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151 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
________ is the term used to describe all exogenous substances, natural and synthetic, that bind specifically to opiod receptors and produce some agonist effects.
Opiod
Semisynthetic opiods result from minor modification of the _______ molecule.
Morphine
Synthetic opiods contain the phenanthrene nucleus of morphine but are manufactured by _________ rather than chemical modification of morphine.
synthesis
The principal pharmacodynamic difference between opiods is potency and rate of equilibration between plasma and the site of drug efffect.
T or F
True
Opiods act as ______ at stereospecific opiod receptors in the CNS and outside the CNS in peripheral tissues.
agonists
Opiods mimic the actions of endogenous peptide opiod receptors, resulting in _______ of pain-modulating systems.
activation
The principal effect of opiod receptor activation is a ________ in neurotransmission, which results mostly from presynaptic inhibition of neurotransmitter release.
decrease
The effect of opiod receptor activation is increased _______conductance, leading to hyperpolarization of cellular membranes.
Potassium
Opiod receptors are classified as ____, ______, and _______ receptors.
mu, delta, kappa
Mu, delta and kappa receptors belong to a superfamily of _______ ________ receptors.
G protein
Mu or morphine-preferring receptors are principally responsible for supraspinal and spinal anesthesia.
T or F
True
Mu1 receptors are speculated to produce ________, whereas Mu2 receptors are responsible for __________, ________, and ___________.
analgesia, hypoventilation, bradycardia, and physical depencence
Opiod analgesia is _______ related and specific for visceral rather than somatic pain.
dose
Poorly lipid-soluble opiods, result in a ______onset of analgesia, but have a _______ duration of action than lipid-soluble opiods.
slower, longer
Epidural administration of morphine, fentanyl, and sufentanil produces opiod blood concentrations that are similar to those produced by _______ _______ of an equilvelant dose.
intramuscular injection
Coughing, straining and body position can affect opiod movement in the CSF.
T or F
False, only coughing or straining
What are the most common side effects after neuraxial opiods are used to treat acute postoperative pain?
pruritus, N/V, urinary retention and depression of ventilation
Delayed depression of ventilation typically occurs how many hours after epidural or intrathecal administration of morphine?
6-12
What has occurred when delayed depression of ventilation happens with epidural administration of opiods?
cephalad migration of the opiod in the CSF and subsequent interaction with opiod receptors located in the ventral medulla.
Despite a normal breathing rate, what might occur with neuraxial opiod administration?
arterial hypoxemia and hypercarbia
What reliably detects opiod-induced arterial hypoxemia, and what is the effective treatment?
pulse oximetry, supplemental O2
What provides early warning that opiod induced hypoventilation is occurring?
capnography
What is perhaps the most reliable clinical sign of depression of ventilation?
depressed level of consciousness, possibly caused by hypercarbia
Which drug is effective in reversing the depression of ventilation produced by neuraxial opiods?
Naloxone
_________ is the prototype opiod agonist with which all other opiods are compared.
Morphine
What effects do morphine produce?
analgesia, euphoria, sedation and a decreased ability to concentrate
With administration of morphine, the cause of the pain persists, but even small doses increase the threshold to pain and modify the perception of noxious stimulation such that it is no longer experienced as pain.
T or F
True
Morphine relieves sharp, intermittent pain best.
T or F
False, morphine relieves continuous dull pain best
Analgesia is most prominent when opiods are administered a few seconds after the painful stimulus occurs.
T or F
False, analgesia is most prominent when opiods are given before the pain
In the absence of pain, Morphine may produce dysphoria rather than euphoria.
T or F
True
Clearance of opiods principally occurs by ________metabolism, but large differences in _________ _________ account for pharmacokinetic differences between opiods.
hepatic lipid solubility
__________ is well absorbed ater IM injection, with an onset of effect in 15-30 min and a peak effect in 45-90 minutes.
Morphine
Absorption of morphine from the GI tract is not reliable
T or F
True
What is the peak effect (equilbration time between the blood and brain) after IV administration of morphine.
15-30 min
Reasons for poor penetration of morphine into the CNS include: (2)
relatively poor lipid solubility and rapid metabolism with glucuronic acid
Elimination of morphine is impaired in patients with renal failure, causing an accumulation of metabolites and unexpected ventilatory deperssant effects.
T or F
True
Morphine has a greater analgesic potency and slower speed of onset in men.
T or F
False, in women
Moprhine given to supine and normovolemic patients is unlikely to cause direct myocardial depression or hypotension.
T or F
True
After administration of IV morphine, the patient may exhibit _______ ________ and ________ , if changing from a supine to standing position.
orthostatic hypotension, syncope
Morphine induced bradycardia results from increased _________ effects
parasympathomimetic
The combination of opiod agonists with ______ ______ or a _________ result in decreases insystemic blood pressure that do not accompany administration of these drugs when administered alone.
Nitrous oxide, benzodiazepine
High doses of opiods may result in apnea, but the patient remains conscious and able to initiate a breath if asked to do so.
T or F
True
Clinically, depression of ventilation produced by opiod agonists manifests as a _______ frequency of breathing that is often accompanied by a compensatory________ in tidal volume.
decrease, increase
Why are opiods not considered true anesthetics?
Because they do not reliably produce unconsciousness, especially in young people.
Why must opiods be used with caution in patients with head injury?
Because depression of ventilation and accumulation of CO2 can result in undesirable increases in ICP.
Opiods act as cerebral vasoconstrictors to decrease cerebral blood flow and possibly ICP.
T or F
True
When high doses are infused rapidly, with which opiod is skeletal muscle rigidigy (ie stiff-chest syndrome) a common occurance?
Fentanyl
What type of drugs can be given to terminate skeletal muscle rigidity that is induced with opiod infusion? (2)
neuromuscular blocking drug or opiod antagonist
Opiods can be shownd to decrease MAC for volatile anesthetics in a dose-related manner until a ceiling effect is reached by what percent?
50%
What is the usual recommendated dose interval times for morphine to allow evaluation of its clinical effect?
5-7 min
Opiods can cause spasm of biliary smooth muscle, resulting in increases in intrabiliary pressure that may be associated with epigastric distress or biliary colic.
T or F
True
Opiods can decrease peristaltic activity and enhance the tone of pyloric shpincter, contributing to delayed gastric and intestinal tract emptying.
T or F
True
IM morphine produces more nausea and vominting then IV morphine.
T or F
True
Meperidine is a synthetic opiod that is about ____ as potent as morphine.
1/10
Meperidine is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.
T or F
True
Which opiod is effective in suppressing postoperative shivering that may result in detrimental increases in metabolic O2 consumption?
meperidine
Meperidine causes more frequent and profound orthostatic hypotenstion than morphine.
T or F
True
Can meperidine at times increase or decrease HR?
increase, has modest atropine-like effect.
Large doses of ________ decrease myocardial contractility, an effect that is unique among the opiods.
Meperidine
Caution should be taken with administration of Meperidine to patients who are taking antidepressants due to the possible evoking of autonomic nervous system instability.
T or F
True
Fentanyl is a synthetic opiod agonist structurally related to _________.
meperidine
How much stronger is fentanyl than morphine?
75-125 times
Fentanyl has a more rapid onset and shorter duration than morphine.
T or F
True
The greater potency and more rapid onset of action reflect the greater ________ _______ of fentanyl compared to morphine.
lipid solubility
Fentanyl might produce bradycardia and hypotenstion only if administered with other depressants or sedative drugs.
T or F
True
Administration of an opiod such as fentanyl before painful surgical stimulation occurs may increase the subsequent amount of opiod required in the postoperative period to provide analgesia.
T or F
False, use of fantanyl may decrease the amount of opiod postoperatively
Large doses of fentanyl have been used alone to produce surgical anesthesia with stable hemodynamics, however, the disadvantage to this is what?
Opiods are not complete anesthetics and patient awareness can occur.
__________ is an analog of fentanyl, with an analgesic potency that is 5-10 times that of fentanyl.
Sufentanil
Large repeated do can doses of Sufentanil can cause a cumulative effect, where as small doses are terminated quickly due to _______ ________ to inactive tissue sites.
rapid redistribution
After termination of sufentanil infusion, the decrease in the plasma drug concentration is accelerated by __________ and __________.
metabolism redistribution
_______ of ________ and ___________ may be more profound with sufentanil than with fentanyl.
Depression of ventilation, bradycardia
Use of large doses of potent opiods such as sufentanil may produce skeletal muscle rigidity that makes ventilation of the lungs difficult.
T or F
True
_________ is an analog of fentanyl with is 1/5 to 1/10 as potent and has 1/3 the duration of action.
Alfentanil
What is the unique advantage of alfentanil when compared with fentanyl and sufentanil?
more rapid onset of action after IV administration (effective-site equilibrium is 1.4 min)
Almost 90% of alfentanil exists in the lipid-soluble nonionized form at physiologic pH.
T or F
True
Which drug is useful when an opiod is required to blunt the response of a single brief stimulus such as tracheal intyubation or performance of a retrobulbar block?
Alfentanil due to its rapid effect at the brain
___________ is a selective opiod agonist with analgesic potency similar to that of fentanyl, and a blood brain equilibrium time similar to alfentanil.
Remifentanil (effect-site equilibrium time of about 1.1 min)
_________ is structurally unique because of its ester linkage, which renders is susceptible to hydrolysis by nonspecific plasma and tissue esterases.
Remifentanil
Which opiod has brevity of action, precise and rapid titration effects, rapid onset and offset, noncumulative effects and rapid recovery after discontinuation of IV infusion?
Remifentanil
Which opiod may be preferred whtn analgesic effect is desired transitnely and can induce anesthesia over 60-90 secs?
Remifentanil
The combination of Remifentanil and _________ is synergistic resulting in severe depression of ventilation.
propofol
Before cessation of __________ a longer-acting opiod should be administered to ensure analgesia when the patient awakens.
Remifentanil
Why is Remifentanil used for sedation in mechanically ventilated critically ill patients?
the rapid onset and offset of action makes it possible to quiclky adjust the required level of sedation.
Why might Remifentanil be associated with acute opiod tolerance?
due to high requirements of postoperative analgesia required in patients who received relatively large doses of remifentanil intraoperatively.
What is the action of opiod agonist-antagonists?
the drug binds to teh mu receptor where it produces limited responses or no effect.
What is the benefit of opiod agonist-antagonists?
The can produce analgesia with limited depression of ventilation and a low potential to produce physical dependence.
What drug promptly reverses opiod induced analgesia and depression of ventilation?
Nalaxone
What is the dose for Nalaxone?
1-4 mcg/kg IV
The short duration of action of nalaxone might require supplemental doses to acheive the continuous desired effect of return of opiod effects.
T or F
True
Abrupt reversal of analgesia and sudden perception of pain might increase sympathetic nervous system symptoms in patients when nalaxone is used.
T or F
True
What is the most common reason for seeking medical care?
Pain
________ is the state in which no pain is felt, despite the presence of normally painful stinuli.
Analgesia
________ are compounds isolated from teh opium poppy and act at opiodreceptors, where as________ are compounds of any structural type that interact with the opiod receptors.
Opiates, Opiods
Opiods are unique in producing analgesia without loss of ________, _________, or __________.
touch, proprioception, consciousness.
__________ determines the relationship between drug dose and its concentration at receptor sites and refers to the study of plasma drug concentration versus time.
Pharmacokinetics
__________ relates to the concentration of the drug at its site of action and intensity of its effects.
Pharmocodynamics
When was morphine isolated from opium?
1805 (some say 1803)
When was Codeine first made?
1832
What are the 3 classifications of drugs that act as or against opiods?
opiod agonists, opiod agonist-antagonists and opiod antagonists
What are the 2 classes of opiods?
Phenanthrenes: (morphine, codeine and thebaine)
Benzoisoquinolines (lacking opiod activity): noscapine and papavarine
Which 3 drugs are a chemical modification of morphine?
papaverine, thebaine(insignificant analgesic activity) and codine(substitution of a methyl group for the hydroxyl group on carbon 3)
Which 3 drugs are synthetic opiods? These are manufactured by synthesis rather than chemical modification of Morphine.
Levorphanol, Butorphanol and Methadone
Which 4 drugs are semisynthetic opiods?
Fentanyl, Sufentanil, Alfentanil and Remifentanil.
What are the 2 actions of opiods?
They act as stereospecific opiod receptors at pre & post synaptic sites in CNS and peripheral tissue and mimic endogenous ligands.
What receptors are principally responsible for supraspinal and stinal analgesia?
Mu (morphine preferring)
What is the idea behine supraspinal and spinal analgesia?
supraspinal- feel pain but don't care and spinal- don't feel pain
Which drugs work at the Mu1 and Mu2 receptors?
morphine, meperedine, fentanyl, sufentanil, alfentanil, remifentanil
Which receptors are calcium channel-linked opiod receptors?
kappa receptors
What does agonist activation of kappa receptors produce?(2)
dysphoria and diuresis
Respiratory depression is less likely with kappa receptors than mu receptors.
T or F
True
What are some examples of kappa opiod receptors?
talwin, Nubain, stadol, buprenex
Which opiod receptors are found in vans deferens of rats?
epsilon
Which opiod receptors are not reversed by nalaxone?
sigma
Which opiod receptors serve to modulate mu receptor activity?
delta
All 3 receptors(mu, delta, kappa) work with G proteins to decrease neural activity by: (3)
1. inhibit adenyl cyclase(the mechanism that makes things work inside the cell) 2. decrease conductance of voltage-gated calcium channels. 3. open inward flowing potassium channels (can't send pain message)
The ideal opiod agonist would have what 2 characteristics?
1) high specificity for receptors producing analgesia
2) little specificity for receptors associated with side effects(hypoventilation, nausea, physical dependence)
During cholescystectomy, opiod-induced spasm of sphincter of oddi may be misinterperted as a a common bile duct stone or blockage in cholangiogram.
T or F
True
What drugs can be used to reverse morphine during a opiod-induced spasm (of sphincter of oddi)? (2)
nalaxone or glucagon
Where is meperidine metabolized?
Liver
__________ is the only opiod considered adequate for surgery when given intrathecally.
Meperidine
What are the primary uses of Meperidine?
analgesia in L & D; post-op pain relief; useful for post-op shivering
Meperidiine's metabolite, normeperidine, toxicity manifests as _______ and ______ especially in renal patients using a PCA devise due to elimination half-time in a renal patient may be 35. hours
myoclonus and zeizures.
Normeperidine (meperidine's metabolite) has a elimination half time of __ hours and is ____ as potent as parent drug.
15 half
Meperidine can be seen in the urine for up to __ days.
3
Where are opiod receptors located in the brain?
periaqueductal gray matter in brainstem; amygdala; corpus striatum; hypothalamus
Where are opiod receptors located in the epidural/subarachnoid space?
substantia gelatinosa of spinal cord
Opiods injected in the SAS are not associated with SNS denervation, skeletal muscle weakness, or loss of proprioception as with local anesthetics and IV administration.
T or F
True
Epidural placement of opiods give similar effects as IV administered opiods.
T or F
True
Where is morphine metabolized?
Liver
Kidneys play a significant role in patients with impaired liver function especially in ELIMINATION of metabolites of what drug?
morphine
What is the metabolite of morphine?
morphine-6-glucuronide
Morphine-6-glucuronide has agonist properties at mu receptors and can produce ventilatory depression and analgesia.
T or F
True
If Morphine-6-glucuronide accumulates, what can occur?
marked respiratory depression
What 3 effects does morphine have on the cardiovascular system?
decrease in systemic BP r/t drug induced bradycardia; depression of AS node and slowed conduction through AV node; and profound hypotension r/t histamine release.
What drug will relieve both angina due to myocardial ischemia and opiod induced biliary colic pain?
nitroglycerin; narcan only relieves biliary pain
Fentanly is metabolized in the _______ to the metabolite _________.
liver; norfentanyl (metabolized by N-demethylation)
Norfentanyl is not an active metabolite.
T or F
False
After a single IV dose, ________can be detected in the urine for 3 days.
Fentanyl
Fentanyl has a large volume of distribution.
T or F
True
When using Fentanyl, why must you keep the patient warm?
Because if the patient gets cold, fentanyl may be released from distributed tissue when the patient rewarms.
Fentanyl analgesic concentrations greatly ________ effects of midazolam and _________ the required dose of propofol.
potentiate; reduce
Most all opiods reduce CMRO2 and CBF.
T or F
True
What are the 2 metabolites of Sufentanil?
N-demethylation(inactive)
O-demethylation (active)
A single dose of sufenta produces a longer period of analgesia and less ventilatory depression than a comparable dose of fentanyl.
T or F
True
Compared with large fentanyl and morphine dosages, sufenta gives: (3)
-more rapid induction (inc lipid soluble and inc protein binding)
-earlier emergence
-earlier extubation conditions
In giving Sufenta, one must inject slowly because...
can cause bradycardia,and chest will rigidity(bagging may be difficult or impossible)
Alfentanil can be used as a maintenance infusion.
T or F
True
Remifentanil is not metabolized by pseudocholinesterase.
T or F
True
Remifentanil is best administered as an infusion due to the fast on and off set.
T or F
True
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Sudden complete antagonism of opiod effects may cause hypertension, tacyhcardia, ventricular cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema.
T or F
True