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267 Cards in this Set

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What are the 3 Reasons for Classification?

1. Natural Desire for Order
2. Helps us Understand Evolutionary affinities
3. Biodiversity/Eco Impact Assessment

What system do we use for nomenclature?

Binomial System (Genus + species)

What are the 5 Rules for nomenclature?

1. Only first name valid
2. Name must be unique
3. Cannot be named after yourself
4. Must describe the species
5. Must have a type specimen

What is the taxonomic hierarchy?

K - Kingdom
P - Phylum
C - Class
O - Order
F - Family
G - Genus
S - Species

What is the basis for classification?

- Use of cladistics (grouping based off common evolutionary traits)
- Monophyletic groupings (common ancestor + all its descendants)
- Based off shared traits/DNA

What is a homologous trait? Why can they be difficult to distinguish at times? Give an example.

- Traits which are derived from a common ancestor
- Can be hard to distinguish due to divergence
- Example is the wing of the emu

What is an analogous trait? Example?

- A trait not derived from a common ancestor but has a similar function due to convergence
- Example is the independent development of flight

What is a cladogram?

- A diagram that displays proposed evolutionary relationships among a group of species

- Uses parsimony (least no. of groupings)

- Groupings further down the line are closer relatives


 

- A diagram that displays proposed evolutionary relationships among a group of species
- Uses parsimony (least no. of groupings)
- Groupings further down the line are closer relatives


3 Requirements for evolution

1. Gene mutation
2. Fixation of DNA through natural selection
3. Evolution DNA carried through history

What are the 2 essential components of a virus?

1. Circular or linear strand of RNA or DNA
2. Capsid Protein Coat

What are the 4 features of viruses?

1. Infectious Agents
2. Non-Cellular
3. Require Host Cell to Reproduce
4. Usually very small (smaller than bacterium)
5. 1/3 DNA is transposable elements (sequences which can change position within the genome)

What is the Tobacco Mosaic Virus?

- First Discovered Virus
- Passes through bacterial filters due to small size
- ssRNA
- Good Model Virus

What are the 4 types of viral genome?

1. ssRNA
2. dsRNA
3. ssDNA
4. dsDNA

What are the 4 types of protein the viral genome codes for?

1 type of coat protein
1 type of transport protein
2 type of replication proteins

Describe how retroviruses operate

- Use reverse transcriptase to replicate
- RNAv -> inserts itself withing the bacterial DNA -> reproduction of RNAv
- All enveloped

Describe the function and structure of the viral protein capsid

- Protects the genetic material of the virus
- Composed of self assembling capsomere units which form may different arrangements (e.g. helical, icosahedral, complex)

What are the 3 ways a virus can enter a bacterial cell?

1. Injection
2. Endocytosis
3. Wound in cell

Describe the difference in how RNA and DNA virus cells replicate

DNAv uses RNA Pol to create mRNAv which is then translated to viral protein whereas RNAv is directly translated. DNA viruses act within the nucleus whereas RNA viruses replicate within the cytoplasm

What is the difference between a virion and virus?

Virions are virus particles which act as an extracellular transport structure

What are the 4 features which viral classification is based off?

1. Morphology
2. Whether it has a single or multi particle virion
3. The type of nucleic acid (i.e. DNA or RNA)
4. The host-virus relationship

What is the infection and death rates of the Influenza virus?

400 Million Infections / Year
400,000 Deaths / Year

What is the mechanism of action for the Influenza Virus?

There are 2 Proteins:
1. Hemaglutinin attaches to the sialic acid receptors on the cell surface, allowing entry of the virus in to the cell where it replicates
2. Neuriminidase then hydrolises the sialic acid receptors, allowing the newly replicated virus cells to exit



Each cell contains 1 gene for H and 1 for N. If there are 2 different influenza virus within the same cell, recombination of different H and N can lead to new strains.

What drug may prevent the transmission of the Influenza Virus and how does it do this?

Relenza is used to treat strains of influenza as it binds to Neuriminidase, preventing hydrolysis and the virus from leaving the cell

What are viroids and how do they replicate?

- Plant pathogens
- Single circular RNA strands
- Do not code for protein but use RNA polymerase to self-replicate
- 1/1000th size of virion

What are prions? What are the 2 examples of prion caused diseases and how do they occur?

- Proteinaceous infective particles
- Brain proteins (PrP) which become misfolded scrapie (Prpsc)
- Scrapie form catalyses conversion of normal proteins to stable scrapie form
- Causes insoluble build up of brain plaque
- Mad Cow disease occurs when cows are fed the brains of other cows with the disease
- Kuru occurs in tribes in PNG which have rituals where family members eat the brains of the diceased

What are the 5 common features of the 3 Life Domains?

1. All conduct glycolysis
2. All have DNA which can encode proteins
3. All replicate DNA semi-conservatively
4. All can use transcription and translation
5. All are surrounded by a membrane

What were the 2 features of Ancient prokaryotes?

1. They were chemoautrophic
2. They were anoxygenix (became oxygenic 3.5 BYA)

What are 4 features of Environmental prokaryotes?

1. Atmospheric oxygen
2. Organic carbon
3. Can create ammonia from N2
4. Can metabolise sulfur

What are the differences in Bacteria vs. Archaea in terms of:
1. Lipid membrane structure
2. RNA Polymerases
3. Initiator tRNA
4. Peptidoglycan cell walls
5. DNA

1. Straight double bilayer with ester links vs. Branched single bilayer with ether links (lower permeability)
2. Single simple vs. Multiple complex
3. F-met vs. Met
4. Has one vs. doesn't have one
5. No histones vs. Histone bound

What are Halobacterium halobium?

They are prokaryotic archaea which live in hypersaline solution and use retinal as 'photosynthetic pigment' to capture light and drive chemiosmotic production of ATP

What are 3 general features of archaea?

1. Small Genome
2. Extreme halophiles / thermophile
3. Some are methanogens

Why do bacteria have different sensitivty of toxins and antibiotics?

They have different ribosome sizes to eukaryotes

What are the 5 features bacterial classification is based on?

1. Gram Stain


- Positive = blue/purple = high pept content = single membrane


- Negative = pink = low pept content = double membrane


2. Metabolism


- Phototroph = sunlight


- Lithotroph = inorganic compounds


- Organotroph = organic compounds


3. Morphology


- Cocci


- Bacilli


- Filamentous


4. Response to drugs


5. Host relationship

What are the 5 examples of pathogenic bacterial diversity and the type of disease they can cause?

1. Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)


- Toxic blooms


2. Spirochetes (cork shaped)


- Lymes disease and syphilis


3. Gram-negative rods


- Plague, cholera and salmonella


4. Actinomyocete


- Tuberculosis


5. Mycoplasmas

How do bacteria reproduce and what are the 4 ways in which they can achieve genetic diversity?

- Reproduce through asexual binary fission


1. Conjugation


- Bacterial sex which involves recombination of genome/plastid


2. Transformation


- Endocytosis of dead cell genome which is incorporated in to the genome


3. Transudction


- Viral DNA is combined with bacterial genome


4. Mutation


- Natural chance variation

What is the pathogenesis of a disease?

The mechanism of infection

What is the virulence of a disease?

The level of infectivity of a disease

What are 3 factors which allow for transmission of a disease?

1. Favourable environment


2. Virulent pathogen


3. Susceptible host

What happens at the extremes of a immune system response?

Death occurs if immune response is overly weak or strong

What are the 4 given examples of pathogenic bacteria?

1. Diptheria (Corynebacterium diphtheria)


2. Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis)


3. Leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae)


4. Typhoid

Where in the body does diphtheria target?


What mediates it transport between cells?


What is its mechanism of action?

- Releases exotoxin in the pharynx


- B subunit mediates transport between cells


- Single A subunit inhibits all protein synthesis in a cell



What proportion of the population is affected by tuberculosis? Why is this?


What is its mechanism of action?



- 1/3 of the population is affected as it is often in a latent form with slow division and symptom onset.


- Bacteria produces mycolic acids which protect themselves against immune defense


- This means macrophages are unable to kill TB and TB replicates within its vesicle, using its nutrients and causing cell death


What are the 4 features of leprosy in general?

1. Unculturable human specific disease


2. Grows in macrophages of skin and nerves


3. 75% of people clear infection


4. Half of genome is pseudogenes (non-functional)

What is the difference between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy?

- Tuberculoid is the non-progressive mild form where T-Cells are able to effectively recognise antigens. It causes nerve damage and loss of sensation.


- Lepromatous is the more severe form which causes granulomas in the absence of delayed hypersensitivity

What is streptomycin?

- Streptomycin was the first drug to be effective in treating tuberculosis


- It was developed from Streptomyces griseus


- It binds to the 16S ribosomal subunit

What is the structure of fungi? (4 points)

1. Mycelium vegetative (asexual) feeding structure


2. Cell walls composed of chitin


3. Hyphae can be divided by septa (walls) which are incomplete to allow cytoplasmic continuity


4. Hyphae can anastomose to form heterokaryons (multi-nucleate cell with genetically distinct nuclei)

Describe the nutrition and ecology of fungi (3 points)


What are the 3 ecological categories of fungus nutrition?

1. All are heterotrophic (consume organic carbon for growth, are incapable of synthesising their own)


2. They digest food externally through enzymes


3. Energy stored as glycogen, fats and oils



3 ecological categories (saprohphytic, parasitic and mycorrhizal)

What are saprophytic fungi and what do they consume?

- Digest dead cell material


- Decompose cellulose and lignin from plant cell wall


- Major natural recyclers which can live anywhere


What are parasitic fungi and what do they do?


- Form of fungus with specialised structure and nutrition


- Can cause rotting, mycoses and allergies


- Can be predators


What are mycorrhizal associations?

- Symbiotic association between fungus and plant roots


- Fungus grows in between roots and can be intracellular


- Fungus receives sugars from roots and roots receive nutrients in return


- 95% of plants rely on fungi

What are the 5 types of fungal associations?

1. Mycorrhizal (plant + fungus)


2. Endophytes (bacteria + fungus)


3. Lichens (algae + fungus)


4. Invertebrates


5. Verterbrates

What are the 3 general stages of asexual fungal reproduction?

Asexual => Mitosis => Spores

What is the 6 step process of sexual reproduction which turns fungal hyphae in to spores? Explain each stage. (note 1 step has 2 alternative stages)

Hyphae =>



1. Anastomosis (n)


- fusion of 2 hyphae


2. Plasmogamy


- fusion of cytoplasm


3. Heterokaryotic Stage


- Cell has unfused nuclei from different mating types


4. Coenocytic Stage


- No septa and multiple nuclei


OR


4. Dikaryonic Stage (n+n)


- 2 nuclei which do not fuse immediately


5. Karyogamy (2n)


- Fusion of 2 nuclei


6. Meiosis



=spores

What are mycoses? And why do they not occur often?

- Mycoses are fungal diseases which are common in humans


- Few fungi cause disease as they:


1. Need to grow in low oxygen


2. Have to survive the effective humman immune system


3. Have to survive at 37 Degrees

What is the basis for mycoses classification?

Based on taxonomy:


1. Superficial


2. Subcutaneous


3. Systemic

What is a superficial mycoses? Example?

A dermatophytic (infects skin) fungal disease.


Epidermophyton flocossum is an example.


- Causes Tinea Pedis (athletes foot)

What are subcutaneous mycoses? Example?

Wound and mucosa infections which spread through the lymph system.


Candida albicans is an example.


- Causes Thrush


- Dimorphic yeast form turns in to invasive hyphae at 37 degrees


- 50% incidence


What are systemic mycoses? What are the 2 different types of systemic mycoses? Examples of each?

Fungal diseases which infect the entire body.


1. Invasive Opportunist


- Yeast form attacks immuno-compromised individuals


- E.g. Penicillum marneffei which causes penicillosis, a significant disease in AIDS patients


2. Primary Pathogen


- Disease which occurs when there are high enough doses


- E.g. P. brasiliensis, a wide spread disease in Central and South America which causes a progressive degredation of the lung and mouth/nose mucosa

What is Aspergillus fumigatus and who is typically the target of its disease?

- Invasive opportunist fungus which attacks immuno-supressed individuals (e.g. organ transplant patients)


- Abundant in environment and inhalation in large numbers can cause allergic hypersensitive response known as Farmer's Lung

What is Cryptococcus Neoformans? How does it resist attack?

- Common and Infectious basidiomyocete yeast with over 1,000,000 cases and 500,000 deaths per year


- C.gattii is an exapmle of a primary pathogen


- Uses host dopamine for nutrition and melanin to help resist immune attack

Why are fungal diseases hard to treat? What are the 4 main drugs used in antifungal therapy?

- Hard to treat as fungal DNA is similar to humans and treatment must be target to a specific species and site of disease


1. 5-flucytosine


- Mimics uracil, thereby binding and blocking nucleic acid synthesis


2. Azoles


- Blocks ergosterol (similar to cholesterol) synthesis, disrupting its structure


3. Griseofulvin


- Fungistatic against dermatophytes


- Binds to fungal microtubules and inhibits mitosis


4. Polyenes


- Disrupts membrane integriy (e.g. Nystatin)

What are the 7 stages of fungal evolution in order of development?

1. Protist


2. Choanoflagellate


3. Microsporidia


4. Chytridiomycota


5. Zygomycota


6. Ascomycota


7. Basidiomycota

What are microsporidia? How do they invade cells?

- Minute obligate parasite (needs host)


- No mitochondria/flagella


- Spores can be ingested by humans


- Cell walls stain with calcofluor (high chitin content)


- Invades cells through polar tubes which inject sporoplasm (parasite - wall)


What are chytridiomycota and their unique features?

- Ancient fungi which are either soil or aquatic borne


- Have motile zoospores


- Hyphae are coencytic (no regular septa)

How are zygomycota different from chytridiomycota? Describe the asexual and sexual life cycles of zygomycota.

- Zygomycota do not have motile zoospores however are also coencytic



Asexual: reproduce by mitosis which creates sporangiospores, these are packaged within sporangium, the spore-enclosing structure



Sexual:


1. 2 zygospores (sexual) which are of a compatible mating type, anastomose.


2. These cells then undergo plasmogamy which creates a heterokaryonic (unfused nuclei) zygosporangium body with multinucleate zygospores


3. The nuclei within the zygosporangium then undergo karyogamy, forming multiple 2n spores


4. These spores undergo meiosis to become n and then germination occurs with the spores being released


How are ascomycota different from zygomycota? What is an example of ascomycota? Describe its asexual and sexual life cycles.

- Ascomycota differ in that they have a dikaryon (n+n) stage and have regular septa


- They have a sac-like structure


- E.g. Truffles



Asexual: Hyphae form conidia (asexual spores) which fall off and join another colony or starts one on its own



Sexual:


1. 2 Ascogonium (sexual reproductive structure) fuse through plasmogamy to form a heterokaryon


2. Heterokaryon gets partitioned in to dikaryon mycelium


3. Mycelium undero karyogamy to form 2n asci


4. Asci undergo meiosis to form n asci which undergo mitosis to form an ascus with around 8 ascospores


How are basidiomycota different from ascomycota? What is an example of basidiomycota? Describe its sexual life cycle.

- The asexual conidia form of reproduction is similar however it is much more rare


- The Basidium (sexual reproductive structure) is club like not a sac


- Similarly septate


- E.g. Mushrooms



Sexual:


1. Basidium releases basidiospores (sexual spores) which can form colonies of hyphae


2. Crossing of compatible mating type hyphae leads to karyogamy forming dikaryon (n+n) hyphae. These hang as gills under the basidiocarp.


3. Karyogamy then produces 2n basidium


4. Meiosis and mitosis produces large number of genetically distinct n basidiospores.

What are mycotoxins and its 5 main types?

- Secondary metabolites of fungi


1. Aflatoxins


- Toxic and carcinogenic


- Can cause liver damage/cancer


- E.g. Aspergillus fumigatus


2. Fumonosins


- Common grain mould


- Associated with cancer


- E.g. Fusarium moniliforme


3. Ergots


- Contain lysergic acid, which causes hallucinations


- Cause gangrenous ergotism


OR


- Cause convulsive ergotism


- E.g. Claviceps purpurea


4. Amatoxins


- E.g. Amanita phalloides (death caps)


- Cause cholera-like diarrhea


5. Tricothecene


- E.g. Fusarium spp.


- Livestock will not eat contaminated food

How are fungi, as allergens, spread in outdoor vs. indoor environments.

Outdoor:


- High mould exposure in summer/autumn


- Ryegrass pollen in spring



Indoor:


- High humidity and condensation, low ventilation, enables growth

How can fungi be used in drugs? Give 3 examples.

- The metabolites of fungi can be useful in treating ailments


1. Penicilin


2. Cephalosporin


3. Anti-tumour agents

List 4 general features of protists

1. First eukaryotes


2. Most diverse of the 6 kingdoms


3. Mostly aquatic


4. Significant O2 source


5. Few treatment options (genetically similar)


6. Polypyletic (do not share common ancestor)

What are the 4 structures protists all possess?

1. Cell membrane


2. Food vacuole


3. Contractile vacuole


4. Cilia / flagella

In order of evolutionary development, list the 6 groups of protists learnt.

1. Diplomonad


2. Parabasilid


3. Kinetoplastid


4. Ciliate


5. Apicomplexan


6. Amoeboids


For diplomonads:


1. Are they flagellate?


2. Do they reproduce sexually, asexually or both?


3. Where do they inhabit?


4. What are their distinguishing features?


5. Give an example and describe


6. What treatments are available if any?

1. Flagellate


2. Asexual: trophozoite division form and cyst infective form


3. Live in water supplies and adhere to gut walls, absorbing nutrients


4. Possesses mitosome (mitochondrial remnants) which produces energy by using iron-sulfur


5....

1. Flagellate


2. Asexual: trophozoite division form and cyst infective form


3. Live in water supplies and adhere to gut walls, absorbing nutrients


4. Possesses mitosome (mitochondrial remnants) which produces energy by using iron-sulfur


5. E.g. Giardia lamblia


- Cause Giardiasis, also known as traveller's diarrhea


6. Treatment using 5 nitro-imidazoles

For parabasilids:


1. Are they flagellate?


2. Do they reproduce sexually, asexually or both?


3. Where do they inhabit?


4. What are their distinguishing features?


5. Give an example and describe


6. What treatments are available if any?

1. Flagellate


2. Reproduces asexually


3. Lives on the surface of internal organs (e.g. gut)


4. - Possess hydrogenosome instead of mitochondria, which converts pyruvate in to acetate


- Has undulating membrane to assist in locomotion


5. E....

1. Flagellate


2. Reproduces asexually


3. Lives on the surface of internal organs (e.g. gut)


4. - Possess hydrogenosome instead of mitochondria, which converts pyruvate in to acetate


- Has undulating membrane to assist in locomotion


5. E.g. Trichomonas vaginalis


- STD which infects vagina, urethra and prostate


6. Treatment with 5 nitro-imidazoles


For kinetoplastids:


1. Are they flagellate?


2. Do they reproduce sexually, asexually or both?


3. Where do they inhabit?


4. What are their distinguishing features?


5. Give an example and describe


6. What treatments are available if any?

1. Flagellate


2. Asexually, but also rare sexual


3. Extracellular in blood


4. - Possess kinetoplast which is just a DNA clump


- May also have undulating membrane


5. Trypanasoma (african sleeping sickness)


Leishmania (leishmaniasis)


6...

1. Flagellate


2. Asexually, but also rare sexual


3. Extracellular in blood


4. - Possess kinetoplast which is just a DNA clump


- May also have undulating membrane


5. Trypanasoma (african sleeping sickness)


Leishmania (leishmaniasis)


6. Prevent tsetse contact for Trypanasoma


Prevent sand-fly contact for Leishmania

For ciliates:


1. Are they flagellate?


2. Do they reproduce sexually, asexually or both?


3. Where do they inhabit?


4. What are their distinguishing features?


5. Give an example and describe


6. What treatments are available if any?

1. Small cilia


2. Both asexual and sexual


3. Inabit aquatic environments and faeces


4. i) Have 2 nuclei (macro+micro)


ii) Contractile vacuole


5. E.g. Balantidium coli


- Fecal transmission of cyst


- Causes Balantidiasis (explosive dia...

1. Small cilia


2. Both asexual and sexual


3. Inabit aquatic environments and faeces


4. i) Have 2 nuclei (macro+micro)


ii) Contractile vacuole


5. E.g. Balantidium coli


- Fecal transmission of cyst


- Causes Balantidiasis (explosive diarrhea)


6. 5 nitro-imidazoles

For apicomplexans:


1. Are they flagellate?


2. Do they reproduce sexually, asexually or both?


3. Where do they inhabit?


4. What are their distinguishing features?


5. Give an example and describe


6. What treatments are available if any?

1. Immotile (no flagella)


2. Both asexual and sexual


3. Intracellular (e.g. liver cells, RBC)


4. Possess apical complex (facilitates penetration in and out of host cell)


5. E.g. Toxoplasma gondii


- Cat is definitive host


- Can live in ...

1. Immotile (no flagella)


2. Both asexual and sexual


3. Intracellular (e.g. liver cells, RBC)


4. Possess apical complex (facilitates penetration in and out of host cell)


5. E.g. Toxoplasma gondii


- Cat is definitive host


- Can live in the neural muscle tissue of cat, pigs and sheep


- Cyst containing meat can be ingested by humans


E.g. Plasmodium


- Cause RBC and liver cells to rupture


- Reproduce sexually on mosquito vector but human is definitive host


6. i) Prevent mosquito contact for plasmodium


ii) Take prophylactic dose of Quinine => not very effective now that most strains are resistant

For amoeboids:


1. Are they flagellate?


2. Do they reproduce sexually, asexually or both?


3. Where do they inhabit?


4. What are their distinguishing features?


5. Give an example and describe


6. What treatments are available if any?

1. Pseudopodia not flagella


2. Usually asexual but rare sexual


3. Lives in stagnant fluid or bloodstream


4. i) Use pseudopodia 'feet' to move


ii) No definitive shape


iii) Possess contractile vacuole


5. E.g. Entamoeba histolytica/coli

...

1. Pseudopodia not flagella


2. Usually asexual but rare sexual


3. Lives in stagnant fluid or bloodstream


4. i) Use pseudopodia 'feet' to move


ii) No definitive shape


iii) Possess contractile vacuole


5. E.g. Entamoeba histolytica/coli


- Transmitted faecally through water and food


- Histolytica has 4 nuclei and is the pathogenic form causing amoebiasis, engulf or lysing of RBC


- Coli has 8 nuclei and is harmless


6. Prevention of faecal contamintion


Use of 5 nitro-imidazoles

What is the definition of a disease?

An abnormal, pathological condition

What are the 2 main groups of parasites which cause disease?

1. Micro-parasites


(e.g. virus/bacteria/fungi/protists)


2. Macro-parasites


(e.g. worms/arthropods)

Besides parasites, what is the other way disease can be caused?

Genetic mutation or environmental stress

What is the definition of a pathogen?

A biological agent which causes disease

What are the 4 stages of disease development throughout human history?

1. Hunter Gatherer Era


2. Agricultural Revolution


3. Industrial Revolution


4. Sanitary Awakening

How prominent was disease in the hunter gatherer era and why?

- Disease was not very prominent


1. People lived in small isolated bands


2. They had no permenant homes so they left faeces and disease behind


3. Band members were of equal social standing, meaning less stress, better health


4. There were fewer diseases around and they had lower virulence


In terms of disease, what 5 factors changed between the hunter gatherer era and the agricultural revolution? What 5 pieces of evidence is their to support this?

1. High density living


2. Animal domestication increases contacts leading to zoonoses


3. Food/water storages attracted disease vectors


4. Trading spread disease


5. People had low dietary variety



Evidence:


1. Low life expectancy


2. Parasites were recorded as being more infectious


3. Water borne diseases such as typhoid became prominent


4. Shortage of protein led to diseases such as Kwashikor


5. Dependency on agriculture meant environmental factors (e.g. droughts) led to disease and starvation


What 7 factors in the industrial revolution compounded the spread of disease?

1. Even higher density of population


2. Heavy pollution


3. Skewed distribution of wealth leading to poor living conditions


4. Bedpans being emptied on sidewalks led to fecally transmitted disease


5. Water supplies contaminated with fecal matter


6. Fleas/lice were prominent vectors


7. Faster trade spread disease

What occurred during the sanitary awakening?

1. Chadwick observed that poor living conditions caused most disease and was thus preventable


2. London health officer employed


3. Cholera changed the opinion of the rich


4. Snow recognised water contamination as leading source of transmission


5. Aquaducts and public sewerage system + antimicrobials greatly reduced prevalence

How does vaccination work? What different trials on smallpox led to the development of its vaccinations?

- Vaccinations activate the immune system without causing harmful disease


1. Scratch rituals for smallpox allowed low level exposure


2. Boylston inoculated people with live smallpox => most survived the epidemic


3. Jenner vaccinates with harmless cowpox

What are 5 present challenges, in terms of disease and biosecurity?

1. Fast evolution of resistant strains


2. Even higher human density


3. Jet transport leads to instantaneous transmission


4. Low public awareness


5. Animal ecosystem destruction forces vectors out of natural habitat => more zoonoses

What are the 6 requirements of a 'successful' parasite?

1. Must survive lethal immune system attacks


2. Must survive toxins & corrosives


3. Must have slow disease => enough time to reproduce


4. Must transfer offspring safely out of the host


5. Must survive the free living stage


6. Must find another host and invade it

What are the key aspects of small parasites (Viruses + Bacteria vs. Microbial Eukaryotes)?

Viruses + Bacteria:


- Ideal parasites due to short life cycle (rapid reproduction) and fast mutation (increased resistance)



Microbial Eukaryotes:


- More complex but also have short life cycles and can achieve genetic diversity both sexually and asexually

What are the 3 major Animalia parasite phylum and their classes? Describe each phyla in terms of their body cavity.

1. Platyhelminthes (acoelomate)


- Trematoda


- Cestoidea



2. Nematoda (pseudocoelom)



3. Arthropoda (true coelom)


- Hexapoda


- Arachnida

What are the 3 distinguishing features of a trematode? Example?


1. Suckers which act as both the mouth and anus


2. Branching gut


3. Most are hermaphroditic and composed of reproductive organs



E.g. Fasciola hepatica


- Liver fluke


Schistasoma

What are the 3 distinguishing features of a cestoidea? Example?

1. Scolex head with suckers and hooks


2. No gut as food is absorbed through its walls


3. Proglottid division which each contain a pair of hermaphroditic reproductive organs


 


E.g. Taenia saginata (cattle)


Taenia solium (sheep)


 

1. Scolex head with suckers and hooks


2. No gut as food is absorbed through its walls


3. Proglottid division which each contain a pair of hermaphroditic reproductive organs



E.g. Taenia saginata (cattle)


Taenia solium (sheep)


What are the 3 distinguishing features of a nematode? Example?

1. Ecdysozoan (molts 3 layered outer cuticle)


2. Pseudocoelomate (cavity but not mesoderm lining)


3. Not hermaphroditic (either male or female only)


 


E.g. Ascaris lumbricoides (inhalation)


Trichinella spiralis (Meat cysts in pig...

1. Ecdysozoan (molts 3 layered outer cuticle)


2. Pseudocoelomate (cavity but not mesoderm lining)


3. Not hermaphroditic (either male or female only)



E.g. Ascaris lumbricoides (inhalation)


Trichinella spiralis (Meat cysts in pig and rat)


Wuchereria bancrofti (Elephantitis - unchecked lymph node production)


Compare the main differences between Hexapoda and Arachnida

Hexapoda = 3 body segments, 6 legs, can have antennae/wings, have spiracle breathing holes


Arachnida = 2 body segment, 8 legs, no antennae/wings, have chelicerae mouths and pedipalps grabbers.

What are 4 ways in which animalia parasites may enter the body?

1. Through the mouth/lungs


2. Through the skin


3. Through sexual intercourse


4. Through intermediate host/vector


- Eating vector


- Vector scratched or carried in


- Vector injected in


- Vector penetrates sin

What are the 5 survival strategies parasites may use within the body? Give examples of each

1. Genetic variation


- All


2. Hide from defender


- Trichinella spiralis


3. Attack immune system


- HIV


4. Present moving target


- Trypanasoma


5. Avoid recognition


- Schistosoma

What are the 5 stages of parasite transmission?

1. Inert Stage


- Mechanisms allow survival in tough conditions


2. Free Living Stage


- Is motile and can feed while waiting for a host


3. Intermediate Host Stage


- Used as transport + helps asexual reproduction


4. Asexual Reproduction Stage


- High dispersal rate


5. Sexual Reproduction Stage


- Allows variation


Describe the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica, including:


1. How it is transmitted


2. How it invades the body


3. How it survives immune attack


4. Where it stays


5. Its intermediate host


6. How it reproduces asexually (if at all)


1. Transmitted from anus faeces to mouth


2. Invades through ingestion of cysts


3. No particular strategy


4. Stays in the body by boring in to the intestinal walls and reaching the vital organs


5. No intermediate host


 

1. Transmitted from anus faeces to mouth


2. Invades through ingestion of cysts


3. No particular strategy


4. Stays in the body by boring in to the intestinal walls and reaching the vital organs


5. No intermediate host


Describe the life cycle of Schistosoma, including:


1. How it is transmitted


2. How it invades the body


3. How it survives immune attack


4. Where it stays


5. Its intermediate host


6. How it reproduces asexually (if at all)

1. Transmitted through 1 intermediate host


2. Invades the body by skin penetration


3. Avoids recognition by


i) Coating itself with host antigens


ii) Producing complement which destroys digestive enzymes


4. Inhabits blood capillaries by puncturing gut/bladder with small thorns => dysentry


5. Snail is only intermediate host


6. Reproduces asexually on snail


Describe the life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus (hydatid tapeworm), including:


1. How it is transmitted


2. How it invades the body


3. How it survives immune attack


4. Where it stays


5. Its intermediate host


6. How it reproduces asexually (if at all)

1. Transmitted through 1 intermediate host


2. Invades by ingestion of cyst meat


3. Hides from defenders by living in the gut away from the immune system. Outer cuticle = resistance to digestive enzymes.


4. Scolex attaches to intestinal wall
...

1. Transmitted through 1 intermediate host


2. Invades by ingestion of cyst meat


3. Hides from defenders by living in the gut away from the immune system. Outer cuticle = resistance to digestive enzymes.


4. Scolex attaches to intestinal wall


5. Sheep


6. Hydatid cysts can reproduce asexually in organs

Describe the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides, including:


1. How it is transmitted


2. How it invades the body


3. How it survives immune attack (if any)


4. Where it stays


5. Its intermediate host (if any)


6. How it reproduces asexually (if at all)

1. Transmitted from Anus faeces to mouth


2. Invades by ingestion of cysts in vegetables or inhalation


3. No particular survival strategy


4. Eggs penetrate gut => blood => lungs => throat => inhaled then returns to gut


5. No intermediate ho...

1. Transmitted from Anus faeces to mouth


2. Invades by ingestion of cysts in vegetables or inhalation


3. No particular survival strategy


4. Eggs penetrate gut => blood => lungs => throat => inhaled then returns to gut


5. No intermediate host


6. No asexual reproduction

Describe the life cycle of Trichinella spiralis, including:


1. How it is transmitted


2. How it invades the body


3. How it survives immune attack (if any)


4. Where it stays


5. Its intermediate host (if any)


6. How it reproduces asexually (if at all)

1. Transmitted through multiple intermediate hosts


2. Invades the body through ingestion of cyst meat


3. Hides from defender by living within muscle cells


4. Forms a tough cyst within muscle


5. Pig and Rat intermediate hosts


6. No asexua...

1. Transmitted through multiple intermediate hosts


2. Invades the body through ingestion of cyst meat


3. Hides from defender by living within muscle cells


4. Forms a tough cyst within muscle


5. Pig and Rat intermediate hosts


6. No asexual reproduction

List the 8 species of pre-hominid and hominid evolution in order of development and their respective time periods

1. Australopithecus afarensis


(4-3 MYA)


2. Australopithecus africanus


(3-2 MYA)


3. Australopithecus sediba


(1.98 MYA)


4. Homo habilis


(2 - 1.6 MYA)


5. Homo erectus


(1.8 - 0.3 MYA)


6. Homo neanderthalis


(300,000 - 30,000 YA)


7. Homo floriensis


(12,000 YA)


8. Homo sapien


(35,000 - Now)

How has the cranial capacity developed in pre-hominids and hominids? What is the exception?


What is the homo sapien cranial capacity compared to Australopithecus?

- Cranial capacity has increased throughout time


- Exception is H. floriensis (0.38L compared to neanderthalis at 1.4L)


- H. sapien = 1.4 vs. Australipithecus = 0.4 - 0.5L

How has the skull developed at each stage of hominid evolution?

A. afarensis (ape-like)


- Low & receding forehead


- Prominent brow


- Projecting face


A. africanus 


- Higher forehead


- Less pronounced brow


- Flatter face


H. habilis


- Face now bigger and flatter


H. erectus


- Flat top


- Pro...

A. afarensis (ape-like)


- Low & receding forehead


- Prominent brow


- Projecting face


A. africanus


- Higher forehead


- Less pronounced brow


- Flatter face


H. habilis


- Face now bigger and flatter


H. erectus


- Flat top


- Prominent brow


- Occipital ridge at rear


H. neanderthalis


- Deeper orbit


- Modest brow


- Mid face projection


H. floriensis


- Similar to Australopithecus


H. sapien


- High and domed


- No brow


- Rounded back


- Jutting chin => complex speech

What changes occurred to the pelvis in hominid evolution and at what species stages did they occur?

1. Intermediate and broader at A.afarensis


2. Becomes bowl-shaped at A.sediba


3. Becomes similar to modern humans (even broader) with premature births needed for large skull to fit through at H. erectus


 

1. Intermediate and broader at A.afarensis


2. Becomes bowl-shaped at A.sediba


3. Becomes similar to modern humans (even broader) with premature births needed for large skull to fit through at H. erectus


How has the height of hominids changed through evolution?

1.5m up until H. erectus when it then becomes 1.7m till H. sapiens. Exception is H. floriensis which is 1m

How has the dentition of hominids changed through evolution?

A.afarensis


- Intermediate dentition size


- Small Diastema (gaps)


- Partly rounded


A. africanus


- No diastema


- More rounded


- Jaw still long


H. erectus


- Still has protruding jaw but is less prominent that habilis

What are some general structural changes in the different hominid stages?

A.afarensis


- Long arms


- Curled fingers (knuckle walking)


- Short legs (still tree climbers)


- Human-like knee


A. sediba


- Straight fingers


H. erectus


- Less hair (due to migration to north and use of furs)


- Heavier skeleton

What is Sickle Cell Anaemia? What is its pattern of inheritance? Describe its function in relation malaria

Codomiant disease


SS = Death at birth


NS = Half normal haemoglobin, Half sickle cell = Immunity to malaria


NN = Normal = Death due to malaria


* In areas of high malaria



Single missense base change causing glutamic acid => valine



Results in defective beta globin with low oxygen affinity



NS have delayed growth, sexual immaturity and an impaired immune system

What is Polygenic Variation?

- When many genes determine a single trait


(one gene can modify the effect of another)


- New combinations can occur from sexual reproduction 'mixing' or conjugation/transposons/plasmids in bacteria


- Resistant genes can be bundled with other genes to reduce bad side effects



How does pesticide resistance develop?

1. Very few pests with resistant gene (R)


2. All of the pests are heterozygous (RN)


3. Concentrated pesticide dose decays


=> There will be a period in which NN die but RN survive leading to resistance selection

1. Very few pests with resistant gene (R)


2. All of the pests are heterozygous (RN)


3. Concentrated pesticide dose decays


=> There will be a period in which NN die but RN survive leading to resistance selection

What is edge effect?

The more edges an area has, the higher chance of pest migration.


Reducing edges and treating large areas with pesticide at the same time reduces chance reinfection.

What are 4 ways to reduce drug resistance?

1. Have drugs with rapid decay


2. Have high drug doses with frequent and continuous use


3. Prevent unnecessary use (reduces edge effect)


4. Prevent dispersion of resistant pests

What is horizontal gene transfer?

- Transfer of genes through non-sexual methods


- E.g. via bacteriophages or plastids

What happens after resistance has been stabilized?

If pesticide use continues after resistance is common:


1. Mutant genes will be retained


2. Resistant pest side effects will reduce in severity (polygenic variation bundling)


3. As most pesticides are non-specific, predators of the pests may also be killed, leading to higher pest populations (opposite effect)

What is cross-resistance?

Many toxins target similar aspects of insect physiology. Resistant genes can act against toxins which are similar in action as they have already adapted. Therefore, new unrelated chemicals must be used.

What is the difference between commensals, parasites and mutualists? Give examples of each.

Commensals


- Feed off host but is tolerated


- E.g. Demodex mite which is found on the base of hair follicles


Parasite


- Harmful effect on host and illicit negative response


- E.g. Sarcoptes ectoparasite which burrows under the skin


Mutualist


- Beneficial to the host and illicits a positive response


- E.g. Gut Flora which ferments unused substrates

How have hosts and parasites co-evolved?

- Parasites tend to evolve to become less harmful as harmful parasites illicit more negative responses from the host. This does not occur in areas of high population density (e.g. farms) as parasites simply find new hosts


- Hosts can become resistant


- Most symbionts are harmless with most of our body being covered with mutualists/commensals, the only bacteria free areas being:


1. Eyes


2. Lungs


3. Bladder

In terms of their symbiotic relationship with humans, what are the 3 types of gut bacteria?

1. Parasites


- Use our food for their own nutrition


2. Commensals


- Eat compounds we can't digest


3. Mutualists


- Partially digest food for us to absorb


- Feed on harmful excretions


- Manufacture B&K vitamins


How do babies initially develop immune resistance?

- Bifidus (vagina/nipples) decreases bacteria


- Tasting behaviour allows full exposure


- Diseases provide cross-over immunity

Why are there so many harmful parasites?

- Harmful only because they invade us by accident


- Usually harmless in co-evolved hosts


- Crossover is often harmful to parasite itself


- Human to human transmission is rare until parasite evolves to live within human

What is the bubonic plague and how it is transmitted?

- A zoonosis disease which killed 1/3 people in Europe


- Can be directly transmitted via coughing or through Yersina pestis (flea) vector


1. Ball of bacteria flocks flea gut


2. Blockage causes flea to move to new host


3. Recoil of sucking shoots bacteria in to new host

What are the 3 factors which influence the virulence of a disease?

1. Size and spatial distribution of a population


2. Whether or not there is an ongoing population of susceptibles


3. The nutrition status of a population


How is the rate of disease spread calculated?

Rate of infection = r x n


where


n = Intrinsic rate of infection


r = P x C x D


P = Probability of passing with each contact


C = Contacts / year


D = Duration of infetiousness

Describe the 2 different disease transmission network models.

1. Random Network


- Individual nodes do not typically join others


2. Scale-free Network


- Hubs connected to several nodes


- Higher rates of infection rates due to high standard deviation


 


Effective Average = Overall Average + SD

1. Random Network


- Individual nodes do not typically join others


2. Scale-free Network


- Hubs connected to several nodes


- Higher rates of infection rates due to high standard deviation



Effective Average = Overall Average + SD

With respect to exotic zoonoses, what can happen when an ecosystem is disrupted (e.g. due to logging)? When is zoonoses risk at its highest?

- Exotic parasites can leave their habitat due to increased nutritional stress, thereby increasing contact with humans.


- The contact between domestic and wild animals can also increase.


- This spreads native pathogens.


- Risk is highest when the zoonoses host is:


1. Allowed to live near a population


2. Human population is dense


3. Incubation period is long

What are the 4 key features of rabies?

1. 100% mortality rate once symptoms develop


2. Large RNA virus which targets the nerves


3. Disease reservoir in bats, foxes and raccoons


4. Passes to dogs then humans


What are 5 ways in which we can increase bio-awareness?

1. Reduce bio-pollution


2. Immunisation


3. Public health measures


4. Minimise resistance


5. Fund bio-control research

What must be known to develop resistance-combating drugs?

An understanding of the pathogen's genome and its molecular action is needed

What is chloroquin and how does it work?

A drug which enters the digestive vacuole of plasmodium, preventing biocrystallisation of heme leading to plasmodium death. Resistant cells can pump out chloroquin. Knowledge of resistance action allows targeted drug development.

What knowledge is useful in combating parasites?

1. Lifecycle


2. If the parasite has predators


3. If the parasites have their own hyperparasites


4. Any other distinguishing features that can be targetted


Give an example of biological control through use of hyperparasites

Wolbachia is a bacterium which causes the rapid replication of Wucheria bancrofti leading to elephantitis.


Introducing a bacteriophage hyperparasite disrupts this.

Wolbachia is a bacterium which causes the rapid replication of Wucheria bancrofti leading to elephantitis.


Introducing a bacteriophage hyperparasite disrupts this.

Why is biological control more effective than use of pesticides? Give 2 examples of predator biological control.

- Self sustaining so reapplication is not needed however funding for initial research is often higher


Examples of predator control:


1. Bacillus thuringensis (bacteria)


- Cyst is made in to powder and spread across crops


2. Gambusia (i.e. instant fish)


- Fish eat insects


- Eggs can survive water to allow for easy spread


3. Parasitoid wasp


- Can lay eggs within parasites such as the tsetse

What are 7 features of ideal predators?

1. Specific to prey


2. Can live in the same habitat as prey


3. Have rapid rate of reproduction


4. Easily dispersed


5. Can survive at low pest levels


6. Easily cultured


7. Do not completely wipe out pests (predators die out meaning reinfection likely)

How would one counter a mosquito population? Relate to mosquito ecology.

Mosquito larvae live on the water surface and can break the surface tension by using repellant tail hair. Underneath the surface, they feed and become pupae which then must once again break the water surface to emerge. By pouring oil dispersants on the water, this prevents exit, suffocating the pupae.

What are 4 examples of non-predator biological control?

1. Draining pools & swamps


2. Monolayer dispersants on water surface


3. Traps baited with food smell (e.g. for tsetse)


4. Tubes baited with female pheromones (e.g. for cabbage moths)


How does hormonal control work?

2 types of hormones:


1. Molting hormone - Constant at each moult, induces growth of new moult


2. Juvenile hormone - Reduces each moult, at zero JH, adult forms



By providing a constant supply of JH to pests, they never reach the reproductive stage which combined with pesticide leads to an effective elimination of pests

How would one use genetic control to reduce pest populations? What are 5 ways in which to ensure spread? Give an example.

- Introduce 'bad' recombinant DNA


DNA spread ensured by:


1. Introducing DNA for delayed sterility


2. Conditional lethality (e.g. death when cold)


3. Introducing both a gene for increased sex drive and lethality


4. Introducing meiotic drive (making transfer of one particular pair of chromosomes more favourable)


5. Introduce incompatible competing strains with 'good' genes which produce dead offspring when mating with pests



E.g. Screw Worms


Recombinant DNA produces sterile offspring

What are the 15 stages of evolution starting from reptiles, that led to homonids? Where is there a diversion in evolutionary path?

Reptiles


=>


1. Mammals (class)


2. Eutheria (subclass)


3. Primates (order)


4. Plesiadapids (family)


5. Adapids (family)


6. Arthropoids (clade), seperate path leads to Prosimians (clade)


7. Tarsiers


8. Monkeys/Apes


9. New World


10.Old World


11. Gibbons


12. Orangutans


13. Chimpanzees


14. Bonobo


15. Homonids

Name at least 6 differences in the skeleton of humans vs. apes. (9 in total)

Humans:


1. Neck under skull not behind


3. S-shaped spine not arched


4. Bowl-shaped pelvis not long and narrow


5. Ankle bones support weight not wrists


6. Arched feet not flat


7. Femur inwards not straight


8. Straight-locking knee joint not bent


9. Forward pointing big toe not opposable

Name at least 4 differences in the skull or cranial development of humans vs. apes. (5 in total)

Humans:


1. 1.4L capacity not 0.4L


2. Shape of baby ape but then jaw grows more


3. Small jaw muscle => thinner, larger skull


4. APSM & HAR1 gene mutation => more control of neurons


5. Wider arteris => more glucose shunted to brain

Name the 4 differences in the teeth of humans vs. apes.

Humans:


1. Rounded palate


2. Small canines (smaller food items and use of tools for defense)


3. Smaller molars


4. No diastema

What are nucleotides and its 3 components?

Molecular units of DNA/RNA.


1. Phosphate group


2. Sugar (ribose for RNA, deoxyribose for DNA)


3. Nitrogenous base

What are the purines vs. pyrimidines?

Purines:


1. Adenosine


2. Guanine


Pyrimidines:


1. Cytosine


2. Thymine / Uracil

Which bases pair with each other?

Adenosine with Thymine/Uracil


Guanine with Cytosine

Do humans have a higher GC or AT content?

AT

How are DNA segments packaged in to chromosomes?

1. DNA + Histones = Nucleosome (DNA + 8 histones)



2. 6 Nucleosomes stacked = chromatin



3. Looped chromatin = chromosome

What is the difference between euchromatin and chromatin?

Euchromatin is the 'active' open form of chromatin which is unmethylated, allowing for transcription. Heterochromatin is methylated and has deacetylated histones, causing it to be more tightly bound and blocking transcription.

An what basis are chromosomes karyotyped?

1. Size


2. Centromere position


i) Metacentric


ii) Sub Metacentric


iii) Acrocentric


iv) Telocentric


What is the Nuclear Organiser Region?

A region in which there is a lot of tandem rDNA which codes for rRNA sequences.

What is the difference between aneuploidy and diploidy? Give an example of an aneuploid mutation.

Diploidy is when you have an exact multiple of the monoploid set of chromosomes whereas aneuploidy is non-exact (e.g. Trisomy 21).

What is Trisomy 21 and how does it occur? What determines the severity of the disease?

A genetic mutation which causes an insertion of an extra chromosome on set 21, leading to Down's Syndrome whereby one receives mental retardation. The extra chromosomes interaction with the genome determines the severity of disease.

What is polymorphism?

When 2 clearly different phenotypes for the same trait exist within a population

What is Epigenetics? Give 2 examples.

A change in genome expression without a change in the structure of DNA.


E.g.


1. Histone methylation (euchromatin vs. hetero)


2. Genomic imprinting

What are the 3 variations in how phenotypes are influenced? Give examples of each.

1. Environmental factors


E.g. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome


- Mother drinking causes damage to fetus and growth abnormalities


2. Genetic factors


E.g. Huntington's Disease


- Excessive repeat of CAG triplet


3. A combination of environment + genes


E.g. Curly Wing


- Gene only expressed in high temperatures


What is mosaicism? How does it occur?

When cells in the same person has different genetic makeup. Can be caused in heterozygous females due to X-inactivation. Can also occur due to somatic mutation.

How does Klinefelter's Syndrome occur? What is its prevalence in society? Name 2 symptoms.

Occurs due to an extra X chromosome insertion => XXY


1/500 have it


1. Small testes => reduced testosterone


2. Breast enlargement


3. Infertility

Why is aneuploidy risk higher if a mother is at a higher age?

Cohesin which binds sister chromatids together in gametes does not function properly at older ages leading to non-disjunction at anaphase of meiosis or mitosis (mosaic).

What is polyploidy?

When there is more than 2 sets of chromosomes (e.g 3N)

What are the 6 methods for testing chromosomal abnormalities?

1. Ultrasound


- Look at nuchal fold to determine Down's


2. Pre-implantation Diagnosis


- Biopsy of 1 undifferentiated embryo cell


3. Maternal Blood Triple Test


Test for


i) AFP - alpha fetoprotein produce in the amniotic sac


ii) hCG - human chorionic gonadotropic


iii) Oestriol - estrogen produced by the fetus + placenta


4. Cell Free DNA


-Dead fetal cells in the blood stream (noninvasive)


5. Chonionic Villus Sampling


- Sample of chorion membrane in between the fetus and mother (invasive)


6. Amniocentosis


- Amniotic fluid swallowed and excreted by fetus, fetal cells seperated and diagnosed for down's and neural tube

Give the 8 stages through which DNA replication occurs (Not PCR)

Occurs in the synthesis stage of mitosis


1. DNA Topoisomerase unwinds the double helix


2. Helicase breaks H bond


3. Nucleoside Stabilising Protein keeps the strands apart


4. RNA Primer set as DNA replication must start from a double strand


5. DNA Pol 2 - Adds complementary bases from 5' to 3', starting at the 3' end of the leading strand


6. Multiple RNA Primers needed as 3' on the lagging stranded in only gradually revealed. Once copying hits an old primer, the primer falls off leading to Okazaki Fragments


7. DNA Pol 1 fills in the gaps in between Okazaki


8. Ligase joins fragments

What are 4 differences between eukaryotes and prokaryotes in terms of DNA replication?

Eukaryotes:


1. 100-200 bases not 1000


2. Several DNA polymerases not only 3 and 1


3. 3000 bases per minute not 30000 bases


4. Nucleosomes disassembled

What are 3 ways the body can repair its DNA?

1. Proofreading mechanisms


- Replication complex protein immediately excises incorrect nucleotides


- DNA pol adds correct


2. Mismatch repair


- Missed by proofreading, excises mismatched + adjacent


- DNA pol adds correct and ligase binds


3. Excision Repair


- Same as mismatch but with damaged nucleotides not mismatched

What are the 5 ingredients of PCR?

1. DNA


2. Deoxyribosenucleotide triphosphates


3. Enzymes (taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus)


4. Primers


5. Buffers

What are the 3 steps of PCR and what happens at each?

1. Denaturation


- Seperate DNA strands through temperature increase or alkali


2. Annealing


- Decrease temperture


- Add primer bases


3. Extension


- Polymerase extends strands


What is the origin of replication?

The point at which DNA replication starts

What are telomeres?

- Repeated nucleotide sequences (TTAGGG) at the end of chromosomes usually at around 2500 repeats


- Protect the end by looping/recruiting protective proteins


- Lagging strand often has incomplete okazakis leading to gradual loss of telomeres (50-200) each replication

What is telomerase?

An enzyme which extends the lagging strand telomere by completing replication of the last okazaki strand. Contains and RNA counterpart which adds bases.

What do genes code for? What were the 2 original theories and how are they inaccurate?

Genes code for polypeptides and RNA. Not enzymes as different proteins also coded for. Not just proteins as protein subunits can be coded from different genes.

What is Alkaptonuria?

Tyrosine usually produces homogentistic acid which is converted to maleylacetoacetic acid by and enzyme. Alkaptonuria is a defect in this enzyme, causing an acummlation of homogentistic acid.

What did the Beedle and Tatum experiment test?

1. Neurospora spores irradiated


2. Wild types are prototrophs and can survive on minimal media


3. Once irradiated, they become auxotrophs which require supplements to survive on minimal media


4. By placing different supplements and determining which mutants will grow, it can be determined that a single gene codes for 1 enzyme

What is codominance? Give an example

When the full effects of both alleles can be seen in a heterozygote individual. E.g. Sickle Cell Anemia

What is Incomplete Dominance? Give an example

When the heterozygous allele individual has a completely different phenotype from the homozygotes. E.g. Snapdragon.

How many different genotypes and phenotypes would 3 alleles at a single gene locus produce?

3 Phenotypes


6 Genotypes

What is pleiotropy? What is an example?

1 Gene affecting many features of the phenotype


E.g. Sickle Cell

What is a phenocopy? Example?

When environmental factors can mimic the phenotype of an inherited condition? Height is dependent on genetic factors but can also be influenced by environmental factors such as nutrition

What is gene expressivity? Example?

When there is a variable range of phenotypic expression for an allele. E.g. Polydactly

What is gene Penetrance?

The proportion of people in a population with a given genotype that actually expresses the phenotype. Reduced penetrance occurs when an individual shows incomplete expression of a trait.


What is lethality? Example?

Dominant single allele = death


E.g. Huntington's


- delayed onset



Recessive double allele = death

What are the 3 systems of sex related inheritance? Give examples of 2 animal groups which use each.

1. XY = Male (heterogametic), XX = Female (homogametic)


- Mammals, Drosophila



2. ZZ = Male (heterogametic), ZW = Female (homogametic)


- Birds, Fish, Butterflies, Reptiles



3. XO = Male, XX = Female


- Crickets, Roaches, Other Insects


What are the 5 Sex-Determination mechanisms?

1. Environment


2. Autosomal Genes


3. Haploidy/Diploidy


4. Balance of Sex/Auto Chromosomes


5. Sex chromosomes

Give 2 examples of how sex can be determined by the environment.

1. Bonella viridis is male if offspring lands near the probiscus as there are chemicals which determine sex there


2. Turtles will be male at low temperatures


3. Lizards will be male at high temperatures


What are 2 ways in which the autosomal genotype can determine an individuals sex?

1. double tra recessive mutation causes XX individuals become male


2. A *tfm mutation causes receptors in tissues to become insensitive to testosterone, this leads to androgen insensitivity, causing XY individuals to become feminine (outwardly female but no internal reproductive organs + undescended testes)


How can being haploid vs. diploid affect sex?

In bees, sex depends on cell ploidy.


N = Male Drone


2N = Female

How does the balance of sex/autosomal chromosomes determine sex in drosophila?

For drosophila:


X/A = 1 = female, X/A > 1 = meta female (sterile)


X/A = 0.5 = male, X/A <0.5 = meta male

What are 2 examples in which abnormal amounts of sex chromosomes can determine sex?

1. Turner's Syndrome


- Aneuploidy = XO


- 70-80% result from sperm losing sex chromosome


- Female with underdeveloped uterus


2. Klinefelter's


- Aneuploidy = XXY


- Non-disjunction of sperm in anaphase 1:


XY + X


What are the 3 groups of genes on the human Y chromosome?

1. SRY (sex-determining region Y which includes TDF)


2. Testis specific expression genes


3. Housekeeping genes

What part of the Y chromosome is homologous in the X chromosome?

The pseudoautosomal region which can cross over with similar regions in the other sex chromosome

What is TDF and why is sometimes mistakenly found on X chromosomes? What happens?

- Gene transcription factor which activates SOX9


- Allows differentiation of seminiferous tubules


TDF is close to the pseudautosomal region, hence crossing over sometimes causes it to be accidentally synapsed on the the X chromosome. This causes development of Testes. 

How do male reproductive organs develop?

XY => TDF => Testes => AMH + Testosterone


AMH = No mullerian development = No internal female genitalia


Testosterone = Wolfiann development (internal) + dihydrotestosterone (external)



How do female reproductive organs develop?

XX => Ovaries + No AMH


Ovaries => Oestradiol => external genitalia


No AMH => Mullerian development => internal

What is 5 alpha-reductase? What does deficiency lead to?

- Enzyme which converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone


- Deficiency leads to pseudohermaphroditism meaning no external male genitalia


- Puberty may lead to sufficient levels of dihydro/testosterone meaning females can become males

What is true hermaphroditism? How does it occur?

When an individual has both functioning testes and uterus. Can occur when XX have Y derived sequences or due to XX/XY mosaicism.

What are the 3 types of sex linkage? Give examples of each where possible.

1. X


- Affect males more than females


- E.g. Haemophelia


2. Y


- Passed from father => son


- E.g. TDF => androgen insesitivity


3. Z


- Male is homozygous ZZ


- Female is heterozygous ZW


- Recessive traits passed from father to daughter

What is X-Inactivation (also known as lyonisation) and how does it occur? How many barr bodies are produced?

1. XIST on the XIC produces RNAi which coats all but 1 X chromosome in females.


2. This causes these chromosomes to be packaged in to transcriptionally inactive heterochromatin



No. of Barr bodies = X(n-1)


Why are females who are heterozygous for X-linked traits, mosaics?

Lyonisation causes one of the two alleles to be inactivated, hence cells will have 50:50 of the alleles.

Why aren't all X chromosomes inactivated by XIST?

Active chromosomes have TSIX gene which blocks activation of XIST.

If X-Inactivation occurs, what are 2 reasons individuals with an abnormal number of X chromosomes still show symptoms?

1. Inactivation doesn't occur till after the 500 embryo cell stage, hence symptoms can manifest before then


2. Genes from the pseudoautosomal regions of extra X chromosomes are still transcribed.

What is atypical lyonisation?

Occurs when heterozygous females show a skewed inactivation of a certain allele through chance.

What are sex influenced traits? Provide 2 examples.

When autosomal gene expression is influenced by sex.


1. Male pattern baldness


- Overexpression of 5 alpha-reductase causes hair loss in males


2. Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD)


- acne facial hair on females

What are sex-limited traits? Provide 2 Examples.

When phenotypic expression is limited to a single sex.


1. Male Precocious puberty


- Not possible in females due to hormonal profile


2. Testicular Feminisation Mutation (TFM)


- Has no extra effect on females as they do not need testosterone receptors

As a function of the number of chromosome pairs, what are possible number of gamete combinations?

Possible gametes = 2^(chromosomes)


E.g. Aa;Bb;Bc


Can produce 2^3 = 8 possible gametes

Assuming independent assortment, what is the phenotypic ratio for an autosomal dihybrid cross involving 2 heterozygous chromosomes?



9:3:3:1

What are the 3 types of diagnostic crosses? What are they each used for?

1. Test


- Cross of a dominant phenotype individual to homo recessive to determine if it is homo dominant or heterozygous


2. Reciprocal


- Switch phenotype of purebreeding parents to other sex


- Autosomal or X-Linked


3. Back


- Crossing of F1 with purebreed parents


- Used to maintain homozygosity of desirable traits, usually used in agriculture


What is Gene Interaction?

When one or more genes interact to affect the same phenotype.


E.g.


Locus 1 = determines colour of coat


Locus 2 = density of colour of coat


Secondary genes are called modifier genes

What are the 5 types of epistasis? What are their respective phenotypic ratios?

1. Recessive


9:3:4


2. Dominant


12:3:1


3. Duplicate Gene Action


- Either enzyme can produce precursor (hence only aa;bb doesn't produce end phenotype)


15:1


4. Complementary Gene Action


- Both genes required to produce end phenotype (A-B-)


9:7


5. Dominant suppression


- Homo recessive can produce end phenotype


13:3

What is epistasis? Give an example.

A special form of gene interaction whereby one gene masks the phenotypic expression of another.


Mice colour:


aa gene produces enzyme which allows albino => black


BB and Bb genes produces enzyme which allows black => agouti


Even if BB/Bb is present, if aa is not, the mice will still be albino


This is an example of recessive epistasis

What is genetic heterogenity? Why does this mean 2 infected individuals for an auto recessive trait can produce unaffected children?

When 2 different genes code for the same phenotype.


E.g. Both A and B cause ailment


aa;BB x AA;bb


Produce Aa;Bb offspring without ailment

What pattern of inheritance do ABO blood groups follow? Explain.

Codominance


3 completely different phenotypes


A- = A antigen, B antibodies


AB = Both A and B antigens, No antigens


B- = B antigen, A antibodies


O = No antigen, AB antibodies

What is the bombay phenotype? What is it an example of?

A phenotype caused by homozygous recessive h alleles => no production of H carbohydrate used to produce Antigen A, B => AB antibodies => phenotypically similar to O


Example of recessive epistasis as hh supresses the antigen phenotypes

Explain the rhesus blood grouping system. How does haemolytic disease of the newborn occur?

2 Alleles (D and d)


Rh +ve D is dominant and codes for D antigen


D antibodies produced in response to D antigen presence, only in dd.


A placenta which is Dd can transfer blood to the mother, causing exposure to the D antigen, thereby producing a D antibody response. Future children are then killed because the D antibodies attack them.

How may haemolytic disease of the newborn be treated?

Using RhoGAM, provides antibodies to kill initial antigens, thereby stopping immune response

What is linkage analysis?

The testing of one loci, by testing for the other which is linked

What is the formula used to find interference? What does a positive/negative number infer?

Interference = 1 - CC


CC = Observersed/Expected


Expected = distance 1 x distance 2 x total freq.



Positive means one crossover inhibits the other


Negative means one crossover promotoes the other

What are the 2 forms of polygenic inheritance?

1. Discontinuous


- Clear cut presence of non-presence of a phenotype


i) One gene - (e.g. ABO)


ii) Multiple genes + environment - (e.g. NTD where gene influence + accumulative environmental factors lead to tipping of threshold)


2. Continuous


- Qualitative


- Controlled by many gene loci


- No dominance

How do you calculate the lowest polygene frequency?

Lowest frequency = (1/4)^n


Where n = the number of polygenes

What is the difference between monozygous and dizygous twins? Why are they useful for genetic analysis of traits?

Monoyzgous:


Share same placenta and are genetically identical at birth



Dizygous:


2 eggs fertilized seperately and share seperate placenta (essentially, brothers/sisters)



Useful as both Monozygous twins are subject to the same genes and environmental influence whereas dizygous twins are only subject to environmental influence, hence comparison of the two can be used to determine gene influence.

What is heritability?

A measure of how strongly the phenotypes of offspring match the parents

How would one determine the degree of genetic influence?

Measure concordance (if both twins have trait) for monozygous and dizygous pairs.


Genetic influence = MZ - DZ

What are the 3 steps in Gene Transcription (eukaryotes) and describe what happens in each.

1. Initiation


i) Transcription factors bind to the promoter region


ii) RNA pol also binds to promoter


iii) Proteins can bind to enhancer region, allowing it to bind to the promoter, thereby starting elongation


iv) Elongation factor drops off


2. Elongation and termination


i) Bases enter the RNA pol and create a new mRNA strand from 5' to 3' as it travels down the coding region from 3' to 5'


ii) This happens until the RNA Pol hits a termination sequence, which forms a loop allowing the mRNA to drop off


3. Processing (eukaryotes)


i) MeG Cap added to allow ribosomal binding to mRNA


ii) Poly A Tail added for stability

How does splicing occur? What is alternative splicing?

1. SnRNA binds to the splicing site between exon and intron junctinos


2. Interactions between snRNA on either side of the intron to form a lariat, leading to what is a splicosome


3. This results in the formation of mature RNA



Alternative splicing occurs when exons adjacent to introns are cut out. This is a regulated process which allows a single primary transcript to code for multiple polypeptides.

Name 3 differences in Eukaryotic vs. Prokaryotic Transcription

Eukaryotic:


1. Multiple RNA Polymerases, not single


2. Primary transcript incomplete


3. 3 Types of promoters:


i) Pol 1: rRNA


ii) Pol 2: mRNA, RNAi


iii) Pol 3: tRNA, snRNA

What is a holoenzyme?

The transcription factor which is used in prokaryotes.


5 subunits which bind, then sigma subunit comes to allow elongation to start. Sigma subunit dissociates after.

How many genes in the human genome code for polypeptides? RNA?

Polypeptides: 20,000


RNA: 5000-6000

What is the average gene size for a DNA and mRNA segment in the human genome?

DNA: 25,000 nucleotide base pairs


mRNA: 3000 nucleotides

What are RNAi? What is the difference between its two types?

RNA molecules which inhibit gene expression


microRNA do not need to be fully complementary to mRNA in order to degrade, whereas siRNA need to be.

How many different possible codon based combinations are there? Why are there only 20 essential amino acids?

- 4^3 = 64


- Only 20 due to wobble and some being start and stop codons

What are the start and stop codons?

Start:


AUG



Stop:


UAA


UAG


UGA

What is the shine-delgano sequence? (Not the actual sequence itself obviously)

The sequence of the mRNA where the small ribosomal unit can bind in order to allow translation to start.

What are the 2 components of a charged tRNA (aminoacyl-tRNA)?

1. Uncharged tRNA anticodon


2. Complementary amino acid


Describe the 3 steps through which mRNA is translated in to Protein

1. Initiation


- Small ribosomal unit binds to shine


- F-met enters in the p-position on ribosome


2. Elongation


- Charged tRNA attaches to aminoacyl binding site


- Uncharged tRNA leaves via the E-site


- Peptide bond formed between the amino acids in the P and A binding sites


3. Termination


- At stop codon, a termination protein attaches, causing protein to drop off


What are 3 ways in which Gene Expression can be regulated?

1. Chromatin structure


- Methylation of cytosines


2. Transcriptional regulation


- Environment (e.g. GFP arabinose dependence)


- Enhancers, repressors (e.g. RNAi)


3. Post-translation regulation


- E.g. protein phosphorylation


What are chromosomal mutations? List 2 types

Gross mutation that involve several genes


1) Inversions


i) Paracentric (non centromere)


ii) Pericentric (centromere)


2) Translocation


- Same genetical material but on different chromosomes


- Can lead to new gene products

What are the 3 types of base substitution mutations?

1. Silent


- Switch in single base in the wobble => same genetic amino acid


- Can affect rate of translation


2. Missense


- Switch in single amino acid (e.g. sickle cell)


3. Nonsense


- Switch to termination codon


- More severe if early in the sequence


What is a frameshift?

When bases are added/deleted in non-multiples of 3, leading to the code reading frame being out of phase. E.g. Becker's

What is the pattern of inheritance for cystic fibrosis? What is it caused by and what does it cause?

Hetero recessive disorder caused by delta F508 (deletion of phenylalanine on position 508) leading to an in-frame deletion of the CFTR protein gene responsible for chloride ion transport => accumulation of sticky mucous

What is Haemophelia A and its pattern of inheritance? What is it caused by and what does it result in?

An X-linked recessive disorder. Causes a deficiency in clotting factor VIII. This is needed in thrombin and subsequent fibrin production, a lack meaning blood cannot properly clot.

Why are symptoms of beta thalassaemia typically only seen in 6-12 months after birth?

Fetal haemoglobin (Hb) contains gamma units instead of beta, hence a persistence of fetal haemoglobin after birth means defect in beta globin has less effect.

What is the pattern of inheritance for alpha and beta thalassemia? How can alpha thalassaemia occur?

-Auto recessive disorders which lead to decreased stability or synthesis of respective globin genes


- Alpha thalessaemia can be the result of uneven crossover (non-alignment of homologous chromosomes), with two or less gene units typically resulting in disease.

What is the pattern of inheritance for Huntington's Disease? What is it caused by and what does it cause?

- Auto dominant pattern of inheritance with lethality (delayed onset)


- Caused by CAG triplet repeat in the coding sequence => gain of function => production of Huntington protein => accumulation causes neurological disease


- Severity inversely proportional to age

What is Fragile-X syndrome? What is its pattern of inheritance? What is it caused by and what does it cause?

- X-linked disease


- Caused by expanded CGG triple repeat in the 5' UTR


- If repeat is large enough, promoter region remains untranscribed, leading to loss of coding for FMRP (fragile-X mental retardation protein) which is required for normal neuron function


- One of the most common causes for mental retardation


- Premutations are amplified by passage through females

Explain the process of southern blotting

1. DNA cut by restriction enzyme endonucleases


2. Separated by size using electrophoresis


3. Blotted on to filter


4. DNA denatured


5. Hybridised with probes specific to DNA sequence in question, plus a label (e.g. fluorescence)


6. Allowed to renature


7. It can be determined how far the DNA in question has travelled


What are restriction enzymes? What are the two types?

-Endonucleases produced by bacteria which make double stranded cuts in the DNA


I - Cuts at a specific base length away from recognition sequence


II - Cuts at a specific sequence

What are sticky ends?

A staggered 5' and 3' end of dsDNA caused by restriction enzyme cutting. These ends are complementary to other 3' and 5' ends.

How can molecular cloning be achieved through a cloning vector? Use an example.

E.g.


- Insert plasmid with LacZ gene in to bacteria


- Cut plasmid with restriction enzyme targeted at LacZ sequence thereby disrupting it


- Add human DNA


- Plasmid can either close => blue colonies who have a functioning LacZ gene


- Or it can take up the human DNA, disrupting the LacZ which is required for lactose metabolism, resulting in white colonies


- Selectively take out the white colonies as these ones have the human DNA for cloning

Label this plz.


 

Label this plz.


Starting from brown segment in clockwise:


1. OriC - origin of replication


2. AraC - regulatory protein that enhances promotion in presence of arabinose


3. GFP - protein that fluoresces under UV if transcribed


4. Beta lactamase - Ampicillin resistance


I.e. If bacteria uptake this plasmid, + arabinose is present, they will be ampicillin resistant and will glow under UV

How can triploidy be used as evidence for genomic imprinting?

2N Mat + 1N Pat = Normal fetus development


2N Pat + 1N Mat = Teratoma


This suggests that maternal genes are genomically imprinted as having 2 mat provides a normal fetal development (i.e. gene suppressed)

Explain the difference between Prader Willi and Angelman's Syndrome.

Both are caused by deletions in the same region of chromosome 15.


Difference is caused by genomic imprinting.


Paternal deletion = prader willi = Low IQ, High appetite


Maternal deletion = angel man = puppet-like movement

If 60% of Prader Willi is caused by genomic imprinting, what causes the other 40% of cases.

Uniparental disomy:


*Incoming gamete is usually ejected to prevent triploidy


Heterodisomy:


Caused by non-disjunction at anaphase I, leads to genetically similar gamete as parent


Isodisomy:


Caused by non-disjunction at anaphase 2, leads to 2 sets of 1 chromosome from parent, can lead to the duplication of lethal recessive or 2 non-imprinted or imprinted genes.

What is cancer?

A clone of cells diving in an unregulated way as a result of somatic or hereditary mutations.

What is the difference between a sarcoma and a carcinoma?

Sarcanoma = mesodermal cancer


Carcinoma = epithelial cancer

Why does cancer have a delayed onset?

Develops with age as it is an accumulation of somatic mutations

What is the difference between malignant and benign tumours?

Malignant are metastatic and can spread to other areas of the body.

What is the proto-oncogene normally responsible for?

Regulated cell growth and proliferation

What are 2 steps in which cancer can develop?

1. Loss of TSG gene due to mutation


2. Proto-oncogene mutation in to oncogen which cannot be regulated by TSG

What is Burkitt's lymphoma?

A translocation of an enhancer on Chr 14 next to a proto-oncogen on Chr 8, leading to the formation of an oncogene causing cancer.

What is the role of the Tumour Suppressor Gene? When does is stop being effective? How may this occur?

Regulates cell proliferation.


Both copies of gene must be knocked out for it to stop functioning.


Can occur via:


1. Deletion


2. Mutation


3. Epigenetic Effect

How does cancer progress to a fully developed form?

Involves many genes and mutations, is not the result of a single step

What are 7 ways in which genetic variation may be detected?

1. Visible phenotype difference


2. Chromosome difference (e.g. Y arm length)


3. Immunological markers (e.g. ABO)


4. Protein Gel Electrophoresis distances


5. VNTR Probes


6. STR Analysis


7. Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms

What are variable number tandem repeats?

-Repeat sequences in non-coding regions of between 15-100b


-No. of repeats different in people (polymorphic)


-Often replicated in may different loci, hence single probe sequence can determine the size of the DNA on which repeats are found => unique profile


What are Short Tandem Repeats?

-Repeat sequences of between 2-9 b


-Several alleles depending on number of repeats


-Easier to analyse for DNA profiling because can be easily amplified by PCR but there are few variations in profile => must simultaneously test a large no. of profiles

What are Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms?

Differences in single bases in the genome (e.g. through insertion/deletion)


- Can be detected through microarrays


- Has to be present in more than 1% of the population to be considered a SNP

What are the 5 assumptions of Hardy-Weinburg?

1. Random Mating


2. No Migration


3. No Selection


4. No Mutation


5. Infinite Population Size