Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
130 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Division 4.2 material is
|
Spontaneously Combustible
|
|
|
Division 5.1 material is
|
Oxidizer
|
|
|
A Class # (Flam Liquid) has a flash point of less than
|
60.5 F
|
|
|
Division 4.1 Flammable solids include the following
materials: |
• Wetted explosives
• Self-reactive materials • Readily combustible solids • Metal powders |
|
|
Division 6.1 Poisons
|
known to be toxic during transportation or
have a toxic effect on test animals. Some division 6.1 poisons are poisonous by inhalation. |
|
|
Shipping papers
|
Shipping papers communicate information regarding a
material’s hazard and must accompany every hazardous materials shipment transported by train, plane, vessel or truck. |
|
|
describes the standards set by the Occupational
Safety and Health Act? |
OSHA standards apply to all workplaces
|
|
|
describes the regulations set by the Environmental
Protection Agency? |
EPA regulations apply primarily to hazardous wastes
|
|
|
Which organizations issues mandatory standards
|
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
|
|
|
The OSHA standard that protects workers in hazardous waste operations and emergency
response is |
29 CFR 1910.120
|
|
|
OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard is
|
A worker right-to-know law
|
|
|
organization issues hazard classes and divisions
|
Department of Transportation (DOT)
|
|
|
Un identification numbers indicate that a chemical may be shipped
|
Internationally
|
|
|
Title 49 in the Code of Federal Regulations includes all
|
DOT Regulations
|
|
|
Placards
|
Placards are large versions of labels, placed
on transport vehicles and bulk containers |
|
|
Markings
|
A hazardous material package is required to
be marked with its proper shipping name and identification number, as well as any applicable technical names. Additional marking requirements can be found in 49 CFR 172.301. |
|
|
Labels
|
Every hazardous material is required to have
a label(s). The label usually corresponds to a hazard class and are listed in the Hazardous Materials Table Column 6. |
|
|
Shipping Papers
|
Shipping papers are intended to accurately
describe the hazardous material being shipped, including its possible hazards. Shipping papers also identify all parties associated with the material |
|
|
Class 1
|
Explosives
|
|
|
Class 2
|
Gases
|
|
|
Class 3
|
Flammable and
Combustible Liquids |
|
|
Class 5
|
Oxidizers
|
|
|
Class 6
|
Poisons
|
|
|
Class 7
|
Radioactive Material
|
|
|
Class 8
|
Corrosive Material
|
|
|
Class 9
|
Miscellaneous
Hazardous Materials |
|
|
Non-Pressure Cargo Tank 3 to 4 psig
|
MC 301 MC 302
MC 303 MC 305 MC 306 |
|
|
Low Pressure Cargo Tank
25 to 35 psig (some as high as 150 psig) |
DOT 407 MC 307
|
|
|
Corrosive Liquid Cargo Tank
|
DOT 412 MC 310
MC 311 MC 312 |
|
|
Pressure Cargo Tank
100-500 psig (most are 250 to 265 psig) |
MC 330
MC 331 |
|
|
Cryogenic Liquid Cargo Tank
|
MC 338
|
|
|
Cryogenic Liquid Cargo Tank
|
MC 338
|
|
|
Hazardous materials that must always be placarded, regardless of quantity, are
|
Table 1 materials
|
|
|
Title 49 in the Code of Federal Regulations includes all
|
DOT Regulations
|
|
|
The Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act is administered by
|
EPA
|
|
|
How can DOT subsidiary placards be distinguished from primary placards
|
Subsidiary placards do not carry hazard class or UN numbers
|
|
|
Bulk containers for liquids hold a maximum capacity of more than
|
119 gallons
|
|
|
An “MC 331” is a
|
Pressure cargo tank
|
|
|
Non-pressure cargo tanks have
|
Elliptical cross-sections and flat heads
|
|
|
Caustic soda is frequently transported in
|
Covered hopper cars
|
|
|
Non-pressure cargo tanks primarily carry
|
Petroleum products
|
|
|
Which of the following is not true regarding shipping papers
|
DOT requires that MSDSs accompany shipping papers
|
|
|
Non-pressure tank containers transport liquid and solid materials at pressures up to
|
100 psig
|
|
|
Tube trailers carry:
|
Pressurized gases
|
|
|
Which of the following best describes the most common type of tank container?
|
Single compartment, stainless steel tank in metal frame
|
|
|
Medical surveillance for emergency responders is part of which federal regulation?
|
29 CFR 1910.120
|
|
|
The primary route of chemical exposure for fire fighters is
|
Inhalation
|
|
|
Secondary contamination refers to
|
Contamination from someone who has already been contaminated
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is not true of the skin?
|
Water-soluble substances are more easily absorbed by the skin
|
|
|
Which of the following items will provide minimum shielding from gamma radiation?
|
Several inches of lead
|
|
|
Under federal regulations, medical surveillance is required for
|
Members of hazardous materials teams only
|
|
|
Biological monitoring measures
|
The amount of an agent in your body
|
|
|
Simple asphyxiants displace oxygen in the air. Chemical asphyxiants
|
Prevent the body from using inhaled oxygen
|
|
|
Etiologic means that an agent is
|
Infectious
|
|
|
Which of the following organs is considered the primary “transfer point” for chemicals in
the body? |
The lungs
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true regarding the hazard identification phase of
pre-incident planning? |
Transportation routes as well as fixed sites should be identified.
|
|
|
What influence does topography have on the spread of a poisonous gas that is heavier
than air? |
It may either increase or prevent the spread of the gas.
|
|
|
Which of the following is not true regarding weather conditions?
|
Cold temperatures have little effect because of physical demands in fire
fighting. |
|
|
The hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning primarily involves
|
Gathering information
|
|
|
Facilities that use only very small quantities of hazardous materials
|
May not need to follow government reporting procedures
|
|
|
What is the next step in a pre-incident plan once you have collected all pertinent information?
|
Develop a comprehensive plan of action
|
|
|
If after preplanning a facility, you find you would not have sufficient resources to respond
to an incident, your department should |
Take preventive measures
|
|
|
Generic pre-incident plans can be developed for
|
Each pre-incident plan must be site-specific
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is not true of pre-incident planning?
|
A site visit may not be necessary if previous pre-incident plans are available.
|
|
|
The right response to an incident is to:
|
Work within limitations of resources and training
|
|
|
Air is assigned a vapor density of
|
1
|
|
|
If a material is “water miscible”, it is
|
Infinitely soluble in water
|
|
|
Substances with high vapor pressures are
|
More likely to evaporate
|
|
|
The rate of a chemical reaction can usually be increased by
|
Increasing temperature, concentration, and pressure
|
|
|
Vapors and gases with molecular weights greater than 29 tend to
|
Sink in air
|
|
|
Although specific gravity has no unit of measure, it does have a value relative to
|
The weight of water
|
|
|
“Ignition temperature” refers to
|
The temperature at which a material burns without a flame
|
|
|
A “pyrophoric” material describes a material that spontaneously ignites in air at or below
|
130°F
|
|
|
All gases have vapor pressures higher than
|
760 mm Hg
|
|
|
A chemical’s “explosive limit” depends on its
|
Concentration
|
|
|
Which of the following is the best definition of response time as it applies to detection
devices? |
The period between beginning measurement and obtaining a reading
|
|
|
Detector tubes are used to:
|
Measure the concentration of known gases, vapors, and unknown
hydrocarbons |
|
|
Alpha and beta radiation survey meters usually display readings in
|
Counts per minute
|
|
|
On a combustible gas indicator with a reading in % LEL, the reading indicates
0-100% of |
The lower explosive limit
|
|
|
The most common calibration gases for combustible gas indicators are
|
Methane, pentane
|
|
|
Which of the following is true of direct read-out instruments?
|
Direct read-out instruments provide measurements in real time
|
|
|
Which of the following instruments should you use in a flammable atmosphere?
|
Instruments marked “intrinsically safe”
|
|
|
Which of the following is the best definition of relative response as it applies to detection
devices? |
The instrument’s reading compared to the calibration gas
|
|
|
If you are monitoring a gas with an LEL of 2% and your combustible gas indicator reads
50% LEL, what is the actual percentage of gas in the atmosphere? |
1%
|
|
|
An atmosphere is assumed to be oxygen-enriched if concentrations of oxygen are greater
than: |
23.5%
|
|
|
When must a decontamination area be set up?
|
Before personnel enter the Hot Zone
|
|
|
In emergency decontamination, which of the following is a primary concern?
|
Prevent severe injury.
|
|
|
If contaminants are corrosive, skin and mucous membranes must be flushed with:
|
Large amounts of water
|
|
|
Non-soluble contaminants should be removed from the skin with
|
Liquid soap and water
|
|
|
Although other factors are involved, protective clothing is more likely to be permeated if
|
The chemical is highly concentrated
|
|
|
“Deactivation” is the use of cleaning agents, neutralizers, or disinfectants for decontamination
and is generally used for: |
Organic compounds
|
|
|
In the decontamination process for liquid splash-protective garments, the SCBA facepiece is
removed: |
After the splash suit is removed
|
|
|
How should you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experiences heat
stress in the Hot Zone? |
Perform an emergency decontamination, then remove the clothing
|
|
|
Exposure to which type of chemical automatically prohibits the reuse of PPE?
|
Carcinogens
|
|
|
PPE contamination levels can only be determined by
|
Destructive testing
|
|
|
Vapor-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described in:
|
NFPA 1991
|
|
|
Chemical protective clothing is specifically designed to
|
Prevent or limit skin exposure
|
|
|
The process by which a chemical moves through a material by molecular means is called
|
Permeation
|
|
|
Which type of respirator should be worn in emergency response?
|
Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus
|
|
|
Which of the following organizations assigns protection factors to respirators?
|
National Institutes of Occupational Safety and Health
|
|
|
The longest approved air line for supplied air respirators is:
|
300 feet
|
|
|
Support function garments should never be used for:
|
Emergency response
|
|
|
Liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described
in: |
NFPA 1992
|
|
|
Breakthrough time refers to the time it takes for a chemical to:
|
Permeate protective clothing
|
|
|
Which type of resistance data is most valuable when using vapor-protective clothing?
|
Permeation
|
|
|
An incident management system should be established when:
|
The first responding unit arrives
|
|
|
Which of the following functions is not a command staff position?
|
Logistics
|
|
|
In an incident management system, which of the following statements best describes the
function of the Operations function? |
Operations is responsible for management of tactical operations to stabilize and
control the incident. |
|
|
A rest and rehabilitation unit at a large-scale incident would fall under the
|
Logistics function
|
|
|
During a hazardous materials incident, transfers of command should take place
|
As necessary
|
|
|
The Integrated Emergency Management System is implemented at large-scale incidents
by the: |
Federal Emergency Management Agency
|
|
|
In addition to Incident Command, what are the four primary divisions at a hazardous
materials incident? |
Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true of the Incident Safety Officer?
|
The Incident Safety Officer can halt operations if unsafe practices occur.
|
|
|
Coordination of communication at a hazardous materials incident is the responsibility of
which division? |
Logistics
|
|
|
Which organization mandates the use of Incident Command Systems at hazardous materials
incidents? |
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
|
|
|
The Integrated Emergency Management System is implemented at large-scale incidents
by the: |
Federal Emergency Management Agency
|
|
|
In addition to Incident Command, what are the four primary divisions at a hazardous
materials incident? |
Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true of the Incident Safety Officer?
|
The Incident Safety Officer can halt operations if unsafe practices occur.
|
|
|
Coordination of communication at a hazardous materials incident is the responsibility of
which division? |
Logistics
|
|
|
Which organization mandates the use of Incident Command Systems at hazardous materials
incidents? |
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
|
|
|
How should a seriously injured patient who has been contaminated with a toxic chemical
be decontaminated? |
The patient should undergo gross decontamination prior to medical treatment
|
|
|
How should burns from alkali corrosive agents be treated?
|
The chemical should be thoroughly flushed and the burn covered with a dry
dressing |
|
|
Which of these asphyxiants carries the highest risk of secondary contamination?
|
Cyanide
|
|
|
The acronym DUMBELS is associated with symptoms produced by exposure to which of
the following insecticides? |
Organophosphates
|
|
|
Victims of heat stroke experience:
|
Rapid, strong pulse and flushed, dry skin
|
|
|
Exposure to hydrogen fluoride can cause depletion of blood:
|
Calcium
|
|
|
Carboxyhemoglobin occurs when carbon monoxide inhibits:
|
The blood’s ability to carry oxygen
|
|
|
Cyanide is easily absorbed through:
|
A. Inhalation
B. Skin absorption C. Ingestion D. All three routes of exposure |
|
|
How should hypothermic patients be treated?
|
The patient should be warmed slowly by placing heat packs close to the body
|
|
|
Which of the following chemicals can produce methemoglobinemia?
|
Nitrates
|
