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76 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
11-1. What is the range of the Fahrenheit thermometer between the freezing point and the boiling point? 1. 180° 2. 190° 3. 200° 4. 210°
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1. 180°
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11-2. The sum of sensible heat plus latent heat is the definition of what term? 1. Specific heat 2. Total heat 3. Cumulative heat 4. Super heat
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2. Total heat
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11-3. What principle is the transfer of heat by means of mediums such as water, air, and steam? 1. Conduction 2. Radiation 3. Convection 4. Immersion
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3. Convection
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11-4. What principle is the transfer of heat through space? 1. Immersion 2. Conduction 3. Convection 4. Radiation
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4. Radiation
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11-5. What fuels are most commonly used with heating equipment? 1. Gas and petroleum 2. Coal and gas 3. Wood and petroleum 4. Steam and gas
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1. Gas and petroleum
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11-6. What is the major element present in natural gas? 1. Ethane 2. Methane 3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon dioxide
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2. Methane
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11-7. Butane and propane are part of what group of liquefied gases? 1. Natural 2. Manufactured 3. Liquefied petroleum 4. Chemically altered
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3. Liquefied petroleum
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11-8. How many types of unit heaters are currently utilized in the Seabee community? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
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3) 3
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11-9. Unit heaters rated for less than 50,000 BTUs per hour are designated to operate on what systems? 1. Low pressure steam 2. Low temperature hot water 3. High temperature steam 4. Fuel oil burning
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1. Low pressure steam
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11-10. One kilowatt is equal to how many BTUs per hour? 1) 3355 2) 3415 3) 3560 4) 3745
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2) 3415
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11-11. Why is the vented gas heater more satisfactory than the unvented type? 1. Less expensive installation 2. Less preventive maintenance required 3. Less danger of carbon monoxide poisoning 4. Less accumulation of back soot
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3. Less danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
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11-12. The burning of 1,000 cubic feet of natural gas will produce approximately how many gallons of water? 1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
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4) 12
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11-13. What grade of fuel oil is required in oil-fired space heaters? 1. Light 2. Medium 3. Heavy 4. Super heavy
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1. Light
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11-14. A perforated sleeve burner with its circular fuel vaporizing grooves burns what color flame? 1. Cherry red 2. Blue 3. Orange 4. Red
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2. Blue
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11-15. What controls the flow of oil in the pot type and perforated sleeve burners? 1. Primary control unit 2. Fuel allocation diffuser 3. Float-operated metering valve 4. Restrictor orifices
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3. Float-operated metering valve
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11-16. A chimney top is required to be how many feet above the highest point of a building? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 6
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2) 3
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11-17. What type of piping or tubing is used in oil supply systems to the burners? 1. Copper 2. Brass 3. Cast iron 4. Steel
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1. Copper
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11-18. Warm-air systems are identified as what types? 1. Forced-air and high temperature 2. Gravity and forced-air 3. Oil fed and gas fed 4. Vented and unvented
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2. Gravity and forced-air
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11-19.What part does the plenum join up with in a furnace? 1. Draft diverter 2. Exhaust piping 3. Main trunk duct 4. Intake valve manifold
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3. Main trunk duct
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11-20. What is the result of improperly placed supply diffusers? 1. Hot floors 2. Excessive condensation 3. Improper air intake 4. Air stratification
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4. Air stratification
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11-21. (True or False) In an individual duct system, each duct is connected directly to the furnace plenum.
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1. True
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11-22. What is a register temperature range of a forced warm-air system? 1. 110° to 140° 2. 150° to 180° 3. 180° to 210° 4. 220° to 240°
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2. 150° to 180°
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11-23. What is the most commonly used airflow design associated with a gas- fired furnace? 1. Horizontal 2. Vertical 3. Upflow highboy 4. Lowboy
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3. Upflow highboy
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11-24. Duct furnaces are mounted in a duct system where air circulation is provided by what? 1. Furnace blower 2. Internal fan 3. Atmosphere 4. External fan
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4. External fan
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11-25. Along with the return-air compartment and warm-air compartment, what other compartment comprises the gas-fired furnace? 1. Combustion air and fuel 2. Supply-air 3. Hot-air 4. Combustion and return
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1. Combustion air and fuel
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11-26. What type of blower is installed in a gas-fired furnace? 1. Rotary 2. Centrifugal 3. Jet 4. Displacement
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2. Centrifugal
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11-27. Which piece of equipment is NOT part of the gas burner control? 1. Gas pressure regulator 2. Humidifier 3. Manual gas cock 4. Heat exchanger
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2. Humidifier
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11-28. What piece of equipment maintains the desired pressure in the burner as long as the gas main pressure is above the desired pressure? 1. Diaphragm valve 2. Thermocouple control relay 3. Solenoid gas valve 4. Gas pressure regulator
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4. Gas pressure regulator
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11-29. What position does the solenoid gas valve revert to upon a current failure? 1. Open 2. Shut 3. As is 4. Bypass
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2. Shut
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11-30. How does the design of a recycling solenoid gas valve differ from a standard solenoid gas valve? 1. Standard solenoid valves only ports a set fuel amount. 2. Allows the valve to switch to manual operation during a power failure. 3. Recycling solenoid gas valve maintains system pressure. 4. Allows for quieter operation.
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2. Allows the valve to switch to manual operation during a power failure.
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11-31. What device is used to produce the electrical current used to operate gas valves? 1. Thermoresistors 2. Pilot light 3. Thermopiles 4. Diaphragm valve
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3. Thermopiles
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11-32. What device shuts off the gas supply when the temperature inside the heating unit becomes excessive? 1. Recycling solenoid gas valve 2. Heat exchanger 3. Thermocouple control relay 4. Limit control
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4. Limit control
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11-33. What device is used to reduce updrafts that are detrimental to pilot or burner operation? 1. Diverter 2. Limit control 3. Thermopiles 4. Diaphragm valves
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1. Diverter
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11-34. What is the voltage produced by the step-up transformer used in a gas fired furnace? 1) 5000 2) 10000 3) 15000 4) 20000
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2) 10000
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11-35. What piece of equipment runs the fuel unit of a gas-fired furnace? 1. Ignition electrodes 2. Horizontal rotary unit 3. Blower motor shaft 4. High pressure gun relay
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3. Blower motor shaft
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11-36. Which grade of fuel oil is used in a gas-fired furnace? 1. Low 2. Medium 3. High 4. Super high
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3. High
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11-37. What device closes the ignition circuits when the thermostat calls for more heat? 1. Primary control 2. Bimetallic strip 3. Limit control 4. Temperature-responsive relay
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1. Primary control
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11-38. (True or False) The limit control is a device that responds to changes in steam pressure in a steam-heating system.
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1. True
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11-39. What type of element is used in a vapor-tension device? 1. High pressure steam 2. Water temperature 3. Highly volatile liquid 4. Low discharge current
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3. Highly volatile liquid
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11-40. Other than the snap-action electrical switch, which other electrical switch is often utilized? 1. Current seeking 2. Float 3. Transducer 4. Mercury
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4. Mercury
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11-41. What is the nerve center of the heating-control system? 1. Thermostat 2. Primary control 3. Gas regulator valve 4. Step-up transformer
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1. Thermostat
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11-42. How far up on the wall should a thermostat be placed, in feet? 1) 3 1/2 2) 4 1/2 3) 5 1/2 4) 6 1/2
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2) 4 1/2
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11-43. (True or False) Gas-fired and oil-fired forced-air units, which have the blower below the heating element or combustion chamber, should be set on masonry at least 4 inches thick.
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2. False
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11-44. What is the clearance requirement, in feet, of a furnace from wood or other combustible material? 1) 12 2) 14 3) 16 4) 18
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4) 18
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11-45. One inch of free-air area is required for how many BTUs per hour of furnace input rating? 1) 1000 2) 2000 3) 3000 4) 4000
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1) 1000
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11-46. What type of material and diameter piping or tubing are required from the oil tank or valve to the burner? 1. Copper, 1/4 inch 2. Copper, 1/2 inch 3. Cast iron, 1/4 inch 4. Cast iron, 1/2 inch
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2. Copper, 1/2 inch
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11-47. What size is recommended for all vent lines used in furnace installations? 1. 1 inch 2. 1 1/4 inch 3. 1 1/2 inch 4. 1 3/4 inch
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3. 1 1/2 inch
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11-48. Why are kerosene, diesel oils, and commercial oils of Grades Nos. 1 and 2 suitable for furnace usage? 1. They are easy to transport via aircraft. 2. They are easier to store than higher grades. 3. Their procurement costs are low. 4. They vaporize at relatively low temperatures.
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4. They vaporize at relatively low temperatures.
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11-49. (True or False) Burners using air as the atomizing medium are designed for three air pressure ranges.
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1. True
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11-50. At what speed, in rpm, does a cylindrical cup use in a horizontal rotary-cup burner rotate? 1) 3300 2) 3450 3) 3575 4) 3700
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2) 3450
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11-51. What is used to remove the air from a burner prior to starting? 1. Regulator 2. Ventilator 3. Petcock 4. Bypass
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3. Petcock
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11-52. Which is NOT a cause for a flame that is raw and stingy in a oil burner? 1. Partly clogged nozzle 2. Air in the pump 3. Too large an opening in air adjustment 4. Improper draft
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4. Improper draft
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11-53. After the burner flame and draft are properly adjusted, a flue-gas analysis should show a CO2 content of approximately what percent? 1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 13
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1) 10
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11-54. If the furnace is large enough and the burner has been set for correct oil flow and minimum amount of air, stack temperature should not exceed how many degrees? 1) 550 2) 600 3) 650 4) 675
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2) 600
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11-55. The stack thermometer is used to determine the temperature of gases in what piece of equipment? 1. Combustion chamber 2. Furnace outlet 3. Smoke pipe 4. Draft regulator
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3. Smoke pipe
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11-56. What is a possible problem in an oil pump, if you have no oil flow at the nozzle? 1. Blown seal 2. Air leak in intake line 3. Loose plugs or fittings 4. Bad coupling alignment
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2. Air leak in intake line
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11-57. What is the disadvantage of using cast iron hot-water heating boilers? 1. Sections cracking 2. Low heat retention 3. Delayed start-up time 4. Scarcity of repair parts
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1. Sections cracking
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11-58. How many inches above a finished floor should a low-temperature hot water boiler be? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
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2) 2
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11-59. Where is the pressure-relief valve located on a boiler used in a low- temperature hot water system? 1. Bottom of boiler 2. Right side of vent valve 3. Top of boiler 4. Left side of vent valve
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3. Top of boiler
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11-60. What is another name for the airflow switch used in a low-temperature hot water system? 1. Control valve 2. Extender 3. Draft 4. Sail
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4. Sail
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11-61. (True or False) A one-pipe, open-tank gravity distribution system consists of a single pipe that carries hot water to all of the radiators and then returns it back to the boiler.
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1. True
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11-62. The amount of temperature drop between the beginning and the end of the line 1. Ambient air pressure 2. Heating load 3. Boiler start-up temperature 4. Temperature stabilization
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2. Heating load
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11-63. The relief valve located in a closed pneumatic compression system is set to lift at what water pressure level, in psi? 1) 15 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30
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4) 30
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11-64. In the heating of larger installations where more than one building is involved, what type of circulation method is used? 1. Free flow 2. Closed 3. Open 4. Forced
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4. Forced
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11-65. Mains and branches are pitched so air in the system is discharged through which device? 1. Radiator 2. Surge tank 3. Pressure regulator 4. Diverter
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1. Radiator
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11-66. How many radiator types are you concerned with as a UT? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
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2) 2
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11-67. (True or False) Circulating pumps used in low-temperature hot water distribution systems ensure the positive flow of water regardless of the height of the system or the rise in water temperature.
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2. False
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11-68. Where is the reducing valve installed on the boiler? 1. At the outlet port 2. Inside the combustion chamber 3. Below the pressure regulating valve 4. At the same level as top of boiler
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4. At the same level as top of boiler
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11-69. Which is a reason why radiators do not heat? 1. Not enough air in the system 2. Insufficient water in the system 3. Clogged fin-tubes 4. Closed radiator valve
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2. Insufficient water in the system
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11-70. What is the high temperature range for most military and federal heating plants? 1. 250°F to 350°F 2. 350°F to 450°F 3. 450°F to 550°F 4. 550°F to 650°F
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2. 350°F to 450°F
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11-71. Whose permission is needed to install an HTHW plant that operates above 400°F? 1. Base Commanding Officer 2. Crew Supervisor 3. Naval Facilities Engineering Command 4. Officer in Charge
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3. Naval Facilities Engineering Command
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11-72. What type of pump is used in an HTHW system? 1. Rotary 2. Jet 3. Submersible 4. Centrifugal
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4. Centrifugal
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11-73. Why is an expansion tank required in an HTHW system? 1. To allow for water expansion when heated. 2. To receive excess water run-off from boiler. 3. To allow for excessive condensation to drain. 4. To comply with NACENGCOM directives.
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1. To allow for water expansion when heated.
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11-74. What is the optimal pH range for an HTHW system? 1. 7.25 to 9.25 2. 9.3 to 9.9 3. 10.1 to 11.2 4. 12.3 to 15.6
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2. 9.3 to 9.9
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11-75. Upon completion of an installation of an HTHW system, the entire system is held under what pressure, in psi, for not less than 24 hours? 1) 300 2) 350 3) 400 4) 450
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4) 450
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11-76. Generator tubes utilized in HTHW systems are subjected to an ASME test pressure of what value, in psi? 1) 600 2) 700 3) 800 4) 900
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4) 900
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