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76 Cards in this Set

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11-1. What is the range of the Fahrenheit thermometer between the freezing point and the boiling point? 1. 180° 2. 190° 3. 200° 4. 210°
1. 180°
11-2. The sum of sensible heat plus latent heat is the definition of what term? 1. Specific heat 2. Total heat 3. Cumulative heat 4. Super heat
2. Total heat
11-3. What principle is the transfer of heat by means of mediums such as water, air, and steam? 1. Conduction 2. Radiation 3. Convection 4. Immersion
3. Convection
11-4. What principle is the transfer of heat through space? 1. Immersion 2. Conduction 3. Convection 4. Radiation
4. Radiation
11-5. What fuels are most commonly used with heating equipment? 1. Gas and petroleum 2. Coal and gas 3. Wood and petroleum 4. Steam and gas
1. Gas and petroleum
11-6. What is the major element present in natural gas? 1. Ethane 2. Methane 3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon dioxide
2. Methane
11-7. Butane and propane are part of what group of liquefied gases? 1. Natural 2. Manufactured 3. Liquefied petroleum 4. Chemically altered
3. Liquefied petroleum
11-8. How many types of unit heaters are currently utilized in the Seabee community? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
3) 3
11-9. Unit heaters rated for less than 50,000 BTUs per hour are designated to operate on what systems? 1. Low pressure steam 2. Low temperature hot water 3. High temperature steam 4. Fuel oil burning
1. Low pressure steam
11-10. One kilowatt is equal to how many BTUs per hour? 1) 3355 2) 3415 3) 3560 4) 3745
2) 3415
11-11. Why is the vented gas heater more satisfactory than the unvented type? 1. Less expensive installation 2. Less preventive maintenance required 3. Less danger of carbon monoxide poisoning 4. Less accumulation of back soot
3. Less danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
11-12. The burning of 1,000 cubic feet of natural gas will produce approximately how many gallons of water? 1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
4) 12
11-13. What grade of fuel oil is required in oil-fired space heaters? 1. Light 2. Medium 3. Heavy 4. Super heavy
1. Light
11-14. A perforated sleeve burner with its circular fuel vaporizing grooves burns what color flame? 1. Cherry red 2. Blue 3. Orange 4. Red
2. Blue
11-15. What controls the flow of oil in the pot type and perforated sleeve burners? 1. Primary control unit 2. Fuel allocation diffuser 3. Float-operated metering valve 4. Restrictor orifices
3. Float-operated metering valve
11-16. A chimney top is required to be how many feet above the highest point of a building? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 6
2) 3
11-17. What type of piping or tubing is used in oil supply systems to the burners? 1. Copper 2. Brass 3. Cast iron 4. Steel
1. Copper
11-18. Warm-air systems are identified as what types? 1. Forced-air and high temperature 2. Gravity and forced-air 3. Oil fed and gas fed 4. Vented and unvented
2. Gravity and forced-air
11-19.What part does the plenum join up with in a furnace? 1. Draft diverter 2. Exhaust piping 3. Main trunk duct 4. Intake valve manifold
3. Main trunk duct
11-20. What is the result of improperly placed supply diffusers? 1. Hot floors 2. Excessive condensation 3. Improper air intake 4. Air stratification
4. Air stratification
11-21. (True or False) In an individual duct system, each duct is connected directly to the furnace plenum.
1. True
11-22. What is a register temperature range of a forced warm-air system? 1. 110° to 140° 2. 150° to 180° 3. 180° to 210° 4. 220° to 240°
2. 150° to 180°
11-23. What is the most commonly used airflow design associated with a gas- fired furnace? 1. Horizontal 2. Vertical 3. Upflow highboy 4. Lowboy
3. Upflow highboy
11-24. Duct furnaces are mounted in a duct system where air circulation is provided by what? 1. Furnace blower 2. Internal fan 3. Atmosphere 4. External fan
4. External fan
11-25. Along with the return-air compartment and warm-air compartment, what other compartment comprises the gas-fired furnace? 1. Combustion air and fuel 2. Supply-air 3. Hot-air 4. Combustion and return
1. Combustion air and fuel
11-26. What type of blower is installed in a gas-fired furnace? 1. Rotary 2. Centrifugal 3. Jet 4. Displacement
2. Centrifugal
11-27. Which piece of equipment is NOT part of the gas burner control? 1. Gas pressure regulator 2. Humidifier 3. Manual gas cock 4. Heat exchanger
2. Humidifier
11-28. What piece of equipment maintains the desired pressure in the burner as long as the gas main pressure is above the desired pressure? 1. Diaphragm valve 2. Thermocouple control relay 3. Solenoid gas valve 4. Gas pressure regulator
4. Gas pressure regulator
11-29. What position does the solenoid gas valve revert to upon a current failure? 1. Open 2. Shut 3. As is 4. Bypass
2. Shut
11-30. How does the design of a recycling solenoid gas valve differ from a standard solenoid gas valve? 1. Standard solenoid valves only ports a set fuel amount. 2. Allows the valve to switch to manual operation during a power failure. 3. Recycling solenoid gas valve maintains system pressure. 4. Allows for quieter operation.
2. Allows the valve to switch to manual operation during a power failure.
11-31. What device is used to produce the electrical current used to operate gas valves? 1. Thermoresistors 2. Pilot light 3. Thermopiles 4. Diaphragm valve
3. Thermopiles
11-32. What device shuts off the gas supply when the temperature inside the heating unit becomes excessive? 1. Recycling solenoid gas valve 2. Heat exchanger 3. Thermocouple control relay 4. Limit control
4. Limit control
11-33. What device is used to reduce updrafts that are detrimental to pilot or burner operation? 1. Diverter 2. Limit control 3. Thermopiles 4. Diaphragm valves
1. Diverter
11-34. What is the voltage produced by the step-up transformer used in a gas fired furnace? 1) 5000 2) 10000 3) 15000 4) 20000
2) 10000
11-35. What piece of equipment runs the fuel unit of a gas-fired furnace? 1. Ignition electrodes 2. Horizontal rotary unit 3. Blower motor shaft 4. High pressure gun relay
3. Blower motor shaft
11-36. Which grade of fuel oil is used in a gas-fired furnace? 1. Low 2. Medium 3. High 4. Super high
3. High
11-37. What device closes the ignition circuits when the thermostat calls for more heat? 1. Primary control 2. Bimetallic strip 3. Limit control 4. Temperature-responsive relay
1. Primary control
11-38. (True or False) The limit control is a device that responds to changes in steam pressure in a steam-heating system.
1. True
11-39. What type of element is used in a vapor-tension device? 1. High pressure steam 2. Water temperature 3. Highly volatile liquid 4. Low discharge current
3. Highly volatile liquid
11-40. Other than the snap-action electrical switch, which other electrical switch is often utilized? 1. Current seeking 2. Float 3. Transducer 4. Mercury
4. Mercury
11-41. What is the nerve center of the heating-control system? 1. Thermostat 2. Primary control 3. Gas regulator valve 4. Step-up transformer
1. Thermostat
11-42. How far up on the wall should a thermostat be placed, in feet? 1) 3 1/2 2) 4 1/2 3) 5 1/2 4) 6 1/2
2) 4 1/2
11-43. (True or False) Gas-fired and oil-fired forced-air units, which have the blower below the heating element or combustion chamber, should be set on masonry at least 4 inches thick.
2. False
11-44. What is the clearance requirement, in feet, of a furnace from wood or other combustible material? 1) 12 2) 14 3) 16 4) 18
4) 18
11-45. One inch of free-air area is required for how many BTUs per hour of furnace input rating? 1) 1000 2) 2000 3) 3000 4) 4000
1) 1000
11-46. What type of material and diameter piping or tubing are required from the oil tank or valve to the burner? 1. Copper, 1/4 inch 2. Copper, 1/2 inch 3. Cast iron, 1/4 inch 4. Cast iron, 1/2 inch
2. Copper, 1/2 inch
11-47. What size is recommended for all vent lines used in furnace installations? 1. 1 inch 2. 1 1/4 inch 3. 1 1/2 inch 4. 1 3/4 inch
3. 1 1/2 inch
11-48. Why are kerosene, diesel oils, and commercial oils of Grades Nos. 1 and 2 suitable for furnace usage? 1. They are easy to transport via aircraft. 2. They are easier to store than higher grades. 3. Their procurement costs are low. 4. They vaporize at relatively low temperatures.
4. They vaporize at relatively low temperatures.
11-49. (True or False) Burners using air as the atomizing medium are designed for three air pressure ranges.
1. True
11-50. At what speed, in rpm, does a cylindrical cup use in a horizontal rotary-cup burner rotate? 1) 3300 2) 3450 3) 3575 4) 3700
2) 3450
11-51. What is used to remove the air from a burner prior to starting? 1. Regulator 2. Ventilator 3. Petcock 4. Bypass
3. Petcock
11-52. Which is NOT a cause for a flame that is raw and stingy in a oil burner? 1. Partly clogged nozzle 2. Air in the pump 3. Too large an opening in air adjustment 4. Improper draft
4. Improper draft
11-53. After the burner flame and draft are properly adjusted, a flue-gas analysis should show a CO2 content of approximately what percent? 1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 13
1) 10
11-54. If the furnace is large enough and the burner has been set for correct oil flow and minimum amount of air, stack temperature should not exceed how many degrees? 1) 550 2) 600 3) 650 4) 675
2) 600
11-55. The stack thermometer is used to determine the temperature of gases in what piece of equipment? 1. Combustion chamber 2. Furnace outlet 3. Smoke pipe 4. Draft regulator
3. Smoke pipe
11-56. What is a possible problem in an oil pump, if you have no oil flow at the nozzle? 1. Blown seal 2. Air leak in intake line 3. Loose plugs or fittings 4. Bad coupling alignment
2. Air leak in intake line
11-57. What is the disadvantage of using cast iron hot-water heating boilers? 1. Sections cracking 2. Low heat retention 3. Delayed start-up time 4. Scarcity of repair parts
1. Sections cracking
11-58. How many inches above a finished floor should a low-temperature hot water boiler be? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
2) 2
11-59. Where is the pressure-relief valve located on a boiler used in a low- temperature hot water system? 1. Bottom of boiler 2. Right side of vent valve 3. Top of boiler 4. Left side of vent valve
3. Top of boiler
11-60. What is another name for the airflow switch used in a low-temperature hot water system? 1. Control valve 2. Extender 3. Draft 4. Sail
4. Sail
11-61. (True or False) A one-pipe, open-tank gravity distribution system consists of a single pipe that carries hot water to all of the radiators and then returns it back to the boiler.
1. True
11-62. The amount of temperature drop between the beginning and the end of the line 1. Ambient air pressure 2. Heating load 3. Boiler start-up temperature 4. Temperature stabilization
2. Heating load
11-63. The relief valve located in a closed pneumatic compression system is set to lift at what water pressure level, in psi? 1) 15 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30
4) 30
11-64. In the heating of larger installations where more than one building is involved, what type of circulation method is used? 1. Free flow 2. Closed 3. Open 4. Forced
4. Forced
11-65. Mains and branches are pitched so air in the system is discharged through which device? 1. Radiator 2. Surge tank 3. Pressure regulator 4. Diverter
1. Radiator
11-66. How many radiator types are you concerned with as a UT? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
2) 2
11-67. (True or False) Circulating pumps used in low-temperature hot water distribution systems ensure the positive flow of water regardless of the height of the system or the rise in water temperature.
2. False
11-68. Where is the reducing valve installed on the boiler? 1. At the outlet port 2. Inside the combustion chamber 3. Below the pressure regulating valve 4. At the same level as top of boiler
4. At the same level as top of boiler
11-69. Which is a reason why radiators do not heat? 1. Not enough air in the system 2. Insufficient water in the system 3. Clogged fin-tubes 4. Closed radiator valve
2. Insufficient water in the system
11-70. What is the high temperature range for most military and federal heating plants? 1. 250°F to 350°F 2. 350°F to 450°F 3. 450°F to 550°F 4. 550°F to 650°F
2. 350°F to 450°F
11-71. Whose permission is needed to install an HTHW plant that operates above 400°F? 1. Base Commanding Officer 2. Crew Supervisor 3. Naval Facilities Engineering Command 4. Officer in Charge
3. Naval Facilities Engineering Command
11-72. What type of pump is used in an HTHW system? 1. Rotary 2. Jet 3. Submersible 4. Centrifugal
4. Centrifugal
11-73. Why is an expansion tank required in an HTHW system? 1. To allow for water expansion when heated. 2. To receive excess water run-off from boiler. 3. To allow for excessive condensation to drain. 4. To comply with NACENGCOM directives.
1. To allow for water expansion when heated.
11-74. What is the optimal pH range for an HTHW system? 1. 7.25 to 9.25 2. 9.3 to 9.9 3. 10.1 to 11.2 4. 12.3 to 15.6
2. 9.3 to 9.9
11-75. Upon completion of an installation of an HTHW system, the entire system is held under what pressure, in psi, for not less than 24 hours? 1) 300 2) 350 3) 400 4) 450
4) 450
11-76. Generator tubes utilized in HTHW systems are subjected to an ASME test pressure of what value, in psi? 1) 600 2) 700 3) 800 4) 900
4) 900