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131 Cards in this Set

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What scale is body condition score measured on in a dairy cow? beef cow? horse?

dairy cow = 1-5


beef cow = 1-9


horse = 1-9

Horse TPR

temp = 99.0 - 100.8


pulse = 32 - 44


RR = 8 - 20

Cow TPR

temp = 98.0 - 102.4


pulse = 60 - 80


RR = 18 - 28

Sheep TPR

temp = 100.9 - 103.8


pulse = 70 - 80


RR = 12 - 20

Goat TPR

temp = 101.7 - 104.5


pulse = 70 - 80


RR = 12 - 20

Camelid TPR

temp = 100.0 - 102.0


pulse = 60 - 80


RR = 12 - 20

Start horse exams at the _________


Start cow exams at the __________

Start horse exams at the front of the animal


Start cow exams at the rear of the animal

Where is a good place to test hydration status in large animals?

upper eyelid



What lymph nodes can be palpated in horses? in cattle?

Horses = only submandibular


Cows = submandibular, pre scapular, subiliac/prefemoral, mammary (also technically parotid, medial retropharyngeal, iliofemoral, and lymph nodes of the aortic bifurcation)

What organs can be palpated rectally in the horse?

bladder,


uterus,


ovaries,


internal lymph nodes,


inguinal rings,


left kidney,


spleen,


medial cecal band,


small colon,


nephrosplenic ligament

What organs can be palpated rectally in the cow?

bladder,


uterus,


ovaries,


internal lymph nodes,


inguinal rings,


left kidney,


rumen

What disease processes might be indicated by jugular vein distension?

right sided heart failure


pericardial effusion


chronic severe pleural effusion


masses within the thoracic cavity

If a cardiac murmur is heard, how would you determine if the murmur is systolic or diastolic?

palpate facial artery


pulse at the same time as murmur = systolic


no pulse with murmur = diastolic

How can animal age affect your interpretation of the skin tent test for hydration?

old animals = less elastic skin, skin tent may be falsely longer


young animals = highly elastic skin, skin tent may be falsely shorter

What factors could cause falsely high or falsely low temperature readings?

falsely high = exercise, marked excitement, high environmental temperature


falsely low = dissension of the rectum with feces, straining, loss of tone of the anal sphincter

What is the best artery to palpate for pulse in the horse? in the cow?

horse = facial artery (along the mandible)


cow = coccygeal artery (also external maxillary artery and digital arteries at aortic bifurcation (rectal palpation))

Which heart sounds are loudest? Which additional heart sound is commonly heard in horses?

S1 and S2 are lowest (lub and dub)


S4 is commonly heard in horses (atrial contraction)

increased ____ effort = upper respiratory tract dz


increased ____ effort = lower respiratory tract dz

increased inspiratory effort = upper resp


increased expiratory effort = lower resp

How is the horse GI tract ausculted? What are normal sounds?

4 quadrants (right and left dorsal and ventral abdomen)


all 4 quadrants = continuous small intestinal sounds


R side = cecal and colonic sounds every 10-20 seconds

How is the cow GI tract ausculted? What are normal sounds?

rumen evaluated on the L, but ping both sides.


normally 2-3 strong contractions in 2 minutes

what is the legal requirement for what information is included in medical documentation?

owner, animal ID, species, breed, age, sex, color, admission and discharge dates, PE findings, diagnosis, treatment, sx and anesthesia reports, progress reports, radiographs, waivers

how long do you legally have to keep medical documents retrievable?

3 years

How long do you have to respond to a records request?

5 days

What does SOAP stand for?

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

What is the 1st medical logic axiom?

Occam's razor


the simplest explanation is usually the right one

What is the 2nd medical logic axiom?

common diagnoses occur commonly


"when you hear hoof beats, think horses. but still look out the window"

What is the 3rd medical logic axiom?

Hickam's Dictum


"a patient can have as many damn diagnoses as they please"



What are the three mechanisms of diarrhea?

secretory


malabsorption/maldigestion


exudative

How much of their body weight do horses drink each day? cows? neonates?

horses (and dogs) = 4-6%


cows = 7 - 10%


neonates = 20-25%

What percentage of the animal's ECF volume enters the gut each day? How much of this water is absorbed before excretion?

total daily amount of all fluid entering the gut roughly equally the animals ECF volume. 99% is reabsorbed

What part of the gut absorbs the most water? What type of cells are absorptive?

villus cells of the jejunum and ileum

What is the mechanism of secretion in crypt cells?

Na/K ATPase --> negative electric charge in the cell --> pump Cl- out into the lumen

What is the mechanism of absorption in villus cells?

Na/K ATPase -> negative electric charge in cell --> Na/glucose and amino acid co-transporters, also Na/H exchange

What are the two mechanisms by which bacterial toxins cause secretory diarrhea?

1. stimulate the enteric nervous system --> stimulate crypt cell division --> push off abortive apical epithelium and replace it with immature secretory crypt cells


2. stimulate adenylate cyclase --> increase cAMP --> enhanced Cl secretion

what are some diseases that might result in loss of areas of digestive enzyme or acid production (resulting in maldigestion)?

gastric ulcers


parasitic or microbial damage to gastric pits or villus cells


liver or pancreatic disease



what is the #1 cause of malabsorption?

loss of surface area



How can alterations in intestinal motility cause diarrhea?

slowed transit (most common) --> poor mixing cycles


increased transit --> less time for absorption

Which type of diarrhea is usually the most severe?

exudative: indicates more severe tissue damage and loss of mucosal integrity. typically due to inflammatory processes

What are bronchovesicular lung sounds? Bronchial? vesicular?

bronchovesicular = normal physiologic


bronchial = higher airway, usually both inspiration and expiration


vesicular = hear better on inspiration. harder to hear in cats and small dogs. peripheral sounds

What is the difference between crackles and wheezes?

crackles = more pronounced on inspiration (due to alveoli popping open)


wheezes = more pronounced on expiration (due to thickening of upper airways)

What might be seen on a CBC for a respiratory case workup?

anemia (hemorrhage, coagulopathy)


polycythemia (rare, due to chronic hypoxia. may indicate R-L shunt)


eosinophilia (parasites, allergies)

When is a CT better for respiratory disease workup? When is an MRI better?

CT for bone, preferred for the thorax


MRI for soft tissues

What clinical signs are shared by both cardiac and respiratory diseases?


What physical exam finding indicates cardiac etiology vs. respiratory?

Both =


lung sounds increased


collapse or syncopal episodes


cyanosis


weak femoral pulses = cardiac

What are three ways of evaluating pulmonary function?

arterial blood gas


pulse oximetry


capnography

what are the two most effective cough suppressants?

butorphanol and hydrocodone (opiates!)


*some people also administer maropitant citrate (NK-1 R antagonist). questionable efficacy

What class of drugs would be indicated for treatment of feline asthma or chronic bronchitis?

bronchodilators (methylxanthines, beta-2 agonists)


also steroids (anti-inflammatory)

what are the three possible causes of dyspnea?

hypoxemia (sensed by chemoreceptors in aortic and carotid bodies)


hypercapnia (central and peripheral chemoreceptors)


acidemia (central and peripheral chemoreceptors)

Inspiratory vs. expiratory dyspnea


1. upper airway obstruction


2. polyneuropathy/neuromusuclar disease


3. parenchymal and lower airway disease


4. fixed upper airway obstructions

1. inspiratory dyspnea


2. inspiratory dyspnea (abdominal effort)


3. expiratory dyspnea (abdominal "push")


4. inspiratory AND expiratory

How should dyspnea be treated?

#1 = oxygen


treat underlying condition


airway obstruction = sedation


CHF = diuretics


feline asthma/bronchitis = steroids and bronchodilators


pneumothorax/pleural effusion = thoracocentesis


if respiratory arrest = intubation, maybe ventilation

sneezing indicates disease of what part of the respiratory tract?


what disease location is indicated by reverse sneezing?

sneezing = nasal passages/sinuses


reverse sneezing = nasopharynx

What is the important difference between the cough reflex and the sneeze reflex?

inspiration of air --> epiglottis and vocal folds close --> diaphragm and abdominal muscles contract --> epiglottis and vocal folds open --> (tongue pushes up against soft palate, sneeze only) --> air expelled

What kind of nasal discharge is seen with:


inflammatory diseases?


infections?


nasal tumors?


fungal infections?

inflammation = serous to mucoid


infectious = purulent


nasal tumors = mucoid, mucopurulent, sanguineous, epistaxis


fungal = common to see epistaxis

How would you treat these fungal infections:


nasal aspergillosis


nasal cryptococcus


ocular or CNS involvement


cats with severe CNS signs

aspergillosis = topical anti fungal treatments (clotrimazole or enilconazole)


cryptococcus = oral anti fungals (itraconazole)


ocular/CNS involvement = fluconazole


severe CNS signs = amphotericin B

What is normal water intake for an animal?


How is polydipsia defined?



water intake = 20-70 ml/kg/day


polydipsia > 100ml/kg/day

Normal urine output?


How is polyuria defined?

urine output = 20-45 ml/kg/day


polyuria > 50 ml/kg/day

At what point is urine considered concentrated for cats? dogs?

Cats = USG > 1.035


Dogs = USG > 1.030

USG > 1.025 is not consistent with PU/PD except in which rare case?

syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion


excess ADH --> holding on to free water --> free water overload and concentrating too much



What are the 3 most common causes of primary polyuria?

osmotic diuresis (glucose, urea, amino acids/protein)


ADH deficiency (central diabetes insipidus)


inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus)

What are 5 metabolic disorders that might result in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?



hypercalcemia


hyperthyroidism


hyperadrenocorticism (cushings)


hypokalemia


hypoadrenocorticism (addison's, due to hypokalemia. less common to present with PU/PD)

What are two ways of distinguishing CDI vs. NDI vs. psychogenic polydipsia?

test plasma osmolality


water deprivation test (modified)

How does a plasma osmolarity test distinguish between diabetes insipidous and psychogenic polydipsia?

DI = high plasma osmolarity


PP = low plasma osmolarity

What are 7 factors affecting core body temperature?

diurnal rhythm


age


ambient temperature


exertion


feeding/metabolic rate


reproductive cycle


accuracy of measurement

How is body heat produced?

basal metabolic rate


muscle activity


fat metabolism


digestion


thyroxine


sympathetic stimulation

What are two mechanisms of conserving body heat?

autonomic stimulation (reduces peripheral circulation and causes piloerection)


behavioral changes (huddling/grouping, seeking shelter)

What are the four main mechanisms of heat loss from a body?

**evaporation


conduction


convection


radiation (less important)


also via: cutaneous vasodilation and behavioral changes

In which organs is heat primarily produced? Where is it primarily lost?

produced in the muscles and liver


lost in the skin and respiratory tract

What part of the brain controls body temperature?

anterior hypothalamus

activation of warm-sensitive neurons -->

vasodilation


increase in RR


sweating


decreased activity


attempt to find cooler environment

activation of cold-sensitive neurons -->

vasoconstriction


piloerection


increased muscle activity (voluntary and shivering)


postural and behavioral changes


hunger

hypothermia occurs when the body temperature drops below_______. At this point what happens to cellular heat production?

hypothermia occurs when the body temperature drops below 95 degrees F


Rate of cellular heat production halves for each 10 degree drop in body temp

what is the most common cause of hypothermia in small animals?

anesthesia

What are signs of hypothermia?

low rectal temperature


depressed ventilation


absence of shivering


decreased reflexes


depressed cardiac function and decreased intravascular volume (hypoxia, academia, arrhythmias)

What is the mechanism of malignant hyperthermia? What exposure may incite this?

hereditary defect in ryanodine receptor


exposure to halogenated anesthetics or muscle relaxants --> excessive Ca release in muscle cells --> uncontrolled contraction and metabolism --> excessive heat production

To what degree does cellular O2 consumption increase with increased temperature?

cellular O2 consumption increases 10% for every degree C increase in body temp

At what temperature does oxygen use exceed supply (tissue death begins)?


At what temperature do temperature control mechanisms fail completely?

> 105.8


> 107

What is anhydrous?


What species is affected?


How is it diagnosed

*loss of ability to sweat


*horses moved from temperate to hot environments


*thin, patchy hair coat, decreased performance, increased RR


* intradermal injection of epinephrine or terbutaline

what is the physiological mechanism of fever?

exogenous pyrogens or activated immune cells --> activation of endogenous pyrogens (IL-1) --> stimulate anterior hypothalamus --> increased se point --> fever

which endogenous pyrogen is the most important (or at least the only one specifically mentioned)?

IL-1

What are the benefits of fever?

increased survival


reduced duration of infection


enhanced host defenses


inhibit bacterial access to iron


inhibit growth of some bacteria and viruses


inhibit growth of some tumors

What are the disadvantages of fever?

increased metabolic rate ( oxygen consumption, water and caloric requirements)


suppress appetite


weakness


protein loss


cardiovascular and neurologic damage if severe

What are the critical body temperatures in cats/dogs, horses, and cattle?

cats/dogs > 106


horses > 105


cattle > 107

What are 8 causes of fever?

infection


tissue trauma


immune mediated disease


neoplasia


administration of blood products


drugs


toxins


metabolic causes

How do glucocorticoids and NSAIDs treat fever?

both inhibit prostaglandin synthesis


NSAIDs = do NOT block endogenous pyrogens


steroids = DO block endogenous pyrogens (reserve for KNOWN causes of fever)

what is the difference between intermittent, remittent, and sustained fevers?

intermittent = diurnal, peaks in late afternoon


remittent = cyclical period of days


sustained = constant

coughing is initiated by contact of irritants with receptors in the airways. Where are these receptors particularly concentrated?

larynx and carina


(but also in the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli)

In general, receptors in the proximal airway detect what kind of stimulation?


What kind of stimulation do receptors in the dial airway detect?

proximal airway = mechanical


distal airway = chemical

which species has a much less sensitive trachea?

horses



how might a cough occur without inspiration (solely expiratory reflex)?

direct stimulation of the larynx (such as with intubation)

What is the difference between stertor and stridor?

stertor = noisy nasal breathing (snorting)


stridor = increased noise at the larynx and trachea (wheezing)

With pleural disease, what kind of respiratory pattern is typically seen?

restrictive pattern of tachypnea and decreased depth. (fluid or soft tissue in the chest will result in dull percussion)

What is the mechanism of reverse sneezing?

stimulation of trigeminal nerve endings in nasopharyngeal mucosa --> rapid contraction of inspiratory muscles and muscles of larynx --> vocal fold adduction and narrowing of larynx --> increased air pressure in trachea --> glottis opens --> sudden, rapid inspiration of air --> moves debris from nasopharynx to oropharynx to be swallowed. narrowing of glottis and coughing prevents debris from getting into lower airways.

what systemic diseases could present with epistaxis in dogs and cats?

hypertension


vasculitis


coagulopathy


thrombocytopenia


hyperviscosity syndromes


multiple myeloma


polycythemia

What systemic diseases could present with epistaxis in horses?

purport hemmorhagica


exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH)

How valuable are nasal discharge culture in cases? What about virus isolation?

*cultures are of low diagnostic yield, often grow a population of mixed commensals. Bacteria are often secondary


*inciting viral infection is often not present at the time of diagnosis

What are some of the non-specific treatments used to help clear respiratory secretions?

humidification


saline nasal drops


decongestants


mucolytics

How might a leukotriene antagonist be used to treat an animal with nasal discharge?

If you suspect allergic rhinitis


leukotriene antagonists are antihistamines

How would you treat an animal with lymphoplasmacytic rhinitis?

immunosuppression


glucocorticoids (prednisone/prednisolone)


topical glucocorticoid drops or sprays


additional immunosuppressants to minimize steroids = azathioprine, chlorambucil, cyclosporine


some benefit from NSAIDs as well

What is Yunnan baiyao used for?

hemostasis (from patax notoginseng?)


for epistaxis: topical powder or oral capsule (internal bleeding)


mostly used for epistaxis from nasal tumors

What are possible causes of osmotic diuresis?

excess glucose = diabetes mellitus


excess urea = renal insufficiency (can't retain urea --> medullary washout)


excess proteins = protein losing glomerulopathy (from chronic inflammation, glomerulonephritis)


excess proteins AND amino acids = Fanconi syndrome (rare)

What are the most common causes of nephrogenic diabetes insidious?

chronic kidney disease


hypercalcemia (lymphoma, hyperparathyroid)


hyperadrenocorticism (cushings)


hyperthyroidism

Why might a dog with a pyometra present as PU/PD?

G- endotoxins --> inhibit ADH receptor --> nephrogenic diabetes insipidus --> primary polyuria --> PU/PD

What helpful information could you get from imaging in a case of PU/PD?

renal architecture (form does NOT indicate function)


adrenal size


hepatic parenchyma

How is isosthenuria defined?

USG 1.008 - 1.012


PU/PD cases usually < 1.025

An animal presents with:


PU/PD


elevated Alk-Phos


stress leukogram


What's do you think is wrong?


What do you want to do next?

hyperadrenocorticism (cushings)


ACTH stim test, LDDS test

An animal presents with:


PU/PD


no azotemia


glycosuria but no hyperglycemia


What's your diagnosis?



Fanconi syndrome

An animal presents with:


PU/PD


azotemia


proteinuria


What do you suspect?


Additional diagnostics?

protein losing nephropathy


urine protein/creatinine ratio (higher than 6 supports diagnosis)

What are the three phases of the modified water deprivation test?

Phase I = restore renal medullary gradient (gradual reduction of water intake to 70%)


Phase II = dehydrate animal (monitor urine concentration and body weight. If able to concentrate = psychogenic)


Phase III = exogenous administration of ADH (no response = NDI, response = CDI)

What electrolytes are high in intracellular fluid? In extracellular fluid?

ICF = potassium and phosphorus


ECF = sodium and chloride

What is the difference between ECF-IV (intravascular) and ECF-EV (extravascular) fluid?

ECF-IV = high albumin, high sodium and chloride


ECF-EV = NO albumin, high sodium and chloride


*fluid and electrolytes will move freely between these compartments

What dictates the ratio of fluids in the IV-ECF and the EV-ECF?

balance between hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

What is the percent of body water found in the ECF in large animals and large animal neonates?

adult large animals = 0.3 X BW


neonate large animals = 0.5 X BW

What is the percent of body water found in the ECF in small animals and small animal neonates?

adult small animal = 0.4 X BW


neonates small animals = 0.6 X BW

What is the percent BW of blood (IV-ECF) in most adult animals?

6% - 7%

What are the four basic categories of fluids?


Which of these can be used for replacement? For maintenance?

crystalloids


colloids


blood/blood replacers


energy supplements


(all can be used for replacement, crystalloids and energy supplements for maintenance)

Over what time period are replacement fluids typically administered? Shock fluids?

Replacement fluids = typically over 2-4 hrs


Shock fluids = typically full blood volume over ~20 minutes (25% of total each 5 minutes X 4 times)

At what point (%) does dehydration typically become clinical?

6% (except in neonates)


PE will reveal no abnormalities below this

Define mild dehydration

%BW = 6%


Skin tent = 1-3 sec


mucous membranes = moist/slightly tacky


eyes = normal


other = decreased urine output

Define moderate dehydration

%BW = 8%


Skin tent = 3-5 sec


mucous membranes = tacky


eyes = normal


other = weaker pulse

Define severe dehydration

%BW = 10%


Skin tent = 3-5 sec


mucous membranes = dry


eyes = sunken


other = poor jugular fill

Define very severe dehydration

%BW = 12%


Skin tent = FOREVER


mucous membranes = dry, pale, cold


eyes = sunken


other = may not be able to feel pulse

When might you want to slow fluid administration?

when fluid overloading is feared


ex: heart failure, hypoproteinemia

How does goal-directed fluid therapy differ from standard fluid therapy?

Standard fluid therapy: define % dehydration and replace all of those fluids


Goal-directed fluid therapy: look for changes in specific parameters suck as central venous pressure or blood lactate

What are the maintenance fluid requirements for adult horses?

4-6% of BW


40-60 ml/kg/day


2ml/kg/hr

What are the maintenance fluid requirements for adult cattle?

7-10% BW


70-100ml/kg/day


3-4 ml/kg/hr

What are the maintenance fluid requirements for adult small animals?

5-8% BW


50-80 ml/kg/day


2-3 ml/kg/hr




*cats on the lower end, big dogs on higher end

What are the maintenance fluid requirement of neonatal animals (small and large)?

10% of BW


100ml/kg/day


4ml/kd/hr

What factors might increase maintenance fluid requirements for an animal?




How much might maintenance requirement be increased by?

activity level


hyperthermia


milk production


vomiting/diarrhea


polyuria


might need 2-4X regular maintenance

What type of fluids should NEVER be given SQ?

hypertonic (these will pull fluid out of vasculature!)

How do you assess hydration status?

body weight loss (if available)


clinical pathology (BUN, creatinine, PCV, TP)


physical exam (skin tent, mucous membranes)

How does lactate help determine hydration status?

lactate is made by anaerobic glycolysis


indicates that not enough O2 is being delivered to tissues

How does training improve thermoregulation?

decreased heat production and storage


more rapid sweating


improved cardiovascular stability in heat


lower sweat Na+ concentration