Gastroenterology Exam 1

Front 1

inflammation of the oral mucosa is called what?

Back 1

stomatitis

Front 2

what is stomatitis?

Back 2

inflammation of the oral mucosa

Front 3

what are five clinical signs of stomatitis in the ruminant?

Back 3

1. decreased salivation
2. depressed appetite
3. dysphagia
4. abnormal odor
5. vesicles, erosions, ulcerations

Front 4

what are the three basic etiologies of stomatitis in the ruminant?

Back 4

1. chemical irritants
2. physical trauma
3. infection

Front 5

what are four chemical irritants that cause stomatitis in the ruminant?

Back 5

1. oral calcium supplements (CaCl2 paste)
2. foot bath chemicals
3. dehorning paste (KOH)
4. uremia

Front 6

what are three types of physical trauma that cause stomatitis in the ruminant?

Back 6

1. coarse feed
2. ingestion of plants (grass awns, bristle grass, thistles)
3. medication administration (e.g. balling gun)

Front 7

what are nine viral diseases that cause stomatitis in the ruminant?

Back 7

1. vesicular stomatitis
2. MCF
3. bluetongue
4. bovine papular stomatitis
5. contagious ecthyma / orf / sore mouth
6. BVD
7. FMD
8. Rinderpest
9. Vesicular Exanthema of swine

Front 8

what are four reportable infectious diseases that cause stomatitis in the ruminant?

Back 8

1. vesicular stomatitis
2. FMD
3. Rinderpest
4. vesicular exanthema of swine

Front 9

what are five clinical signs of a foreign body in the mouth of the ruminant?

Back 9

1. difficulty eating & drinking → weight loss & dehydration
2. excessive salivation
3. dropping of feed (quidding)
4. abnormal chewing and movement of the head
5. necrotic breath

Front 10

how is a foreign body in the mouth of a ruminant diagnosed

Back 10

oral exam

Front 11

what is the treatment for an oral foreign body in the mouth of a ruminant?

Back 11

remove object; a/b if object penetrates deeply into the mucosa

Front 12

what agent causes Woody Tongue?

Back 12

Actinobacillus lignieresii

Front 13

explain the epidemiology of Woody Tongue

Back 13

- Actinobacillus lignieresii normal flora of the mouth
- breaks in the oral mucosa (coarse feed, grass awns, thistles) set up opportunistic infection

Front 14

what are clinical signs of woody tongue? (7)

Back 14

- inability to prehend food
- excessive salivation
- tongue may protrude from the mouth
- base of tongue is very hard, painful, and nodular, and may affect the shaft of the tongue
- nodular lesions may be ulcerated, contain yellowish-white pus
- enlarged lymph nodes of the head
- small ruminants: granulomatous lesions may be observed on the lips, nose, and face

Front 15

what is one difference in the clinical presentation of woody tongue between cattle and small ruminants?

Back 15

in small ruminants, one may observe granulomatous lesions on the lips, nose, and face

Front 16

what are two ways in which woody tongue is diagnosed?

Back 16

1. clinical signs
2. pus crushed between 2 slides shows sulfur granules and gram-neg rods

Front 17

how is woody tongue treated?

Back 17

- IV sodium iodide solution
- sulfas and tetracycline

Front 18

what are five clinical signs of iodism in the ruminant being treated with sodium iodide for woody tongue or lumpy jaw?

Back 18

1. dandruff
2. excessive tearing (epiphora)
3. coughing
4. inappetence
5. diarrhea

Front 19

what agent causes Lumpy Jaw?

Back 19

Actinomyces bovis

Front 20

explain the epidemiology of Lumpy Jaw

Back 20

(similar to Lumpy Jaw)
- Actinomyces bovis normal flora of the mouth
- breaks in the oral mucosa (coarse feed, grass awns, thistles) set up opportunistic infection
- (additionally, vs. woody tongue) may enter through diseased teeth

Front 21

what are three clinical signs of lumpy jaw?

Back 21

1. osteomyelitis of the mandible, possibly the maxilla - involvement of the bone
2. hard, swollen jaw and associated lymph node enlargement with or without fistulous tracts
3. pus contains yellow sulfur granules

Front 22

how is lumpy jaw treated?

Back 22

1. sodium iodide IV
2. penicillin
3. curettage and flushing of draining tracts

Front 23

after lumpy jaw has been successfully treated, how long does it take for the swelling to recede?

Back 23

never. It is permanent osteomyelitis with bone remodeling

Front 24

how long does it take the rumen to adapt to new dietary conditions?

Back 24

2 weeks

Front 25

what are clinical signs of traumatic pharyngitis? (8)

Back 25

- difficulty swallowing
- increased salivation
- SWELLING OF THE THROAT LATCH AREA
- inhalation pneumonia
- abnormal chewing
- halitosis
- ± dyspnea
- fever, if cellulitis present

Front 26

what causes traumatic pharyngitis of ruminants?

Back 26

- iatrogenic: improper use of balling gun, tubes, or dose syringes
- ingestion of sharp objects

Front 27

what is the prognosis of woody tongue?

Back 27

good, if tongue softens within 48 hours of treatment

Front 28

how is traumatic pharyngitis diagnosed in the ruminant? (2)

Back 28

- oral exam
- history of possible trauma to pharynx

Front 29

how is traumatic pharyngitis treated in ruminants?

Back 29

- penicillin
- NSAIDS - Banamine (phenylbutazone) [or aspirin]

Front 30

esophageal obstruction in a large animal is called what?

Back 30

choke

Front 31

what are the two basic clinical manifestations of choke and their etiologies?

Back 31

1. intraluminal - foreign bodies (e.g. apples, boluses of dry grain)
2. extraluminal - infection or constriction form a previous episode of choke

Front 32

what are some causes of extraluminal choke in ruminants? (7)

Back 32

1. cellulitis from injections
2. abscesses
3. enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes
4. tumors
5. pneumonia
6. Hypoderma lineatum larvae (bots, warbles)
7. stricture from previous episodes of choke

Front 33

what are four clinical signs of choke in ruminants?

Back 33

1. increased salivation and attempts to swallow
2. may throw head from side-to-side to try to dislodge mass
3. various degrees of bloat depending on how much of esophagus is occluded (EMERGENCY)
4. staggering because of anorexia due to bloat

Front 34

what are the three most common sites for foreign bodies to cause choke in ruminants?

Back 34

1. post-pharyngeal
2. thoracic inlet
3. base of heart

Front 35

in a ruminant, what would blood work look like in a severe case of choke and why?

Back 35

- acidotic and dehydrated because of loss of bicarb and water with excess salivation
- hypokalemic and hyponatremic due to salivation

Front 36

when a ruminant has choke, what are some techniques to remove the object?

Back 36

- rumen trocar if needed
- ± sedation with xylazine
- may be able to manually massage object up to pharynx
- loop a piece of wire (coat hanger) and pass down esophagus to retract object
- pass a stomach tube and push the object into the rumen
- rumenotomy and pass a wire loop up the esophagus
- trocarize the rumen, sedate, and give 24 hours to see if it will resolve on its own

Front 37

after choke has been resolved, what are four indicated treatments?

Back 37

1. a/b for prevention of aspiration pneumonia
2. NSAIDs
3. fluids as needed
4. feed a soft diet

Front 38

what is the prognosis for choke in ruminants?

Back 38

- good unless damaged esophageal mucosa
- guarded 24 hours post choke
- grave if it cannot be resolved

Front 39

when is it unsafe to treat cattle for Hypoderma infections?

Back 39

late fall to January

Front 40

what two bacteria most commonly cause liver abscesses in the ruminant?

Back 40

1. Fusobacterium necrophorum
2. Trueperella (Arcanobacterium) (Actinomyces) pyogenes

Front 41

what is the prevalence of liver abscesses in feedlot cattle?

Back 41

24 - 30%

Front 42

what is the most common way in which liver abscesses in cattle are diagnosed?

Back 42

at slaughter

Front 43

what are three basic etiologies for liver abscesses in ruminants?

Back 43

1. high carb, low fiber diets
2. omphalitis
3. traumatic hepatitis

Front 44

what is the pathogenesis of liver abscess formation in ruminants on a high carb, low fiber diet?

Back 44

- rumen acidosis from grain overload causes rumen insults
- bacteria enter the portal circulation and are filtered out by the liver, which becomes an abscess

Front 45

what structure does the umbilical vein become?

Back 45

falciform ligament

Front 46

what structure does the umbilical artery become?

Back 46

round ligament of the bladder

Front 47

omphalitis causes liver abscesses in ruminants via which anatomical structure?

Back 47

umbilical vein

Front 48

ruminants wall off abscesses in the liver that are caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum and/or Trueperella pyogenes. How does this affect clinical signs?

Back 48

makes clinical signs not apparent in most animals

Front 49

why can a liver abscess in the ruminant cause diarrhea and ascites?

Back 49

if abscess ruptures into the caudal vena cava and cause a thrombosis, ascites and diarrhea will occur due to increased splanchnic venous pressure

Front 50

a ruminant with a liver abscess will be painful where upon palpation/physical exam?

Back 50

right posterior rib

Front 51

what are three sequelae to caudal vena cava thrombosis from a liver abscess in the ruminant?

Back 51

1. sudden death from sepsis or anaphylactic shock from rupture of the abscess
2. severe dyspnea and open-mouth breathing when the abscess does not result in immediate death
3. epistaxis from pulmonary embolism

Front 52

what are three clinical pathological signs of liver abscess in the ruminant?

Back 52

1. neutrophilia and lymphocyte:neutrophil shift
2. hyperfibrinogenemia
3. ↑GGT and ↑AST if abscess formation is active

Front 53

how are liver abscesses in the ruminant treated?

Back 53

long-term penicillin therapy

Front 54

what are five preventative measures for liver abscesses in the ruminant?

Back 54

1. gradually increase grain over 3-4 week period to prevent overload
2. Tylosin (or other a/b) in feed
3. roughage at least 45% of ration
4. feed long stem hay - keeps pH of rumen higher due to remastication
5. naval dipping at birth

Front 55

what are five clinical signs of liver abscesses in the ruminant?

Back 55

1. weight loss, ↓weight gains
2. ↓milk production
3. fever and anorexia
4. painful when ambulating, lying down, pressure over the right posterior rib
5. ascites and diarrhea from thrombosis in the caudal vena cava

Front 56

what type of microbe comprises the majority of rumen flora?

Back 56

gram-negative anaerobes

Front 57

what two things predisposes an animal to frothy bloat, and in each, what forms the froth?

Back 57

1. diets of lush legumes or alfalfa hay - chloroplast membrane fragments produce the froth
2. high concentrate/grain diets - bacteria produce a mucoprotein slime in response to the low pH environment.

Front 58

in free-gas bloat, what is the pathway that causes a decrease in ruminal contractions?

Back 58

- consumption of concentrate without acclimated rumen
- increased VFAs and pH drops
- when pH drops below 5.3, lactic acid is produced
- ↑VFA and ↓pH inhibits cyclic contractions and ↓ eructation
- hypocalcemia leads to muscular weakness, which further decreases contractions

Front 59

what are two ways in which the esophagus can become blocked can cause free-gas bloat in ruminants?

Back 59

1. obstruction of the esophagus
2. postural bloat - cardia is submerged below the ruminal gas cap; occurs when an animal casts itself

Front 60

what are clinical signs of bloat?

Back 60

- distension of paralumbar fossa above the rib and tuber coxae
- distension may cause the animal to bulge on the right side, depending on severity of bloat
- signs of colic: frequently getting up and down, stretched out neck, stretched out back legs
- open mouth breathing, cyanosis, collapse, and death

Front 61

in bloat, what are seven things to instruct the owner to do before you arrive?

Back 61

1. If down, put in sternal recumbency
2. keep animal moving: keeps ingesta mixed and may reduce pressure on the diaphragm
3. place a gag in the animal's mouth to ↑ saliva production
4. pass a garden hose
5. raise the front end of the animal to reduce pressure
6. drench with 1 tbsp. of soap in 1 qt. of water
7. trocarize rumen as a last resort

Front 62

what are three things you can administer to break up the froth in frothy bloat?

Back 62

1. poloxalene
2. mineral oil
3. dish washing soap

Front 63

trocarization in bloat:
- indication
- where do you trocarize?
- Tx for severe frothy bloat

Back 63

- if patient is in respiratory distress
- trocarize the left paralumbar fossa
- emergency rumenotomy to remove froth

Front 64

what are two ways to treat extraruminal bloat?

Back 64

- rumenotomy and suture rumen wall to skin leaving a fistula; fistula will heal over 4-6 weeks
- place a trocar in the rumen and leave in place for a month

Front 65

where are 3 common sites of esophageal obstruction in cattle?

Back 65

1. post-pharynx
2. thoracic inlet
3. base of heart

Front 66

cows that have rabies cannot swallow and are likely to have what metabolic and electrolyte imbalances? (3)

Back 66

- acidosis
- hyponatremic
- hypokalemic

Front 67

how do you treat traumatic pharyngitis in the ruminant?

Back 67

- penicillin 10,000 IU BID
- NSAIDs

Front 68

why does frothy bloat prevent eructation

Back 68

receptors in the cardia, when covered with water, ingesta, or foam, will inhibit eructation

Front 69

what is the role of ruminal
- low threshold receptors?
- high threshold receptors?

Back 69

- low: cause cyclical contractions of the rumen
- high: inhibit ruminal contractions

Front 70

at necropsy, what is pathognomonic for bloat?

Back 70

bloat line in the esophagus

Front 71

what are four ways to prevent bloat?

Back 71

1. introduce to lush pastures slowly
2. feed dry hay before putting out
3. poloxalene (non-ionic surfactant) blocks
4. feed ionophore

Front 72

what is a major difference in clinical sign of choke versus bloat?

Back 72

choke: they can't swallow; bloat, they can swallow

Front 73

why is bloat an emergency? (2)

Back 73

- pressure on diaphragm (can't breathe)
- pressure on abdominal vessels (ischemia)

Front 74

what are four sequelae to infection resulting from traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

Back 74

1. abscesses and adhesions
2. peritonitis - diffuse or localized
3. liver abscesses
4. pericarditis

Front 75

epidemiology of hardware disease:
- type of cattle predisposed
- prevalence in small ruminants

Back 75

- dairy > beef
- rare in small ruminants because they are more discretionary eaters

Front 76

what are seven clinical signs of acute hardware disease?

Back 76

1. dairy: acute ↓ milk
2. fever, anorexia, decreased rumen motility
3. pain: grunt when lying down, urinating, defecations
4. BACK IS ARCHED
5. stiff gait; abducted elbows
6. regurgitation of feed
7. acute death

Front 77

what are four clinical signs of chronic hardware disease?

Back 77

1. ±fever
2. ADR cow
3. weight loss
4. walks gingerly

Front 78

if hardware disease involves the pericardial sac
- what does the heart sound like?
- what other clinical sign?

Back 78

- heart sounds are muffled, sounds like a washing machine due to fluid-gas interface
- signs of congestive heart failure (e.g., jugular pulse)

Front 79

what are six methods to diagnose hardware disease?

Back 79

1. clinical signs and rule out other things
2. grunt test/withers pinch test
3. abdominocentesis
4. radiographs
5. exploratory
6. clin path

Front 80

what is the most common clinical pathological result of hardware disease?

Back 80

increased fibrinogen > 500 and ↑ plasma proteins

Front 81

how is hardware disease treated if acute and painful?

Back 81

surgery to remove object

Front 82

how is conservative management of hardware disease performed?

Back 82

- magnet
- PPG FOR A WEEK (or other a/b)
- confinement; elevate front end to relieve pressure on diaphragm
- fluids and transfaunation

Front 83

what are three ways to prevent hardware disease?

Back 83

1. administer magnets at 6-8 months of age
2. clean up the environment
3. magnets on feed handling equipment

Front 84

what are four basic etiologies for simple indigestion in the ruminant?

Back 84

1. abrupt feed changes
2. increase in amount fed or change in ingredients
3. poor quality/unbalanced feed
4. consumption of afterbirth

Front 85

what are four examples of poor quality/unbalanced feed that could cause simple indigestion in ruminants?

Back 85

1. moldy or heated feeds
2. frosted forages
3. partially fermented (e.g., silo opened too soon) or spoiled silage
4. too much grain

Front 86

what are four clinical signs of simple indigestion in the ruminant?

Back 86

1. degrees of anorexia for 1-2 days
2. decreased rumen motility with gassy pongs
3. decreased milk production
4. diarrhea within 24 hours of anorexia

Front 87

how does simple indigestion present epidemiologically in a herd?

Back 87

variable number of animals affected

Front 88

what are three ways to treat simple indigestion in the ruminant?

Back 88

1. oral fluids
2. transfaunation
3. wait and see what happens (simple indigestion is usually self-limiting)

Front 89

what are two ways to prevent simple indigestion in the ruminant?

Back 89

1. make feed changes gradually
2. feed quality feeds

Front 90

what are the two major causes of rumen acidosis?

Back 90

1. excessive consumption of readily fermentable carbohydrates (e.g. breaks into feed storage)
2. animal exposed to feed without adaptation

Front 91

what are four ways in which animals are exposed to feed without adaptation and can result in rumen acidosis?

Back 91

1. off feed then return to full feed
2. competition at feed bunk
3. recently gave birth and put back on full feed
4. break into feed room

Front 92

what is the pathophysiology of dehydration caused by rumen acidosis following grain overload?

Back 92

1. proliferation of Streptococcus bovis and production of lactate
2. lactate production reduces rumen production pH to 5 or less
3. bacteria and protozoa die off
4. Lactobacilli take over for Strep
5. rumen osmolality increases due to lactate accumulation, which pulls water into the rumen
6. rumen distends and animal dehydrates

Front 93

after an animal has become dehydrated due to rumen acidosis, what is the pathophysiology that will eventually lead to death?

Back 93

1. circulatory impairment, decreased renal perfusion, anuria
2. this leads to metabolic acidosis due to poor perfusion (ischemia/hypoxia)
3. both D- and L-lactate are produced in and absorbed by the rumen; only L is metabolized
4. lactate burns the rumen lining, may lead to fungal rumenitis and liver abscesses
5. gram-negative bacteria die off, causing endotoxic shock
6. rumen fluid becomes alkalotic because of putrefaction and fluid influx into rumen

Front 94

what are five clinical signs of rumen acidosis?

Back 94

1. depression, coma, death
2. atonic, sloshy, fluid-filled rumen
3. dehydration, ↑HR, ↑RR (i.e., hypovolemic shock)
4. staggering gait or down
5. diarrhea may develop the next day

Front 95

what are three ways to diagnose rumen acidosis?

Back 95

1. History
2. tap rumen; pH < 5
3. look for live protozoa

Front 96

what are 9 treatments for rumen acidosis?

Back 96

1. alkalinizing fluids IV
2. empty the rumen if early in the course fo the disease
3. systemic and oral penicillin
4. magnesium hydroxide orally if early in the course of the disease
5. mineral oil to coat the lining of the gut and ↓ absorption of endotoxin
6. NSAIDs
7. thiabendazole (TBZ) to kill fungi
8. B vitamins (bacteria usually make these)
9. TRANSFAUNATE!!

Front 97

how are alkalinizing fluids given with rumen acidosis?

Back 97

IV

Front 98

comment on antibiotic use for rumen acidosis

Back 98

systemic and oral. Treats septicemia and kills Lactobacilli and Streptococci in the rumen causing the disease

Front 99

what agent is used to alkalinize the rumen as a treatment for rumen acidosis?

Back 99

magnesium hydroxide

Front 100

why would mineral oil be given for rumen acidosis?

Back 100

coats the lining of the gut to protect adsorption of endotoxin

Front 101

what micronutrient is deficient with rumen acidosis?

Back 101

B vitamins, because they are produced by ruminal bacteria

Front 102

when treating rumen acidosis, how do you prevent fungi from overtaking the ruminal fluid?

Back 102

administer TBZ (thiabendazole)

Front 103

when treating rumen acidosis, what is an important step in repopulating the rumen with normal flora?

Back 103

transfaunation

Front 104

what are five ways to prevent rumen acidosis?

Back 104

1. prevent exposure to large quantities of CHOs
2. Make gradual feed changes
3. keep food in secure place
4. provide adequate feeder space to reduce competition
5. provide long-stem hay/forage

Front 105

why is providing long stem hay to ruminants so helpful in treating a variety of diseases of the digestive system?

Back 105

- they chew their cud more, so they swallow more saliva, which buffers the rumen
- it is filling, so they are less tempted to overeat grain/forage

Front 106

what does the cow's body look like when in bloat?

Back 106

distended left paralumbar fossa (sometimes the right if severe)

Front 107

what does bloat sound like when percussed?

Back 107

a pong resonance in the rumen

Front 108

what does the rumen sound like upon auscultation with bloat?

Back 108

decreased to absent motility; sloshy with ballottement

Front 109

what is a major visual clinical sign of bloat, not involving the digestive system?

Back 109

signs of respiratory distress

Front 110

what is the most common clinical presentation of simple indigestion in a cow? (4)

Back 110

- off feed
- depressed rumen motility
- anorectic
- EVERYTHING ELSE IS NORMAL

Front 111

how would a cow with hardware disease present differently compared to if she just had simple indigestion? (6)

Back 111

- ± fever
- painful
- positive grunt test
- ↑ fibrinogen
- muffled heart sounds
- longer duration

Front 112

what does a cow's body look like when she has vagal indigestion?

Back 112

"papple" shaped; bloat in the left paralumbar fossa; severe fluid distention on the right side

Front 113

what is the basic reason that the rumen becomes distended with vagal indigestion?

Back 113

outflow problems

Front 114

what are five lesions that can cause vagal indigestion?

Back 114

1. pleuritis or peritonitis
2. severe pneumonia
3. hardware disease
4. swelling of pharyngeal area (compress vagus nerves)
5. abomasal diseases

Front 115

why is vagal indigestion associated with late pregnancy in cows? (2)

Back 115

- compression of vagus nerves by the fetus
- abnormal position of the pylorus, causing outflow failure

Front 116

what are five clinical sings of vagal indigestion?

Back 116

1. papple shape
2. decreased fecal output
3. dehydration
4. anorexia
5. 30% have bradycardia

Front 117

what are the two syndromes associated with vagal indigestion and which is most common?

Back 117

1. omasal transport failure (most common)
2. pyloric outflow failure

Front 118

greasy, pasty feces with large particle size would be compatible with which type of vagal indigestion in the cow?

Back 118

omasal transport failure

Front 119

lack of fecal production would be consistent with which type of vagal indigestion in the cow?

Back 119

pyloric outflow failure

Front 120

describe the dynamics of the forestomachs with omasal transport failure syndrome of vagal indigestion

Back 120

- atony of the reticulorumen
- recurrent bloat
- hypermotility
- distention of the forestomachs

Front 121

describe the dynamics of the forestomachs with pyloric outflow failure syndrome of vagal indigestion. Clin path?

Back 121

- fluid accumulates in the omasum and abomasum
- motility initially normal in the reticulum, but gets distended over time
- RUMEN CHLORIDE INCREASES (internal vomiting/abomasal reflux of the abomasum into the rumen)
- dehydration and HYPOCHLOREMIA along with METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

Front 122

what are three predisposing factors to pyloric outflow failure (vagal indigestion) in the ruminant?

Back 122

1. abomasal volvulus
2. displaced abomasum
3. late pregnancy

Front 123

what are six ways to treat vagal indigestion?

Back 123

1. IV fluids
2. a/b, NSAIDs
3. surgery (rumenotomy, rumenostomy)
4. limit feed intake; high fiber
5. transfaunation
6. if pregnant, C-section or abort

Front 124

what is the prognosis of vagal indigestion?

Back 124

poor

Front 125

in a cow: a ping heard in an obliquely oval region half way up the left abdominal wall, in the middle, which extends from the lung field to the costal arch or a couple inches into the left paralumbar fossa area is what?

Back 125

LDA

Front 126

in a cow: a ping heard in an obliquely oval region half way up the right abdominal wall, in the middle, which extends from the lung field to the costal arch or a couple inches into the left paralumbar fossa area is what?

Back 126

RDA or RTA

Front 127

a ping heard that extends through throughout the whole paralumbar fossa area is what? (2)

Back 127

- left side: rumen
- right side: cecum or spiral colon

Front 128

when percussing over the ribs on the left side of a cow, you can hear 2 distinctly different pitched resonances, depending on location, what are you thinking?

Back 128

LDA

Front 129

how can you tell ileus in the cow versus normal?

Back 129

- normal: pongs in the right paralumbar fossa will migrate
- ileus: the pongs will remain in a consistent location

Front 130

a resonating ping on both the left and right sides of a cow may indicate what?

Back 130

peritonitis

Front 131

what three conditions are associated with post-partum displaced abomasum?

Back 131

"The 3 M's"
1. milk fever (hypocalcemia)
2. mastitis (endotoxemia)
3. metritis (endotoxemia)

Front 132

when does post-partum displaced abomasum usually occur?

Back 132

usually within the first 2 weeks of freshening

Front 133

besides post-parturition, what three things are associated with displaced abomasum?

Back 133

1. high grain diets and inadequate adjustments to grain
2. high producing dairy cows, 2nd or greater lactations
3. deep-chested cows

Front 134

what is the pathophysiology of a displaced abomasum?

Back 134

1. atomy of the abomasum
2. gas accumulates
3. abomasum floats and is trapped

Front 135

what are three things that can cause atony of the abomasum, which may lead to a DA?

Back 135

1. increased VFAs (high grain diet)
2. hypocalcemia (milk fever)
3. endotoxins (metritis, mastitis)

Front 136

a "sprung rib" in a cow is often indicative of which disease?

Back 136

displaced abomasum

Front 137

what are some metabolic conditions associated with a displaced abomasum?

Back 137

- ketonuria
- alkalosis
- paradoxical aciduria (if dehydrated and hypokalemic)
- hypokalemia (due to alkalemia)
- hypocalcemia

Front 138

describe the eating behavior of a cow with a DA?

Back 138

- anorectic
- no cud chewing

Front 139

on auscultation over the left side of the ribs in a cow, you hear a gurgling or tinkling sound instead of a normal rumen scratchy sound, what might you think?

Back 139

LDA

Front 140

what are four clinical signs of a right torsed abomasum that differ from a simple abomasal displacement?

Back 140

1. signs of shock (↓CRT, cool extremities)
2. HEART RATE 100+ !!!!
3. acutely ill, painful, and dehydrated
4. abdominal distention and borborygmi are absent

Front 141

what is the "Liptak Test"?

Back 141

tests for a displaced abomasum.
- stick a needle 6 inches below the ping
- test pH of the fluid
- pH 2-4 = abomasum
- pH 5.5-8 = rumen

Front 142

a cow is ambulated to the VTH due to suspect LDA, but the pings are not heard upon arrival. What could be going on?

Back 142

floating DA

Front 143

what are five treatments for a displaced abomasum?

Back 143

1. roll
2. roll and tack
3. right flank omentopexy
4. right paramedian abomasopexy
5. left flank abomasopexy

Front 144

what are five adjunct therapies for treatment of a displaced abomasum?

Back 144

1. fluids
2. NSAIDs
3. calcium supplementation
4. glucose
5. treat other concurrent conditions

Front 145

prognosis for displaced abomasums:
- simple LDA
- simple RDA
- RTA
- what condition lowers prognosis?

Back 145

- simple LDA: good
- simple RDA: good
- RTA: poor
- diarrhea prior to correction lowers prognosis

Front 146

what are five ways to prevent displaced abomasums?

Back 146

1. INCREASE THE EFFECTIVE FIBER IN THE DIET AND REDUCE GRAIN
2. decrease post-partum diseases
3. prevent hypocalcemia (milk fever)
4. transition diet
5. introduce feedlot cattle to grain gradually

Front 147

what type of displaced abomasums can be corrected with roll and tack?

Back 147

LDA only

Front 148

what type of displaced abomasums can be corrected with right flank omentopexy?

Back 148

all DAs

Front 149

what type of displaced abomasums can be corrected with left flank abomasopexy?

Back 149

LDAs

Front 150

what type of displaced abomasums can be corrected with right paramedian abomasopexy?

Back 150

all DAs

Front 151

abomasal impaction, epidemiology:
- when?
- associated with what type of feed?
- etiologies

Back 151

- usually winter months
- associated with poor quality feeds
- vagal indigestion, hardware, pyloric obstructions (e.g., lymphosarcoma)

Front 152

what are five clinical sings of abomasal impaction?

Back 152

1. normal TPR
2. anorexia and depression
3. DISTENTION OF LOWER-RIGHT ABDOMEN
4. decreased fecal output
5. INCREASED RUMEN CHLORIDE

Front 153

who is most predisposed to abomasal ulcers?

Back 153

high producing dairy cows early in lactation

Front 154

what are four causes of abomasal ulcers in adult cows?

Back 154

1. stress of calving and lactation
2. high grain diets
3. lymphosarcoma of the abomasum
4. use of NSAIDs

Front 155

what are two causes of abomasal ulcers in calves?

Back 155

1. eating solid food
2. copper deficiency

Front 156

what are six clinical signs of abomasal ulcers in the cow?

Back 156

1. ADR
2. off feed and ↓ milk production
3. ↓ rumen motility
4. colic
5. GI bleeding → melena, dark feces, anemia
6. acute death

Front 157

what are 3 ways to diagnose abomasal ulcers in the cow?

Back 157

1. history
2. grunt test
3. fecal occult blood

Front 158

what are four treatments for abomasal ulcers?

Back 158

1. more forage, less grain
2. ± protectants and antacids
3. blood transfusions
4. treat for peritonitis

Front 159

a cow is presented with bradycardia and a distended lower-right abdominal quadrant and a distended upper-left abdominal quadrant. Scant feces. What is the presumptive diagnosis?

Back 159

vagal indigestion

Front 160

a cow with vagal indigestion:
- what would her chloride status be?
- what would her potassium status be?
- what would he blood pH be?

Back 160

- hypochloremic (but increased rumen chloride)
- hypokalemic (from alkalosis)
- alkalosis (from abomasal reflux)

Front 161

what are three reasons why postpartum cows are at increased risk of having an LDA?

Back 161

1. empty space from fetus
2. change in diet: increased grain
3. metabolic diseases (slows abomasal contractions)

Front 162

what are three metabolic diseases that lead to LDA?

Back 162

1. ketosis
2. grain overload - high CHO diet
3. hypocalcemia

Front 163

what two agents cause hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cattle?

Back 163

1. Clostridium perfringens type A
2. Aspergillus fumigatus

Front 164

epidemiology of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cattle:
- what type of cattle?
- when is it seen?
- what type of feed is it associated with?
- what two agents cause it?

Back 164

- dairy cattle
- usually seen within first 100 days of lactation
- diets high in protein and energy content
- Clostridium perfringens type A and Aspergillus fumigatus

Front 165

what are four clinical signs in a cow with hemorrhagic bowel syndrome and what would you find on rectal exam?

Back 165

1. off feed, depressed, may find dead or dying
2. ↑HR and ↑RR
3. progressive abdominal distention
4. low pitched pings in the lower-right abdomen
- rectal: blood clots or bloody feces; distended small bowel loops

Front 166

what gross pathologic lesions are associated with a cow with hemorrhagic bowel syndrome

Back 166

blood clots in the jejunum

Front 167

what is the treatment and prognosis of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in the cow?

Back 167

- surgery
- fluids, NSAIDs, a/b
- prognosis: grave

Front 168

how is hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cows prevented? (3)

Back 168

1. gradual feed changes
2. don't feed moldy feeds (i.e. that contain Aspergillus)
3. ± vaccine

Front 169

what is the predisposing factor to intussusception in:
- calves?
- older cows?

Back 169

- calves: tapeworms
- cows: polyps

Front 170

what are four clinical signs of intussusception in cattle?

Back 170

1. colic
2. depression and anorexia
3. abdomen swells over a couple of days
4. dehydration

Front 171

what are two ways to diagnose intussusception in cattle?

Back 171

1. palpation (feel a cylindrical hard loop of intestine)
2. small gas ping on right

Front 172

what are three treatments for intussusception in cattle?

Back 172

1. supportive - fluids and antibiotics
2. self-correcting
3. surgery

Front 173

what is the prognosis of intussusception in cattle?

Back 173

poor

Front 174

what are four clinical signs of SI volvulus in ruminants?

Back 174

1. acute onset, rapid progression
2. ↑HR and ↑RR
3. painful
4. abdomen swells quickly

Front 175

what are two ways to diagnose SI volvulus in ruminants?

Back 175

1. pings on the right side
2. palpation

Front 176

how is SI volvulus in ruminants treated?

Back 176

it is not; grave prognosis

Front 177

what are four clinical signs of cecal dilation and torsion in the ruminant?

Back 177

1. torsed animals will be shocky
2. anorexia, drop in milk
3. scant feces
4. signs of colic

Front 178

how is cecal dilation and volvulus in the ruminant diagnosed?

Back 178

palpation

Front 179

cecal dilation and torsion in ruminants: why does the cecum dilate?

Back 179

because of ileus associated with high grain diets or metabolic diseases; torsion occurs after dilation

Front 180

how is cecal dilation and torsion in the ruminant treated?

Back 180

- oral fluids
- calcium supplementation
- ↓grain
- exercise
- surgery to correct torsion

Front 181

how is cecal dilation and torsion in the ruminant prevented?

Back 181

↑forage, ↓grain

Front 182

what are six causes of rectal prolapse in food animals?

Back 182

1. pneumonia and coughing
2. causes of persistent straining (coccidiosis, rectal tear)
3. sheep - closely docked tails
4. pigs piling on each other
5. feeding finely ground feed
6. vaginal or uterine prolapse

Front 183

what are four ways to treat rectal prolapse in the ruminant?

Back 183

1. replace rectum and purse string suture (some people inject iodine to form adhesions)
2. amputation (rectal whistle - placed with an elastrator band)
3. NSAIDs
4. ± antibiotics

Front 184

rectal prolapse in ruminants:
- prognosis
- control

Back 184

- prognosis: depends on severity; may want to recommend slaughter
- control: remove predisposing factors

Front 185

what breeds of cattle are predisposed to fat necrosis?

Back 185

Channel Island breeds: Jersey and Guernsey

Front 186

what are four clinical signs of fat necrosis in cattle?

Back 186

1. usually subclinical
2. may cause intestinal obstruction
3. weight loss, anorexia, diarrhea
4. abdominal enlargement and discomfort

Front 187

what causes iatrogenic atresia ani?

Back 187

palpation at day 42

Front 188

how are the following atresia diseases diagnosed:
- ani?
- recti?
- coli?

Back 188

- ani: observe
- recti: may feel constriction in the rectum
- coli: abdominal distension and lack of feces

Front 189

how are the following atresia diseases treated:
- ani?
- recti?
- coli?

Back 189

- ani: create an anus
- recti and coli: euthanasia

Front 190

what is the general principle for the development of neonatal diarrhea?

Back 190

the number of infectious agents supersedes the neonate's resistance

Front 191

what is the general principle for the prevention of neonatal diarrhea?

Back 191

keeping the number of infectious agents low and the neonate's resistance high

Front 192

how much colostrum should a dairy calf have and over what period of time to get good passive transfer

Back 192

6-8 L over 24 hours

Front 193

when in gestation are antibodies transferred from cow → calf fetus?

Back 193

last 2 weeks of gestation

Front 194

to provide colostral immunity, when should you vaccinate
- cows?
- naïve heifers?

Back 194

- cows: 3-4 weeks before calving
- naïve heifers: 6 weeks before calving and boost at 3-4 weeks before calving

Front 195

why won't calves suckle teats that hang too low?

Back 195

because they look up to find them. If they are too low, they are out of the calf's field of view?

Front 196

why are gilts more likely to have FPT piglets than sows?

Back 196

because the gilts are more likely to be immuno-naïve

Front 197

ideally, how often does a beef calf suckle? A dairy calf?

Back 197

- beef: every 2 hours
- dairy: 2x per day (or schedule set by the farm)

Front 198

what happens if a calf drinks too much milk (i.e. gorges themselves)?

Back 198

since they don't have enough enzymes to process and digest the nutrients from an overload of milk, they will have osmotic diarrhea

Front 199

what is an ideal temperature of a farrowing house? What two pathophysiological effects does colder temperature have on piglets that predisposes them to disease?

Back 199

- keep at 90 °F (floor temperature)
1. cold slows mucociliary apparatus
2. cold slows peristalsis → slower clearing of infectious agents

Front 200

when is rotaviral/coronaviral vaccine given?

Back 200

to the dam prior to parturition

Front 201

when sacrificing a neonate to determine the causative agent of a diarrhea outbreak in the herd, which animal should you pick?

Back 201

one that just recently got sick, so that you have a higher likelihood of isolating the infectious agent

Front 202

what gross pathological samples should be collected to diagnose neonatal diarrhea?

Back 202

1. ILEUM***
2. duodenum
3. jejunum
4. mesenteric lymph nodes
5. spiral colon
6. abomasum
7. liver
8. spleen

Front 203

comment on the pH of neonatal diarrhea as a function of etiologic agent

Back 203

- bacterial will be basic because of bicarb secretion by duodenum and lack of reabsorption
- viral will be acidic because of villous atrophy → maldigestion → fermentation → lactic and VFAs

Front 204

how can you tell if there is villous atrophy in the SI of pigs in necropsy? (2)

Back 204

1. look for lacteals; if they are absent or contain no chyle, there has been villous atrophy
2. may see digesta through a transparent intestinal wall because of the thinning caused by villous atrophy

Front 205

mucus in diarrhea leads you to which organ?

Back 205

large intestine

Front 206

colostrum intake elevates which clinical pathological value in calves?

Back 206

ALP

Front 207

Neonatal colibacillosis in the calf clin path:
- Cl?
- Na?
- K?
- blood pH?

Back 207

- ↓Cl
- ↓Na
- ↑K
- acidotic

Front 208

why does the ETEC that infects neonatal calves not cause disease in adults?

Back 208

because these bacteria have attachment pili that attach only to receptors in the neonatal gut

Front 209

describe the gross pathology of a small intestine from a calf that dies of neonatal diarrhea from colibacillosis (ETEC)

Back 209

- normal wall thickness
- chyle in the lymphatics
- in other words, no gross lesions

Front 210

if neonatal calves can absorb nutrients with a colibacillosis infection, why do they still have watery (and sometimes milky) diarrhea?

Back 210

due to the infection, the amount of milk and fluids ingested exceeds the absorptive capability of the SI and LI absorptive cells.

Front 211

what type of diarrhea results from neonatal colibacillosis and why?

Back 211

secretory. Because the ETEC enterotoxins increase intestinal secretion.

Front 212

how do you treat ETEC neonatal diarrhea?

Back 212

- oral fluids (or tube) with water, Na, Cl, K, and glucose.
- IV fluids with bicarb and glucose

Front 213

in a calf with neonatal colibacillosis, why is IV glucose given (along with bicarb)? (2)

Back 213

- they may be hyperglycemic
- glucose causes insulin release, which reduces hyperkalemia

Front 214

at what age does enteric colibacillosis occur?

Back 214

1-4 days

Front 215

what causes enteric colibacillosis, what predisposes them to infection, and how is it prevented?

Back 215

- in neonates 1-4 days old, ETEC with attachment pili (K99, K88, F41)
- predisposed: FPT and/or contaminated environment (e.g., dirty birthing area)
- prevention: proper colostrum intake, birth in clean environment, vaccination of dam with pili antigen before parturition, oral monoclonal antibody

Front 216

what type of rotavirus causes illness in:
- calves
- small ruminants?
- piglets?
- humans?

Back 216

- calves: type A
- small ruminants: type B
- piglets: A, B, C, and E
- humans: type A

Front 217

when does rotaviral diarrhea occur in
- calves
- pigs
- small ruminants

Back 217

- calves: 4-14 days
- pigs: 1-6 weeks (most around weaning)
- small ruminants: 4-14 days

Front 218

what is the pathophysiology of rotaviral diarrhea?

Back 218

- viruses infect SI mucosa in the tips of the villi
- malabsorption and lack of digestive enzymes leads to fermentation of digesta in large intestine
- this leads to osmotic diarrhea

Front 219

describe the SI on gross pathology of rotaviral diarrhea

Back 219

- lack of lymphatics
- moderate distention
- may see digesta through the walls due to villous atrophy and thinning of the mucosa

Front 220

describe the diarrhea caused by rotavirus
- severity
- type
- what determines severity

Back 220

- absent or mild; severe when there is a 2ndary infection
- malabsorptive
- dependent on immunity and exposure

Front 221

how is rotaviral diarrhea definitively diagnosed?

Back 221

EM, FA of mid-ILEUM

Front 222

why is rotaviral diarrhea treated with fluid therapy?

Back 222

enhances absorption and supports the large intestine, which is hyperosmolar from malabsorption

Front 223

how is rotaviral diarrhea prevented?

Back 223

reduce exposure, reduce stress, ±vaccine

Front 224

transmissible gastroenteritis in swine:
- morbidity and mortality
- causative agent
- age

Back 224

- high morbidity and mortality
- coronavirus
- neonates less than 2 weeks of age; postweaning age; growers, finishers, and adults

Front 225

what are clinical signs of TGE in neonatal swine? (6)

Back 225

- profuse white to yellow diarrhea
- very wet tails
- dehydration
- vomiting
- excessive thirst
- DEATH

Front 226

how do clinical signs of TGE in post-weaned pigs compare with clinical signs in neonatal swine?

Back 226

similar clinical signs, but recovery unless unusually stressed. These become carrier animals

Front 227

in herds of swine with endemic TGE, who are the carriers?

Back 227

post-weaning age pigs

Front 228

what are clinical signs of TGE in grower, finisher, and adult pigs? (4)

Back 228

- anorexia
- vomiting
- fever
- ± diarrhea

Front 229

what type of diarrhea is caused by TGE in swine?

Back 229

malabsorptive

Front 230

how does the SI appear grossly in a necropsy of a piglet that had TGE?

Back 230

- fluid distention with jejunal and ileal "thinning"
- no visible lymphatics in mesentery in the area of "thinning"

Front 231

what are three ways to prevent TGE in neonates?

Back 231

- increase temp of farrowing house to 90 °F
- provide electrolyte (Gatorade)
- ± vaccination (expensive)

Front 232

what are some non-swine carriers of TGE virus?

Back 232

BIRDS, dogs, cats, flies

Front 233

if TGE vaccination is used, how is it administered?

Back 233

parenterally and orally (sows, gilts, piglets)

Front 234

why do you see flecks of blood in coronaviral diarrhea of calves, but not usually in rotaviral diarrhea?

Back 234

because coronaviral diarrhea is much more severe

Front 235

epidemiology of coronavirus in calves
- who sheds the virus and when is the virus shed?
- prevalence?
- morbidity/mortality?

Back 235

- asymptomatic cows shed the virus, especially round parturition
- almost 100% prevalence of antibodies
- moderate (10-15%) morbidity and moderate (5-10%) mortality

Front 236

what is the age of calves affected by coronaviral diarrhea?

Back 236

5 - 30 days old

Front 237

what is the major clinical sign of coronavirus in calves?

Back 237

diarrhea consisting of feces containing mucus, milk curds and ± BLOOD

Front 238

what type of diarrhea is caused by coronavirus in calves?

Back 238

malabsorptive

Front 239

what part of the GI tract does coronavirus affect in
- piglets?
- calves?

Back 239

- piglets: SI only
- calves: SI and large intestine

Front 240

how is coronavirus of calves definitively diagnosed?

Back 240

EM, FA of ILEUM AND COLON

Front 241

how is coronavirus of calves treated?

Back 241

fluid therapy

Front 242

what is the most common cause of hemorrhagic enteritis in food animals?

Back 242

Clostridium perfringens type C ("clostridial scours")

Front 243

what age pigs are affected by clostridial scours?

Back 243

1-14 days; 1-5 day old piglets most severely affected

Front 244

What predisposes a litter of piglets to clostridial scours that are otherwise managed with good husbandry?

Back 244

gilt litters, because gilts can confer less immunity to their litters

Front 245

what is the pathognomonic lesion for clostridial scours in neonatal piglets?

Back 245

subserosal and luminal bleeding in the SI, and occasionally the cecum and LI; also, intestinal emphysema

Front 246

describe the epidemiological curve of clostridial scours in swine

Back 246

sporadic

Front 247

during a swine clostridial scours outbreak, how is it treated?

Back 247

- give antitoxin orally to piglets; give oral and/or parenteral penicillin to piglets

Front 248

how are clostridial scours in swine prevented?

Back 248

give the Clostridium perfringens type C bacterin to dams prior to parturition. Clean the sows prior to farrowing

Front 249

how is clostridial scours in swine (Clostridium perfringens type C) diagnosed in swine?

Back 249

jejunal smear

Front 250

what three bacteria cause enterotoxemia in ruminants and the disease associated with them?

Back 250

1. Clostridium perfringens type C - hemorrhagic enteritis
2. C. perfringens type B - lamb dysentery
3. C. perfringens type D - overeating disease

Front 251

what are clinical signs of Clostridium perfringens type C infection in neonatal ruminants? (6)

Back 251

- diarrhea
- dysentery
- colic
- opisthotonus
- tetany
- may die before development of diarrhea

Front 252

how is enterotoxemia in ruminants prevented?

Back 252

vaccination

Front 253

how is enterotoxemia in ruminants treated?

Back 253

antiserum, penicillin, fluids

Front 254

what are pathological findings of Clostridium perfringens type C infection in neonatal ruminants?

Back 254

- hemorrhagic inflammation of the jejunum, ileum, and lymph nodes
- large numbers of Gram + rods in the intestine

Front 255

what type of enteric cells are attacked by
- rotavirus?
- coronavirus?

Back 255

- rotavirus: tips of the villi epithelium
- coronavirus: undifferentiated epithelial cells, fibroblasts and endothelial cells

note that intestinal crypt cells are spared

Front 256

what enteric disease commonly attacks ruminants that are the best doers and kills them acutely?

Back 256

Clostridium perfringens type D enterotoxemia; "pulpy kidney disease"; "overeating disease"

Front 257

what are clinical signs of Clostridium perfringens type D enterotoxemia in ruminants?

Back 257

- most common presentation is sudden death
- neurologic signs
- renal damage, hyperglycemia, hypertension, edema
- glucosuria in sheep, but not cattle

Front 258

what is the causative agent of Pulpy Kidney Disease?

Back 258

Clostridium perfringens type D

Front 259

what are gross path lesions of Clostridium perfringens type D enterotoxemia in ruminants?

Back 259

pleural and pericardial fluid with petechial hemorrhages on the serosal surface of intestine, diaphragm, endocardium, and pericardium, along with fibrin

Front 260

When do you vaccinate for Clostridium perfringens (enterotoxemia)
- in dams?
- cattle?
- calves?
- lambs?

Back 260

- dams prior to parturition
- cattle ≤ 2 years 1-2x per year
- calves at 8 to 12 weeks of age and upon entering feedlot
- lambs at 2 weeks prior to weaning and upon entering a feedlot

Front 261

One of a pair of lambs dies of pneumonia; the other sibling is healthy and has his mother's milk all to himself. One morning, farmer Rasputin comes out to find the lamb dead. The lamb seemed fine yesterday and has been happy and healthy. What could have killed this lamb in the gastroenterological area of diseases?

Back 261

Clostridium perfringens type D enterotoxemia; "pulpy kidney disease"; "overeating disease".

Front 262

what agent causes lamb dysentery?

Back 262

Clostridium perfringens type B

Front 263

what is a big difference between the shed oocysts of cryptosporidium and coccidia?

Back 263

crypto are infectious immediately after shedding; coccidia needs to complete part of its life cycle in the environment

Front 264

why might a carefully well-managed farm that has never had cryptosporidium problems before, suddenly have an outbreak?

Back 264

because the oocysts are hardy and build up in the environment. Since oocyst dose correlates with clinical signs, asymptomatic carriers may be gradually adding to the oocyst burden on the land until the critical concentration has built up

Front 265

cryptosporidiosis:
- age of calves
- clinical signs
- histopath lesions

Back 265

- calves 1-3 weeks
- tenesmus, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, and depression; 2ndary infections can complicate
- lesions: in the distal SI, find organisms attached to the brush borders of the villi

Front 266

what are two ways that cryptosporidiosis diagnosed?

Back 266

1. fecal flotation
2. see organisms in the SI brush border

Front 267

what are two ways that cryptosporidiosis prevented?

Back 267

1. sanitation (bleach)
2. move calves away from outbreak areas

Front 268

what are three ways that cryptosporidiosis treated?

Back 268

1. fluids
2. vitamin A supplementation
3. supportive care

Front 269

what neonatal disease of calves is zoonotic?

Back 269

cryptosporidium

Front 270

how can coccidia in cattle lead to pneumonia?

Back 270

coccidiosis → diarrhea → stress → pneumonia

Front 271

what predisposes a ruminant to coccidiosis?

Back 271

crowded, unsanitary conditions and during periods of stress (movement to feedlot, weaning, through sale barn)

Front 272

where on the property usually contains the highest concentration of coccidia oocysts?

Back 272

near watering areas or other marshy areas that cattle frequently visit

Front 273

what is the youngest that a ruminant can be to show patent coccidiosis?

Back 273

3-4 weeks and older

Front 274

describe the characteristics of the diarrhea in calves, lambs, and kids with coccidiosis.

Back 274

- may have mucus and strands of mucosa ± blood
- usually no blood in lambs and kids

Front 275

besides diarrhea, what are other clinical signs of coccidiosis in ruminants?

Back 275

- dehydration
- emaciation
- weak and listless
- rough hair-coats
- tenesmus → rectal prolapse

Front 276

what is the primary determinant of how severe coccidial diarrhea will be in ruminants?

Back 276

the number of oocysts ingested

Front 277

what classification of diarrhea is caused by coccidiosis?

Back 277

malabsorptive, due to destruction of enterocytes

Front 278

how is coccidiosis diagnosed in ruminants? (3)

Back 278

- fecal. MAY BE POSITIVE OR NEGATIVE
- necropsy: lesions in LI for cattle, SI for sheep and goats
- histopath: visualization of organism

Front 279

where does coccidiosis cause lesions in:
- goats?
- sheep?
- cattle?

Back 279

- goats: SI
- sheep: SI
- cattle: LI (and SI)

Front 280

what are two drugs used to treat coccidiosis in ruminants?

Back 280

1. amprolium
2. sulfaquinoxaline

Front 281

what are some non-pharmaceutical techniques for preventing coccidiosis?

Back 281

- avoid wet environments, such as areas around water toughs and ponds
- sanitation

Front 282

what are four feed additives used to prevent coccidiosis?

Back 282

1. amprolium
2. decoquinate
3. monensin
4. lasalocid

Front 283

when does coccidiosis in lambs and kids most commonly occur?

Back 283

weaning

Front 284

why do sheep and goats usually not have bloody diarrhea with coccidiosis, whereas it is more common in cattle?

Back 284

because in goats and sheep, infection is in SI, whereas infection is in both the SI and LI of cattle.

Front 285

at what age is coccidiosis in pigs usually seen?

Back 285

7-11 days of age (range is 5 days to 3 weeks)

Front 286

describe the characteristics of the diarrhea in pigs with coccidiosis.

Back 286

yellow-tan to gray, pasty; becomes watery later on, leading to dehydration and unthriftiness

Front 287

in a kids and lambs with diarrhea, how do you rule out worms as the causative agent?

Back 287

kids and lambs don't usually get diarrhea with worms (DUH!)

Front 288

describe the epidemiological curve and economic importance of coccidiosis in pigs?

Back 288

sporadic, but economically important due to poor growth

Front 289

how do you treat coccidiosis in pigs?

Back 289

- increase the temperature of the nursery
- give electrolytes
- there is no accepted coccidiostat, in contrast to ruminants

Front 290

at what time of year does coccidiosis in swine most commonly occur?

Back 290

late summer and fall, due to a build-up of organisms

Front 291

how is coccidiosis in swine prevented?

Back 291

hygiene, disinfection (bleach or ammonia), all-in/all-out

Front 292

what is the causative agent for swine dysentery?

Back 292

Brachyspira (Serpulina, Treponema) hyodysenteriae

Front 293

you necropsy some nursery pigs because they had mild diarrhea that caused reduced weight gains. What infectious agent would you suspect?

Back 293

rotavirus

Front 294

you are looking at some 10-day-old dairy calves that have diarrhea. The diarrhea is watery, but the calves appear bright and alert. What is your list of differentials?

Back 294

rotavirus, cryptosporidiosis

Front 295

what is the best means to control enterotoxemia in lambs less than 7 days of age?

Back 295

vaccinate the dam, pre-partum, with Clostridium perfringens types C&D bacterin.

Front 296

some grower/finisher pigs have severe bloody diarrhea, what are 4 differentials?

Back 296

1. Salmonella choleraesuis
2. Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)
3. Whipworms (Trichuris suis)
4. African Swine Fever (afsavirus)

Front 297

what is the causative agent for Bloody Scours/Black Scours in pigs?

Back 297

Brachyspira (Serpulina, Treponema) hyodysenteriae (aka Swine Dysentery)

Front 298

Swine dysentery shedding of Brachyspira bacteria: how long does it occur in
- carrier pigs?
- vectors and non-swine reservoir hosts?

Back 298

- carrier pigs: 90 days
- others: 30 days

Front 299

what non-swine reservoir hosts and vectors carry Brachyspira hyodysenteriae (Swine Dysentery)

Back 299

birds, rodents, dogs, and flies

Front 300

what are 3 common ways in which swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae) is brought into a herd of swine?

Back 300

1. fomites such as trucks and dirty boots, clothing
2. carrier pigs
3. reservoir hosts such as birds (droppings) and dogs

Front 301

how long can Brachyspira hyodysenteriae live in lagoon water? Why is this important?

Back 301

- 2 months
- because reusing lagoon water to clean the floors may spread the disease and continue the outbreak

Front 302

describe the gross pathological lesions caused by swine dysentery

Back 302

- confined to the large intestine, cecum, and spiral colon
- mucofibrinous enteritis
- multi-focal areas of petechial to paint brush hemorrhages on the mucosal surfaces

Front 303

what age group is most commonly affected by swine dysentery?

Back 303

post-nursery age groups (growers and finishers)

Front 304

why are grower/finisher pigs with swine dysentery chronic poor-doers?

Back 304

mucofibrinous enteritis reduces capacity for absorption

Front 305

what type of diarrhea is caused by swine dysentery?

Back 305

malabsorptive, due to destruction of enterocytes

Front 306

how is swine dysentery diagnosed?

Back 306

gross path and culture

Front 307

how is swine dysentery prevented?

Back 307

vaccinate, hygiene, and biosecurity (note, reportable in some states)

Front 308

what is the usual cause of a Salmonella outbreak on a pig farm?

Back 308

stress

Front 309

Why are Salmonella outbreaks in pig farms usually associated with stress?

Back 309

Because Salmonella choleraesuis is host-adapted and an outbreak is triggered by stress.

Front 310

what is the morbidity and mortality of Salmonellosis in pig farms?

Back 310

both high

Front 311

what are two sources of Salmonella in pig farms?

Back 311

1. carrier animals
2. feedstuffs (high-protein supplements such as non-ruminant blood meal and Ca:P bone meal)

Front 312

describe the diarrhea associated with salmonellosis in pigs

Back 312

watery, yellow diarrhea, often with necrotic debris, and may be BLOODY

Front 313

what are clinical signs of salmonellosis in pigs?

Back 313

- diarrhea ± bloody
- febrile, anorectic due to septicemia
- may see pneumonia
- POOR GROWTH
- ± rectal strictures

Front 314

what type of diarrhea is caused by salmonellosis in swine?

Back 314

- malabsorptive from intestinal damage
- secretory due to inflammatory products

Front 315

how is swine salmonellosis diagnosed
- via culture?
- via necropsy?

Back 315

- culture guts, lymph nodes, and gall bladder
- necropsy: inflamed and thickened ileum and colon with fibrinous adhesions, mucosal hemorrhages, and button ulcers; lymphadenitis

Front 316

what are the gross pathological lesions associated with salmonellosis in swine?

Back 316

inflamed and thickened ileum and colon (SMALL AND LARGE INTESTINE) with fibrinous adhesions, mucosal hemorrhages, and button ulcers; lymphadenitis

Front 317

how is salmonellosis in swine treated?

Back 317

antibiotics and supportive care

Front 318

how is salmonellosis in swine prevented?

Back 318

- closed herds
- live, avirulent live culture vaccine of S. choleraesuis intranasally or in water

Front 319

what Salmonella serovars cause salmonellosis in swine?

Back 319

1. S. choleraesuis
2. S. typhimurium

Front 320

what age pigs are most commonly affected by salmonellosis?

Back 320

nursery and grower

Front 321

which Salmonella serovar is host-adapted in cattle?

Back 321

S. dublin

Front 322

how is salmonella acquired in cattle?

Back 322

- environment due to hardiness of bacteria
- manure from rodents, birds, and infected cattle
- S. dublin recrudescence and shed in milk
- contaminated feed and in water through runoff

Front 323

what type of diarrhea is caused by salmonellosis in cattle?

Back 323

- malabsorptive from intestinal damage
- secretory due to prostaglandin from enterotoxins

Front 324

what is the typical age of a salmonella outbreak in a herd of cattle?

Back 324

10 days - 3 months, but all ages can be affected

Front 325

what are clinical signs of salmonellosis in cattle?

Back 325

- enteritis (diarrhea)
- fever
- inappetence
- depression
- dehydration

Front 326

describe the diarrhea associated with salmonellosis in cattle

Back 326

initially it is watery, but as the disease progresses, may contain shreds of mucosa, fibrin casts, or FRNAK BLOOD. Putrid, foul odor.

Front 327

what circumstances lead to disease in cattle caused by Salmonella dublin.

Back 327

usually from stress of calving, which leads to immunosuppression

Front 328

why would a cow with salmonellosis abort?

Back 328

systemic infection

Front 329

what are four gross pathological lesions of salmonellosis in cattle?

Back 329

1. FIBRIN TAGS on the intestines along with excessive peritoneal fluid
2. mesenteric lymph nodes often large and hemorrhagic
3. bowel contents may contain mucus, blood, fibrin tags, and fluid feces
4. fibrin and mucosal casts are often found in both the SI and LI

Front 330

a cow presents with a retained placenta and has dropped 100-150 pounds in the past few days. What is high on the DDx list?

Back 330

salmonellosis

Front 331

if you suspect salmonellosis in cattle, what tissues should be cultured?

Back 331

feces, lymph nodes, bile, and portions of affected GI tract

Front 332

how is salmonellosis in cattle treated?

Back 332

- fluids (oral and/or IV)
- parenteral Ceftiofur, TMS (or a/b based on C/S testing)
- NSAIDs: Banamine

Front 333

how is salmonellosis in cattle prevented?

Back 333

- clean the environment
- proper nutrition
- reduce stress
- ± vaccine

Front 334

What causes porcine proliferative enteritis?

Back 334

Lawsonia intracellularis

Front 335

what age pigs are most commonly affected by proliferative enteritis (Lawsonia intracellularis)?

Back 335

grower and finishing pigs (6-20 weeks)

Front 336

what are the clinical signs associated with proliferative enteritis in pigs?

Back 336

- watery to mucoid hemorrhagic diarrhea
- POOR GROWTH, chronic wasting
- sudden death with intestinal hemorrhage in breeding age animals

Front 337

what are the gross pathological lesions associated with proliferative enteritis (Lawsonia intracellularis) in swine?

Back 337

- "garden hose gut" - proliferative thickening of the SI, LI, ileum, cecum, and upper spiral colon
- the proliferation is caused by granulation tissue (i.e., intracellular bacterial infection)

Front 338

how is swine proliferative enteritis diagnosed in the lab?

Back 338

PCR or immunofluorescence

Front 339

what are two DDx for grower/finisher age swine with poor growth and watery-to-mucoid, hemorrhagic diarrhea, and chronic wasting?

Back 339

- proliferative enteritis (Lawsonia intracellularis)
- swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)

Front 340

how is porcine proliferative enteritis treated and prevented?

Back 340

- a/b in feed
- vaccine

Front 341

a pig presents with bloody, tarry feces, grinding teeth, and the farmer notices the pig will eat one day and the next day or two, will not eat. Today, he vomited up dark stuff that looks like coffee grounds. What is high on the DDx list?

Back 341

gastric ulcers

Front 342

what is the main causative agent of gastric ulcers in swine?

Back 342

stress

Front 343

what are four dietary factors that can cause ulcers in swine?

Back 343

1. finely ground grain
2. Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency
3. copper toxicity
4. irregular feedings (i.e., pig expects meal at certain time of day, produces stomach acid, but does not get food → ulcerated mucosa)

Front 344

where in the stomach do gastric ulcers usually occur in swine?

Back 344

in the pars esophageal part of the stomach

Front 345

what are five ways to treat gastric ulcers in swine?

Back 345

1. aluminum hydroxides and magnesium silicate
2. reduce stress
3. Tagamet
4. oats/alfalfa hay
5. Omeprazole

Front 346

what are three ways to prevent gastric ulcers in swine?

Back 346

1. adequate Vitamin E and Se
2. reduce stress
3. consistent feeding intervals and increase coarseness of feed

Front 347

what are the two biotypes of BVDV?

Back 347

cytopathic and non-cytopathic

Front 348

BVD: which biotype can
- cause clinical disease in young or older cattle?
- cause abortion or fetal malformations?
- cause a PI calf?
- cause the mucosal form of the disease?

Back 348

- either
- either
- only non-cytopathic can cause persistently infected calves
- both types are required in a PI animal to cause the mucosal form

Front 349

which BVD biotype is most common?

Back 349

non-cytopathic

Front 350

how is BVDV shed?

Back 350

by infected animals in virtually all secretions, excretions, aborted fetuses, and uterine fluids

Front 351

what are the 5 syndromes of BVD?

Back 351

1. subclinical infection - most common
2. classic or acute BVD - associated with stress and ↑ exposure
3. infection of naïve pregnant cattle - infertility, abortion/resorption/repeat breeder, PI calves
4. mucosal disease - PI calves with both biotypes
5. BVD Type II - viral septicemia, pulmonary hemorrhage, edema

Front 352

what are clinical signs of Subclinical BVD (the most common form)? How long does the disease last?

Back 352

- anorexia, fever, serous nasal discharge, leukopenia (like the "common cold")
- recover in 10 days unless complicated infection

Front 353

what is the most common cause of the classic/acute form of BVD?

Back 353

in a feedlot situation, due to increased stress and exposure

Front 354

what are the two primary target organ systems of the classic/acute form of BVD?

Back 354

1. GI - acute gastroenteritis
2. respiratory - pneumonia

Front 355

what are four clinical signs related to the acute gastroenteritis caused the by the classic/acute form of BVD?

Back 355

1. watery diarrhea ± blood
2. fever (104 - 106 °F)
3. no rumen motility and splashy gut sounds
4. oral mucosal lesions with BLUNTING OF THE ORAL PAPILLAE

Front 356

how long does it typically take feedlot cattle, with uncomplicated classic/acute BVD, to recover from the infection?

Back 356

10 days

Front 357

what are 6 fetal anomalies associated with BVD infection of a naïve cow/heifer?

Back 357

1. cerebellar hypoplasia
2. dysmyelinogenesis
3. lenticular cataracts
4. microphthalmia
5. hydranencephaly
6. hydrocephalus

Front 358

at what days of pregnancy will infection of an immuno-naïve cow/heifer with BVD result in a PI calf?

Back 358

80-120 days

Front 359

calves PI with BVD:
- appearance
- typical CBC
- how often do they shed virus?
- serological testing
- mortality and survival rate

Back 359

- they can be stunted, poor-doers or can look normal
- leukopenic
- they are constantly viremic and shed virus
- they will be negative on serological testing
- 50% die before 2 years; 10% live to breeding age

Front 360

what happens if an immuno-naïve cow/heifer is infected with BVD after 150 days of gestation?

Back 360

- fetus dies and is aborted
- or survives and is seropositive at birth

Front 361

Mucosal form of BVD
- who gets this disease?
- at what age does it typically occur?
- what is required for infection to occur?

Back 361

- only persistently infected, immuno-tolerant animals can get this disease
- occurs between 6-18 months of age due to decline of maternal antibody
- PI calf must encounter a cytopathic virus and seroconvert for this to happen (naturally, mutation, MLV vaccine)

Front 362

what are three ways in which a PI calf, which is by definition, infected with the non-cytopathic form of BVD, encounter the cytopathic form that leads to mucosal disease?

Back 362

1. naturally
2. mutation of virus (most common)
3. MLV vaccine

Front 363

what are the symptoms of the mucosal form of BVD? (6)

Back 363

- diarrhea and extensive oral lesions
- mucopurulent ocular-nasal discharge
- nasal mucosa crusty with a thick layer of dry, purulent discharge
- lameness - coronitis and interdigital ulcers
- non-responsive to antibiotics
- death

Front 364

What are clinical signs of Type II BVD? (5)

Back 364

1. very high fever of 106-107 °F
2. anorexia, ↓milk production
3. respiratory distress
4. death in 48 hours
5. ±diarrhea

Front 365

Type II BVD
- mucosal lesions (compared to Type I)
- which age group has highest mortality rate?

Back 365

- no mucosal lesions
- calves > adults

Front 366

what are three gross pathological lesions of BVD?

Back 366

- blunted oral papillae
- ulcerations in the esophagus
- necrosis of the Peyer's patches

Front 367

what causes diarrhea in cattle with BVD?

Back 367

necrosis of Peyer's patches

Front 368

what are four diagnostic methods used for BVD?

Back 368

- serology
- VI from serum, WBC, and secretions
- IHC from ear notch test
- IFA

Front 369

how is BVD treated?

Back 369

- supportive: prophylactic a/b and NSAIDs
- mucosal disease: euthanasia

Front 370

what are 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of killed BVD vaccine

Back 370

- advantages: safe for all groups of cattle; may provide antigenic diversity
- disadvantages: expensive; need yearly boosters (2 shots initially)

Front 371

what are 3 advantages and 2 disadvantages of the MLV BVD vaccine?

Back 371

- advantages: inexpensive, quick vaccine response, long-lasting immunity
- disadvantages: immunosuppression, can't give to pregnant cows

Front 372

what causes vaccine complications in a killed BVD vaccine? What are two complications?

Back 372

- caused when the vaccine is contaminated with non-attenuated viruses
1. can cause disease in pregnant animals and nursing calves
2. can cause PI calves to seroconvert, causing mucosal disease

Front 373

what agent causes winter dysentery in cattle?

Back 373

coronavirus

Front 374

what age group of cattle is affected by winter dysentery?

Back 374

adults

Front 375

winter dysentery in cattle:
- clinical signs
- course
- treatment

Back 375

- explosive light tan/brown diarrhea ± blood; ADR; ↓ milk, AFEBRILE
- rapid onset; course of about 2 weeks
- supportive, oral fluids, kaolin

Front 376

what agent causes Jones disease?

Back 376

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

Front 377

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis, the causative agent of Johne's disease:
- staining
- culture characteristics
- intra- or extracellular?

Back 377

- acid fast
- grows very slowly in culture medium
- intracellular organism (→ granulomatous inflammation)

Front 378

what is the typical age range for clinical Johne's disease
- in cattle?
- in small ruminants?

Back 378

- cattle: 2-5 years old (reported 4 months - 15 years)
- small ruminants: 1 year or older

Front 379

when are cattle infected with Johne's disease?

Back 379

calves < 3-4 months old

Front 380

what are four ways that Johne's disease can be transmitted to calves?

Back 380

1. fecal-oral
2. in utero
3. colostrum/milk from stressed dam
4. contaminated water such as ponds

Front 381

what are the clinical signs of Johne's disease in cattle

Back 381

- chronic weight loss despite a healthy appetite
- intermittent to persistent diarrhea
- ± fever
- advanced cases: debilitation, dehydration, weakness, ventral edema, anemia, death.

Front 382

what is the duration of Johne's disease?

Back 382

2 weeks to 3-6 months

Front 383

why does Johne's disease occur more often in dairy cattle than in beef cattle?

Back 383

close contact and fecal material build-up of organism

Front 384

what causes a Johne's positive cow to start having diarrhea?

Back 384

stress: lactation, parturition, mastitis, 2ndary bacterial infection

Front 385

what plasma protein abnormality is common with Johne's disease?

Back 385

hyperproteinemia with hypoalbuminemia

Front 386

characterize the diarrhea associated with Johne's disease in cattle

Back 386

watery, not bloody

Front 387

what is a big difference in clinical presentation of Johne's disease of small ruminants versus cattle?

Back 387

small ruminants typically do not have diarrhea during the course of the disease; if they do, they are going to die soon.

Front 388

You are out at farmer Owarzczewski's farm and he's got a cow that freshened 3 weeks ago, never tightened up and has watery diarrhea all of the time. She has a very healthy appetite. What is at the top of your DDx list?

Back 388

Johne's disease

Front 389

what type of diarrhea is caused by Johne's disease?

Back 389

malabsorptive

Front 390

what pathophysiological process is the thing that kills ruminants with Johne's disease?

Back 390

protein losing enteropathy (from granulomatous enteritis) leading to hypoproteinemia and wasting

Front 391

what are the gross pathological lesions of Johne's disease?

Back 391

- intestines, especially ILEUM, are thickened, edematous, and corrugated
- lesions in small ruminants are not as distinct as in cattle
- granulomatous lymph nodes; caseated in small ruminants

Front 392

after infection with Mycobacterium paratuberculosis, when do ruminants begin shedding the organism?

Back 392

immediately

Front 393

what are 3 non-invasive tests used to diagnose Johne's disease?

Back 393

1. culture (takes 1-4 months)
2. AGID (45% sensitivity)
3. ELISA - most sensitive
- note: nothing is very accurate for subclinical animals
- sensitivity increases when animals are shedding large numbers of organisms during diarrhea

Front 394

what are 6 ways to prevent Johne's disease?

Back 394

1. cull daughters
2. pasteurize colostrum
3. pasture rest for manure contamination
4. ± vaccine in critical cases; requires approval from state vet because it will cause a positive TB test. Given at 35 days of age.
5. replacements from certified free herds
6. prevent run-off from adult herd into water sources

Front 395

how is Johne's disease definitively diagnosed?

Back 395

- isolation of M. paratuberculosis from gut, lymph node, or rectal scraping, followed by histopath

Front 396

what are two drugs to treat Johne's disease? How successful are they?

Back 396

- rifampin and isoniazid - extra-label
- relapse after treatment stops

Front 397

in the horse, the term used to describe the molars in the maxilla being abaxial to the mandibular teeth

Back 397

anisognathous

Front 398

what is the dental formula for equine deciduous teeth?

Back 398

dI3/3, dC0/0, dP3/3, dM0/0 = 24

Front 399

what is the dental formula for equine permanent teeth?

Back 399

I3/3, C1/1, P3(4)/3, M3/3 = 40-42

Front 400

the first permanent premolar of the horse is called what?

Back 400

wolf tooth

Front 401

how can the wolf tooth cause problems in the horse?

Back 401

bit interference

Front 402

what are "caps" on horses teeth?

Back 402

remnants of a deciduous tooth attached to a permanent tooth

Front 403

why are "caps" on horse's teeth problematic?

Back 403

they cause root impaction and deformation of the underlying bone ("jaw bumps")

Front 404

what are five primary clinical signs of oral cavity disease in the horse?

Back 404

1. fetid odor
2. reluctance to eat
3. abnormal eating behavior such as tilting head
4. head shaking
5. quidding

Front 405

what are five sequelae of oral cavity disease in the horse?

Back 405

1. weight loss
2. sinusitis
3. fetid odor from the nostril
4. choke
5. colic

Front 406

what are four types of oral speculums used in horses?

Back 406

1. McPherson - adjustable
2. graphite
3. coil/spring - use very quickly or with sedation
4. wedge - need sedation

Front 407

what are three abnormalities you may see on exam of a horse's oral cavity?

Back 407

1. defects such as cracks, holes, and missing teeth
2. feed accumulation
3. gingival recession or erosion

Front 408

what is a dental pick used for in a horse?

Back 408

to probe the centers of the teeth and to remove debris

Front 409

what tooth defects in the horse do you find with digital palpation?

Back 409

points and erosions

Front 410

what are four abnormalities related to dental problems in an oral radiograph of the horse?

Back 410

1. cracks in the teeth (DV most useful)
2. alveolar reaction (cavity)
3. fluid lines in the sinus
4. lysis of the lamina dura dentes

Front 411

what are "cascades" of horses teeth?

Back 411

malocclusion of the incisors, where the teeth form a wavy occlusal line instead of flat

Front 412

what is the term used when the premolars and molars of horses' teeth do not occlude in a straight line?

Back 412

wave mouth

Front 413

what is step mouth in the horse?

Back 413

when there is a missing tooth and overgrowth of the opposite tooth due to lack of an occlusal surface

Front 414

what is brachygnathia?

Back 414

seen in young horses (not long after birth) where the maxilla overgrows the mandible and the teeth don't occlude.

Front 415

how is brachygnathism in horses treated?

Back 415

there is no cure, but regular tooth care to prevent overgrowth; ± braces

Front 416

on which teeth does dental calculus accumulate most in the horse? What kind of diet is associated with calculus?

Back 416

- canines
- grain diet

Front 417

what is the usual cause of a diastema between horse teeth? Why is a diastema bad?

Back 417

- usually associated with a bad tooth fracture
- food can migrate down and cause infection

Front 418

caused by a congenital defect or a bad cavity, when the occlusal surface of a horse's tooth is open down too low, sometimes to the root cavity

Back 418

open infundibulum

Front 419

what is a dentigerous cyst in the horse?

Back 419

a tooth growing in the ear

Front 420

what are four diseases of the equine esophagus?

Back 420

1. choke
2. laceration
3. esophageal diverticulum (pulsion or traction)
4. stricture

Front 421

what forms the cranial sphincter of the equine esophagus?

Back 421

cricopharyngeus muscle

Front 422

what part of the equine esophagus is striated muscle?

Back 422

proximal 2/3rd

Front 423

what nerve and artery lies adjacent to the esophagus in the horse?

Back 423

carotid artery and vagus nerve

Front 424

what are 8 clinical signs of choke in the horse?

Back 424

1. feed in nasal discharge
2. salivation
3. retching/stretching of neck and head
4. coughing
5. enlargement in cervical esophagus
6. cellulitis or emphysema from rupture or laceration of esophagus
7. aspiration pneumonia
8. dehydration

Front 425

how would choke show up on a lateral radiograph of the horse's neck?

Back 425

an enlarged cervical esophagus with a food bolus or foreign body

Front 426

what are four typical locations of choke in the horse?

Back 426

1. post-pharyngeal
2. thoracic inlet
3. heart base
4. cardia of the stomach

Front 427

what is the best way to pinpoint the location of choke in the horse radiographically?

Back 427

barium contrast agent

Front 428

what are the clin path results of choke in the horse? (CBC, chem)

Back 428

- CBC: dehydration
- metabolic alkalosis, ↓K, ↓Na, ↓Cl

Front 429

what are some general methods to treat choke in the horse?

Back 429

1. withhold food and water (immediately) and wait and see ± sedation
2. endoscopy
3. pass a stomach tube

Front 430

what drugs are used to treat choke in the horse?

Back 430

- tranquilization: acepromazine
- sedation: xylazine or detomidine
- muscle relaxant: lidocaine or N-butylscopolammonium chloride (Buscopan)
- muscle stimulant: Oxytocin

Front 431

how is a refractory case of choke treated in the horse?

Back 431

- general anesthesia with intubation
- lower head to allow drainage
- continuous lavage
- loop instrument, hand, or esophagostomy to remove object

Front 432

what are five complications of choke in the horse?

Back 432

1. dehydration
2. electrolyte imbalance
3. inhalation pneumonia
4. stricture
5. diverticulum

Front 433

what is a pulsion esophageal diverticulum?

Back 433

food mass or object pushes though the muscle layer, leaving a defect in the muscle with a bulging mucosa

Front 434

what is a traction esophageal diverticulum?

Back 434

contracting mucosa, muscle, or adventitia pulls the esophageal wall, creating an open area that can't contract

Front 435

what are 9 behavioral signs of colic in the horse?

Back 435

1. depression
2. frequent recumbency
3. head turned back toward the flank
4. Flehmen behavior with the lips
5. pawing at the abdomen or ground
6. sitting like a dog
7. head-butting flank
8. stretching
9. uncontrollable pain (horse is freaking out)

Front 436

if a horse has missing skin on its face and looks depressed, what may be happening

Back 436

the horse was thrashing from colic. Now it is in shock or acidotic

Front 437

what is the incidence rate for colic in horses?

Back 437

4.2 per 100 horse-years

Front 438

what time of year do horses colic the most?

Back 438

spring

Front 439

what is the case fatality fate for colic in horses?

Back 439

7-11%

Front 440

what are the two leading causes of death in the horse?

Back 440

1. old age
2. colic

Front 441

since colic in horses is sporadic, how is a risk factor defined for a particular factor?

Back 441

the odds ratio that the incidence of colic will increase in a group of horses exposed to that factor

Front 442

what is the most common cause of colic in horses that are
- weanlings?
- neonates?
- > 12 years old?
- stallions?

Back 442

- weanlings: ileocecal intussusception
- neonatal foals: meconium impaction
- > 12 years: lipoma
- stallions: inguinal hernia

Front 443

what horse breeds are predisposed to inguinal hernias?

Back 443

standardbred, saddlebred, warmblood

Front 444

what are 6 environmental/management risk factors for colic in horses?

Back 444

1. lack of water/dehydration
2. abrupt decrease in activity
3. electrolyte imbalance
4. medications - NSAIDs
5. sand or gravel exposure (pica)
6. poor dentition

Front 445

what are four parasites that can cause colic in horses?

Back 445

1. large strongyles
2. small strongyles
3. tapeworms
4. ascarids

Front 446

ascarid obstruction in horses
- age groups
- where is the obstruction?
- when does it occur?

Back 446

- foals and weanlings
- small intestine
- occurs after administration of anthelmintic

Front 447

what two types of lesions do tapeworms cause in horses, that may make them colic?

Back 447

1. ileocecal intussusception
2. cecocecal intussusception

Front 448

what is the leading risk factor for colic in horses?

Back 448

hay change

Front 449

what are the top six risk factors for colic in horses?

Back 449

1. HAY CHANGE
2. diet change
3. previous colic
4. weather change
5. housing change
6. anthelmintic

Front 450

what is the leading dietary risk factor that leads to colic in horses?

Back 450

too much concentrate/grain/oats/bran in the feed (i.e., too many CHOs)

Front 451

what are five risk factors for colon obstruction/distention in the horse?

Back 451

1. cribbing or wind sucking
2. increasing hours stabled
3. recent change in regular exercise
4. anthelmintic not given in past 12 months
5. history of travel in past 24 hours

Front 452

what are three things that aerophagia can cause in the horse (colic)

Back 452

1. SI incarceration in the epiploic foramen
2. large colon simple obstruction
3. gastric ulcers

Front 453

what are five things that cause enteroliths in horses?

Back 453

1. alfalfa hay
2. high mineral content of ingesta
3. alkaline ingesta
4. aquaporin genetic defect
5. foreign body

Front 454

what are three risk factors for large colon impaction in horses?

Back 454

1. confinement (stall/hospital)
2. anthelmintic administration
3. long distance shipping