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447 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The doctrine of incorporation required states to immediately begin honoring the bill of rights.




true or false?

False

The determination of whether or not material is obscene is typically left up to the judgment of local standards.

true or false?

True

The fifth amendment's guarantee of a right to an attorney




a. requires that the attorney must be of equal quality to the prosecution's attorney.


b. may be interpreted to require that the attorney appointed be competent.


c. guarantees only that attorney may represent a defendant, not that one will be provided.


d. does not apply to the states.

B. may be interpreted to require that the attorney appointed be competent.
A newspaper publishing leaked government documents would most likely

a. be allowed to publish the documents.
b. not be allowed to publish the documents.
c. be allowed to publish the documents after a year has past.
d. have its employees criminally prosecuted.
a. be allowed to publish the documents

Warrant-less searches are




a. patently unconstitutional


b. always unreasonable


c. constitutional under circumstances


d. usually constitutional

c.constitutional under circumstances

Under the ________ Amendment, the police may search things in plain view, the person arrested, and things under the arrestee's immediate control.




a. Third


b. Eighth


c. Fourth


d. Fifth

c. fourth

Where secular law conflicts with religious belief, freedom of religion is




a. often denied


b. guaranteed by the second amendment


c. always upheld


d. absolute





a. often denied

The standard that illegally seized evidence can not be used at trial is known as the




a. due process clause


b. exclusionary rule


c. procedural rights rule


d. Mapp rule



b. exclusionary rule

The First Amendment states that "Congress shall make no law abridging freedom of speech." Yet, the Supreme Court has ruled that it is constitutional to restrict some types of speech, such as




a. inciting speech


b. political speech


c. symbolic speech


d. all of above

a. inciting speech

The Eighth Amendment prohibits




a. cruel and unusual punishment


b. trial without an attorney


c. unreasonable seizures and searches


d. all of the above

a. cruel and unusual punishment

The second amendment has been interpreted to




a. grant citizens the right of self defense.


b. only grant the right to protect the nation.


c. not allow the wholesale banning of handguns. d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The establishment clause has been said to




a. erect a wall of separation between church and state


b. adopt an official religion


c. inhibit citizens' individual rights


d. all of the above

a. erect a wall of separation between church and state

What is the function of the grand jury?




a. To determine whether there is enough evidence to proceed to trial


b. to determine sentencing


c. to determine if the trial was fair


d. to help select jury members

a. To determine whether there is enough evidence to proceed to trial

A person's right to a speedy trial would be violated if they were forced to wait three years before trial.




true or false



False

O.J. Simpson's fifth amendment rights against double jeapordy were not violated when he was tried in civil court after being found not guilty of murder.

true or false

True

What action did President Eisenhower take to force the Arkansas governor to de-segregate public schools?




a. Sued the governor in federal court


b. Wrote an executive order ordering de-segregation


c. Brought popular opinion against the governor through a series of speeches


d. Brought the Arkansas national guard under his control

d. brought the Arkansas national guard under his control

Plessy v. Ferguson established which of the following policies?




a. desegregation


b. jim crow


c. affirmative action


d. slavery

b.jim crow

Former slaves were granted citizenship as well as the "privileges and immunities" thereof, and states barred from depriving anyone of "life, liberty or property without due process of law" through the ________ Amendment.




a. twelfth


b. thirteenth


c. fourteenth


d. fifteenth

c. fourteenth

Slavery was banned by the ________ Amendment.


a. thirteenth


b. fourteenth


c. fifteenth


d. twelfth

a. thirteenth

Hispanics patterned their civil rights movement after which of the following groups?




a. African Americans


b. Women


c. Native Americans


d. Gays and Lesbians

a. African Americans

Affirmative Action policies are typically prohibited from setting aside spots exclusively for minority candidates.




true or false

true

Sit-ins were




a. non violent protests against segregation.


b. established to fight for the continuation of segregationist policies.


c. established by Thurgood Marshall.


d. originated in the women's rights movement.

a. non violent protests against segregation.

Which of the following are examples of groups not protected under the ADA?




a. People confined to a wheelchair


b. Students diagnosed with ADHD


c. pregnant women


d. none of the above

c. pregnant women

Which of the following are examples of groups not protected under the ADA? People confined to a wheelchair Students diagnosed with ADHD pregnant women none of the above




true or false

True

In 1955, the Montgomery bus boycott began with the intent of ending segregation on public transport. The catalyst for the boycott was a black person who was arrested for refusing to give up a seat to a white person. The name of this person was




a. Rosa Parks


b. Martin Luther King, Jr.


c. Linda Brown


d. W.E.B. DuBois

a. Rosa Parks

What was Chief Justice Taney's ruling in Dred Scot?




a. That slavery was an illegal institution


b. That slavery was legal in the north, but illegal in the south


c. That the plaintiff was a slave and could not petition the Court


d. That the Court was not able to decide the case at that time

c. That the plaintiff was a slave and could not petition the Court

A woman typically has a right to an abortion




a. until viability of the fetus.


b. unless the father objects.


c. at any time in her pregnancy.


d. in only 14 states in the country.

a. until viability of the fetus

Public support for the rights of homosexuals has




a. increased dramatically over time.


b. increased slowly over time.


c. remained stagnant over time.


d. decreased in recent years.

c. remained stagnant over time

The right to vote was granted to all people regardless of race and gender by the thirteenth amendment.




true or false

False

Committees to which proposed bills are referred and that continue from one Congress to the next are called _____ committees.




a. joint.


b. standing.


c. ad hoc.


d. conference.

b. standing

The House of Representatives and the Senate combined have how many members?




a. 435


b. 535


c. 475


d. 575

b. 535

The House of Representatives has the sole power to




a. make agreements with the executive.


b. initiate revenue bills.


c. approve treaties.


d. try impeached officials.

b. initiate revenue bills.

Under the Constitution, senators serve a ______ year term.




a. 4


b. 8


c. 2


d. 6

d. 6

The congressional leaders who take nose counts and try to line up members on partisan issues are called

a. Majority Leaders
b. Whips
c. Sergeants at Arms
d. Minority Leaders

b. Whips

Apportionment and redistricting occurs every




a. 4 years.


b. 10 years.


c. 6 years.


d. 2 years.

b. 10 years

The presiding officer of the Senate who can vote only int he case of a tie is




a. the vice president of the United States.


b. President Pro Tempore


c. Majority Leader.


d. Majority Whip.

a. the vice president of the United States.

Political gerrymandering is legal whereas racial gerrymandering is illegal.




true or false

true



Any two house legislature is also referred to as




a. bifurcated.


b. bicameral.


c. Congress.


d. bimodal

b. bicameral.

Congress has managed to increase the scope of its enumerated powers through the interpretation of the




a. formal lawmaking powers.


b. inherent powers doctrine.


c. grant of exclusive powers.


d. necessary and proper clause

d. necessary and proper clause

The most powerful position in the House of Representatives is called




a. the Speaker


b. President Pro Tempore


c. Majority Leader


d. President of the House

a. the speaker

under the constitution, members of the house of representatives are directly elected for a ___ year term




a. 2


b. 4


c. 6


d. 8

a. 2

In general, the House is/has _____ than the Senate.




a. weaker leadership.


b. emphasized foreign policy more.


c. more personal.


d. stricter rules.

d. stricter rules

The Senate has the sole power to




a. issue patents and copyrights.


b. declare war.


c. regulate the District of Columbia.


d. advise and consent on major presidential appointments.

d. advise and consent on major presidential appointments.

________ do most of the work during the legislative sessions.




a. joint committees


b. Conference committess.


c. Interim committees.


d. Standing committees.

d. standing committees

The legislative branch is established in:




a. Article I


b. Article II


c. Article III


d. Article IV

a. Article I

The 1786 rebellion in which an army of 1,500 disgruntled farmers marched on Springfield, Massachusetts to prevent foreclosure on their farms was called




a. Gabriel's Rebellion


b. Shay's Rebellion


c. Bacon's Rebellion


d. The Farm Revolt

b. Shay's Rebellion

It is difficult to pass amendments to the Constitution.




true or false

true

Supreme Court justices are appointed by the




a. president


b. House of Representatives


c. the states


d. the cabinet

a. president

Another name for the elastic clause is




a. the necessary and proper clause


b. the commerce clause


c. the enumerated powers


d. judicial review

a. the necessary and proper clause

The sole responsibility to try a president or vice president on charges of "treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors" falls to




a. the Supreme Court


b. House of Representatives


c. federal court system


d. Senate

d. senate

The Declaration of Independence was based on Locke's political theory.




true or false

true

The concept of federalism was essentially a carryover from the Articles of Confederation




true or false

false

The House of Representatives is the lower house of the U.S. Congress.




true or false

true

The division of powers among the three branches of government is called:




a. functionalism


b federalism


c. separation of powers


d. pluralism

c. separation of powers

The most serious disagreement in the debate between large and small states at the Constitutional Convention was the issue of




a. representation in Congress


b. westward expansion


c. judicial power


d. taxation

a. representation in Congress

The term used to describe the problem of the majority abusing the minority is




a. mob rule


b. passions of the mob


c. majority abuse


d. tyranny of the majority

d. tyranny of the majority

The system of government in which power is divided between the state and national governments is called




a. a unitary system


b. a plurity


c. a federal system


d. functionalism

c. a federal system

A governmental structure that gives each of the three branches some degree of oversight and control of each other is called




a. command and control


b. checks and balances


c. oversight powers


d. federalism

b. checks and balances

The bill of rights were included in the Constitution at the insistence of the Federalists.




true or false

false

Who is the largest holder of U.S. government debt?




a. domestic holders (including the U.S. Government itself)


b. foreign business and citizens


c. domestic holders (not including the U.S. Government)


d. The Chinese government

a. domestic holders (including the U.S. Government itself)

The main responsibility of the Federal Reserve is to control




a. the Federal Military Reserves.


b. Federal Oil Reserves.


c. the money supply.


d. the Federal Treasury.

c. the money supply.

What is the tool most often used by the Federal Reserve?




a. issuing government bonds


b. changing the discount rate


c. adjusting stock prices


d. trading U.S. currency overseas

a. issuing government bonds

A short-term decline in the economy characterized by sagging investment, falling production, and increasing unemployment is called




a. inflation.


b. recession.


c. depression.


d. stagnation.

b. recession.

As of today the national debt is approximately




a. $200 million


b. $12 billion


c. $14 trillion


d. $12 quadrillion

c. $14 trillion

The budget deficit for the upcoming budget is projected to be what?




a. less than $200 billion.


b. less than $200 million.


c. approximately $400 billion.


d. more than $1 trillion.

d. more than $1 trillion.

A monopoly is when a company controls an entire economic industry.




true or false

true

The value of money is based on the value of precious metals.

true or false

false

________ theorized that deficit spending by a government could supplement the total demand for goods and services and help maintain high levels of spending, production, and employment.




a. Adam Smith


b. John Maynard Keynes


c. Milton Friedman


d. Franklin Delano Roosevelt

b. John Maynard Keynes

Inflation is caused by a surplus of money in the nation's money supply.




true or false

true

Another term for the powers granted to states in the 10th Amendment are the




a. Expressed Powers


b. Implied Powers


c. Reserved Powers


d. Enumerated Powers

c. Reserved Powers

U.S. vs. Lopez cautioned lawmakers to not interpret the commerce clause too broadly, but has had little real effect on federal power.




true or false

true

Gibbons v. Ogden helped to develop the meaning of the commerce clause.




true or false

true

The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.




a. bill of attainder


b. privileges and immunities


c. supremacy


d. full faith and credit

d. full faith and credit

Creative federalism's main goal was to reduce red tape.




true or false

false

The president who was elected to office partly due to a promise to return power to the states was




a. Richard Nixon


b. Ronald Reagan


c. Franklin D. Roosevelt


d. Jimmy Carter

b. Ronald Reagan

The commerce clause is used to justify federal regulation of




a. the stock market


b. segregation


c. highways


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

McCullough v. Maryland dealt with what constitutional issue?




a. Commerce Clause


b. Privileges and Immunities


c. Reserved Powers


d. Supremacy Clause

d. Supremacy Clause

Concurrent powers are powers shared by governments.




true or false

true

Under the Constitution, national and state governments




a. can regulate interstate commerce


b. are totally autonomous


c. are accountable to the people


d. do not share any powers

c. are accountable to the people

Under dual federalism which of the following is most true?




a. State and Federal powers were clearly separated


b. State and Federal powers were intermingled


c. State power was considerably weaker than Federal power


d. State power was considerably stronger than Federal power

a. State and Federal powers were clearly separated

The right to regulate for the public health and welfare of its citizens are reserved to the states by the




a. elastic clause


b. Tenth Amendment


c. Full faith and credit clause


d. supremacy clause

b. Tenth Amendment

The Supremacy Clause establishes which of the following?




a. The authority of the Supreme Court over the other branches of government


b. The supremacy of the national government and the Constitution over state governments


c. The supremacy of the people as the ultimate source of political power


d. The supremacy of the president over the government

b. The supremacy of the national government and the Constitution over state governments

It is argued that Federalism does which of the following?




a. Promotes equality


b. Promotes liberty


c. Promotes centralized decision making


d. Promotes civil rights

b. Promotes liberty

In situations of conflict between state and national law, national law prevails due to the




a. Tenth Amendment


b. full faith and credit


c. the supremacy clause


d. federalism

c. the supremacy clause

The Devolution Revolution has not had a lasting effect on the nature of federalism.




true or false

true

Proponents of the "devolution revolution" argue that




a. the size of the federal government should be expanded


b. the authority of the United Nations should be expanded


c. the use of the military should be expanded


d. the authority of state governments should be expanded

d. the authority of state governments should be expanded

The idea of the National Interest is the most important consideration when any foreign policy decision is being made.




true or false

true

The strategy of opposing Soviet expansion with military forces, economic assistance, and political influence was known as




a. containment


b. balance of power


c. alliance theory


d. prevention

a. containment

Presidents have occasionally initiated "wars" without a declaration from Congress.




true or false

true

Who was our chief adversary in the Cold War?




a. Iraq


b. Vietnam


c. Soviet Union


d. Germany

c. Soviet Union

The first peacetime military treaty organization the Americans joined was




a. the United Nations


b. the League of Nations


c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization


d. The International Criminal Court

c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization

Ambassadors are representatives one country sends to another country to speak on their behalf.




true or false

true

The United States is not particularly active in international organizations.




true or false

false

The cornerstone of America's national security today is what?




a. Deterrence.


b. The preemptive strike.


c. Imperialism.


d. Isolationism.

a. Deterrence.

The U.S. often avoided participation in foreign affairs through a foreign policy of




a. multilateralism


b. globalism


c. isolationism


d. preemption

c. isolationism

The term detente describes which of the following




a. a reduction in tensions


b. a buildup of tensions


c. a secret alliance


d. isolationism

a. a reduction in tensions

Mutually assured destruction was United States and Soviet policy developed in the 1950s and 1960s.




true or false

true

Congress has no role in foreign policy




true or false

false

International law can be easily ignored due to the difficulty of enforcing it.




true or false

true

The president's 1823 pledge that the United States would oppose any attempt by European states to extend political control in the Western Hemisphere was called the




a. Jackson Principle


b. Madison Rule


c. Monroe Doctrine


d. Adams Doctrine

c. Monroe Doctrine

Which of the following was a primary cause of WWI?




a. The policy of containment.


b. The policy of appeasement.


c. Europe's system of alliances.


d. Competition over natural resources.

c. Europe's system of alliances.

Iron Triangles are criticized because they leave which group out of the policy process?




a. The people


b. Congress


c. The Executive


d. The Judiciary

a. The people

Madison's theory of pluralism cautions against allowing too many factions to express themselves in society.




true or false

false

The activities of groups and organizations that seek to influence legislation and persuade political leaders to support a group's positions is called




a. Lobbying


b. Patronage


c. Political activity


d. Testimony

a. Lobbying

Legally-sanctioned organizations that allow corporations, labor unions, and interest groups to raise money and make contributions to candidates in national elections are called




a. Political Interest Groups


b. Campaign Finance Committees


c. Political Action Committees


d. Federal Election Committees

c. Political Action Committees

Which of the following groups is more likely to be a member of interest groups than the others?




a. The Wealthy


b. Minorities


c. Women


d. The Elderly

a. The Wealthy

Which institution is most likely to be targeted by lobbyists?




a. Congress


b. The Judiciary


c. The President


d. The states

a. Congress

The courts are not effective in advancing the agenda of lobbyists.




true or false

false

An example of a grassroots campaign would be...




a. A campaign to urge everyday citizens to write their Congressperson.


b. A $25,000 a person fundraising dinner.


c. Lobbyists taking various members of Congress out to dinner.


d. Lobbyists speaking at a conference of CEOs.

a. A campaign to urge everyday citizens to write their Congressperson.

Interest groups often nominate and run candidates for office.




true or false

false

Business and trade groups have the largest lobbying presence in Washington.




true or false

true

Politicians generally cast interest groups in a positive light.




true or false

false

Interest groups play a significant role in American politics.




true or false

true

Free-riders are those that do not belong to a group, but benefit from its activities.




true or false

true

The number of interest groups continues to grow in today's political climate.




true or false

true

Interest groups largely stay out of electoral politics.




true or false

false

Positive Liberty states that your rights end when they infringe on the rights of others.




true or false

false

All citizens are theoretically equal under the law.




true or false

true

Which political activity is most directly connected with the idea of popular sovereignty?




a. Voting


b. Jury Duty


c. Protesting


d. Running for Political Office

a. Voting

North Korea is an example of which form of government?




a. Totalitarianism


b. Oligarchy


c. Theocracy


d. Authoritarianism

a. Totalitarianism

Americans tend to support the idea of equality of opportunity over equality of results.




true or false

true

The state of nature is a condition of peaceful coexistence.




true or false

false

Which of the following is an example of a policy that is consistent with negative liberty?




a. A law requiring someone wear a seat belt.


b. A law requiring car dealerships to close on Sunday.


c. A law regulating the volume that music can be played at.


d. All of the above.

c. A law regulating the volume that music can be played at.

The phrase "One person, one vote" describes which of the following concepts?




a. Popular Sovereignty


b. Equality of Opportunity


c. Political Equality


d. Popular Consent

c. Political Equality

Thomas Hobbes believed that government's only job was to provide order, but Locke theorized government had responsibilities beyond this. What else did he argue that government should provide?




a. Life, Liberty and Property


b. Life, Liberty and Fraternity


c. Life, Liberty and Freedom


d. Life, Liberty and The Pursuit of Happiness

a. Life, Liberty and Property

The primary purpose of politics is to manage scarce resources.




true or false

true

Judicial review, the power of the judiciary to review the acts of other branches of government, was established for the national government in




a. Marbury v. Madison.


b. Gibbons v. Ogden.


c. Martin v. Hunter's Lessee.


d. McCullough v. Maryland.

a. Marbury v. Madison.

The Supreme Court decision that overturned Plessy (1896) in 1954 was called




a. Brown v. Topeka Board of Education.


b. Missouri v. Gaines.


c. McLaurin v. Oklahoma.


d. the Sweatt case.

a. Brown v. Topeka Board of Education.

How many justices sit on the Supreme Court today?




a. 5


b. 7


c. 9


d. 6

c. 9

The first step in the process of arguing a case before the Supreme Court is to




a. file precedent.


b. give oral arguments.


c. file a dossier.


d. submit written arguments.

d. submit written arguments.

The Constitution contains a detailed description of the judicial branch.




true or false

false

Opinion assignment can be used as a bargaining tactic to influence a justice's vote.




true or false

true

Appellate courts usually




a. hear only criminal cases.


b. review the legal procedures of a case.


c. determine the credibility of the facts of a case.


d. hear only civil cases.

b. review the legal procedures of a case.

Which of the following are reasons the Supreme Court might agree to grant an appeal?




a. The case involves a high profile issue.


b. The cases' legal issue lacks clear precedent.


c. There are conflicting lower court opinions.


d. All of the Above.

d. All of the Above.

With the exception of the Supreme Court, the federal court system was established by




a. Article IV.


b. judicial review.


c. the Supreme Court.


d. Congress.

d. Congress.

Which of the following is NOT a power the legislative branch has over the judicial branch?




a. The power to lower the salary of serving justices.


b. The power to confirm the appointment of justices.


c. The power to create and remove lower courts.


d. To turn off the lights in the Supreme Court building.

a. The power to lower the salary of serving justices.

The term for Supreme Court justices and federal justices is for




a. 8 years.


b. 10 years.


c. life.


d. 4 years.

c. life.

Who is the solicitor general?




a. The U.S. attorney general.


b. The cabinet officials that oversees advertising in the United States.


c. The attorney that represents the United States in cases before the Supreme Court.


d. The president's personal attorney.

c. The attorney that represents the United States in cases before the Supreme Court.

Supreme Court clerks are




a. veteran attorneys from prestigious law firms.


b. college law professors.


c. law school graduates from prestigious schools.


d. Bureaucrats appointed by the president.

c. law school graduates from prestigious schools.

The legal model states that judges make decisions based only on legal consideration.




true or false

true

Which of the following would be a valid reason for the court of appeals to grant an appeal?




a. The defendant wants a new trial.


b. The defendant claims the police did not inform him of his rights.


c. The prosecution feels the defendant's sentence was too light.


d. All of the Above.

b. The defendant claims the police did not inform him of his rights.

When it comes to issues of national security the courts tend to rule in favor of government censorship of the media.




true or false

false

The president's press secretary is responsible for regulating the media in America.




true or false

false

The press has a much greater impact on certain topics, for example,




a. domestic politics.


b. elections and campaigns.


c. crime issues.


d. events in foreign countries.

d. events in foreign countries.

Which of the following statements concerning cable news is most true?




a. Cable news networks fill ideological 'niches'.


b. Cable news networks spend most of their time reporting, and not interpreting, the news of the day.


c. Cable news networks operate without financial concerns in mind.


d. Cable news viewership is falling due to increasing viewership of network news.

a. Cable news networks fill ideological 'niches'.

The 1st Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of the press.




true or false

true

It is fair to say that media is much more biased today than it has been at any time in the past.




true or false

false

Which of the following is a live event where the press secretary deals directly with the press?




a. a penny press


b. a press briefing


c. a press conference


d. a press release

b. a press briefing

Media today consists of




a. Print


b. Broadcast Media


c. Internet


d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Media tends to have a larger effect on people who are uncommitted or who have very little information about issues, events, and candidates.




true or false

true

The Watergate scandal helped to launch modern day investigative journalism.




true or false

true


The internet




a. allows for consumers to personalize the news they read.


b. has taken a large share of ad revenue from print media.


c. may not contain information that is completely reliable.


d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

Newspaper readership has




a. increased as of late.


b. declined since the establishment of the internet.


c. risen among those aged 18 - 49.


d. remained constant over time.

b. declined since the establishment of the internet.

Republicans are typically more trusting of the media than Democrats.




true or false

false

Political Parties engage in fundraising




a. constantly.


b. only during elections.


c. sparingly.


d. never, as it is forbidden by law.

a. constantly.

Reform of the primary system led to the end of party machines.




true or false

true

What was the first political party in America?




a. Federalists


b. Anti-Federalists


c. Republican party


d. Whig party

a. Federalists

Which of the following issues has persisted throughout America's history?




a. state's rights


b. slavery


c. social welfare


d. environmental policy

a. state's rights

Duverger's Law states




a. that the nature of the American electoral system pushes out third parties.


b. that there should be more than two political parties in America.


c. that the people's interests are left out of the policy process.


d. that multiple groups should exist in America to help express the public's views.

a. that the nature of the American electoral system pushes out third parties.

At a basic level, a party is a group




a. who identifies with a group label.


b. that seeks to elect public officials.


c. a group of activists, candidates, office holders, and voters.


d. All of the Above.

d. All of the Above.

Which branch of government is the most heavily shaped by political parties?




a. Congress


b. Presidency


c. Judiciary


d. the States

a. Congress

In the 1980s Ronald Reagan added what issue to the Republican platform?




a. The idea of less government.


b. Social welfare.


c. 'moral issues'


d. decreased military spending.

c. 'moral issues'

Ronald Regan was responsible for the realignment of the Democratic Party in the 1980s.




true or false

false

Parties help the election process by facilitating a process to place candidates on the ballot.




true or false

true

America utilizes a three party system comprised of the Democratic Party, Republican Party, and Green Party.




true or false

false

Which ethnic group is MOST LIKELY to identify themselves as Democrats?




a. African Americans


b. Hispanics


c. Asians


d. American Indians

a. African Americans

How often does each party hold their national convention?




a. Every two years.


b. Every four years.


c. Every six years.


d. Every eight years.

b. Every four years.

The Democratic party focuses on all of the following issues EXCEPT




a. social welfare


b. environmental programs


c. business regulation


d. tax cuts for the wealthy

d. tax cuts for the wealthy

Party machines are a type of ballot box used by parties to count votes in a primary.




true or false

false

Political Parties have organizations at the




a. state level.


b. national level.


c. local level.


d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

One of the president's checks on judicial power is




a. the pardon.


b. impeachment.


c. the line-item veto.


d. all of the above.

a. the pardon.

An executive order of the president




a. may help to clarify a law passed by Congress.


b. has the effect of law.


c. has the power to create policy.


d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

The name given to the scandal that ruined Nixon's presidency was




a. Whitewater


b. Iran-Contra


c. The Lewinsky Affair


d. Watergate

d. Watergate

The president has the power to appoint




a. all legislative branch employees.


b. all federal employees.


c. his Cabinet.


d. all of the above.

c. his Cabinet.

The president appoint ambassadors with the advice and consent of the Senate.




true or false

true

The founder of the "modern presidency" is considered to be FDR.




true or false

true

In the early years of this country, the president tended to be much stronger than the Congress.




true or false

false

Presidential vetoes are rarely overridden.




true or false

true

The responsibilities of the Office of Management and Budget include




a. supplying economic forecasts.


b. preparing the president's budget program.


c. reviewing the budget proposals of executive departments.


d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Which of the following is an example of "going public"?




a. The president appearing on CNN's Larry King Live.


b. Voting for the president based on charm and charisma instead of policy positions.


c. Crafting a budget proposal emphasizing the president's policy priorities.


d. The president dining with members of Congress so he can persuade them to support his policies.

a. The president appearing on CNN's Larry King Live.

Under the Constitution, the qualifications for president include that the president must be




a. male, an American citizen, and a resident for at least 14 years.


b. experienced in politics and law, over 30 years old, and a citizen


c. mature and a citizen for at least 14 years.


d. over 35 years old and a natural born citizen.

d. over 35 years old and a natural born citizen.

The part of government primarily responsible for the implementation of laws is




a. the bureaucracy.


b. the legislative branch.


c. the judicial branch.


d. the Legislative Budget Board.

a. the bureaucracy.

President Johnson created pessimistic feelings toward the government by mishandling the Vietnam War.




true or false

true

Alexander Hamilton argued that what sort of executive is necessary?




a. an energetic executive


b. a tyrannical executive


c. a weak executive


d. a balanced executive

a. an energetic executive

A demagogue would be expected to blame the problems of a country on factors beyond anyone's control.




true or false

false

When conducting a poll, all members of the target population must have an equal chance of selection.




true or false

true

Public Opinion matters in democracy because of the concept of




a. justice


b. popular sovereignty


c. media bias


d. liberty

b. popular sovereignty

People tend to become more ideologically conservative as they age.




true or false

true

Sample size is not a major consideration when constructing a poll.




true or false

false

In the 2000 election, the media initially declared Al Gore the winner over George W. Bush. This call was made using




a. actual vote totals


b. random-digital dial technologies


c. entrance polls


d. exit polls

d. exit polls

All polls contain errors. In order to determine how reliable a poll is, one must determine the




a. Sampling error


b. Inaccuracy rate


c. standard deviation


d. all of the above

a. Sampling error

Women are much more likely to support abortion than men.




true or false

false

An example of push polling would be




a. a pollster emphasizing one choice over another


b. a poll that fails to utilize random sampling


c. a poll that only polls those leaving an election


d. a poll that only emphasizes a certain class of people

a. a pollster emphasizing one choice over another

Whites tend to believe the justice system is inherently unfair.




true or false

false

Hispanics tend to be opposed to abortion.




true or false

true

Which of the following is an agent of political socialization?




a. Mass Media


b. Family


c. Schools


d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Most polls are




a. direct mail surveys


b. telephone polls


c. deliberative polls


d. straw polls

b. telephone polls

African Americans tend to feel the government should attempt to address the issue of economic equality.




true or false

true

Communist thought is partially responsible for the development of social democracy.




true or false

true

The crafting of appropriate and acceptable proposed courses of action to ameliorate or resolve public problems is called




a. agenda setting.


b. policy adoption.


c. policy formulation.


d. policy resolution.

c. policy formulation.

Healthcare costs are expected to




a. decrease in the long term.


b. increase at the same rate as inflation.


c. increase slightly faster than the rate of inflation


d. increase much faster than the rate of inflation.

d. increase much faster than the rate of inflation.

Policy adoption




a. occurs directly after the problem recognition phase of the process.


b. provides the guidelines for legislative consideration of policy proposals.


c. gives policies legal force.


d. prohibits the implementation of policies approved by the legislature.

c. gives policies legal force.

Medicaid was designed to provide health care




a. for the aged and ill.


b. for the working class.


c. for the poor.


d. all of the above.

c. for the poor.

One of the primary agenda setters for Congress is/are




a. events and crises.


b. interest groups.


c. the president.


d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Which of the following is most responsible for policy implementation?




a. The executive branch.


b. Congress.


c. The U.S. Supreme Court


d. Interest groups.

a. The executive branch.

Fraud in the food stamp program is




a. decreasing.


b. increasing.


c. experiencing no change.


d. fluctuates from year to year.

a. decreasing.

Who governs?




a. Voters


b. Elites


c. Interest Groups Bureaucrats


d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

Which of the following is the central problem in regards to social security funding?




a. health care costs are falling


b. Over time the system will take in far less than it pays out.


c. Too many people opt out of paying social security.


d. Social Security funding is spent elsewhere.

b. Over time the system will take in far less than it pays out.

Agenda setting is a(n)




a. matter of chance.


b. a competitive process.


c. static procedure.


d. linear process.

b. a competitive process.

What are food stamps?




a. Stamps given to the poor to exchange for food at government offices.


b. Stamps taken from cereal boxes that are mailed to help support local schools.


c. Stamps given to the poor that are honored as money to buy food at supermarkets.


d. A special stamp that must be used to mail a perishable item.

c. Stamps given to the poor that are honored as money to buy food at supermarkets.

The intentional course of action followed by government in dealing with problems or matters of concern is called




a. social welfare policy.


b. public administration.


c. policy formulation.


d. public policy.

d. public policy.

A set of problems to which policy makers believe they should be attentive is called




a. policy formulation.


b. an agenda.


c. programs.


d. entitlements.

b. an agenda.

Primaries are




a. the final election that determines which candidate will serve in political office.


b. an election to determine which candidate a political party will run for office.


c. an election that only takes place at the local level.


d. special elections to fill a vacancy in office.

b. an election to determine which candidate a political party will run for office.

The economic theory of voting states that people with higher incomes are more likely to vote.




true or false

false

Initiative is a process




a. where citizens propose and vote on state laws.


b. where the legislature proposes laws and citizens approve them.


c. to allow the public to remove officeholders before their re-election.


d. utilized at the federal level only.

a. where citizens propose and vote on state laws.

Voter turnout in America is




a. lower than it has been in the past.


b. highest for presidential elections.


c. lowest for local elections.


d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

Men are more likely to vote than women.




true or false

false

Whites are more likely to vote than minorities.




true or false

true

Actual popular vote totals are used to determine the winner of the presidential election.




true or false

false

Incumbents tend to win elections. What is an incumbent?




a. A person currently holding elected office.


b. A person seeking office for the first time.


c. A candidate who is seeking election, but has been defeated in past elections.


d. A candidate running in a primary.

a. A person currently holding elected office.

Voter registration is automatic in America.




true or false

false

Recall is a process




a. where citizens propose and vote on state laws.


b. where the legislature proposes laws and citizens approve them.


c. to allow the public to remove officeholders before their re-election.


d. utilized at the federal level only.

c. to allow the public to remove officeholders before their re-election.

What do people expect from the government?




a. security education


b. a safe food supply


c. information about severe weather


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the consequences of declining trust in government?




a. Distrust threatens the government’s ability to attract good workers to the public sector.


b. Distrust makes people less willing to pay the taxes necessary for public activities.


c. Distrust motivates people to participate in politics through voting, volunteering for political campaigns, and running for office.


d. Distrust weakens the government’s ability to help people in times of crisis.


e. Distrust weakens the government’s ability to defend our national interest in the world economy.

c. Distrust motivates people to participate in politics through voting, volunteering for political campaigns, and running for office.

In order to be a good citizen, it is most critical to possess ________.




a. powerful friends


b. money


c. political knowledge


d. strongly held convictions


e. a doctoral degree in political science

c. political knowledge

How is a decline in political efficacy likely to matter for the health of the American democracy?




a. It is likely to lead to an increase in political participation and a renewed interest in political life.


b. It is likely to lead to a decline in political participation and a withdrawal from political life.


c. It is likely to lead to less dishonesty by elected representatives.


d. It is likely to lower the total national debt.


e. It is likely to lead to a stronger belief in the values of liberty and equality.

b. It is likely to lead to a decline in political participation and a withdrawal from political life.

It is important for Americans to have political knowledge so that they will




a. be able to determine who is conservative or libertarian.


b. not suffer from political efficacy.


c. be better able to understand various policy proposals and their implications on society.


d. be better able to judge the legitimacy of other nations.


e. feel a stronger sense of patriotism.

c. be better able to understand various policy proposals and their implications on society.

The first prerequisite to increasing political efficacy is ________.




a. increasing political knowledge


b. decreasing political knowledge


c. reducing political participation


d. reducing trust in government


e. increasing political indifference

a. increasing political knowledge

An autocracy exists when




a. the government is controlled by a single individual.


b. the government is controlled by a small but powerful group of people.


c. the constitution of a government is followed strictly.


d. the government is controlled by one dominant religious group.


e. citizens play a significant part in government by electing key public officials.

a. the government is controlled by a single individual.

The ________ was the key group in Europe that pushed for limited government.




a. bourgeoisie


b. gendarmes


c. libertarian group


d. peasantry


e. socialist party

a. bourgeoisie

he struggle of competing interest groups for governmental influence is called ________.




a. pluralism


b. direct action politics


c. direct democracy


d. oligarchy


e. grassroots mobilization

a. pluralism

________ described politics as “who gets what, when, and how.”




a. James Madison


b. Abraham Lincoln


c. Franklin Roosevelt


d. Harold Lasswell


e. John Locke

d. Harold Lasswell

Which of the following statements about the changes in American society between 1900 and 2010 is NOT true?




a. There has been a decline in the percentage of Americans who identify themselves as Protestants.


b. The average age of Americans has fallen.


c. There has been an increase in the percentage of Americans who live in urban areas.


d. The percentage of Caucasians has decreased.


e. There has been an increase in the percentage of Americans who identify as multiracial.

b. The average age of Americans has fallen.

Which of the following statements about the United States census is most accurate?




a. The census has always counted every person living within the boundaries of the United States regardless of race or ethnicity.


b. The census has always categorized people in one of five racial groups: Native Americans, Latino Americans, African Americans, Caucasian Americans, and Asian Americans.


c. The census has never categorized people by race or ethnicity.


d. Who census officials count and how they are categorized by race and ethnicity have changed significantly throughout American history.


e The current census does not allow a person to identify himself or herself as a member of more than one racial group.

d. Who census officials count and how they are categorized by race and ethnicity have changed significantly throughout American history.

Which of the following statements best describes how Americans currently feel about laissez-faire capitalism?




a. Americans strongly support capitalism and economic liberty and reject all restrictions on economic freedom.


b. Americans strongly support capitalism and economic liberty but also endorse policies that are designed to guarantee economic equality among all citizens.


c. Americans strongly support capitalism and economic liberty but also endorse some restrictions on economic freedoms to protect the public.


d. Americans strongly oppose capitalism and economic liberty and endorse policies that are designed to guarantee economic equality among all citizens.


e. Americans strongly oppose capitalism and economic liberty and endorse some restrictions on economic freedoms to protect the public.

c. Americans strongly support capitalism and economic liberty but also endorse some restrictions on economic freedoms to protect the public.

The Constitution’s Preamble, beginning with the words “We the People,” is an illustration of ________.




a. laissez-faire capitalism


b. political equality


c. popular sovereignty


d. minority rights


e. political rights

c. popular sovereignty

What is the most important check on majority rule in the United States?




a. popular sovereignty


b. pluralism


c. the rights enumerated in the Bill of Rights


d. laissez-faire capitalism


e. “one person, one vote”

c. the rights enumerated in the Bill of Rights

Which of the following was NOT discussed as a purpose of government in the Constitution’s Preamble?




a. to promote justice


b. to maintain peace at home


c. to guarantee an equal distribution of wealth for all citizens


d. to defend the nation from foreign foes


e. to secure the “blessings of liberty”

c. to guarantee an equal distribution of wealth for all citizens

According to the authors of the text, which sector of society did not have interests that were important to colonial politics?




a. New England merchants


b. small farmers


c. slaves


d. royalists loyal to Britain


e. southern planters

c. slaves

How was political power in Congress divided under the Articles of Confederation?




a. Each state had an equal vote.


b. Each state’s votes were proportionate to its population.


c. The states were not formally represented in Congress.


d. Each state’s power depended on its geographic size.


e. Each state’s power depended on its economic wealth.

a. Each state had an equal vote.

As a constitution, the Articles of Confederation were concerned primarily with




a. creating a unitary form of government.


b. creating a federal form of government.


c. creating a form of government in which the states were largely subservient to the national government.


d. limiting the powers of the central government.


e. creating a strong national military.

d. limiting the powers of the central government.

The 1787 convention to draft a new constitution was held in ________.




a. Boston


b. New York City


c. Philadelphia


d. Washington, DC


e. Richmond, VA

c. Philadelphia

The Three-fifths Compromise




a. determined that three out of every five slaves would be counted for purposes of representation and taxation.


b. determined the ratio between free states and slave states.


c. created a bicameral legislature.


d. declared that the states would pay three-fifths of the Revolutionary War debt and the federal government would pay the rest.


e. determined that all American citizens would pay three-fifths of their incomes to the federal government in taxes every year.

a. determined that three out of every five slaves would be counted for purposes of representation and taxation.

________ was the only state NOT to send delegates to the Philadelphia Convention.




a. Rhode Island


b. Massachusetts


c. Virginia


d. Maine


e. New York

a. Rhode Island

Which of the following possesses the sole power to create revenue bills?




a. the U.S. House of Representatives


b. the U.S. Senate


c. the U.S. president


d. the Office of Management and Budget


e. the U.S. Treasury Department

a. the U.S. House of Representatives

The decision to give the national government control over commerce and finance was motivated primarily by the framers’ desire to




a. end slavery in the United States.


b. eliminate state and local governments.


c. promote economic development and protect property from radical state legislatures.


d. build international alliances.


e. guarantee economic equality for all citizens.

c. promote economic development and protect property from radical state legislatures.

The framers of the U.S. Constitution intended to create a presidency capable of




a. completely dominating Congress.


b. withstanding excessive popular pressure by making it subject to indirect election through the electoral college.


c. spending money with little interference from any other branch of government.


d. regulating all forms of commerce.


e. declaring war on any country that poses a threat to American national security.

b. withstanding excessive popular pressure by making it subject to indirect election through the electoral college.

Why was the decision to assign jurisdiction over controversies between citizens of different states to the Supreme Court significant?

a. It meant that the federal judiciary, rather than the state courts, would ultimately become the primary venue for resolving disputes.
b. It meant that the state courts, rather than the federal judiciary, would ultimately become the primary venue for resolving disputes.
c. It meant that courts at both the state and federal levels would become irrelevant to the operating of the American political system.
d. It meant that the federal courts would not be allowed to use the power of judicial review on cases involving economic disputes.
e. It meant that the state courts would be allowed to use the power of judicial review on cases involving economic disputes.

a. It meant that the federal judiciary, rather than the state courts, would ultimately become the primary venue for resolving disputes.

Which of the following is NOT true about the U.S. Constitution?




a. The Senate had staggered terms.


b. The electoral college directly selects the U.S. president.


c. The Constitution can be amended with a two-thirds majority vote of both houses of Congress and a ratification vote by three-fourths of the states.


d. Federal judges have lifetime tenure.


e. States do not have to give full faith and credit to official acts in other states.

e. States do not have to give full faith and credit to official acts in other states.

How did the framers attempt to reassure citizens that their views would be represented in the new government created by the Constitution?




a. by allowing citizens to vote directly on all laws enacted by the federal government


b. by making the Constitution very easy to amend


c. by requiring the direct election of senators, members of the House, and the president


d. by giving the federal judiciary the power of judicial review


e. by defining the new government’s most important powers, such as collecting taxes, borrowing money, and regulating commerce, as belonging to Congress

e. by defining the new government’s most important powers, such as collecting taxes, borrowing money, and regulating commerce, as belonging to Congress

One reason for the Constitution’s longevity is that it




a. did not confer permanent advantage on any one set of economic or social forces.


b. immediately outlawed slavery once ratified.


c. immediately granted universal suffrage once ratified.


d. gave the public the opportunity to directly vote on all laws.


e. has been successfully amended by citizens thousands of times.

a. did not confer permanent advantage on any one set of economic or social forces.

The most important political value for the framers of the Constitution was ________.




a. democracy


b. political equality


c. economic equality


d. individual liberty


e. civic virtue

d. individual liberty

The federal system can be best defined as




a. a system of government where member nations meet in a multinational conference.


b. a system of government in which power is divided between a national government and lower levels of government.


c. a system in which the power of the central government is funded through taxation of the local government.


d. the sharing of legislative powers between an upper and lower house.


e. a system where governmental authority is divided into separate branches and each branch is given some power over the other branches.

b. a system of government in which power is divided between a national government and lower levels of government.

Why did local governments become administratively important in the early years of the Republic?




a. They became important because the Constitution instructed them to implement all federal laws.


b. They became important because the Constitution instructed them to implement all state laws.


c. They became important because states lacked the administrative capability to implement laws and relied, therefore, on local governments.


d. They became important because Congress passed many laws that emphasized the role of local government in implementing federal laws.


e. They became important because the Supreme Court ruled that only local governments had the authority to implement laws under the Constitution.

c. They became important because states lacked the administrative capability to implement laws and relied, therefore, on local governments.

Who wrote the Supreme Court opinions in both McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) and Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)?




a. Alexander Hamilton


b. James Madison


c. John Marshall


d. Roger Taney


e. Andrew Jackson

c. John Marshall

In ________, the Supreme Court reinterpreted the commerce clause, changing it from a check on national power to a source of national power.




a. 1865


b. 1915


c. 1937


d. 1973


e. 1981

c. 1937

In 1996, ________ carried a copy of the Tenth Amendment in his pocket as he campaigned for the presidency.




a. Bill Clinton


b. Ross Perot


c. Ralph Nader


d. Bob Dole


e. George W. Bush

d. Bob Dole

How did the traditional system of dual federalism establish a “commercial republic”?




a. The federal government passed laws forbidding any regulation of capitalism.


b. The function of the federal government was to promote and assist commerce.


c. Dual federalism established property-holding requirements for federal officeholders.


d. The federal government was originally designed to regulate and control the marketplace.


e. The federal government sold many natural resources from publicly owned lands.

b. The function of the federal government was to promote and assist commerce.

Under the traditional system of American federalism, most of the fundamental governing in the U.S. was done by________




a. state governments


b. the federal government


c. local governments


d. both federal and local governments


e. none of the above

a. state governments

What was a major reason that the slogan “states’ rights” became tarnished in the 1950s and 1960s?


a. It had been used to advocate for a series of home rule policies that cost thousands of people their jobs.


b. It had been used by southern opponents of the civil rights movement to support racial segregation.


c. It had been used by religious organizations to increase federal spending on faith-based initiatives.


d. It had been used by antiwar activists to protest against increases in military spending.


e. It had been used by supporters of the civil rights movement to oppose racial segregation.

b. It had been used by southern opponents of the civil rights movement to support racial segregation.

Which of the following statements about the structure of American federalism is true?




a. It has contributed to the longevity of the U.S. government by allowing many divisive policy decisions throughout American history to be made by states.


b. It has contributed to the longevity of the U.S. government by forcing every state to develop in exactly the same way.


c. It has contributed to the longevity of the U.S. government by not allowing states to make divisive policy decisions at any point in American history.


d. It caused the Civil War to be fought decades before it would have been under a unitary system.


e. It has had almost no effect on the stability and functioning of U.S. government.

a. It has contributed to the longevity of the U.S. government by allowing many divisive policy decisions throughout American history to be made by states.

Many Americans blamed ________ for their plight during the Great Depression.




a. Woodrow Wilson


b. Warren Harding


c. Calvin Coolidge


d. Herbert Hoover


e. Harry Truman

d. Herbert Hoover

The Supreme Court justices determined that the Affordable Care Act was




a. unconstitutional under the First Amendment.


b. constitutional under the commerce clause of Article I


c. constitutional under Congress’s power to tax.


d. constitutional under the Third Amendment.


e. none of the above

a. unconstitutional under the First Amendment.

What is one of the biggest problems with federal block grants?




a. There is a need for greater accountability in how the funds are actually spent by the states.


b. There is a need to be sure that the states are following the precise regulations established by the federal government.


c. There is a need to make sure the grants do not violate the commerce clause of the Constitution.


d. Republican administrations have been unwilling to allow block grants.


e. States have been unwilling to accept any funding from the federal government.

a. There is a need for greater accountability in how the funds are actually spent by the states.

________ compels state officials to obey costly federal regulations, but does not reimburse those costs.




a. A grant-in-aid


b. A preemption


c. An unfunded mandate


d. A block grant


e. General revenue sharing

c. An unfunded mandate

One argument for a strong federal government is its role in ensuring ________ across states.




a. liberty


b. equality


c. welfare reform


d. laissez-faire capitalism


e. popular sovereignty

b. equality

Which of the following statements about federalism in America is true?




a. The framers resolved all federalism debates at the Philadelphia Convention.


b. In recent decades, Americans have become more distrustful of state governments than the federal government.


c. Each generation of Americans has a different view of federalism.


d. In recent decades, the justices of the Supreme Court have favored federal power over state power.


e. Americans are more amenable to federal power today than in the 1960s.

c. Each generation of Americans has a different view of federalism.

Which of the following is true about the Bill of Rights?




a. It includes the first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution.


b. It includes all of the civil liberties and civil rights found in the U.S. Constitution.


c. It is the first national Constitution of the United States.


d. It is the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.


e. It is the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

a. It includes the first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution.

________ is a law that declares a person guilty of a crime without a trial.


a. Habeas corpus


b. Ex post facto


c. A bill of attainder


d. An executive order


e. A writ of judicial error

c. A bill of attainder

The constitutional basis for the nationalization of the Bill of Rights is the ________.




a. First Amendment (1791)


b. Fourth Amendment (1791)


c. Fifth Amendment (1791)


d. Tenth Amendment (1791)


e. Fourteenth Amendment (1868)

e. Fourteenth Amendment (1868)

The process by which the Supreme Court justices have expanded specific parts of the Bill of Rights to protect citizens against state and federal actions is called ________.




a. habeas corpus


b. selective incorporation


c. the takings clause


d. dual federalism


e. cooperative federalism

b. selective incorporation

Which of the following is the best description of the Supreme Court’s first ruling on the issue of the nationalization of the Bill of Rights in 1833?




a. The takings clause restricts national and state governments but not city governments.


b. The Bill of Rights should not be used if a state’s constitution already contains its own bill of rights.


c. The takings clause does not cover accidents caused by government officials.


d. The Bill of Rights limits the national government but not state governments.


e. The Bill of Rights limits state governments but not the national government.

d. The Bill of Rights limits the national government but not state governments.

The wall of separation between church and state is best found in what clause of the Constitution?




a. the free exercise clause


b. the establishment clause


c. the equal protection clause


d. the wall of separation clause


e. the full faith and credit clause

b. the establishment clause

In West Virginia State Board of Education v. Barnette (1943), the Supreme Court justices announced that




a. Amish children are not required to attend school past the age of twelve.


b. children cannot be required to salute the flag if it violates their religious faith.


c. children can be required to salute the flag even if it violates their religious faith.


d. school officials are permitted greater authority to censor speech and expression than would be permissible off school grounds.


e. prayer in school violates the establishment clause.

b. children cannot be required to salute the flag if it violates their religious faith.

Which of the following types of speech receives the greatest level of First Amendment protection?




a. slander


b. pornography


c. obscenity


d. libel


e. political speech that stops short of inciting violence

e. political speech that stops short of inciting violence

The Supreme Court’s decision in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010) was significant because it concluded that the




a. Constitution prohibits the government from limiting campaign spending in any way.


b. Constitution allows the government to prevent certain candidates from running campaign ads.


c. Constitution allows the government to ban political speech funded by corporations.


d. Constitution prohibits the government from regulating political speech funded by corporations.


e. “millionaire’s amendment” to the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was consistent with the Constitution.

d. Constitution prohibits the government from regulating political speech funded by corporations.

The decision in R.A.V. v. City of St. Paul (1992) suggests that




a. high school students have the same freedom of speech rights as adults.


b. political speech receives more protection under the Constitution than commercial speech.


c. commercial speech receives more protection under the Constitution than political speech.


d. virtually all hate speech is not protected by the Constitution.


e. virtually all hate speech is constitutionally protected.

e. virtually all hate speech is constitutionally protected.

________ prevents people from being tried twice for the same crime.




a. Self-incrimination


b. Double jeopardy


c. Exclusion


d. Unreasonable seizures


e. Cruel and unusual punishment

b. Double jeopardy

What is a grand jury?




a. a jury used in federal courts


b. a jury that determines whether there is enough evidence to justify a trial


c. a jury that determines the sentence after guilt has been proven


d. a jury that determines whether the rights of the accused have been violated


e. a jury that determines guilt or innocence in a trial

b. a jury that determines whether there is enough evidence to justify a trial

Miranda v. Arizona (1966) was important because it produced rules that must be used




a. to determine if separation between church and state has been violated.


b. to judge whether or not printed materials are pornographic.


c. to determine if some element of the Bill of Rights should be applied to the states.


d. to determine whether a warrant should be issued for a police search.


e. by the police before questioning an arrested criminal suspect.

e. by the police before questioning an arrested criminal suspect.

A recent controversy that has tested the constitutional definition of “search and seizure” has been




a. physician-assisted suicide.


b. mandatory drug testing.


c. employers reading their employees’ e-mail messages.


d. a mandatory waiting period for purchasing firearms.


e. attempts to restrict access to abortions.

b. mandatory drug testing.

The substantive constraints found in the Bill of Rights




a. put limitations on what government officials can and cannot do.


b. define how government officials are supposed to act.


c. define when government officials are supposed to act.


d. discuss why government officials are allowed to do certain things but not others.


e. define the powers of each branch of government in intricate detail.

a. put limitations on what government officials can and cannot do.

In 1890, ________ became the first state to allow women to vote.




a. Massachusetts


b. Wisconsin


c. Wyoming


d. New York


e. California

c. Wyoming

Women were guaranteed the right to vote with the passage of the Nineteenth Amendment, which was ratified in ________.




a. 1820


b. 1880


c. 1900


d. 1920


e. 1970

d. 1920

The NAACP had the most success with ________ for combating racism.




a. mass marches and protests


b. civil disobedience


c. lawsuits


d. passive resistance


e. radio and television advertising

c. lawsuits

________ civil rights acts were passed during the first decade after the 1954 Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education.




a. No


b. Three


c. Ten


d. Twenty


e. Thirty-two

b. Three

In the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Congress vastly expanded the role of the executive branch and the credibility of court orders by




a. mandating that the southern states racially gerrymander their legislative districts to ensure that more African Americans were elected to Congress.


b. creating the strict scrutiny test.


c. creating a Department of Civil Rights.


d. requiring that federal grants-in-aid to state and local governments for education be withheld from any school system practicing racial segregation.


e. ordering the desegregation of the military.

d. requiring that federal grants-in-aid to state and local governments for education be withheld from any school system practicing racial segregation.

In a case of workplace discrimination, which government institution would most likely handle the complaint?




a. the Supreme Court


b. Congress


c. the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission


d. the Department of Commerce


e. the Executive Office of the President

c. the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

Why did the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) rely primarily on the courts to press for black political rights in its early years?




a. Only the courts had the legal authority to grant African Americans political rights, so the litigation strategy was most consistent with the organization’s goals.


b. The organization was composed of five members and, due to the fact that they were all lawyers, the strategy of litigation seemed to be the most logical choice.


c. The organization was legally prohibited from contacting elected officials at the state and local levels and, therefore, had no other alternative than a strategy of litigation.


d. Many judges were African American and, therefore, more sympathetic to the claims of the organization than legislators.


e. The northern African American vote was too small to bring about policy change at the legislative level, so the organization chose a strategy of litigation.

e. The northern African American vote was too small to bring about policy change at the legislative level, so the organization chose a strategy of litigation.

In Dred Scott v. Sanford (1857), the justices determined that




a. Dred Scott was a free citizen.


b. slaves were not citizens of the United States.


c. African Americans had no due process rights under the U.S. Constitution.


d. both b and c


e. the Missouri Compromise was constitutional in all aspects.

d. both b and c




slaves were not citizens of the United States. African Americans had no due process rights under the U.S. Constitution.

Which amendments to the U.S. Constitution seemed to offer African Americans the most hope for achieving full citizenship rights in the United States?




a. the First, Second, and Third amendments


b. the Fifth, Sixth, and Seventh amendments c. the Eighth, Ninth, and Tenth amendments


d. the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth amendments


e. The Twentieth, Twenty-First, and Twenty-Second amendments

d. the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth amendments

Which of the following is true of Brown v. Board of Education (1954)?




a. The justices outlawed de facto segregation.


b. The justices outlawed de jure segregation.


c. The justices allowed school systems to desegregate “with all deliberate speed.”


d. The justices upheld the separate but equal doctrine.


e. The justices decided not to use the strict scrutiny test.

b. The justices outlawed de jure segregation.

The American experience with civil rights suggests which of the following things about political change in the United States?




a. Political change can only be achieved when citizens bypass the courts and the legislatures entirely.


b. Political change is easiest to achieve when the courts and the legislatures frequently overturn each others actions.


c. The courts are far more powerful than the legislature and therefore can advance political change on their own.


d. The legislatures are far more powerful than the courts and therefore can advance political change on their own.


e. Legislatures need constitutional authority to act from the courts, and the courts need legislative assistance to implement court orders and focus political support.

e. Legislatures need constitutional authority to act from the courts, and the courts need legislative assistance to implement court orders and focus political support.

It was during the tenure of Chief Justice ________ that the Supreme Court established gender discrimination as a highly visible area of civil rights law.




a. Taft


b. Warren


c. Burger


d. Rehnquist


e. Marshall

c. Burger

What happened to California’s Proposition 187?




a. A federal judge declared it constitutional.


b. A federal judge declared most of it a violation of the U.S. Constitution.


c. It was ruled a violation of the state constitution but not the U.S. Constitution.


d. It was negated by a law passed by the California state legislature.


e. There was never a court challenge to its legality and it remains in effect.

b. A federal judge declared most of it a violation of the U.S. Constitution.

Franklin v. Gwinnett County Public Schools (1992) is important because it




a. asserted that violations of Title IX of the 1972 Education Act could be remedied with monetary damages.


b. permitted public schools to experiment with gender segregation.


c. required states to fund schools on Indian reservations at the same levels as all other public schools.


d. narrowed the free speech rights that students enjoyed at school.


e. found busing to integrate schools unconstitutional.

a. asserted that violations of Title IX of the 1972 Education Act could be remedied with monetary damages.

In Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978), the Supreme Court justices ruled that




a. quotas and separate admissions standards for minorities were unconstitutional but affirmative action could be used.


b. quotas and separate admissions standards for minorities were constitutional but other forms of affirmative action were unconstitutional.


c. all affirmative action policies were unconstitutional.


d. all affirmative action policies would be subject to strict scrutiny by the courts.


e. achieving a diverse student body was not a compelling public purpose.

a. quotas and separate admissions standards for minorities were unconstitutional but affirmative action could be used.

A political ideology is best defined as




a. the specific preferences individuals contemplate while discussing an issue.


b. the basic principles that shape particular attitudes.


c. a cohesive set of beliefs that form a general philosophy about the government.


d. the concrete interests that people try to defend through public policy.


e. the various attitudes that citizens possess toward political issues, events, and people.

c. a cohesive set of beliefs that form a general philosophy about the government.

________ support abortion rights and oppose state involvement with religious institutions.




a. Liberals


b. Conservatives


c. Socialists


d. Internationalists


e. Isolationists

a. Liberals

________ is one of the most important mechanisms for obtaining equality of opportunity.




a. Public education


b. Affirmative action


c. Transportation


d. Commerce


e. Health care

a. Public education

A socialist is someone who believes that




a. government should be very active in providing universal health care but very inactive in all other spheres.


b. government should be very active in providing universal education but very inactive in all other spheres.


c. government should be very active in promoting national defense but very inactive in all other spheres.


d. government should be very active in many spheres in order to reduce economic and social inequality.


e. government is wasteful and should be limited to as few spheres of activity as possible.

d. government should be very active in many spheres in order to reduce economic and social inequality.

Which of the following statements about the ideological preferences of Americans is FALSE?




a. More Americans have identified themselves as conservatives than as liberals over the last twenty years.


b. The percentage of Americans identifying themselves as liberals has increased significantly since the 1990s.


c. More Americans have identified themselves as moderates than as liberals over the last twenty years.


d. Prior to 2000, there were almost no Americans who identified themselves as liberal.


e. More Americans have identified themselves as libertarians rather than as conservatives over the last twenty years.

d. Prior to 2000, there were almost no Americans who identified themselves as liberal.

Conservatives are more likely than liberals to support




a. government regulation of business.


b. abortion rights.


c. school prayer.


d. the expansion of government activity.


e. gay rights.

c. school prayer.

What is one of the main differences between those who have gone to college and those who have not?




a. Those with a college education are less likely to believe that women and men should have equal roles.


b. Those with a college education are more likely to believe that abortion should never be allowed.


c. There is a higher level of political participation among those with a college education.


d. There is a lower level of political participation among those with a college education.


e. Those with a college education are more likely to believe that the United States should not concern itself with other nations’ problems.

c. There is a higher level of political participation among those with a college education.

________ promoted his policy agenda to the American people through “fireside chats.”




a. Warren Harding


b. Franklin Roosevelt


c. Harry Truman


d. John Kennedy


e. Ronald Reagan

b. Franklin Roosevelt

Each of the following organizations has a liberal orientation EXCEPT ________.




a. the Sierra Club


b. the National Organization for Women


c. World Wildlife Federation


d. the Chamber of Commerce


e. Friends of the Earth

d. the Chamber of Commerce

Why does the marketplace of ideas often have a moderating effect on people’s opinions?




a. Given constant exposure to other people’s ideas, it is almost impossible for one not to modify one’s own viewpoints.


b. Moderate ideas usually have the best financial backing and the greatest publicity.


c. The most popular ideas are usually the most moderate ones.


d. Those who shop in the marketplace of ideas typically start with moderate viewpoints.


e. Moderate ideas are always closest to the truth and, therefore, are most successful in the marketplace of ideas.

a. Given constant exposure to other people’s ideas, it is almost impossible for one not to modify one’s own viewpoints.

Which of the following statements about the marketplace of ideas is true?




a. The English created the marketplace of ideas in the seventeenth century.


b. Private groups and the news media play important roles in shaping opinions in the marketplace of ideas.


c. Exposure to the marketplace of ideas rarely leads people to change their minds about political issues.


d. Only individuals, not groups or organizations, are allowed to promote ideas in the marketplace of ideas.


e. Government officials are legally prohibited from promoting ideas in the marketplace of ideas.

b. Private groups and the news media play important roles in shaping opinions in the marketplace of ideas.

The small group selected by pollsters to represent the entire population is called the ________.




a. validity quotient


b. reliability quotient


c. sample


d. quota


e. hypothesis

c. sample

The fact that survey respondents over report voting in elections and the frequency of their church attendance is an example of ________.




a. the Hawthorne effect


b. the coattail effect


c. the social desirability effect


d. the bandwagon effect


e. the median voter theorem

c. the social desirability effect

In the 2012 presidential election,




a. Latino support for Mitt Romney was over-estimated.


b. African American support for Barack Obama was over-estimated.


c. Caucasian support for Mitt Romney was over-estimated.


d. Native American support for Mitt Romney was over-estimated.


e. Native American support for Barack Obama was over-estimated.

a. Latino support for Mitt Romney was over-estimated.

Research into public opinion and public policy has shown that




a. every citizen has an equally strong influence over politics and public policy decisions.


b. more affluent and more educated citizens have a disproportionate influence over politics and public policy decisions.


c. less affluent and less educated citizens have a disproportionate influence over politics and public policy decisions.


d. nonvoters have a disproportionate influence over politics and public policy decisions.


e. the opinions of members of the public have no influence whatsoever over politics and public policy decisions.

b. more affluent and more educated citizens have a disproportionate influence over politics and public policy decisions.

Despite its widespread availability, ________ typically provide(s) the least depth of news coverage.




a. radio


b. television


c. the Internet


d. newspapers


e. magazines

b. television

Which group has had great popularity on radio talk shows?




a. conservatives


b. liberals


c. socialists


d. communists


e. racial and ethnic minorities

a. conservatives

Which of the following statements about newspapers is NOT accurate?




a. Newspapers are no longer the primary source of news for most Americans.


b. Newspaper reporters break most important news stories.


c. Political, social, and economic elites rely most heavily on newspapers.


d. The newspaper industry has been more profitable in recent years than ever before.


e. Newspapers tend to provide more detailed and complete coverage of political events than other media.

d. The newspaper industry has been more profitable in recent years than ever before.

________ is the niche leader inside the Beltway.




a. Congressional Quarterly


b. Salon


c. The Huffington Post


d. Politico


e. Real Clear Politics

d. Politico

The following are all concerns raised by the growing popularity of online news EXCEPT




a. a decline in investigative journalism.


b. a reduction in the diversity of perspectives that can potentially be heard.


c. a negative impact on political knowledge.


d. a decrease in political tolerance.


e. uneven quality in news content.

b. a reduction in the diversity of perspectives that can potentially be heard.

Google News and Real Clear Politics are good examples of ________.




a. digital citizenship


b. nonprofit journalism


c. the penny press


d. news aggregators


e. niche journalism

d. news aggregators

A website devoted entirely to reporting on climate change and other environmental issues is an example of ________ journalism.




a. protest


b. adversarial


c. niche


d. nonprofit


e. public

c. niche

________ is generally regarded as a conservative news broadcasting service.




a. ABC Nightly News


b. 60 Minutes


c. Fox News


d. CNN


e. PBS

c. Fox News

The power of the media to draw public attention to particular issues and problems is called ________.




a. framing


b. canvassing


c. agenda setting


d. polling


e. the bandwagon effect

c. agenda setting

The press release was created




a. during the administration of James Monroe in the 1810s.


b. in the early twentieth century by a public relations firm working for a railroad.


c. by Franklin Roosevelt in 1933.


d. by Dwight Eisenhower following World War II.


e. by Abraham Lincoln during the Civil War.

b. in the early twentieth century by a public relations firm working for a railroad.

The Vietnam War initiated the growth of ________ journalism.




a. yellow


b. advocacy


c. adversarial


d. corporate-driven


e. government-regulated

c. adversarial

Which of the following is NOT a reason why a free media is necessary to democratic government?




a. A free media is needed to investigate wrongdoing on the part of government officials.


b. A free media is needed to publicize and explain governmental actions.


c. A free media is needed to evaluate the performance of politicians.


d. A free media is needed to shed light on matters that may otherwise be known only to a small number of government insiders with technical knowledge.


e. A free media is needed to ensure economic equality.

e. A free media is needed to ensure economic equality.

The proliferation of news sources in recent years has




a. discouraged polarization because people can now access a wider array of viewpoints than before.


b. encouraged polarization because many media outlets seek to position themselves within a discrete ideological or partisan niche rather than maintain a middle-of-the-road stance.


c. discouraged polarization because it has eliminated selection bias by journalists.


d. encouraged polarization because it has led to the death of adversarial journalism.


e. had no effect whatsoever on polarization because most Americans are not influenced by media coverage.

b. encouraged polarization because many media outlets seek to position themselves within a discrete ideological or partisan niche rather than maintain a middle-of-the-road stance.

If a television station sold commercial time to a Republican candidate for governor but refused to sell time to the Democratic candidate for governor, this station would be violating the ________.




a. Telecommunications Act of 1996


b. Fairness Doctrine


c. equal time rule


d. right of rebuttal


e. Communications Decency Act

c. equal time rule

Which statement about the Telecommunications Act of 1996 is FALSE?




a. The act loosened federal restrictions on media ownership.


b. The act attempted to regulate the content of material transmitted over the Internet.


c. The act allowed broadcasters, telephone companies, and cable companies to compete with one another for telecommunications services.


d. Following passage of the act, several mergers between telephone and cable companies produced a greater concentration of media ownership.


e. The act required broadcasters who aired programs on controversial issues to provide time for opposing views.

e. The act required broadcasters who aired programs on controversial issues to provide time for opposing views.

SOPA and PIPA were




a. interest groups who protested congressional attempts to outlaw online piracy.


b. bills considered by Congress in 2011 to eliminate all forms of censorship online.


c. bills considered by Congress in 1993 to allow people to register to vote at the Department of Motor Vehicles when they applied for a driver’s license.


d. bills considered by Congress in 2012 to extend U.S. copyright laws beyond U.S. borders.


e. bills considered by Congress in 1996 to outlaw pornography online.

d. bills considered by Congress in 2012 to extend U.S. copyright laws beyond U.S. borders.

The main goal of the group Rock the Vote is to




a. encourage increased voting by musicians.


b. draw young voters into participating politically.


c. encourage states to use voting machines with paper ballots.


d. register more Latino voters.


d. eliminate voter fraud.

b. draw young voters into participating politically.

About ________ percent of African Americans voted for Barack Obama in 2008.




a. 33


b. 50


c. 66


d. 80


e. 95

e. 95

Which of the following statements about Asian Americans is true?




a. Although a majority of Asian Americans voted Republican in the 1990s, in the 2000s they have been voting increasingly Democratic.


b. Although a majority of Asian Americans voted Democratic in the 1990s, in the 2000s they have been voting increasingly Republican.


c. There are more Asian Americans in the United States than African Americans.


d. There are more Asian Americans in the United States than Latinos.


e. Turnout is higher among Asian Americans than among whites.

a. Although a majority of Asian Americans voted Republican in the 1990s, in the 2000s they have been voting increasingly Democratic.

One-third of all Asian Americans live in ________.




a. California


b. New York


c. Florida


d. Texas


e. Washington, D.C.

a. California

Which of the following groups have had the highest levels of political participation?




a. senior citizens (65 and over)


b. Asian Americans


c. young people (18–24)


d. people who did not graduate high school


e. unemployed people

a. senior citizens (65 and over)

The Supreme Court justices ruled that prayer in public schools was unconstitutional in ________.




a. Baker v. Carr (1962)


b. Engel v. Vitale (1962)


c. Hustler Magazine v. Fallwell (1988)


d. New York Times Co. v. Sullivan (1964)


e. Regents of University of California v. Bakke (1978)

d. New York Times Co. v. Sullivan (1964)

African Americans




a. are increasingly voting Republican in federal elections.


b. are supporting the Democratic Party at lower levels than the 1960s.


c. are very diverse in their voting patterns.


d. have linked fate when it comes to political participation.


e. none of the above

d. have linked fate when it comes to political participation.

What is one reason that political parties and politicians view Latinos as a critically important group?




a. The Latino population in the United States is large and rapidly growing.


b. Latinos register to vote at higher levels than whites and African Americans.


c. Latinos turn out to vote at higher levels than whites and African Americans.


d. Latinos contribute more money to political parties and campaigns than whites and African Americans combined.


e. Latinos consistently vote for candidates from the Republican Part

a. The Latino population in the United States is large and rapidly growing.

What is the best explanation for the fact that Latinos have tended to favor Democratic Party candidates in national elections?




a. They disagree with the Republican Party’s stance on immigration.


b. They support the Democratic Party’s foreign policy toward Cuba.


c. They agree with the Democratic Party’s stance on military issues.


d. They typically find the Democratic Party’s candidates more charismatic than the Republican Party’s candidates.


e. They are socially conservative and, as a result, support the Democratic Party’s positions more.

a. They disagree with the Republican Party’s stance on immigration.

Non-electoral forms of participation usually require more ________ than voting.




a. time, money, and effort


b. knowledge, passion, and cynicism


c. information, trust, and strategic thinking


d. economic security, perseverance, and alienation


e. intelligence, pessimism, and mobilization

a. time, money, and effort

Statewide initiatives on the ballot




a. increase voter turnout in elections.


b. decrease voter turnout in elections.


c. have no effect on voter turnout.


d. advantage the Democratic Party.


e. advantage the Republican Party.

a. increase voter turnout in elections.

Which of the following is NOT a reform that has attempted to make voting easier?




a. early voting


b. Election Day registration


c. voter ID laws


d. permanent absentee ballots


e. none of the above

c. voter ID laws

Which of the following statements about voter identification laws is most accurate?




a. Voter identification laws in the states disproportionately affect minority citizens and the less affluent.


b. Every state requires all voters to show ID before voting at the polls.


c. The Supreme Court justices have ruled that voter identification laws cannot go in effect until after the 2016 elections.


d. In every state with a voter identification law, a person must have a federal government-issued photo ID in order to cast a legal ballot.


e. Every voter identification law was passed prior to 1958.

a. Voter identification laws in the states disproportionately affect minority citizens and the less affluent.

________ is the only state that does not require voter registration.




a. California


b. Wisconsin


c. Maine


d. Indiana


e. North Dakota

e. North Dakota

Internal mobilization occurs when




a. conflicts within the government create divided factions that try to mobilize popular support.


b. party leaders try to rally support for their platforms once they are in the government.


c. citizens deemed to be undesirable outsiders are excluded from the party.


d. all of a party’s funds come from soft money.


e. a political party contacts its members in order to encourage them to vote.

a. conflicts within the government create divided factions that try to mobilize popular support.

Which of the following tasks does a party’s national committee NOT perform?




a. raising funds


b. resolving disputes between factions of the party


c. selecting presidential and vice-presidential candidates


d. enhancing the media image of the party


e. heading the political party during the period between conventions

c. selecting presidential and vice-presidential candidates

State and local party organizations do all of the following EXCEPT




a. raise funds for candidates.


b. conduct voter registration drives.


c. litigate against unfavorable policies.


d. recruit candidates for office.


e. conduct get-out-the-vote drives.

c. litigate against unfavorable policies.

A party’s platform is best understood as a




a. negotiated agreement between the various factions in the party.


b. public relations program designed for media consumption.


c. clear statement of the principles to which each party candidate will be committed.


d. contract with the American people.


e. set of rules for determining who can and who cannot become a member of the party.

a. negotiated agreement between the various factions in the party.

Which of the following statements about parties is FALSE?




a. The national leadership of the Republican Party supports cuts in social spending.


b. The national leadership of the Democratic Party supports less regulation of business.


c. Democrats tend to have a high level of political support in urban America.


d. Republicans tend to have a high level of political support in suburban America.


e. Republicans tend to have a high level of political support in the South.

b. The national leadership of the Democratic Party supports less regulation of business.

In 2012, about ________ percent of Latino Americans voted for Barack Obama.




a. 20


b. 40


c. 52


d. 70


e. 96

d. 70

Women in the United States are ________ the ________ Party.




a. overwhelmingly committed to; Republican


b. somewhat more likely to support; Republican


c. overwhelmingly committed to; Democratic


d. somewhat more likely to support; Democratic


e. overwhelmingly committed to; Green

d. somewhat more likely to support; Democratic

Historically, realignments occur




a. when new issues combine with economic or political crises to mobilize new voters and persuade large numbers of voters to reexamine their traditional partisan loyalties.


b. approximately every 10 years.


c. when Congress approves of them.


d. after midterm congressional elections but not after presidential elections.


e. only when the Constitution is amended.

a. when new issues combine with economic or political crises to mobilize new voters and persuade large numbers of voters to reexamine their traditional partisan loyalties.

From the end of the Civil War to the 1890s, the ________ Party was the party of the North, while the ________ Party was the party of the South.




a. Democratic; Republican


b. Republican; Democratic


c. Federalist; Whig


d. Whig; Federalist


e. Socialist; Republican

b. Republican; Democratic

The Populist Party appealed to which of the following groups?




a. Western mining interests, small farmers, and urban workers


b. eastern bankers, southern planters, and wealthy merchants


c. northern bankers, landowners, and factory workers


d. southern bankers, northern mining interests, and factory owners


e. eastern mining interests, southern merchants, and small farmers

a. Western mining interests, small farmers, and urban workers

During the 1980s, the Republicans added ________ to their coalition.




a. religious conservatives and working-class whites


b. African Americans and upper-class intellectuals


c. Latinos and the business community


d. Jews and unionized workers


e. gays and lesbians and southern farmers

a. religious conservatives and working-class whites

Which of the following occurs when one party becomes dominant after replacing another party that has dominated national politics for a lengthy period of time?




a. an electoral realignment


b. proportional representation


c. divided party government


d. external mobilization


e. internal mobilization

b. proportional representation

________ occurs when one party controls the presidency while another party controls one or both houses of Congress.




a. An electoral realignment


b. Divided party government


c. Seditious government


d. Internal mobilization


e. External mobilization

b. Divided party government

In 2012, ________ U.S. House seats were considered highly contested.




a. 2


b. 23


c. 112


d. 245


e. 412

b. 23

Which of the following statements about contemporary American politics is most accurate?




a. Both political elites and most members of the public are highly polarized.


b. While political elites are highly polarized, most Americans are moderate in terms of public opinion.


c. Both political elites and most members of the public are moderate and there is very little polarization in politics today.


d. There is very little polarization among elites in Congress but a great deal of polarization among elites at the state and local levels.


e. Political elites are polarized but polarization makes legislative compromise easier.

b. While political elites are highly polarized, most Americans are moderate in terms of public opinion.

The best description of the ideal of pluralism is that




a. the public good should always trump individual interests.


b. interests should be free to compete with each other for governmental influence.


c. interest groups are factions that endanger liberty.


d. democracy is best served by legalizing but regulating the influence of interest groups.


e. interest groups are factions that endanger political and economic equality.

b. interests should be free to compete with each other for governmental influence.

What is the primary variable for predicting the likelihood of joining an interest group?




a. having an interest shared by others


b. having a higher income and education


c. already being a member of a political party


d. having connections with government officials


e. the region of the country in which an individual lives

b. having a higher income and education

A criticism of interest group pluralism is




a. its inherent propensity for compromise, the character of which tends to be antidemocratic.


b. its class bias in favor of those with greater financial resources.


c. that its ideals are too closely associated with Marxist-Leninist ideology and are therefore unacceptable to the majority of Americans.


d. that it favors the interests of large states over those of small states.


e. that it gives too much influence to religious organizations and therefore threatens the separation of church and state.

b. its class bias in favor of those with greater financial resources.

One way that AARP has been effective at overcoming the free-rider problem is by providing ________ benefits to its members.




a. selective


b. elective


c. free-rider


d. pluralism


e. public good

a. selective

When a group is called a membership association, it means that




a. the group accepts anyone as a member.


b. members play an important role in the daily activities of the group.


c. members vote directly for the leaders.


d.membership is a mandatory requirement for receiving any of the group’s benefits.


e. every decision the group makes must be voted on and approved by every member.

b. members play an important role in the daily activities of the group.

Members of the New Politics movement




a. used technology to help them pursue their goals.


b. secured enactment of environmental legislation.


c. secured enactment of consumer rights legislation.


d. secured enactment of occupational health and safety legislation.


e. all of the above

e. all of the above

A full-page, fully paid spread in the New York Times publicizing a major oil company is best described as ________.




a. going public


b. lobbying


c. institutional advertising


d. an iron triangle


e. an issue network

c. institutional advertising

Lobbying is




a. an attempt by an individual or group to influence the passage of legislation by exerting indirect pressure, through advertisements and media coverage, on members of Congress or a state legislature.


b. an attempt by an individual or group to influence the passage of legislation by exerting direct pressure on members of Congress or a state legislature.


c. an attempt by an individual or group to influence the passage of legislation by exerting indirect pressure, through phone calls or e-mails, on members of Congress or a state legislature.


d. the act of working on a re-election campaign.


e. making illegal campaign contributions to government officials.

b. an attempt by an individual or group to influence the passage of legislation by exerting direct pressure on members of Congress or a state legislature.

Another name for lobbying is ________.




a. stalking


b. mobilizing


c. petitioning


d. litigating


e. soliciting

b. mobilizing

Which of the following groups has had the greatest success with a strategy of litigation?




a. the National Chamber of Commerce


b. the National Rifle Association


c. the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People


d. the Southern Christian Leadership Conference


e. the AARP

c. the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People

How can interest groups use litigation as a strategy of influence?




a. filing amicus curiae briefs, financing lawsuits, and bringing a suit on behalf of the group


b. directly lobbying judges, using direct-mail solicitations, and making campaign contributions to members of Congress


c. engaging in institutional advertising, activating issue networks, and directly lobbying judges


d. breaking apart iron triangles, directly lobbying judges, and starting political action committees


e. working with 527 committees, directly lobbying judges, and engaging in institutional advertising

a. filing amicus curiae briefs, financing lawsuits, and bringing a suit on behalf of the group

________ is a strategy that attempts to mobilize the widest and most favorable climate of opinion.




a. Litigation


b. Creating a “war room”


c. Creating an iron triangle


d. Going public


e. Creating an issue network

d. Going public

Which of the following statements is true?




a. Spending in U.S. elections is much higher than in any other country on earth.


b. Officials representing super PACs will likely spend more in 2016 than in 2012.


c. both a and b


d. Super PAC officials tend to spend more in midterm rather than presidential elections.


e. The Supreme Court justices determined that super PACs were unconstitutional.

c. both a and b

What happens to interests that do not engage in extensive lobbying?




a .They generally do well in advancing their interests in Congress.


b. They often find themselves “Microsofted.”


c. They typically advance their interests by being free-riders.


d. They typically bribe members of Congress directly.


e. They typically try to advance their interests through litigating in the state courts.

b. They often find themselves “Microsofted.”

What is the primary function of a political action committee (PAC)?




a. to raise grassroots support for a particular interest


b. to organize and coordinate a strategy of litigation


c. to build better networks between interest groups and political parties


d. to raise and distribute money to election campaigns


e. to produce and carry out an institutional advertising campaign

d. to raise and distribute money to election campaigns

When the president infers powers from the “rights, duties, and obligations” of the presidency, these are called ________ powers.




a. delegated


b. necessary and proper


c. inherent


d. war


e. expressed

c. inherent

Dwight Eisenhower used ________in 1957 to send troops to Little Rock, Arkansas, to help desegregate Central High School.




a. the national guard


b. presidential emergency power


c. the War Powers Act


d. expressed powers


e. the elastic clause

a. the national guard

In order to get around the need for Senate approval of treaties, many contemporary presidents have made use of ________ in foreign affairs.




a. diplomacy


b. international protocols


c. executive immunity


d. executive agreements


e. bypass agreements

d. executive agreements

Which of the following has caused an increase in the president’s delegated powers?




a. recent constitutional amendments broadening the president’s powers


b. the increasing scope and complexity of legislation


c. the War Powers Resolution


d. the shift toward a more bipartisan political environment in Congress


e. a series of Supreme Court decisions that have reinterpreted Article II of the Constitution

b. the increasing scope and complexity of legislation

Which of the following statements about Congress and the executive branch is most accurate?




a. The Constitution explicitly prohibits Congress from providing specific guidelines to executive agencies for implementing laws.


b. Starting around the time of the New Deal, Congress has tended to draft legislation that offers very specific guidelines for implementation by the executive.


c. Congress has never given executive agencies broad mandates and has always drafted legislation that offers very specific guidelines for implementation by the executive.


d. Starting around the time of the New Deal, Congress has tended to give executive agencies broad mandates and to draft legislation that offers few clear guidelines for implementation by the executive.


e. Throughout all of American history, Congress has tended to give executive agencies broad mandates and to draft legislation that offers few clear guidelines for implementation by the executive.

d. Starting around the time of the New Deal, Congress has tended to give executive agencies broad mandates and to draft legislation that offers few clear guidelines for implementation by the executive.

The ________ asserted that the president could send American troops into action abroad only in the event of a declaration of war or other statutory authorization by Congress, or if American troops were attacked or directly endangered.




a. War Powers Resolution of 1973


b. National Security Act of 1947


c. Neutrality Act of 1937


d. Boland Amendment of 1982


e. Arms Control Export Act of 1976

a. War Powers Resolution of 1973

Congress’s tendency in recent years to give executive agencies fewer clear guidelines for implementing laws is the result of




a. the greater scope and complexity of the tasks that American government has undertaken.


b. the reduced scope and complexity of the tasks that American government has undertaken.


c. frequent requests made by state governments to transfer more power to the executive branch.


d. numerous initiatives passed by voters that require less legislative specificity.


e. a series of Supreme Court decisions that ruled executive mandates were unconstitutional.

a. the greater scope and complexity of the tasks that American government has undertaken.

When Dwight Eisenhower sent federal troops into Central High School in Little Rock, Arkansas in 1957, it demonstrated that the




a. president may make unilateral use of the emergency powers to protect states against domestic disorder.


b. president requires the federal court’s approval before using troops in domestic disturbances.


c. use of the president’s emergency powers against domestic disorder necessitates a request by the governor of the state in question.


d. president needs congressional authorization to use troops in both domestic and international situations.


e. president can only use troops in domestic situations when the health and safety of children under the age of 18 is threatened.

a. president may make unilateral use of the emergency powers to protect states against domestic disorder.

The Office of Management and Budget and the Council of Economic Advisers are both parts of the ________.




a. Cabinet


b. White House staff


c. Office of the Vice President


d. Executive Office of the President


e. Department of the Interior

d. Executive Office of the President

After the president and vice president, which office is next in the line of succession?




a. Speaker of the House Senate


b. majority leader


c. chief justice of the Supreme Court


d. secretary of state


e. attorney general

a. Speaker of the House Senate

Which one of the following presidents is considered “weak” by presidential historians?




a. Abraham Lincoln


b. Franklin Roosevelt


c. Ronald Reagan


d. Lyndon Johnson


e. James Buchanan

e. James Buchanan

Which statement about the Cabinet is INCORRECT?




a. The Cabinet has no legal status under the Constitution.


b. The Cabinet does not make decisions collectively.


c. The Cabinet does not meet as a group, except during the State of the Union address.


d. The Senate must approve the president’s choice of cabinet secretaries.


e. Cabinet members are not responsible to the Senate or Congress at large.

c. The Cabinet does not meet as a group, except during the State of the Union address.

The technique of popular mobilization dates back to the ________ presidency.




a. Thomas Jefferson’s


b. Ulysses Grant’s


c. Theodore Roosevelt’s


d. Franklin Roosevelt’s


e. Ronald Reagan’s

c. Theodore Roosevelt’s

A signing statement is a(n)




a. announcement the president makes about his or her interpretation of a congressional enactment he or she is signing into law.


b. announcement made by a presidential candidate when formally accepting his or her party’s nomination.


c. announcement made by the president and the leader of a foreign country immediately following an executive agreement.


d. announcement the president is required to make any time he or she issues an executive order.


e. decree issued by Congress that demands the president sign a congressional enactment into law immediately.

The expansion of the Executive Office of the President, the development of regulatory review, and the use of executive orders have been important because they




a. are deeply unpopular with the public and have led to the declining trust in American government.


b. make it very difficult for challengers to defeat incumbent presidents in elections.


c. have given presidents substantial capacity to achieve significant policy results despite congressional opposition to their legislative agendas.


d. have dramatically limited the power of the president and made it easier for Congress to dominate the American political system.


e. have rendered the judiciary essentially irrelevant in the American political system.

c. have given presidents substantial capacity to achieve significant policy results despite congressional opposition to their legislative agendas.

The party that brings a complaint in court is called the ________, and the one against whom the complaint is brought is called the ________.




a. defendant; plaintiff


b. plaintiff; precedent


c. plaintiff; defendant


d. litigator; juror


e. defendant; litigator

c. plaintiff; defendant

Which of the following is the essence of the rule of law?




a. Every state needs to have a written constitution.


b. Every state must have an established system of common law.


c. Every state needs to make its laws public.


d. Every state must judge government officials by the same laws as its citizens are judged.


e. Every state must follow federal law.

d. Every state must judge government officials by the same laws as its citizens are judged.

The phrase stare decisis means




a. “let the decision stand.”


b. “the state will decide.”


c. “the decision is void.”


d. “the state must be decisive.”


e. “the decision is made.”

a. “let the decision stand.”

Prisoners who are challenging their convictions are most likely to seek a writ of ________.




a. habeas corpus


b. judicial error


c. jurisdiction


d. stare decisis


e. challenge

a. habeas corpus

There are approximately ________ federal district court judges in the United States.




a. 9


b. 50


c. 145


d. 679


e. 2,500

d. 679

The power of the Supreme Court to review state actions and legislation comes from ________.




a. the judicial review clause of Article III


b. the supremacy clause of Article VI


c. the Tenth Amendment


d. Marbury v. Madison


e. Congress

b. the supremacy clause of Article VI

In Gideon v. Wainwright (1963), the justices declared that




a. voluntary school prayer in the public schools was unconstitutional.


b. segregation was unconstitutional.


c. the “one man, one vote” standard was unconstitutional.


d. corporations have free speech rights under the First Amendment.
e. state courts had to provide legal counsel to defendants who could not afford their own attorneys.

e. state courts had to provide legal counsel to defendants who could not afford their own attorneys.

Most cases reach the Supreme Court through ________.




a. a writ of appeal


b. a writ of certiorari


c. a writ of habeas corpus


d. a writ of amicus curiae


e. state courts

b. a writ of certiorari

The Supreme Court’s power to review acts of Congress has not been seriously questioned because




a. the Court only overturns laws that are unpopular with a majority of voters.


b. Congress granted the power of judicial review to the Court in the Federal Judicial Review Act of 1798.


c. Congress and the president always agree with the decisions made by the Court.


d. the Constitution explicitly grants this power to the Court in the judicial review clause of Article III.


e. the Court has been reluctant to strike down congressional laws and has overturned only a small number over the last 200 years.

e. the Court has been reluctant to strike down congressional laws and has overturned only a small number over the last 200 years.

Aside from the justices themselves, who or what has the greatest power in shaping the flow of cases to the Supreme Court?




a. the attorney general


b. the solicitor general


c. the Senate Judiciary Committee


d. the state supreme courts


e. Congress

b. the solicitor general

Activist judges believe that federal judges should




a. always overrule state legislatures and governors when making decisions.


b. interpret the U.S. Constitution according to the intentions of its framers and defer to the views of Congress when interpreting federal statutes.


c. be more aggressive and ideological than the president when vacancies occur on the courts.


d. go beyond the words of a constitution or statute to consider the broader societal implications of their decisions.


e. always defer judgment to precedents set by previous courts.

d. go beyond the words of a constitution or statute to consider the broader societal implications of their decisions.

Which of the following was NOT a case involving the Supreme Court overturning a state law?




a. Marbury v. Madison (1803)


b. Brown v. Board of Education (1954)


c. Lawrence v. Texas (2003)


d. American Tradition Partnership, Inc. v. Bullock (2012)


e. Miller v. Alabama (2012)

a. Marbury v. Madison (1803)

What did the justices rule in Hamdi v. Rumsfeld (2004)?




a. he actions of a president are not subject to judicial review.


b. The president does not have the authority to declare individuals to be “enemy combatants.”


c. Hamdi was entitled to a lawyer and an opportunity to rebut the government’s charges against him.


d. During the war, the president’s power as commander-in-chief is unlimited.


e. The president has the power to suspend writs of habeas corpus under any circumstances.

c. Hamdi was entitled to a lawyer and an opportunity to rebut the government’s charges against him.

Each Supreme Court justice is assigned ________ law clerks.




a. 2


b. 4


c. 8


d. 10


e. 16

b. 4

Which of the following statements about Congress’s delegation of power to the executive is most accurate?




a. The Constitution prevents Congress from delegating any power to the executive branch.


b. The courts have refused to hear any cases regarding congressional delegation of power to the executive branch since the start of the New Deal.


c. Since the New Deal, the courts have not struck down any congressional delegation of power to the executive branch as impermissibly broad.


d. Since the New Deal, the courts have frequently struck down congressional attempts to delegate powers to the executive branch as impermissibly broad.


e. The courts do not have the jurisdiction to rule on congressional delegation of power to the executive branch.

c. Since the New Deal, the courts have not struck down any congressional delegation of power to the executive branch as impermissibly broad.

What event marked the major historical turning point in the relationship between the government and the marketplace?




a. the Civil War


b. the Depression of 1896


c. the Great Depression


d. World War II


e. the implementation of Reaganomics

c. the Great Depression

________ are given to states and local governments on the condition that all expenditures are limited to the problem or group specified by law.




a. Tariffs


b. Loopholes


c. Monopolies


d. Categorical grants


e. Block grants

d. Categorical grants

The index of the total output of goods and services produced in a national economy is called the ________.




a. federal funds rate


b. inflation index


c. gross domestic product


d. monetary fund


e. consumer price index

c. gross domestic product

What did the Great Depression and World War II do to the public’s expectations regarding employment?


a. They made Americans realize that unemployment was an unfortunate but largely irremediable occurrence.


b. They made Americans realize that unemployment could only be solved by a major international crisis, such as a war.


c. They showed that the government could help to ensure full employment.


d. They showed that the government could only solve unemployment when inflation levels were kept high.


e. They showed that ill-advised government programs could cause large increases in unemployment.

c. They showed that the government could help to ensure full employment.

The National Labor Relations Act was designed to




a. oversee union elections and collective bargaining between labor and industry.


b. prohibit workers from forming unions.


c. establish a national minimum hourly wage.


d. limit the amount of money labor unions and corporations could donate to political parties.


e. regulate contractual negotiations between private businesses competing in the same industry.

a. oversee union elections and collective bargaining between labor and industry.

Which of the following is the best description of the changing expectations of government’s role in the economy since the 1930s?




a. People hold government officials responsible for a healthy economy.


b. People demand that government officials provide health insurance.


c. People expect that government officials will engage in deficit spending.


d. People expect government officials to print more money in times of inflation.


e. People expect government officials to stay completely out of the economy.

a. People hold government officials responsible for a healthy economy.

Which of the following statements is true?




a. The people do not support cutting specific government programs.


b. The people believe that government is too wasteful.


c. Republicans supported adding a prescription drug benefit to Medicare in 2003.


d. Neither Republicans nor Democrats wish to cut expensive, popular entitlement programs.


e. all of the above

e. all of the above

The power to raise or lower the tax rate is part of ________.




a. fiscal policy


b. monetary policy


c. the contracting power


d. discretionary spending


e. policy budgetary policy

a. fiscal policy

A way to reduce the disparities in wealth between the rich and poor is called a(n) ________.




a. entitlement program


b. tariff


c. regressive tax policy


d. policy of redistribution


e. loophole

d. policy of redistribution

_______ policies are designed to eliminate the abuses of powerful ________.




a. Redistributive; tariffs


b. Fiscal; loopholes


c. Antitrust; monopolies


d. Taxation; gross domestic product indexes


e. Monetary; interest groups

c. Antitrust; monopolies

Which of the following statements about the Federal Reserve Board is FALSE?




a. The Federal Reserve Board is part of the Department of the Treasury.


b. The Federal Reserve Board is the main organization for setting monetary policy.


c. The members of the Federal Reserve Board are selected by the president and confirmed by the Senate.


d. The president cannot remove the members of the Federal Reserve Board for political reasons.


e. The Federal Reserve Board sets the federal funds rate.

a. The Federal Reserve Board is part of the Department of the Treasury.

________ was most responsible for the creation of the Bank of the United States.




a. Thomas Jefferson


b. James Madison


c. John Adams


d. Alexander Hamilton


e. Benjamin Franklin

d. Alexander Hamilton

In order to have reliable information about the costs and impact of economic policies, Congress created the ________.




a. Federal Reserve Board


b. Office of Management and Budget


c. Congressional Budget Office


d. Congressional Oversight Commission


e. Congressional Research Service

c. Congressional Budget Office

Green technologies may prove to be a boon for the American economy because




a. the United States has already signed trade agreements with numerous countries to export green technologies.


b. the United Nations has passed a resolution asserting that only the United States will be allowed to produce green technologies for the next 10 years.


c. the profit margins on green technologies are much higher than those of more traditional products.


d. many countries around the world have decided to use only energy-efficient products.


e. America’s highly skilled labor force provides it with a competitive advantage over many other countries.

e. America’s highly skilled labor force provides it with a competitive advantage over many other countries.

Which of the following is NOT one of the concerns politicians have to consider when attempting to pass regulations that seek to protect the environment?




a. Compliance with environmental regulations can be very costly.


b. Federal environmental standards are often set too high.


c. Who should bear the costs of providing environmental benefits?


d. Scientific evidence can change making some environmental regulations obsolete.


e. Public opinion overwhelmingly favors economic interests over the environment.

e. Public opinion overwhelmingly favors economic interests over the environment.

What do public-opinion polls reveal about welfare policies?




a. They receive widespread support as long as they are means tested.


b. Americans view welfare beneficiaries as “undeserving.”


c. Their popularity is low but has been steadily climbing since the 1970s.


d. The public support for welfare politics goes up when they are administered by the states.


e. Conservatives tend to favor them, while liberals oppose them.

b. Americans view welfare beneficiaries as “undeserving.”

One reason that the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program grew significantly in the 1970s was that




a. voters passed initiatives in many states that required an increase in benefits.


b. a number of court decisions determined that benefits must be increased at a level greater than that of inflation each year.


c. Congress passed a number of laws that dramatically expanded the number of people who were eligible and the overall amount of in-kind benefits that would be provided to eligible people.


d. court decisions made it more difficult for the government to legally terminate people’s benefits for lack of eligibility.


e. state governments refused to administer the program unless the federal government spent more on benefits.

d. court decisions made it more difficult for the government to legally terminate people’s benefits for lack of eligibility.

Which of the following is NOT an identifiable problem with Social Security?




a. As the workforce gets older, federal officials will be forced to spend more on Social Security entitlements.


b. The investment made in Social Security will soon fall below the interest available in an insured bank account.


c. The political consensus supporting a federal retirement program is crumbling.


d. The government is projected to experience shortfalls in the Social Security Trust Fund within a generation.


e. As baby boomers retire, there will not be enough workers to cover their Social Security benefits.

c. The political consensus supporting a federal retirement program is crumbling.

Which of the following statements about noncontributory programs is FALSE?




a. Eligibility for these programs is determined through means testing.


b. These programs may provide public housing, food stamps, and school lunches.


c. The existence of these programs dates back to the Civil War.


d. These programs underwent drastic reform in the 1990s.


e. These programs are relatively unpopular when compared to contributory programs.

c. The existence of these programs dates back to the Civil War.

Over the past three decades, the level of federal payroll tax has ________, and the level of federal corporate taxes has ________.




a. risen; risen


b. fallen; fallen


c. risen; fallen


d. fallen; risen


e. stayed the same; stayed the same

c. risen; fallen

The welfare reforms of 1996 did all of the following EXCEPT




a. place time limitations on how long a recipient could receive benefits.


b. grant block grants to the states to fund the programs.


c. restrict most legal immigrants from receiving benefits.


d. take the federal government out of welfare policy, granting all authority to the states.


e. give the states much more discretion in designing their cash-assistance programs to needy families.

d. take the federal government out of welfare policy, granting all authority to the states.

Which of the following was a key part of President Obama’s overhaul of No Child Left Behind?




a. a proposal that states could apply for waivers that would exempt them from some of the requirements of No Child Left Behind


b. a proposal to change the criteria for allocating $14 billion in federal assistance to schools from a system of competitive grants to a per pupil formula


c. mandating a single nationwide standardized test to be taken by all students


d. providing an unprecedented amount of federal funding for school vouchers, allowing parents more freedom in choosing where their children attend school


e. setting national standards for textbooks at all levels of schooling below college

a. a proposal that states could apply for waivers that would exempt them from some of the requirements of No Child Left Behind

The U.S. Public Health Service was founded in ________.




a. 1798


b. 1866


c. 1936


d. 1942


e. 1968

a. 1798

In 2007 and 2008, the government faced a housing crisis caused by




a. sharp rises in house prices.


b. foreclosures.


c. a scarcity of affordable housing.


d. shortages in the timber industry.


e. an incredible drop in the stock market.

b. foreclosures.

Which of the following statements is NOT a reason why the No Child Left Behind Act has been controversial?




a. Many states branded it an unfunded mandate.


b. Teachers argued that “teaching to the test” undermined critical thinking skills.


c. The standards were too lenient and almost every school met them easily.


d. It vastly increased the role of the federal government in the public school system.


e. The states were made responsible for setting standards and devising appropriate tests.

c. The standards were too lenient and almost every school met them easily.

Which of the following is the best example of the shadow welfare state?




a. soup kitchens supported by local churches


b. food stamps


c. workplace medical insurance


d. cost-of-living adjustments


e. Medicaid

c. workplace medical insurance

What is the shadow welfare state?




a. the welfare that is distributed by local governments and special districts


b. social benefits that are distributed by private employers who are being subsidized by the government


c. the welfare payments that the government is committed to paying in the future


d. private charities that have filled the gap left by reductions in government spending


e. the welfare distributed by private charities and religious organizations

b. social benefits that are distributed by private employers who are being subsidized by the government

Why is it difficult to lobby for the interests of poor children?




a. There are no longer enough poor children to make a difference.


b. Children cannot vote.


c. There are no interest groups devoted to poor children.


d. American political values tend to discount the needs of youth.


e. Most poor children live in foreign countries.

b. Children cannot vote.

Which of the following groups are more than twice as likely as other Americans to be below the poverty line?




a. African Americans


b. children


c. the elderly


d. Latino Americans


e. single mothers

e. single mothers

Between 1959 and 2012, the percentage of elderly Americans living in poverty went from about ________ percent to ________ percent.


a. 50; 35


b. 35; 10


c. 65; 25


d. 30; 45


e. 40; 30

b. 35; 10

The policy of striking a nation that you fear might be contemplating hostile actions is called ________.




a. diplomacy


b. appeasement


c. détente


d. preemption


e. deterrence

d. preemption/ prevention (might have been a typo)

________ warned Americans against too much involvement with foreign nations.




a. George Washington


b. Thomas Jefferson


c. John Adams


d. Aaron Burr


e. James Madison

a. George Washington

Which president established prevention (preemption) as the centerpiece of his foreign policy?




a. George W. Bush


b. Richard Nixon


c. Jimmy Carter


d. Bill Clinton


e. Barack Obama

a. George W. Bush

The policy of deterrence and containment pursued by the United States during the Cold War can be viewed as




a. an early version of the Bush doctrine.


b. no different than a policy of isolationism.


c. no different than a policy of preventive war.


d. no different than a policy of appeasement.


e. midway between preventive war and appeasement.

e. midway between preventive war and appeasement.

The United States withdrew from the Kyoto Protocol because it




a. did not include any provisions to limit carbon emissions.


b. did not require other countries to protect basic human rights.


c. would threaten American national security.


d. would be too harmful to American national economic interests.


e. did not go far enough in limiting carbon emissions.

d. would be too harmful to American national economic interests.

The most noteworthy example of the policy of deterrence was the ________.




a. Vietnam War


b. Cuban Missile Crisis


c. arms race


d. Berlin blockade


e. first Gulf War

c. arms race

One of the most controversial areas of trade liberalization is ________.




a. education


b. social welfare


c. housing


d. agriculture


e. national defense

d. agriculture

Which official is NOT a major actor in American foreign policy?




a. director of the CIA


b. secretary of the Treasury


c. secretary of Defense


d. secretary of Veterans Affairs


e. national security adviser

d. secretary of Veterans Affairs

Which ethnic group has the reputation of having the greatest influence on American foreign policy?




a. Chinese Americans


b. Jewish Americans


c. Italian Americans


d. Mexican Americans


e. African Americans

b. Jewish Americans

Larger economic interest groups are less successful in influencing foreign policy than narrower groups because larger groups




a. are less likely to have allies in the executive branch and in Congress.


b. fall victim to collective action problems.


c. find it difficult to maintain tight enough control of their many members to speak with a single voice.


d. typically have fewer resources to use in their lobbying efforts.


e. usually demand more from government officials.

c. find it difficult to maintain tight enough control of their many members to speak with a single voice.

Which of the following statements about who really makes American foreign policy is FALSE?




a. Except for the president, the influence of players and makers varies from case to case.


b. It is best to evaluate other actors and factors as they interact with the president.


c. The reason influence varies from case to case is that each case arises under different conditions and with different time constraints.


d. Foreign policy experts will usually disagree about the level of influence any player or type of player has on policy making.


e. The influence or power of the president varies depending on the particular country or group of countries in question.

e. The influence or power of the president varies depending on the particular country or group of countries in question.

Which of the following is NOT descriptive of the United Nations?




a. It is a very large and unwieldy institution.


b. It has few powers.


c. It has no armed forces.


d. It lacks enforcement power to implement its rules and resolutions.


e. The United States never contributes to the United Nations’ peacekeeping efforts.

e. The United States never contributes to the United Nations’ peacekeeping efforts.

What was the Marshall Plan?




a. the original blueprint for the United Nations


b. an early attempt to establish a military alliance between North America and western Europe


c. the economic recovery package of aid from the United States to western Europe after World War II


d. aid to rebuild the Japanese economy along capitalist lines after World War II


e. aid to rebuild the Iraqi economy after the Persian Gulf War

c. the economic recovery package of aid from the United States to western Europe after World War II

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization was formed in ________.




a. 1898


b. 1917


c. 1939


d. 1949


e. 1963

d. 1949

Allies of the United States paid for ________ percent of the cost of the Persian Gulf War.




a. 10


b. 25


c. 60


d. 75


e. 90

e. 90