,000 psi) mounted in the IM container frame.
|
|
|
What percentage of the world's cargo is transported by marine vessels?
|
90%
|
|
|
What are the two primary types of marine vessels that transport cargo?
|
tankers
cargo vessels |
|
|
What is a tanker (marine vessel)?
|
Vessel that exclusively carries liquid products in bulk.
|
|
|
Marine tankers most often transport three types of hazardous materials. They are ...
|
petroleum
chemicals liquefied flammable gas |
|
|
Petroleum carriers transport both crude and finished petroleum products. What are the ranges of their lengths and capacities?
|
200 - 1,200 feet long
15,000 to 3,680,000 barrel capacity |
|
|
Chemical carriers (marine vessels) are not common. How many are in use worldwide?
|
3,000
|
|
|
Chemical carriers (marine vessels) have multiple compartments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True. Generally from 30-60 separate tanks.
|
|
|
Chemical carriers are the least likely of marine vessels to lose their cargo. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
Chemical carriers (marine vessels) typically transport what types of products?
|
oils, solvents, gas
can transport multiple products on same vessel in separate tanks (30-60) |
|
|
A Liquefied Flammable Gas carrier (marine vessel) typically transports what types of gases?
|
Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG, or methane)
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG - propane or butane) |
|
|
What are some distinctive features of Liquified Flammable Gas carriers (marine vessels)?
|
• individual domes visible on the decks, • piping generally topside
• large, insulated tanks in different configurations, both internal and external |
|
|
Identify two types of cargo (marine) vessels.
|
Bulk carrier
Container vessel |
|
|
How can one readily identify a bulk cargo carrier (marine vessel)?
|
A bulk carrier will have cranes on deck to help with the loading and unloading of multiple holds.
|
|
|
What does a bulk cargo carrier (marine vessel) typically transport?
|
all kinds of liquid and dry goods, including iron ore, coal, or grain
|
|
|
How can one readily identify a container vessel (marine cargo vessel)?
|
By the stacks of intermodal and cargo containers on its decks.
|
|
|
How many containers can a container vessel carry?
|
As many as 10,000
|
|
|
What types of hazardous materials are transported on container vessels (marine cargo vessels)?
|
Every type of hazard.
|
|
|
Marine cargo vessels range in length from .... to .... feet.
|
500 - 900 feet
|
|
|
What is a Unit Loading Device?
|
aircraft containers used to transport materials, including hazardous materials.
|
|
|
What regulations must a Unit Loading Device conform to?
|
FAA and DOT
|
|
|
What is the limit of liquid hazmat that can be transported by non-bulk packaging?
|
119 gallons
|
|
|
What is the limit of solid hazmat that can be transported by non-bulk packaging?
|
882 lbs and 119 gallons
|
|
|
What is the limit of gas hazmat that can be transported by non-bulk packaging?
|
1000 lbs
|
|
|
Name some types of non-bulk packaging used to transport hazmat.
|
bags, carboys, cylinders, drums, radioactive containers
|
|
|
What types of hazardous materials may be transported in bags?
|
explosives, flammable solids, pesticides
|
|
|
Hazardous materials in bags are typically transported on pallets. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What types of hazardous materials may be transported in carboys (5-20 gallon containers made of glass or plastic)?
|
Primarily used to transport corrosive liquids.
(as well as nonhazardous materials) |
|
|
Cylinders are designed to transport what types of hazardous materials?
|
large volumes of gas under pressure
|
|
|
Gases transported in cylinders are under at least how much pressure?
|
≥ 40 psi
|
|
|
What is a safety feature built in to cylinders used for transporting gases?
|
All have pressure-releasing devices
|
|
|
What is the most common failure of a cylinder used to transport pressurized gases?
|
Brass valves can break
|
|
|
Drums made of metal, plastic, or wood are used to transport liquids and solids, both hazardous and nonhazardous. What are the capacities of these drums?
|
55 - 100 gallons
|
|
|
Radioactive material containers must conform to strict guidelines. Name the two broad categories for radioactive material containers, and what they contain.
|
Strong: contain low radioactive materials, and are made of wood or steel.
Excepted: containers that transport radioactive material that presents no risk to people or environment. May not be marked or placarded. |
|
|
There are two levels of industrial radioactive containers, Industrial A and Industrial B. What type of material does Industrial A transport, and what types of conditions must it withstand?
|
Industrial A containers transport materials that present a limited hazard, e.g., radioactive medical waste. Containers must withstand normal transportation conditions and accidents.
|
|
|
There are two levels of industrial radioactive containers, Industrial A and Industrial B. What type of material does Industrial B transport, and what types of conditions must it withstand?
|
Industrial B containers transport materials that present a major health risk, e.g., spent nuclear fuel rods. Containers must withstand severe accidents.
|
|
|
What are the size limits on Industrial B radioactive containers?
|
Up to 100 tons
|
|
|
The UN hazardous materials placard system was developed in what year, by what organization?
|
Developed in 1957 by the United Nations
|
|
|
What system is the basis for United States Dept of Transportation (DOT) classifications of hazardous materials?
|
UN
|
|
|
Hazard classes identify the material's ________ hazard.
|
primary
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 1 hazmat?
|
Explosives
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 2 hazmat?
|
Gases
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 3 hazmat?
|
Flammable Liquids
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 4 hazmat?
|
Flammable solids
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 5 hazmat?
|
Oxidizers
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 6 hazmat?
|
Toxins
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 7 hazmat?
|
Radioactive
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 8 hazmat?
|
Corrosives
|
|
|
What is DOT Class 9 hazmat?
|
Miscellaneous
|
|
|
What is the 4-digit number included within an orange rectangle?
|
The UN hazardous materials ID number
|
|
|
What is the 4-digit number often included in the center of a DOT placard?
|
The UN hazardous materials ID number
|
|
|
What is the purpose of US DOT placards?
|
To allow responders to ID material from a distance
|
|
|
DOT placards are diamond shaped, color-coded, and ID primary hazard by its class. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
Where is the hazard class located on a DOT placard?
|
In the bottom point of the diamond.
|
|
|
On what items must DOT placards be displayed?
|
On rail and cargo containers, portable tanks, and all bulk packaging
|
|
|
Placards for international shipments are what color?
|
Orange
|
|
|
DOT placards must be visible on at least 2 sides of a container. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. Must be visible on ALL 4 sides of a container.
|
|
|
How many subdivisions are there in the Explosives class?
|
6
|
|
|
Class 1.1 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Mass Explosion
ex: dynamite orange placard |
|
|
Class 1.2 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Explosive Hazard
ex: detonation cord orange placard |
|
|
Class 1.3 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Explosion with Fire Hazard
ex: smokeless powder orange placard |
|
|
Class 1.4 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Minor Explosive Hazard
ex: fireworks orange placard |
|
|
Class 1.5 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Insensitive Explosive Hazard
ex: ANFO orange placard |
|
|
Class 1.6 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Extremely Sensitive Explosive Hazard
ex: cellulose nitrate orange placard |
|
|
The Gases hazard class has how many subdivisions?
|
3
|
|
|
Class 2.1 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Flammable Gases
ex: propane or methane red placard |
|
|
Class 2.2 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Non-Flammable Gas
ex: carbon dioxide or helium green placard |
|
|
Class 2.3 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Poisonous Gas
ex: cyanide white placard with a skull and crossbones |
|
|
Class 2, Gases, has 3 subdivisions, as well as a gas that has its own placard, although not recognized as a subdivision. What gas is that and what color is the placard?
|
Oxygen.
The placard is yellow and required on containers that are transporting 1,001 lbs or more. |
|
|
What is a "flammable gas" according to the DOT criteria for hazard Class 2.1?
|
ignitable in mixture of ≤ 13% with air
|
|
|
Class 2.3 contains all gases known to be ____ to humans.
|
toxic
|
|
|
Class 3 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Flammable and Combustible Liquids
ex: gas, diesel, fuel oil red placard |
|
|
Class 4 has how many divisions?
|
3
|
|
|
Class 4.1 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Flammable Solids
ex: magnesium red and white vertical stripes |
|
|
Class 4.2 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Spontaneous Combustible
ex: phosphorous white over red |
|
|
Class 4.3 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Dangerous When Wet
ex: magnesium powder blue |
|
|
What is the difference between a flammable liquid and a combustible liquid, according to DOT definition?
|
A flammable liquid has a flash point of < 141°F
A combustible liquid has a flash point between 141°F and 200°F |
|
|
What characterizes a "spontaneous combustible"?
|
Produces heat when it comes in contact with air.
|
|
|
What characterizes a "dangerous when wet" hazard?
|
Flammable when it comes in contact with water.
|
|
|
The Oxidizer hazard class has how many divisions?
|
2
|
|
|
Class 5.1 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Oxidizer
ex: calcium permanganate |
|
|
Why is an oxidizer a hazard?
|
It can cause or enhance the combustion of another material
|
|
|
Class 5.2 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Organic Peroxide
ex: liquid organic peroxide red over yellow |
|
|
Why are organic peroxides a hazard?
|
These organic substances that contain two O atoms as part of their molecules, and like O2, can cause or enhance combustion
|
|
|
Why is an oxidizer a hazard?
|
It can cause or enhance the combustion of another material
|
|
|
Class 5.2 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Organic Peroxide
ex: liquid organic peroxide red over yellow |
|
|
Why are organic peroxides a hazard?
|
These organic substances that contain two O atoms as part of their molecules, and like O2, can cause or enhance combustion
|
|
|
The hazard class Poisons has how many divisions and how many subdivisions?
|
2 divisions and 3 subdivisions
|
|
|
Class 6.1 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Poisonous Materials
(non-gases known to be hazardous to humans) ex: arsenic, nerve agents, white placard (may or may not have skull and crossbones) |
|
|
Class 6.2 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Infectious Substance
ex: No placard; labels instead |
|
|
Class 6.1, Poisonous Materials, includes 3 subdivisions. What are they?
|
PG I - PG III.
|
|
|
There's a particular placard for materials that should be kept away from food. What word appears on that placard?
|
"Harmful"
|
|
|
Class 6.1, Poisonous Materials, includes a placard for a particular hazard caused by certain poisons. What words are on that placard?
|
"Inhalation Hazard"
|
|
|
Class 7 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Radiological.
ex: uranium hexafluoride Yellow over white placard, with trefoil symbol in yellow. |
|
|
Vehicles with a Class 7 placard must follow what restriction?
|
Because they are carrying radioactive material, they must follow prescribed and predetermined transportation routes.
|
|
|
Class 8 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Corrosive Materials
ex: sulfuric acid or sodium hydroxide White over black placard |
|
|
The word "corrosive" is defined by the DOT in terms of what effects?
|
Causes full thickness burns to skin at point of contact or has a severe corrosion rate on steel or aluminum
Its effects are primarily chemical and thermal |
|
|
Class 9 represents what type of hazard?
What color is its placard? |
Miscellaneous Hazards
Materials that cause extreme annoyance. ex: dry ice, blue asbestos Placard is black & white vertical stripes or white stripe through red, with words "Dangerous" in white |
|
|
How should a responder interpret multiple placards on a container?
|
The placard on the left indicates the primary hazard; those to the right are subsidiary hazards.
ex: anhydrous ammonia is flammable and toxic |
|
|
The "Dangerous" placard indicates what?
|
two or more DOT Chart 12, Table 2 categories of hazardous materials (< 1000 kg each) in nonbulk packaging being transported in a freight container, vehicle, or railcar.
|
|
|
DOT hazardous materials labels on non-bulk packaging provide the same info as vehicle placards. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
DOT hazardous material labels must be applied to all 4 sides of a package. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False.
|
|
|
DOT hazardous materials markings are included on preprinted boxes, rail tanks, and international IM (intermodal) tanks. What kind of information is on all of these?
|
Descriptive name, UN identification number, or specification.
|
|
|
How should a responder interpret multiple placards on a container?
|
The placard on the left indicates the primary hazard; those to the right are subsidiary hazards.
ex: anhydrous ammonia is flammable and toxic |
|
|
The "Dangerous" placard indicates what?
|
two or more DOT Chart 12, Table 2 categories of hazardous materials (< 1000 kg each) in nonbulk packaging being transported in a freight container, vehicle, or railcar.
|
|
|
DOT hazardous materials labels on non-bulk packaging provide the same info as vehicle placards. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
DOT hazardous material labels must be applied to all 4 sides of a package. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False.
|
|
|
DOT hazardous materials markings are included on preprinted boxes, rail tanks, and international IM (intermodal) tanks. What kind of information is on all of these?
|
Descriptive name, UN identification number, or specification. Also includes instructions, cautions, and UN markings
|
|
|
Rail tank markings include what info?
|
Initials and numbers (used to get info about contents from shipper)
Capacity - the volume of the tank Specification - the standards to which the tank was built |
|
|
Where are the initials and numbers stenciled on a rail car?
|
On both sides (to the left) and on both ends (upper center)
|
|
|
The initials and numbers stenciled on the railcar should match what?
|
The initials and numbers on the shipping papers.
|
|
|
Where is the capacity stenciled on a railcar?
|
On both ends, under the car's initials and number.
|
|
|
What is a synonymous term for "capacity"?
|
"load limit"
|
|
|
Where must the specification marking be stenciled on the railcar?
|
On both sides of the tank, to the right. Starts with the letters, DOT
|
|
|
How can DOT railcar markings be used with Emergency Responders Guide?
|
There's detailed info in the ERG Railcar ID chart
|
|
|
International intermodal tanks require initials and tank numbers in addition to DOT-required placards. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What NFPA standard provides a widely recognized method for indicating the presence of hazardous materials at fixed-storage facilities?
|
NFPA 704, Standard System for the Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency Response
|
|
|
What type of fixed-storage facilities utilize NFPA 704?
|
commercial, manufacturing, institutional, and others
|
|
|
Why is NFPA 704 used so widely?
|
It is commonly required by local ordinances.
|
|
|
What hazards is NFPA 704 designed to alert responders about?
|
Health, flammability, instability, and related hazards (specifically oxidizers and water-reactive materials) that may present as short-term acute exposures resulting from a fire, spill, or similar emergency.
|
|
|
The NFPA diamond contains 4 quadrants, each representing a hazard, each a different color. List the hazards and colors, from top, clockwise.
|
Flammability, red
Instability (or reactivity), yellow Special hazards (water reactivity or oxidizer), white Health hazards, blue |
|
|
The numbers in each quadrant represent the severity of the hazard of that quadrant's type. What is the number range, and what does each number mean?
|
0 - minimal hazard
1 - slight hazard 2 - moderate hazard 3 - serious hazard 4 - severe hazard |
|
|
What are two major limitations to the NFPA 704 system?
|
Doesn't indicate specific hazard, for example, the specific chemical that causes the hazard.
Doesn't tell where the hazard is located. |
|
|
In addition to DOT placards, name three other hazmat marking systems
|
NFPA 704
Military markings OSHA Hazmat Communication Standard |
|
|
What are the two symbols allowed in the NFPA 704 "Special Hazards" (white) quadrant?
|
W with a line through it, indicating water reactivity
Ox, for oxidizer |
|
|
What are some drawbacks for hazmat responders in interpreting military markings?
|
• Not uniform for all branches
• High-security facilities & containers may not have markings |
|
|
What are two types of written resources hazmat responders should ask for?
|
Shipping papers and/or material safety data sheets (MSDS)
|
|
|
What does MSDS stand for?
|
Material Safety Data Sheets
|
|
|
What are some other terms for "shipping papers"?
|
bill of lading
waybill manifest |
|
|
Shipping papers must accompany all hazmat shipments. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What information is required to be included in shipping papers?
|
• proper shipping name
• hazard class • packing group • quantity • often emergency contact info, such as CHEMTREC number |
|
|
Where are shipping papers located on a train?
|
engine or caboose
|
|
|
Where are shipping papers located for a truck shipment?
|
in the cab; must be within arm's reach
|
|
|
Where are shipping papers for an air shipment?
|
in the cockpit
|
|
|
Where are shipping papers for materials on a ship?
|
on the bridge or in the pilot house
|
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|
The information provided on a Material Safety Data Sheet has been compiled by the chemical industry group CHEMTREC. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. The manufacturer is required to provide the information.
|
|
|
MSDSs are required by law. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
Where are MSDSs stored?
|
Where the hazardous materials they apply to are stored.
|
|
|
What information must be included on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
|
hazardous ingredients
physical / chemical properties physical / health hazards precautions for safe handling first aid procedures control measures |
|
|
Who regulates Material Data Safety Sheets?
|
OSHA
|
|
|
OSHA requires that Material Data Safety Sheets be written in English. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What reference was designed for hazmat responders to be able to quickly identify a hazardous material and make initial decisions about how to mitigate its hazards?
|
The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
|
|
|
What organizations developed the Emergency Response Guidebook?
|
The US, Canadian, and Mexican Departments of Transportation
|
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the yellow section of the Emergency Resource Guide?
|
Lists hazardous materials by their UN number and directs user to appropriate spread in the Initial Action Guide (orange section)
|
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the blue section of the Emergency Resource Guide?
|
Lists hazardous materials alphabetically by name, and directs user to appropriate spread in the Initial Action Guide (orange section)
|
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the orange section of the Emergency Resource Guide?
|
To provide information on
Potential Hazards, Public Safety, and Emergency Response to guide decision-making of responders |
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the green section of the Emergency Resource Guide?
|
The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances tells responders how far away from the origin people must be in able to avoid the inhalation hazard posed by a material, based on the material and the size of the spill
|
|
|
What in the Emergency Resource Guide indicates that one should immediately consult the green section?
|
If an entry is highlighted in either the yellow section (UN ID numbers) or the blue section (material name), it indicates that the material is toxic by inhalation (TIH), and the responder should consult the green section for appropriate isolation and protective action distances.
|
|
|
What is CHEMTREC?
|
An emergency response center formed by the chemical industry to provide hazardous materials and chemical information during any emergency incident. It is staffed 24/7.
|
|
|
Name an emergency response center aside from CHEMTREC.
|
Info-Trac
|
|
|
What are the three incident priorities for all hazmat and terrorist incidents?
|
Life safety
Incident stabilization Protection of property |
|
|
How do tactical objectives relate to strategic goals?
|
Tactical objectives are specific operations that must be undertaken to accomplish strategic goals. (If the strategy is to go defensive, isolation and containment would be tactical objectives, for instance.)
|
|
|
What is the acronym for first responder initial priorities at a hazmat incident?
|
S.I.N.
Safety (of self, crew, public) Isolate hazard (contain, and deny entry) Notify (hazmat team, industry hazmat team, etc. Relay known facts and the actions you have taken) |
|
|
What are an operations level responder's primary tactical objectives?
|
Isolation, Notification, Identification, Protection, Spill control/confinement, Leak control/containment, Fire control, Recovery and termination.
|
|
|
Isolation is a primary strategic goal at a hazmat incident. What does it entail?
|
Establishing isolation perimeters and denying entry to unauthorized persons. Stopping potentially contaminated persons from leaving scene (until deconned), may also include evacuation
|
|
|
Isolation entails physically securing the scene by establishing what zones?
|
Isolation perimeter, hazard-control, and protective-action zones
|
|
|
What is the initial isolation distance, and how is it determined?
|
The circumference around the origin within which all persons should be evacuated. Determined by consulting the ERG.
|
|
|
The isolation perimeter is the boundary between the public and the ____ zone.
|
Cold
|
|
|
The initial isolation zone is the outer boundary of an incident, controlled to prevent entrance by unauthorized persons. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What are hazard-control zones?
|
Hot, Warm, and Cold zones, determined by the level of hazard present.
|
|
|
Operations level hazmat responders work in the hot zone. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. Only highly trained personnel, such as hazmat technicians, work in the hot zone.
|
|
|
In what hazard zone is the decon corridor located?
|
In the Warm zone.
|
|
|
In what hazard zone is staging located?
|
In the Cold zone.
|
|
|
In what hazard zone is the Command Post?
|
In the Cold zone.
|
|
|
The initial isolation zone is a circular zone with a radius equivalent to ...
|
the initial isolation distance, as specified in the Emergency Response Guidebook
|
|
|
What is the minimum initial isolation distance for a hazardous material according to the ERG?
|
100 feet
|
|
|
Everyone must be outside the Initial Isolation Zone. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. Everyone except responders.
|
|
|
What is the protective action distance, as defined by the Emergency Response Guidebook?
|
The downwind or downstream distance for which protective actions should be considered.
|
|
|
What is the Protective Action Zone?
|
An area immediately adjacent to and downwind from the initial isolation zone. It is as wide as the protective action distance.
|
|
|
The hot zone generally includes the Initial Isolation Zone and the Protective Action Zone. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
The Warm Zone is safe for workers to enter without PPE. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True, although generally workers wear one level less than responders in the hot zone. IC will determine what level of PPE is required.
|
|
|
What is the decon corridor?
|
Area where contaminated people, clothing, and equipment can be cleaned or secured.
Only path to and from the hot zone. |
|
|
The Cold Zone is completely free from hazard. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True.
|
|
|
What are some areas set up within the Cold Zone?
|
safe refuge, staging area, triage (of decontaminated victims), rehab area
|
|
|
Notification is a primary strategic goal.
Who should be informed, as appropriate to the incident? |
Emergency personnel: hazmat teams, both FD and industry; Dept of Public Health; law enforcement; federal agencies
Public: in immediate hazard area, in exposure buildings, in potential hazard area, and those who may be traveling to the area. |
|
|
What resources can be employed to notify public of a hazmat incident?
|
PA system
radio television |
|
|
Identification of the hazardous material is a primary strategic goal. It involves not only determining what hazardous materials are present, but also ...
|
the hazards associated with each.
|
|
|
Identification of the hazard helps responders develop strategy and _______s.
|
tactics
|
|
|
What resources are available to help responders identify hazardous materials?
|
preplanning
container shapes DOT or UN placards ERG CHEMTREC monitoring devices NFPA 704 placards shipping papers |
|
|
Protection is a primary strategic goal.
What is the overall purpose of protection? |
Ensuring the safety of responders and the public.
|
|
|
Protection is accomplished through what specific actions?
|
rescue
evacuation shelter in place wearing PPE decontamination runoff control |
|
|
What limitations hamper the operational level responders ability to take part in rescue efforts?
|
limited training, including training to use equipment necessary for entering the hot zone.
|
|
|
What must be established before rescue can be initiated?
|
Risk-Benefit analysis
hazard must be known Incident Action Plan must be in place |
|
|
Rescue considerations include ...
|
• nature of hazardous material
• incident severity • availability of appropriate PPE • availability of monitoring equipment • number of victims and condition (conscious?) • time needed, including safety margin • tools/equipment needed |
|
|
Evacuation is very labor intensive. This may determine whether people are removed from the hazard area or are directed to shelter in place. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What factors may determine whether people in the hazard zone or potential hazard zone are evacuated or directed to shelter in place?
|
• time limits based on labor available
• time limits based on speed of hazard spread (ex: vapor cloud) • area that must be evacuated per ERG • toxicity of hazard too great to risk exposure (ex: flammable gas) |
|
|
What steps must people be instructed to take when sheltering in place?
|
• go inside
• close all windows and doors • put wet towels at cracks • shut off heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) |
|
|
Spill control is a primary strategic goal.
What does spill control entail? |
Controlling product that HAS ALREADY been released, and minimizing amount of contact product makes with people, environment, property
|
|
|
What are the primary methods of spill control?
|
• absorption
• blanketing/covering • damming or diking • diversion • retention pools • vapor suppression |
|
|
How is absorption used for spill control?
What then becomes a consideration? |
An absorbent is spread directly on the hazardous material or where the material is expected to flow.
Absorbent material then becomes a hazardous material, and must be handled as such; including wearing PPE. |
|
|
What are ways of controlling flow of spilled liquid hazardous materials?
What then becomes a consideration? |
damming, diversion, and retention
materials used to dam, divert, or retain hazmat become hazmat, and must be handled as such, including wearing PPE. |
|
|
What do curbs, dikes, dams, and retention pools generally aim to keep from contamination?
|
waterways, including gutters, storm drains, sewers, and channels.
|
|
|
What are dams, dikes, and curbs made from?
|
• dirt or other materials on scene
• sand bags, booms, and other materials carried on emergency response vehicles |
|
|
How is vapor suppression accomplished at a hazmat incident?
|
These vapors are often flammable, and can often be suppressed through application of firefighting foam.
|
|
|
Leak control or containment is a primary strategic goal.
How is it different from spill control? |
Spill control deals with contents ALREADY RELEASED.
Leak control or containment deals with stopping or limiting hazard AT THE CONTAINER |
|
|
What are some methods of leak control?
|
• patching or plugging
• overpacking (one drum inside another) • product transfer • crimping • valve actuation (shutting it off) • pressure isolation and reduction • solidification |
|
|
The easiest and safest method of leak control is ...
|
remote valve shutoff (valve actuation)
|
|
|
Valve actuation is employed when the emergency shutoff is out of the hot zone. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True. Also known as "remote shutoff"
|
|
|
What type of hazmat transport often has emergency shutoff valves?
|
cargo trucks
|
|
|
Emergency shutoff can be employed with hazardous materials incidents where piping is involved. How do responders know where to find the shutoff valves in piping systems?
|
Preplanning
(or system owner or operator) |
|
|
Patching or plugging is which type of tactic, offensive or defensive?
|
offensive
|
|
|
What is overpacking?
|
Containing a leaking container within a larger intact container.
|
|
|
Overpacking requires specialized equipment and direct contact with the hazardous material. What type of tactic is it?
|
Offensive
|
|
|
Product transfer is also known as ...
|
offloading
|
|
|
Fire control is a primary strategic goal.
What are the two primary fire control methods employed at hazmat incidents? |
• exposure protection
• foam blanketing |
|
|
What does exposure protection seek to accomplish?
|
keeping nearby hazmat tanks from igniting
preventing BLEVE |
|
|
What volume of fire streams are used in exposure protection at hazmat incidents?
|
50-100 gpm
|
|
|
What are types of foam used at hazmat incidents?
|
• protein
• fluoroprotein • aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) • alcohol-resistant foam • high-expansion foam |
|
|
How do firefighters determine what type of foam to use on a particular hazardous material?
|
Emergency Response Guide indicates which is appropriate for each material
|
|
|
Foam must be _________ed and _______ed before it can be used.
|
proportioned and aerated
|
|
|
proportioning foam involves ...
|
mixing concentrate with water
|
|
|
aerating foam involves
|
mixing air in with the water and concentrate mixture
|
|
|
How does foam work to control fire?
|
Separation - creates a barrier between fuel and oxygen
Cools - lowers temp of liquid or solid fuel Suppresses - prevents the release of vapors |
|
|
youl have
|
vous avez
|
|
|
Fluoroprotein film is a mix of _______ and protein detergents
|
synthetic
|
|
|
Aqueous film forming foam works by creating a layer of foam that ...
|
floats on top of the fuel and suppresses vapors
|
|
|
Who developed AFFF?
|
the Navy
|
|
|
What is the type of foam most commonly used by firefighters at hazmat incidents?
|
AFFF
|
|
|
What type of foam should be used on polar solvents?
|
alcohol resistant foam
|
|
|
Foam should be applied via a straight bore nozzle in a rainbow pattern over the fuel. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. Foam should be applied via a FOG nozzle in a rainbow pattern over the fuel.
|
|
|
Simultaneous application of hose streams and foam is an effective way of controlling a liquid hydrocarbon fire. TRUE or FALSE?
|
False. Water destroys and washes away the foam blanket. Don't use hose streams.
|
|
|
Foam should not be plunged directly into fuel. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True.
|
|
|
Recovery and Termination are primary strategic goals.
What does this phase entail? |
• return operational area to a safe condition
• debrief personnel • return equipment and personnel of all involved agencies to condition they were in before incident |
|
|
What is the purpose of a post-incident critique? Who should participate?
|
The post-incident critique should identify any operational deficiencies and should be documented to ID all who attended. All involved responders should be in attendance and it should occur as soon as possible after incident.
|
|
|
What is the After-Action Analysis?
|
Compiles information obtained from debriefings and critiques, makes recommendations for improvements to be made, once negative trends have been identified.
|
|
|
The main purpose of the Incident Command System is ...
|
to allow multiple responders to work within a single system
|
|
|
ICS was developed in Southern California and adopted throughout the state following the Oakland hills fires. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
What year was ICS adopted nationally?
|
2003
|
|
|
What are advantages of the Incident Command System?
|
• common terminology
• modular organization • integrated communications • unified command structure • consolidated action plans • manageable span of control |
|
|
What are the responsibilities of Command within ICS?
|
To direct, order, and control resources.
|
|
|
Where does Command derive its authority?
|
Explicit legal, agency, or delegated authority.
|
|
|
What are the responsibilities of Operations within ICS?
|
The direct management of tactical activities and priorities, and the safety and welfare of Operations personnel
|
|
|
What are the responsibilities of Planning within ICS?
|
Gathering, assimilating, analyzing, and processing info needed for effective decision-making. Particularly important in ICS, as accurate info about the hazard can be life or death info
|
|
|
What are the responsibilities of the Finance/Administration Section in ICS?
|
Generally established at larger incidents, Finance tracks resources being utilized, timesheets, etc., so various agencies can be compensated after the incident.
|
|
|
What are the responsibilities of Logistics within the ICS system?
|
Providing support and service systems to all the Sections. Making tools and equipment available, for example, is managed by Logistics.
|
|
|
The IC, Safety Officer, and Operations Chief are primary positions within a hazmat ICS structure. TRUE or FALSE
|
True
|
|
|
Who within ICS establishes a site safety plan and implements a site security and control plan to limit number of personnel in control zones?
|
The IC
|
|
|
Who within ICS is responsible for implementing the Incident Action Plan?
|
The IC
|
|
|
Who is ultimately responsible for ID'ing the materials or conditions involved in an incident?
|
IC
|
|
|
Who establishes the decon plan and operation?
|
IC
|
|
|
Who implements incident termination procedure?
|
IC
|
|
|
Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that appropriate PPE is worn by all responders?
|
IC
|
|
|
Who reviews the IAP for safety issues?
|
Safety Officer
|
|
|
What are responsibilities of the Safety Officer in a hazmat ICS?
|
review IAP for safety issues
• participate in prep and monitoring of incident safety procedures • advise IC of dangerous acts and deviations from safety considerations • alters, suspends, terminates any unsafe activities • conducts safety briefing before entry team personnel enter hot zone |
|
|
What are the elements of a safety briefing at a hazmat incident?
|
• hazards identified
• tasks to be performed • expected duration of tasks • PPE requirements • monitoring requirements • notification of identified risks |
|
|
At incidents involving criminal or terrorist activities, the safety briefing will likely include reminders, such as ...
|
• be alert for secondary devices
• don't touch or move suspicious articles • limit number of personnel entering scene • document all actions and observations • do not pick up or remove souvenirs • photograph or video anything suspicious • don't destroy potential evidence |
|
|
When does the safety briefing take place?
|
Before entry team personnel enter the hot zone
|
|
|
Name some positions that are particular to a hazmat ICS.
|
• Hazmat Group Supervisor
• Entry Team Leader • Decon Team Leader • Site Access Control Team Leader • Technical Specialist - Hazardous Materials Reference • Hazmat Safety Officer |
|
|
Under Unified Command, command decisions are made jointly by representatives of each agency having jurisdiction. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
At a significant hazmat incident, what agencies are likely to be involved in Unified Command?
|
police, fire, public health, feds
|
|
|
What are the priorities of Unified Command at a hazmat incident?
|
• determining overall incident objective
• selecting strategies • accomplishing joint planning of tactical activities • ensuring integrated tactical operations • using all assigned resources effectively |
|
|
What are characteristics of a Level I Hazardous Materials Incident according to IFSTA?
|
• w/in capabilities of first responders having jurisdiction
• least serious • may pose serious threat to life or property • may require limited evacuation |
|
|
What are characteristics of a Level II Hazardous Materials Incident according to IFSTA?
|
• beyond capabilities of first responders on scene
• requires services of a formal hazmat response team • may require Unified Command • may require large-scale evacuation |
|
|
What are characteristics of a Level III Hazardous Materials Incident according to IFSTA?
|
• requires resources from state, federal, or private industry
• requires Unified Command • may require large-scale evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries • countywide |
|
|
What are four guidelines for initial approach to a hazmat scene?
|
• Approach from uphill, upwind, upstream if possible
• Stop at the farthest distance possible from which you can recognize the hazard • Use binoculars for observation of placards, signs, peoples' symptoms • Report any unusual conditions to IC |
|
|
What are the three hazmat incident priorities?
|
• Life Safety: self, others
• Incident Stabilization • Protection of Property and Environment |
|
|
During the initial assessment, what considerations must be made before attempting any rescue?
|
• risk to rescuers
• ability of rescuers to protect themselves • probability of rescue • difficulty of rescue • capabilities and resources of on-scene forces • possibilities of explosion or sudden material release • available escape routes and safe havens • constraints of time and distance |
|
|
Sizing up the incident involves numerous considerations. It begins with surveying the scene to detect presence of hazardous materials. What four surrounding conditions should you note?
|
• victims
• available personnel • wind direction • topography |
|
|
Sizing up the incident includes conducting a hazard and ________
assessment. |
risk
|
|
|
When sizing up an incident, what written resources might you use to determine the hazardous material involved?
|
shipping papers, ERG
|
|
|
When sizing up an incident, what resource would you use to determine the size of the endangered area and the potential harm posed?
|
ERG
|
|
|
When sizing up an incident, as an operations level responder, what would you use to guide your determination of strategy and tactics to be applied?
|
SIN:
SAFETY (self, responders, public) ISOLATE hazard (evacuate, shelter in place) NOTIFY emergeny personnel and persons who may potentially be harmed |
|
|
When sizing up an incident, you should estimate the number and type of exposures involved. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True
|
|
|
Part of sizing up an incident is predicting where the hazardous materials may be moving. What sources might you use to do so?
|
ERG and Cameo hazmat incident modeling software
|
|
|
When sizing up an incident, you first predict the size of the endangered area, then the potential __________s.
|
exposures
|
|
|
Protecting exposures entails protecting people, property, and the environment. TRUE or FALSE?
|
True.
|
|
|
What are the two options for protecting people who have potential to be exposed to hazardous materials?
|
evacuate or shelter in place
|
|
|
Lives must not be risked, nor ___________ compromised to save property.
|
environment
|
|
|
When deciding whether to treat a container as a potential exposure, a hazmat responder should consider:
|
• how long will the harmful exposure last?
• what has stressed or is stressing the container? • how will the stressed container and its contents behave? • what is the material and what are its harmful effects? |
|
|
Scene Safety procedures at a hazmat incident include four provisions. They are...
|
• Personnel Accountability System (PAR)
• Buddy System (utilized always in hot zone) • Backup Personnel (equal in number, expertise, equipment for rescue or assistance) • Evacuation Procedures (established prior to entry; clearly stated procedures should responders need to evacuate) |
|
|
Initial actions for any operations level hazardous materials responder at any hazmat incident are encompassed by what acronym?
|
SIN
Safety Isolation Notification |
|
|
The primary TACTICAL objectives at a hazardous materials incident include ...
|
• Isolation
• Notification • Identification (use ERG) • Protection (set hazard zones, do risk assessment, decide re: evacuation or shelter in place) • Spill control/confinement • Leak control/containment • Fire control • Recovery and termination |
|
|
What are actions that can be taken by operations level hazmat responders?
|
• conducting searches during recon or defensive action
• conducting searches at edge of hot zone • directing victims to decon area • assisting w/ decon without coming into contact w/ hazmat • assist w/ identifying victims • instruct people being mass decontaminated |
|
|
Throughout a hazardous materials incident, it is imperative to __________ strategy and tactics.
|
Reevaluate
|
