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104 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Which of these evolutionary agents ismost consistent at causing populations to become better suited to theirenvironments over the course of generations? 



A) genetic drift


B) gene flow


C) natural selection


D) non-random mating


E) mutation

C) natural selection

Which of these is a statement that Darwin would have rejected?


A)Inherited variationin a population is a necessary precondition for natural selection to operate.


B) Natural populations tend to produce more offspring than the environment can support.


C) The smallest entity that can evolve is an individual organism.


D) Environmental change plays a role in evolution.


E) Individuals can acquire new characteristics as they respond to new environments or situations.

C) The smallest entity that can evolve is an individual organism.


-(Darwin thought only populations/species evolve)

Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime?


A) change in gene frequency in gene pools


B) populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of generations


C) the gradual change of a population's heritable traits over generations


D) descent with modification


E) the appearance of new varieties and news pecies with the passage of time

A) change in gene frequency in gene pools


(Darwin did not know about genes, since Mendel discovered them after Darwin died)

About which of these did Darwin have apoor understanding?


A) that individuals in a population exhibit a good deal of variation


B) that much of the variation between individuals in a population is inherited


C) how a beneficial trait becomes more common in a population over the course of generations


D) the factors that cause individuals inpopulations to struggle for survival


E) the sources of genetic variations among individuals

E) the sources of genetic variations among individuals

If, on average, 46% of the loci in aspecies' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity ofthe species should be


A) 23%


B) 54%


C) 92%


D) 46%


E) There is not enough information to say.


-B) 54%


-(46+54 = 1)

Which of these variables is likely toundergo the largest change in value as the result of a mutation that introducesa brand-new allele into a population's gene pool at a locus that had formerlybeen fixed?


A) geographicvariability



B) averagenumberof loci


C) nucleotide variability 



D) averageheterozygosity

D) average heterozygosity

Which of these is the smallest unit uponwhich natural selection directly acts?


A) an individual's genotype


B) a species' gene frequency


C) an individual's genome


D) a population's gene frequency


E) an individual's phenotype

E) an individual's phenotype


-Natural selection cannot select for the genotype


-Natural selection effects an organisms phenotype traits, and can only indirectly effect the genotype

Which of these is the smallest unit thatnatural selection can change? 



A) an individual'sgenotype


B) an individual's genome


C) an individual's phenotype


D) a species' gene frequency


E) a population's gene frequency

E) a population's gene frequency


-Through selecting for better phenotypes, the better genes become higher in frequency

Each of the following has a better chanceof influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations,but which one most consistently requires a small population as a preconditionfor its occurrence? 



A) mutation


B) gene flow


C) non-randommating


D) naturalselection


E) geneticdrift

E) genetic drift


-Genetic drift is the process of an allele becoming fixed or lost

The higher the proportion of loci thatare "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's 



A) average heterozygosity.


B) genetic polyploidy.


C) nucleotide variability.


D) A, B and C


E) A and C only

E) A and C only

Which is a true statement concerning genetic variation? 



A) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a larger average heterozygosity.


B) It is created by the direct action of natural selection.


C) It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.


D) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. E) It arises in response to changes in the environment.

D) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 25% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa),the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants.What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the fact that the frequency of the recessive trait (aa) has not changed over time? 





A) The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory conditions.


B) The genotype AA is lethal.


C) There has been a high rate of mutation of allele A to allele a.


D) There has been sexual selection favoring allele a.


E) The population is undergoing genetic drift.

A) The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory conditions.

Whatis the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool? 



A) 0.75



B) 0.25



C) 0.05



D) 1.00



E) 0.50

E) 0.50


(Since there are only two alleles. A=0.50, the other is 0.50 = 1

Whatproportion of the population is probably heterozygous(Aa) forthis trait? 



A) 0.05



B) 0.75



C) 1.00



D) 0.25



E) 0.50


E) 0.25

q=0.05


p=0.05


2pq = 0.05x0.05x2 = 0.25

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with twoalleles, Aanda, thatare in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.4. What is the percentage of thepopulation that is homozygous for this allele? 



A) 40 



B) 4



C) 32



D) 16



E) 36


D) 16


p=0.4


q=0.4


pp=0.4x0.4 = 16

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele? 



A) 10



B) 49 



C) 81



D) 18



E) 90


D) 18


p=0.1


q=0.1


2pq=0.1x0.1x2

You sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous at a particular locus. What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population? 



A) 0.49


B) 0.09


C) 0.30


D) 0.70


E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.

E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.

In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the genotype AA, 480 have the genotype AB, and 360 have the genotype BB.
What is the frequency of the B allele?


A) 0.600



B) 0.001



C) 0.100



D) 0.400



E) 0.002

A) 0.600 



AB = 480/2 = 240


BB = 360


360+240 = 600


600/1000 = 0.6

Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between 



A) chromosomes.


B) males and females.


C) species.


D) populations.


E) individuals.

D) populations

The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured most directly by 



A) its physical strength.


B) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.


C) how long it lives.


D) the number of mates it attracts.


E) the number of "good genes" it possesses.

B) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.

If neutral variation is truly"neutral," then it should have no effect on 



A) our ability to measure the rate of evolution. B) gene diversity.


C) nucleotide diversity.


D) relative fitness.


E) average heterozygosity.

D) relative fitness.

The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU) is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid, phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool? 



A) diploidy 



B) stabilising selection


C) heterozygote advantage



D) balancing selection

A) diploidy 


Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following? 



A) random selection


B) disruptive selection


C) directional selection


D) stabilising selection


E) sexual selection

D) stabilising selection

Sparrows with average-sized wings survive severe storms better than those with longer or shorter wings, illustrating 



A) the bottleneck effect.


B) neutral variation.


C) disruptive selection.


D) frequency-dependent selection.


E) stabilising selection.

E) stabilising selection.

If there are 4,000 children born to this generation, how many would be expected to have AB blood under the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 



A) 2,000 



B) 1,920 



C) 960 



D) 2,400 



E) 100

B) 1,920 


What is it about short tandem repeat DNA that makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting?


A) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments


B) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats


C) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal


D) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual

D) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual


-This is the process that lets us determine the parents of the child

Short answer question: What is the difference between macroevolution and microevolution?

-Microevolution is the change of allele frequencies across generations (time) and geography (space)


-Macroevolution is the large changes in morphology

Short answer question: What is the difference between stabilising, directional and disruptive selection?

-Stabilising selection is the removal of organisms who have extreme phenotypes (babies born too large/small tend to not survive)


-Directional selection is the gradual changing of means of gene frequency in a population


-Disruptive selection is when organisms with extreme phenotypes are fitter than an organism in the middleground (birds with bigger/smaller beaks are fitter than birds with medium beaks)

Short answer question: What is polyphyly?

-A polyphyly is an evolutionary tree divided into three categories


-Monophylyetic grouping


-Paraphyletic grouping


-Polyphyletic grouping

Short answer question: What is Monophyly?

-A sub-category of polyphyly


-Monophyletic grouping includes a recent common ancestor and all descendants of that grouping.

Short answer question: What is Paraphyly?

-A sub-category of polyphyly


-A parahyletic grouping that includes a recent common ancestor, but not all descendents

Short answer question: What is a polyphyletic grouping?

-A sub-category of polyphyly


-A polyphyletic grouping that does not include a common ancestor, and requires that a group has two separate evolutionary origins.

Short answer question:What are the five connected theories of darwinism?

1) Perpetual change


2) Multiplication of species


3) Common descent


4) Gradualism


5) Natural selection

Charles Darwin was the first to propose:


A) That evolution occurs


B) A mechanism for how evolution occurs


C) A mechanism for how evolution that was supported by evidence


D) A way to use artificial selection as a means of domesticating plants and animals

C) A mechanism for how evolution that was supported by evidence


Allelic diversity (A) is which one of the following?


A) The mean number of alleles per locus (based on all loci surveyed)


B) The number of monomorphic loci


C) The number of polymorphic loci


D) The number of monomorphic alleles


E) The number of polymorphic alleles

A) The mean number of alleles per locus (based on all loci surveyed)

Short answer question: In phylogenetics, what is a clade?

-A clade is a group of organisms that includes a common ancestor and all its descendants


-Includes a branch in the tree

Short answer question:What is the difference between 'current utility' and 'reason for existence' in the study of evolution?

-Current Utility - How a characteristic of an organism is used today


-Reason for existence - Why a characteristic was developed


-An example is feathers for a bird were not originally used for flying, but to regulate body heat.

"Allometric" growth refers to:


A) The retention of juvenile characterisitics in the adult


B) large genetic changes


C) the variation in growth rate of various parts of the body


D) Allopatric population changes over time

C) The variation in growth rate of various parts of the body


-A human babies head does not grow at the same rate as the rest of the body

A genetic change that caused a certain Hox gene to be expressed along the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back made possible the evolution of the tetrapod limb. This type of change is illustrative of:


A) the influence of environment on an individual's development


B) paedomorphosis, or retention of ancestral juvenile structures in an adult organism


C) a change in a developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organisation of body parts


D) punctuated equilibrium

C) a change in developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organisation of body parts

A balanced polymorphism exists through disruptive selection in seedcracker finches from Cameroon in which small- and large-billed birds specialise in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population?


A) disruptive selection


B) directional selection


C) stabilising selection


D) no selection would operate because the population is in the Hardy-Weinberg equilbrium

B) Directional selection


-Directional selection is the mean frequencies of alleles shifting over time

Which of the following would be an example of macroevolution?


A) evolution of antibiotic resistance in a strain of E. coli


B) evolution of polymorphism in Papilio dardanus which each morph mimicking a different protected butterfly


C) evolution of modern humans, homo sapiens, from australopithecine ancestors


D) evolution of insecticide resistance in populations of insect pests treated through years of DDT

C) evolution of modern humans, homo sapiens, from australopithecine ancestors

Speciation by reinforcement


A) can occur in allopoatric populations


B) must include selection against hybrid offspring


C) is explained by adaptive divergence of populations


D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Which of the following is a requirement a substance must meet in order to be considered hereditary material?


1. The material must be able to replicate or be replicated


2. The material must encode information regarding the structure and function of the organism.


3. The material must be able to change over time.


A) 1


B) 2


C) 3


D) 1 and 2 only


E) All of these

E) All of these

2. Nucleotides are composed of which of the following?


A) Pentose sugar, phosphate molecule, and a nitrogenous base


B) Pentose sugar, nucleic acid, and a nitrogenous base


C) Hexane molecule, muramic acid, and a phosphorylated base


D) Amino acid, phosphate molecule, and a nitrogenous base


E) DNA, RNA, and amino acid chain

A) Pentose sugar, phosphate molecule, and a nitrogenous base

3. Which of the following is different between RNA and DNA?


1. RNA is double stranded and DNA is single stranded


2. RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded


3. RNA contains the nitrogenous base Uracil and DNA contains the base Thymine


A) 1


B) 2


C) 3


D) 1 and 2


E) 2 and 3

E) 2 and 3

4. The principle of independent assortment states that:


A) The alleles of different genes segregate independently of each other


B) The alleles of different genes segregate dependent upon each other


C) The alleles of the same genes do not segregate independently of each other


D) None of these


E) All of these

A) The alleles of different genes segregate independently of each other

5. Why is it easier to identify a recessive sex-linked trait in human beings than a recessive autosomal trait?


A) A male needs only to inherit one recessive allele to show an X-linked trait


B) A male needs to inherit two recessive alleles to show an X-linked trait


C) A female needs to inherit one recessive allele to show an X-linked trait


D) None of these


E) All of these

A) A male needs only to inherit one recessive allele to show an X-linked trait

6. In mammals Dosage compensation for X-linked genes is achieved by:


A) Hyperactivation of X-linked genes


B) Down regulation of X-linked genes


C) Inactivation of one of the females X-chromosomes during early development


D) All of these


E) None of these

C) Inactivation of one of the females X-chromosomes during early development

7. In a human, what is the best explanation for being XX and phenotypically male?


A) One of the X's is incomplete resembling a chromosome.


B) A small piece of the Y-chromosome, containing the SRY region, is inserted on the X-chromosome.


C) Both the X's have a mutation deleting the "female" forming genes.


D) There is a fragment of the Y-chromosome inserted on an autosomal chromosome.


E) The SRY gene has mutated.

B) A small piece of the Y-chromosome, containing the SRY region, is inserted on the X-chromosome.

8. When chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, thereby producing an egg with two X chromosomes or an egg with no X chromosome at all it is referred to as:


A) Nondisjunction


B) Disjunction


C) Polyploidy


D) Infarction


E) None of these

A) Nondisjunction

9. Which of the following is a true regarding the structure of DNA?


A) Double stranded molecule


B) Single stranded molecule


C) Composed of nucleotides


D) Double stranded molecule and Composed of nucleotides


E) Single stranded molecule and Composed of nucleotides

D) Double stranded molecule and Composed of nucleotides

11. Which of the following statements is not true regarding DNA replication?


A) DNA replication occurs in a semi-conservative manner.


B) DNA replication begins at unique initiation points.


C) DNA replication proceeds bidirectionally from the initiation point.


D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction from the initiation point.


E) All of these are false.

D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction from the initiation point.

12. Which of the following must be present in order for DNA polymerase to be active?


1. Mg2+


2. dNTPs


3. Existing DNA template with a free 3’ end


A) 1


B) 2


C) 3


D) 1 and 3


E) All of these

E) All of these

13. The direction of DNA synthesis is:


A) Always 3' to 5'


B) Always 5' to 3'


C) Both 5' to 3' and 3' to 5'


D) Neither 5' to 3' or 3' to 5'


E) DNA synthesis is not ordered. It is a random process

B) Always 5' to 3'

14. How many strands of DNA are used as a template during the process of transcription?


A) One


B) Two


C) Three


D) Four


E) None of these

A) One

15. During transcription the newly formed complementary strand of RNA is known as the: A) Translate


B) Transcript


C) cRNA


D) cDNA


E) Genetic Code

B) Transcript

16. The following statements is correct about E. coli promoters:


A) Most promoters have a high degree of sequence similarity.


B) -10 and -35 regions show the most conservation between promoters.


C) The GC-rich -10 region facilitates the localized unwinding of DNA .


D) Distance between the -10 and -35 regions is moderately conserved from 10 to 30 nucleotides in length


E) None of these statements are correct

B) -10 and -35 regions show the most conservation between promoters.

17. Which of the following is not a major modification that the primary transcript in eukaryotes undergoes before being shipped off for translation?


A) Methyl guanosine caps are added to the 5´ ends of the primary transcripts


B) Poly(A) tails are added to the 3´ ends of the transcripts, which are generated by cleavage rather than by termination of chain extension. C) When present, intron sequences are spliced out of transcripts.


D) When present, exons sequences are spliced out of transcripts.


E) All of these are major modifications

D) When present, exons sequences are spliced out of transcripts.

18. Which of the following is the correct anti-codon sequence that corresponds with the codon sequence AUG?


A) AUG


B) GUA


C) TAC


D) UAC


E) CAU

D) UAC

19. The genetic code is:


A) Composed of triplet codons


B) Non-overlapping


C) Degenerate


D) Universal


E) All of these

E) All of these

20. Mutations that occur without a known cause are known as:


A) Spontaneous mutations


B) Induced mutations


C) Harmful mutations


D) Adaptive mutations


E) None of these

A) Spontaneous mutations

21. Restoration of the wild typephenotype in a mutant organism can result from which of the following types of mutations?


A) Back mutation


B) Supressor mutation


C) Forward mutation


D) Back mutation and Supressor mutation


E) Supressor mutation and Forward mutation

D) Back mutation and Supressor mutation

22. Mutations that are lethal in one environment but viable in anotherare known as:


A) Lethal mutations


B) Conditional lethal mutations


C) Null mutations


D) Isoallele mutations


E) All of these

B) Conditional lethal mutations

23. When the bases are present intheir rare imino or enol states, they can form which of the following paircombination?


A) A:T


B) C:G


C) A:C


D) A:T and C:G


E) C:G and A:C

C) A:C

24. Base-pair substitutions in which involve the replacement of a purinein one strand of DNA with the other purine and the replacement of a pyrimidinein the complementary strand with the other pyrimidine are known as:


A) Isomers


B) Transitions


C) Transversions


D) Inversions


E) None of these

B) Transitions

27. Which enzymeis used to join two complementary DNA fragments after a cut has been made?


A) Restriction endonucleases


B) RNA polymerase


C) DNA gyrase


D) DNA ligase


E) Helicase

D) DNA ligase

30. A DNA molecule containing DNA fragments from two or more differentsources is known as a:


A) Recombinant DNA molecule


B) Mutated DNA molecule


C) Biologically normal DNA molecule


D) Wild type DNA molecule


E) Homeric DNA molecule

A) Recombinant DNA molecule

32. If a researcher wants toinsert a foreign piece of DNA that is 13kb in size into E. coli, whichtype of vector would he/she most likely use?


A) Plasmid


B) Bacteriophage


C) BAC


D) Cosmid


E) YAC

B) Bacteriophage

33. Which of the followingtechniques is most appropriate for analyzing DNA fragments?


A) Southern Blotting


B) Northern Blotting


C) Western Blotting


D) Southern Blotting and Northern Blotting


E) None of the above

A) Southern Blotting

34. Which of the following wouldbe considered a bioinformatics tool?


A) BLAST search


B) GENBANK


C) Microarray hybridization


D) BLAST search and GENBANK


E) All of these

) BLAST search and GENBANK

35. DNA molecules that aresynthesized from an RNA template are known as:


A) cDNA molecules


B) sDNA molecules


C) gDNA molecules


D) rDNA molecules


E) None of these

A) cDNA molecules

A species’ fundamental niche is:


a. The niche in the absence of competitors


b. The niche in the presence of competitors


c. The niche when nutrients are limiting


d. The niche when nutrients are readily availablee. The niche of a keystone species

a. The niche in the absence of competitors

1. A parasitoid is an organism that:


a. Feeds inside a host


b. Feeds on the outside of a host


c. Provides a benefit to its host


d. Feeds on and eventually kills a host


e. Is mutually beneficial to its host

d. Feeds on and eventually kills a host

1. Autotrophs are:


a. Tertiary consumers


b. Primary producers


c. Secondary consumers


d. Detritivores


e. Herbivores

b. Primary producers

Short answer: What is Net Primary Production and how can it bemeasured?

NetPrimary Production is equal to gross primary production minus the energy usedby primary producers for respiration. Gross primary production is the totalamount of light energy converted into chemical energy and can be measured asthe energy converted per unit time per area or as the biomass of vegetationproduced.

Short answer: What are the three levels of biodiversity?

Geneticdiversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity

In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype is 0.09. What is the frequency of individuals that are homozygous for the dominant allele?


a) 0.49


b) 0.70


c) 0.21


d) 0.91


e) 0.09

a) 0.49

In humans, Rh-positive individuals have the Rh antigen on their red blood cells, while Rh-negative individuals do not. The Rh-positive phenotype is produced by a dominant gene (A), and the Rh-negative phenotype is due to its recessive allele (a). If 16% of a population is the Rh-negative genotype what is the frequency of the Rh-positive allele if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?


a) 0.04


b) 0.16


c) 0.60


d) 0.84


e) 0.40

c) 0.60

In the Hardy-Weinberg equations, the term 2pq represents the frequency of the:


a) heterozygotes


b) dominant homozygotes


c) recessive homozygotes


d) dominant allele


e) homozygotes

a) heterozygotes

Which of the following would cause deviations from excepted genotype frequencies based on the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?


a) Individuals mate with one another at random


b) natural selection is present


c) there is no source of new copies of alleles from outside the population


d) there was no migration into or out of the population


e) all of the above

b) natural selection is present

The random loss (or fixation) of alleles in a finite population is due to:


a) Mutation


b) Selection


c) genetic drift


d) gene flow


e) none of the above

c) genetic drift

In what situation would you expect to find genetic drift contributing significantly to changes in genetic diversity?


a) a very small population


b) a very large diploid population


c) a population experiencing selection pressures


d) a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium


e) a very large haploid population

a) a very small population

Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to gene flow between subpopulations within a population?


a) genetic drift


b) mutations


c) non-random mating


d) natural selection


e) migration

e) migration

A scientist measures the length of banksia spinulosa seeds and discovers that the most common length is 1.5cm. What would you expect the most common length(s) to be after 10 generations of stabilising selection?


a) 1.5cm


b) greater than 1.5cm


c) less than 1.5cm


d) greater than 1.5cm and less than 1.5cm


e) none of the above

a) 1.5cm

A scientist measures the length of banksia spinulosa seeds and discovers that the most common length is 1.5cm. What would you expect the most common length(s) to be after 10 generations of disruptive selection?


a) 1.5cm


b) greater than 1.5cm


c) less than 1.5cm


d) greater than 1.5cm and less than 1.5cm


e) none of the abovedisruptive selection?

d) greater than 1.5cm and less than 1.5cm

What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?


a) genetic drift


b) mutations


c) non-random mating


d) natural selection


e) migration

b) mutations

A population consisted of four discrete subpopulations. Each subpopulation consists of diploid individuals that have two forms of a gene (A and a). What is the Fst value, if all subpopulations have the same frequency for the A and a alleles?


a) Fst cannot be calculated


b) Fst = 0.0


c) Fst = 1.0


d) Fst = 0.5


e) Fst = 0.7

b) Fst = 0.0

The Fst equation is based on which one of the following expressions?


a) p+q


b) p^2 + q^2


c) Ht + Hs


d) (Ht - Hs)/Ht


e) 2pq

d) (Ht - Hs)/Ht

In population genetics Hs represents:


a) The expected heterozygosity of the population based on the average of the subpopulation allele frequencies


b) The expected homozygosity of the population based on the average of the subpopulation allele frequencies


c) the average expected subpopulation heterozygosity


d) the average expected subpopulation homozygosity


e) the frequency of the dominate allele

c) the average expected subpopulation heterozygosity

Average polymorphism (P) is:


a) the mean number of alleles per locus (based on all loci surveyed)


b) the number of monomorphic loci divided by the total number of loci surveyed


c) the number of polymorphic loci divided by the total number of loci surveyed


d) the number of monomorphic alleles dividied by the total number of alleles surveyed


e) the number of polymorphic alleles dividied by the total number of alleles surveyed



c) the number of polymorphic loci divided by the total number of loci surveyed

If the number of alleles at five loci is: 1, 2, 3, 2, 2, what is the value for A, the allelic diversity?


a) 1


b) 4


c) 5


d) 2


e) 0

d) 2

If a population has an allelic diversity (A) of 1 and the proportion of genes that are polymorphic (P) is zero, then what would be the expected heterozygosity of the population?


a) 1.0


b) 0.5


c) 2.0


d) 0.0


e) none of the above

d) 0.0

A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (eg., the population numbers dropped from 8000 to 80). Subsequently, the population showed a large loss in genetic diversity. This is an example of a:


a) Gene flow effect


b) founder effect


c) genetic load


d) bottleneck effect


e) panmitic population



d) bottleneck effect

In an effort to help preserve the near-extinct species, scientists caught 20 seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest pacific ocean. This is an example of a:


a) Gene flow effect


b) founder effect


c) genetic load


d) bottleneck effect


e) panmitic population

b) founder effect

Moto Kimura's Neutrality hypothesis states that:


a) Allele frequencies are affected by natural selection


b) mutation is a relatively unimportant source of variation and is not the foundation for evolution


c) many of the mutations that occur are not affected by natural selection


d) genetic drift and migration are not important processes in maintaining genetic diversity


e) all of the above

c) many of the mutations that occur are not affected by natural selection

Charles Darwin's theory relied upon the finding of other scientists like:


a) Georges Cuvier


b) Charles Lyell


c) Thomas Malthus


d) Alfred Wallace


e) All of the above

e) All of the above

Which of the following options is not one of the four postulates of Darwin's Natural selection?


a) individuals within species are variable


b) some of these variations are passed on to offspring


c) the agent of inheritance are discrete units


d) in every generation, more offpsring are produced than can survive


e) the survival of individuals are not random - some individuals are "naturally selected"

c) the agent of inheritance are discrete units

Natural selection can take place if:


a) the gene is inheritable


b) there is a variation in the system


c) there is a difference in the survivorship or reproductive ability between variants


d) all of the above occur


e) none of the above occur

d) all of the above occur

Which of the following is not a good explanation of the term allometric growth?


a) the increase in size of different organs or parts of an organism at various rates


b) studies shape differences in terms of ratios of the objects dimensions at different sizes


c) the regular and systematic growth of an organism according to an allometric equation


d) phenomenon whereby parts of the same organism grow at different rates


e) a species that exhibits a constant shape regardless of size

e) a species that exhibits a constant shape regardless of size

Homeotic genes are genes:


a) that provide positional information and that change the fate of an imaginal disk


b) that are responsible for changes in the colour of particular appendages (e.g. flower colour)


c) that are affected by the master regulatory genes


d) that are affected by Hox genes


e) that are identical to imaginal disks

a) that provide positional information and that change the fate of an imaginal disk

Allopatric speciation is the formation of two species from one species:


a) within the original population due to genetic polymorphic


b) via isolation due to a barrier formation (e.g. mountain range or river)


c) via isolation due to the population entering a new niche (e.g. colonising a new and isolated niche)


d) within an adjacent niche due to the population entering an adjacent niche


e) all of the above

b) via isolation due to a barrier formation (e.g. mountain range or river)

The recognition species concept is:


a) exactly the same as the biological species concept


b) is dependent on isolation mechanisms to justify its claims


c) is a cohesive concept that emphasises the importance of mate recognition mechanisms


d) state that isolation mechanisms determine a species limit


e) state that prezygotic isolation mechanisms are sufficient to determine a species limit

c) is a cohesive concept that emphasises the importance of mate recognition mechanisms

Specific-mate recognition systems are:


a) mechanisms that result in inefficient fertilisation


b) a special case of isolation mechanisms


c) can be defined as prezygotic or postzygotic isolation mechanisms


d) male-female communication system within a species


e) based on the evolution of effective isolation mechanism

d) male-female communication system within a species

Which of the following is not a form of reproductive isolation?


a) the populations occur in different habitats


b) mating occurs at different seasons


c) attraction between the sexes of different species is weak


d) genitalia is not compatible and prevent copulation


e) gene flow occurs between plant population due to pollen transfer

e) gene flow occurs between plant population due to pollen transfer