Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
1019 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
REMISSION
|
when the disease is present, but the person does not experience symptoms
|
|
|
EXACERBATION
|
the symptoms of a disease reappear
|
|
|
Which term best describes the science of nursing?
a.the skilled application of knowledge b.the knowledge base for care c.hands-on care, such as giving a bath d.respect for each individual patient |
b
|
|
|
Which nurse in history is credited with establishing nursing education?
a.Clara Barton b.Lillian Wald c.Lavinia Dock d.Florence Nightingale |
d
|
|
|
Which of the following phrases describes one of the purposes of the ANA's Nursing Social Policy Statement?
a.to describe the nurse as a dependent caregiver b.to provide standards for nursing educational programs c.to regulate nursing research d.to describe nursing's values and social responsibility |
d
|
|
|
You are teaching a class of students about the effects of smoking. This educational program will met which of the aims of nursing?
a.promoting health b.preventing illness c.restoring health d.facilitating and coping with disability or death |
b
|
|
|
What type of authority regulates the practice of nursing?
a.International standards and codes b.Federal guidelines and regulations c.State nurse practice acts d.Institutional policies |
c
|
|
|
How is a profession recognized? (what are some of the criteria?)
|
-well-defined body of specific knowledge
-strong service orientation -code of ethics -ongoing research -professional organization that sets standards |
|
|
Teaching self-care is which aim of nursing?
|
promoting health
|
|
|
Performing measurements and assessments to detect an illness is which aim of nursing?
|
restoring health
|
|
|
Where do sexuality and physical activity fall in a Human's Basic Needs?
|
physiologic needs
|
|
|
What is the body's most essential need?
|
Oxygen
|
|
|
When a nurse helps a pt make an informed decision about his/her like, what nursing role has been performed?
|
being an advocate
|
|
|
Referring pts to support groups is which level of care?
|
Tertiary
|
|
|
Immunizations are an example of which level of care?
|
Primary
|
|
|
CULTURE
|
a shared system of beliefs, values and behaviors
|
|
|
The sense of identification with a collective cultural group is defined as:
|
ethnicity
|
|
|
In Suchman's stages of illness which stage is where most people focus on their symptoms and bodily functions?
|
Stage 2: Assuming the Sick Role
|
|
|
There are 6 major areas of risk factors. Name 3.
|
Age, Genetic Factors, Physiologic Factors, Heath Habits, Lifestyle, Environment
|
|
|
"I do it this way because that's how it's always been done" is an example of what kind of knowledge?
|
Traditional Knowledge
|
|
|
A nurse committed to providing the information and support to make decisions to advance her own interest would be acting on a principle of:
|
autonomy
|
|
|
LITIGATION
|
the process of bringing and trying a lawsuit
|
|
|
PLAINTIFF
|
the person bringing the lawsuit against another
|
|
|
DEFENDANT
|
the one being accused of the crime or tort
|
|
|
What is the most important law affecting your nursing practice?
|
your state's Nurse Practice Acts
|
|
|
In review a pt record revealed that she had never consented to an eye surgery, which tort might the surgeon be guilty of?
|
battery
|
|
|
Maria has a health insurance plan in which she is most limited in choices of a health care provider. Which Plan would Maria have?
|
HMO
|
|
|
Bob receives care from many different providers what is another name for this?
|
Fragmentation of care
|
|
|
What are the 5 steps to the nursing process?
|
assessing-diagnosing-outcome identification and planning-implementing-evaluating
|
|
|
how many drops in 1 mL
|
15 drops
|
|
|
5mL=? tsp
|
1
|
|
|
1T=? mL
|
15mL
|
|
|
1oz=?T
|
2
|
|
|
30mL=?oz
|
1
|
|
|
What's the formula for drops per minute?
|
volume x gtt factor
--------------------------- time |
|
|
What are normal calcium levels?
|
8.5-10.5mg
|
|
|
What are normal iron levels?
|
50-150microliters
|
|
|
What are normal PCO2 levels?
|
96-100% or 35-45mmHg
|
|
|
What are normal PO2 levels?
|
75-100mmHg (NOT on oxygen)
|
|
|
What are normal sodium levels?
|
135-145mEq/L
|
|
|
Routine aspects of care are normally documented on:
|
flow charts
|
|
|
To communicate conveniently and concisely the plan of nursing care we use a:
|
Kardex (and/or pt care summary)
|
|
|
If a pt fails to meet an expected outcome or planned intervention, the response to this event, the documenting is called:
|
variance charting
|
|
|
When a nurse writes a patient outcome that requires pain medication for goal achievement, the situation is a(n)_______ problem
|
collaborative
|
|
|
If a pt is taking pain medication as needed what would be the abbreviation for this?
|
PRN
|
|
|
What stage of infection are the organisms growing and multiplying?
|
Incubation Period
|
|
|
What stage is the person most infectious, and early signs and symptoms are present?
|
Prodromal Stage
|
|
|
What stage of infection is when the signs and symptoms disappear?
|
convalescent stage
|
|
|
Destroying all pathogenic organisms, except spores is an example of
|
disinfection
|
|
|
If someone develops a infection in the hospital what type of infection is this called?
|
nosocomial
|
|
|
The smallest infectious agents capable of causing an infection are:
|
viruses
|
|
|
What is the means on transmission for an organism causing food poisoning?
|
vehicle
|
|
|
What are the 6 rights of medication?
|
pt-time-drug-dose-reason-route
|
|
|
Trade Name is another term for:
|
the brand name (ie Advil)
|
|
|
Generic name tells us:
|
the drug's active ingredient (ie ibuprofin)
|
|
|
A suppository is an example of what type of what type of medication preparation?
|
topical
|
|
|
When medication is at it's lowest concentration it's at it's ______ level.
|
trough
|
|
|
When medication is at it's desired effect with out causing toxicity it's called the _______ level.
|
peak
|
|
|
if a pt had a certain effect from medication that wasn't listed as a normal side effect, sensitive to that individual and a unique reaction, what would that effect be called?
|
idiosyncratic effect
|
|
|
If a pt were to get a disease from just taking a certain medicine, what would that disease be referred to as?
|
iatrogenic disease
|
|
|
Losing a limb, a spouse, or a valued object is what type of loss?
|
actual
|
|
|
Feeling of loss felt by a person, but not others, loss of youth, independence. What type of loss is this?
|
Perceived
|
|
|
A loss that is a result of natural development processes is...
|
maturational
|
|
|
A loss experienced as a result of an unpredictable event, including traumatic injury, disease, or death.
|
situational
|
|
|
STEREOGNOSIS
|
sense that perceives the solidity of objects, there size, shape and texture.
|
|
|
What is our body's general drive state called?
|
sensoristasis
|
|
|
When cells dehydrate and die in a dry environment this process is called...
|
desiccation
|
|
|
over-hydration related to urinary and fecal incontinence can lead to impaired skin integrity is called...
|
maceration
|
|
|
when blood vessels constrict and blood clotting begins, what phase is this
|
hemostasis
|
|
|
lasting 4-6 days, leukocytes and macrophages move to the wound, pt has generalized body response, ie. mildly elevated temp
|
Inflammatory phase
|
|
|
fibroblastic, regenerative or connective tissue phase, where granulation tissue forms, what phase is this?
|
proliferation phase
|
|
|
final stage of healing, a scar forms, what phase is this?
|
maturation phase
|
|
|
what type of dressing would be used for a wound that has minimal drainage, stage I or II pressure ulcers and/or burns
|
transparent films
|
|
|
Dressings for shallow to moderate-depth skin ulcers, ahve drainage and needing package
|
hydrocolloid dressings
|
|
|
Dressings for partial- and full-thickness wounds, necrotic wounds and/or burns
|
hydrogels
|
|
|
Infected wounds would need this type of dressing
|
alginates
|
|
|
Chronic wounds, to maintain moist wound surface, don't adhere to the wound and insulate wound, would need ________ for a dressing
|
Foams
|
|
|
For acute and chronic wounds that are draining, and non healing, and to protect from microbial or bacterial infection's dressings are
|
silver dressings
|
|
|
Skin grafts and donor site dressings are
|
Collagens
|
|
|
Walking, Jogging, and Biking are all examples of what type of exercise?
|
Isotonic
|
|
|
With out movement and only a couple of shortening of muscle fibers, like contractions of gluteal muscles, is what type of exercise?
|
Isometric
|
|
|
Muscle contractions with resistance is what type of exercise?
|
Isokinetic
|
|
|
ENKEPHALINS
|
neuromodulators that are widespread throughout the brain and dorsal horn of the spinal coed, and are thought to reduce pain
|
|
|
DYNORPHIN
|
thought to be the most potent analgesic
|
|
|
ENDORPHINS
|
opioid neuromodulators produced at neural synapses at various points in the CNS,
|
|
|
ANALGESIC
|
a pharmaceutical agent that relieves pain
|
|
|
examples of non opioid analgesics are
|
acetaminophen and nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
|
|
|
examples of opioid analgesics are
|
controlled substances such as morphine, codeine, and methadone
|
|
|
examples of adjuvant drugs are
|
antidepressants, anticonvulsants and multi-purpose drugs
|
|
|
If someone is frequently drowsy and drifts off to sleep during conversation what is the numeric sedation number?
|
3
|
|
|
What are examples of fat-soluble vitamins?
|
A D E & K
|
|
|
What are examples of water soluble vitamins?
|
C and B vitamins
|
|
|
If a person is 20% or more above their ideal weight of have a BMI of 30 or more they are _______.
|
obese
|
|
|
Anthropometric Measurements are used for what?
|
to determine body measurements, to assess growth rate in children and measure body protein and fat stores, in adults.
|
|
|
What does TPN (total parenteral nutrition) consist of?
|
highly concentrated, hypertonic nutrient solution, provide calories, restores nitrogen balance and replaces essential fluids
|
|
|
When would a TPN be needed?
|
Inability to absorb nutrients from GI tract for more than 10 days, loss of 10%+ of weight due to illness, nonfunction of GI tract for 5-7 days. 25% glucose
|
|
|
What is a PPN (peripheral parenteral nutrition)?
|
a less concentrated nutrient solution, for pts who are able to take oral feedings but not enough to meet nutritional levels.10% glucose
|
|
|
Which nervous system stimulates movement?
|
parasympathetic
|
|
|
Which nervous system inhibits movement?
|
sympathetic
|
|
|
what do bulk forming laxatives do?
|
they cause stool to absorb water and swell, stimulating peristalsis
|
|
|
what do emollients or stool softeners do?
|
they allow water and fat to penetrate and lubricate the stool with detergent activity
|
|
|
what do stimulants do?
|
promote peristalsis by irrigating the intestinal mucosa or stimulating nerve endings in intestinal wall
|
|
|
Vagal stimulation can cause...
|
bradycardia
|
|
|
The nurse would instruct Mr.Brown to avoid which of the following foods to prevent a laxative effect?
a.cheese b.alcohol c.eggs d.pasta |
b
|
|
|
Hypoventilation can cause
|
hypoxia
|
|
|
oxygenated blood passes through the tissues of the body in the process called
|
perfusion
|
|
|
ATELECTASIS
|
incomplete lung expansion or the collapse of the alveoli
|
|
|
Pt is pale,hx of COPD, respiratory rate is 40 breaths/min produces little sputum, crackles heard bilaterally. what would be your nursing diagnosis?
|
ineffective airway clearance
|
|
|
Pt is purse-lipped bereathing, sitting hunched,, admits shortness of breath, nausea and altered blood gases show respiratory acidosis. what would be your nursing diagnosis?
|
impaired gas exchange
|
|
|
Pt is hyperventilating, and has tingling in fingers, what would be your nursing diagnosis?
|
ineffective breathing pattern
|
|
|
How long can the body go with out oxygen before irreversible brain damage occurs?
|
4 to 6 minutes
|
|
|
hydrostatic pressure is
|
the 'pushing' force
|
|
|
hydrocolloid pressure is
|
the 'pulling' force
|
|
|
general fluid intake is how many mLs? and where does the fluid come from?
|
2600mL, 1200 coming from ingested water, 1000 from food and 300 from oxidation
|
|
|
What is the average amount of fluid output? how is the output broken down?
|
2500-2900mLs/day and 1500mL as urine, 200-400mL through skin, 300-500mLs as sensible fluid loss and 400mL from lungs, 100mL in feces as well
|
|
|
Acidosis occurs when
|
there in an excess of H ions or a loss of base ions, pH falls below 7.35
|
|
|
Alkalosis occurs when
|
when there is a lack of H ions or a gain of bicarbonate and the pH exceeds 7.45
|
|
|
normal pH is achieved through 3 major homeostatic regulators:
|
buffer systems
respiratory mechanisms renal mechanisms |
|
|
Intravascular fluid is correctly identified as
|
plasma, the liquid constituent of blood
|
|
|
Potassium functions as the
|
major cation of intracellular fluid
|
|
|
What's the most reliable indicator of a pt's fluid balance status?
|
their weight
|
|
|
Of the following factors, which increase BMR?
a.aging b.fever c.fasting d.sleep |
b
|
|
|
What type of catheter should e used if it's only draining a pt's bladder for short periods of time?
|
straight catheter
|
|
|
what is the primary purpose of surfactant?
|
to reduce surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli
|
|
|
the body eliminates excess sodium through what organ(s)?
|
kidneys
|
|
|
what electrolyte primarily controls water distribution through out the body?
|
sodium
|
|
|
what electrolyte is the most abundant in the body?
|
calcium
|
|
|
A frail malnourished older adult has been constipated, why is colace a good option for an order?
|
colace permits fat and water o penetrate feces which soften stool, colace also has very few side effects in older adults
|
|
|
what is another name for a decubitus ulcer?
|
pressure ulcer
|
|
|
The nurse is assessing a pt who is experiencing prolonged stress. For which most serious complication should the nurse monitor the pt?
a.altered sleeping b.impaired immunity c.increased muscle tension d.decreased intestinal peristalsis |
b
|
|
|
A basic principle associated with Freud and his work is that:
a.emotional or psychological events are not understandable b.defense mechanisms are used to protect one's self esteem c.the id is the part of the psyche that imposes a conscious d.the conscious mind is unrelated to human behavior |
b
|
|
|
when assessing pts, it is essential that you understand that the most common human repsponse to an emotional stressor is:
a.anger b.denial c.anxiety d.depression |
c
|
|
|
Which statement best reflects the relationship between stress and adaptation?
a.stressors usually cause maladaptive responses b.addressing an adaptation will in turn limit the stressor c.stress and adaptation are intertwined in a cyclic relationship d.adaptations to stress are dependent on the nature of the stressor |
c
|
|
|
assessing the pt in the postanesthesia care unit, which adaptation to stress shoulgd you monitor?
a.slow, bounding pulse b.delayed response time c.inability to concentrate d.rapid, shallow breathing |
d, related to fight or flight response
|
|
|
The nurse nderstands that the word that best describes the concept of adaptive capacity is:
a.change b.etiology c.remission d.compliance |
a
|
|
|
What is adaptive capacity?
|
it refers to the quality and quantity one can draw on to regain balance after one is threatened, an imbalance
|
|
|
What is the general adaptation syndrome?
|
biochemial model of stress describing the body's general response to stress; 3 stages: alarm reaction, resistance and exhaustion
|
|
|
When differentiating between primary and secondary stressors, you identify that an example of a secondary stressor is:
a.pain b.cold weather c.death of a spouse d.ingested microorganisms |
a
|
|
|
The nurse understands that a concept basic to the health-illness continuum is that:
a.people can be both healthy and ill at the same time on the continuum b.there is no distinct boundary between health and illness along the continuum c.when variables are in balance, a person is in the exact center of the continuum d.actualization must be achieved to be placed on the healthy end of the continuum |
b
|
|
|
The nurse identifies that the stressful life event that has the greatest potential to contribute to stress-related illness is:
a.retirement b.pregnancy c.adoption d.divorce |
d
|
|
|
The nurse understands that the word that best describes the concept of adaptive capacity is:
a.role b.cope c.stimuli d.energy |
b
|
|
|
During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse must:
a.establish outcomes b.determine priorities c.take corrective action d.set the time frames for goals |
c
|
|
|
the nurse understands that the appropriateness of a Nursing Diagnosis is supported by its:
a.defining characteristics b.planned interventions c.diagnostic statement d.related risk factors |
a
|
|
|
The nurse identifies that a pt has an inflammatory response. Which local pt adaptation supports this conclusion?
a.fever b.erythema c.bradypnea d.tachycardia |
b
|
|
|
The nurse is providing for the nutrition neds of several patients. The nurse identifies the need for an increase in caloric intake above average requirements for the patient who has:
a.nausea b.dysphagia c.pneumonia d.depression |
c
|
|
|
The nurse is caring for patients with a variety of wounds. The nurse understands that healing by primary intention most likely occurs with:
a.cuts in the skin from a kitchen knife b.excoriated perianal areas c.abrasions of the skin d.pressure ulcers |
a
|
|
|
The nurse understands that the factor that places a patient at the greater risk for developing an infecion is:
a.implantation of a prosthesis b.presence of an indwelling catheter c.burns on more than 20% of the body d.multiple puncture sites from laparoscopic surgery |
c
|
|
|
When the physician orders a cooling blanket, the nurse understands that it is used to achieve heat loss via:
a.radiation b.convection c.conduction d.evaporation |
c
|
|
|
The nurse identifies that a patient condition unrelated to infection is:
a.catabolism b.hyperglycemia c.ketones in the urine d.decreased metabolic activity |
d
|
|
|
A belief about the worth of something, about what matters, that acts as a standard to guide one's behavior is termed: a) value system b)morality c)ethics d)value
|
d)value
|
|
|
An organization of values in which each is ranked along a continuum of importance, often leading to a personal code of conduct is termed: a) value system b)morality c)ethics d)value
|
a)value system
|
|
|
Modeling, moralizing, Laissez-faire, rewarding and punishing and responsible choice all represent: a)theories of ethics b) theories of morality c)modes of value transmission d) modes of ethics transmission
|
c)modes of value transmission
|
|
|
What mode of value transmission puts children at risk because it provides little opportunity for them to weigh different values?
|
Moralizing
|
|
|
What mode of value transmission gives the child little or no guidance and can lead to confusion and conflict?
|
Laissez-faire
|
|
|
The concern for the welfare and well-being of others is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
d) altruism
|
|
|
The right to self-determination and making decisions about your own healthcare is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
a) autonomy
|
|
|
The respect for the inherent worth and uniqueness of individuals and populations is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
b) human dignity
|
|
|
Acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics and accepted standards of practice is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
c) integrity
|
|
|
Upholding moral, legal, and humanistic principles is termed?
|
social justice
|
|
|
What are the 3 main activites involved in the process of placing value on something?
|
1. Choosing 2. Prizing 3. Acting
|
|
|
The systematic inquiry into principles of right and wrong conduct of virtue and vice, and of good and evil as they relate to conduct is termed? a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
a) ethics
|
|
|
Personal or communal standards of right and wrong are termed: a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
c) morals
|
|
|
Fields and disciplines grouped broadly under the rubric "the life sciences" is termed: a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
d) bioethics
|
|
|
The branch of bioethics that is literally concerned with ehtical problems "at the bedside" is termed a) nursing ethics b) clinical ethics c) bedside ethics
|
b) clinical ethics
|
|
|
Which subset of bioethics is concerned with the formal study of ethical issues that arise in the practice of nursing and the analysis used by nurses to make ethical judgments? a) nursing ethics b) clinical ethics c) bedside ethics
|
a) nursing ethics
|
|
|
A husband who lies and tells his wife that her dress looks nice on her is utilizing what theory of ethics? a) utilitarian b) deontologic c) authoritatian
|
a) utilitarian
|
|
|
A pro-life advocate who says that abortion is wrong reguardless of the reason for it, is utilizing what theory of ethics? a) utilitarian b) deontologic c) authoritatian
|
b) deontologic
|
|
|
What are the 4 components of Beauchamp/Childress's principle-based approach to bioethics?
|
1. Autonomy 2. nonmaleficence 3. beneficence 4. justice
|
|
|
A nurse sees a patient watching a soap-opera and she changes it to the health station is violating which principal of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
a) autonomy-respect the rights of the patient and let them make decisions
|
|
|
A nurse who promises to bring the patient a pitcher of water, but gets busy and forgets; is violating what principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
e) fidelity-keep promises
|
|
|
A nurse who is too busy to lower the bed before she exits the room; is violating what principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
b) nonmaleficence-avoid causing harm
|
|
|
A nurse who always sees her homeless patient last, as he is not paying for healthcare like the others, is violating which principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
d) justice-act fairly and distribute the benefits, risks, and costs of nursing care justly
|
|
|
The natural ability to behave in an ethical way and to do the ethically right thing because it is the right thing to do; is termed? a) code of ethics b) morality c)moral agency d) ethical agency
|
d) ethical agency
|
|
|
What are the 2 cheif reasons nurses cite for the declining quality of nursing care at their facilities? a)inadequate staffing b)poor upper management c) burnout d) decreased nurse satisfaction
|
a) inadequate staffing & d) decreased nurse satisfaction
|
|
|
What is the difference between ethical dilemmas and ethical distress?
|
Ethical dilemma- you have to pick between 2+ different courses of action Ethical distress- you know the right thing to do but personal or institutional factors make it difficult to follow the correct course of action
|
|
|
A belief about the worth of something, about what matters, that acts as a standard to guide one's behavior is termed: a) value system b)morality c)ethics d)value
|
d)value
|
|
|
An organization of values in which each is ranked along a continuum of importance, often leading to a personal code of conduct is termed: a) value system b)morality c)ethics d)value
|
a)value system
|
|
|
Modeling, moralizing, Laissez-faire, rewarding and punishing and responsible choice all represent: a)theories of ethics b) theories of morality c)modes of value transmission d) modes of ethics transmission
|
c)modes of value transmission
|
|
|
What mode of value transmission puts children at risk because it provides little opportunity for them to weigh different values?
|
Moralizing
|
|
|
What mode of value transmission gives the child little or no guidance and can lead to confusion and conflict?
|
Laissez-faire
|
|
|
The concern for the welfare and well-being of others is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
d) altruism
|
|
|
The right to self-determination and making decisions about your own healthcare is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
a) autonomy
|
|
|
The respect for the inherent worth and uniqueness of individuals and populations is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
b) human dignity
|
|
|
Acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics and accepted standards of practice is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
c) integrity
|
|
|
Upholding moral, legal, and humanistic principles is termed?
|
social justice
|
|
|
What are the 3 main activites involved in the process of placing value on something?
|
1. Choosing 2. Prizing 3. Acting
|
|
|
The systematic inquiry into principles of right and wrong conduct of virtue and vice, and of good and evil as they relate to conduct is termed? a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
a) ethics
|
|
|
Personal or communal standards of right and wrong are termed: a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
c) morals
|
|
|
Fields and disciplines grouped broadly under the rubric "the life sciences" is termed: a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
d) bioethics
|
|
|
The branch of bioethics that is literally concerned with ehtical problems "at the bedside" is termed a) nursing ethics b) clinical ethics c) bedside ethics
|
b) clinical ethics
|
|
|
Which subset of bioethics is concerned with the formal study of ethical issues that arise in the practice of nursing and the analysis used by nurses to make ethical judgments? a) nursing ethics b) clinical ethics c) bedside ethics
|
a) nursing ethics
|
|
|
A husband who lies and tells his wife that her dress looks nice on her is utilizing what theory of ethics? a) utilitarian b) deontologic c) authoritatian
|
a) utilitarian
|
|
|
A pro-life advocate who says that abortion is wrong reguardless of the reason for it, is utilizing what theory of ethics? a) utilitarian b) deontologic c) authoritatian
|
b) deontologic
|
|
|
What are the 4 components of Beauchamp/Childress's principle-based approach to bioethics?
|
1. Autonomy 2. nonmaleficence 3. beneficence 4. justice
|
|
|
A nurse sees a patient watching a soap-opera and she changes it to the health station is violating which principal of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
a) autonomy-respect the rights of the patient and let them make decisions
|
|
|
A nurse who promises to bring the patient a pitcher of water, but gets busy and forgets; is violating what principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
e) fidelity-keep promises
|
|
|
A nurse who is too busy to lower the bed before she exits the room; is violating what principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
b) nonmaleficence-avoid causing harm
|
|
|
A nurse who always sees her homeless patient last, as he is not paying for healthcare like the others, is violating which principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
d) justice-act fairly and distribute the benefits, risks, and costs of nursing care justly
|
|
|
The natural ability to behave in an ethical way and to do the ethically right thing because it is the right thing to do; is termed? a) code of ethics b) morality c)moral agency d) ethical agency
|
d) ethical agency
|
|
|
What are the 2 cheif reasons nurses cite for the declining quality of nursing care at their facilities? a)inadequate staffing b)poor upper management c) burnout d) decreased nurse satisfaction
|
a) inadequate staffing & d) decreased nurse satisfaction
|
|
|
What is the difference between ethical dilemmas and ethical distress?
|
Ethical dilemma- you have to pick between 2+ different courses of action Ethical distress- you know the right thing to do but personal or institutional factors make it difficult to follow the correct course of action
|
|
|
What groups of patients have special advocacy needs?
|
Those with: sensory impairment, do not speak english, are very young or very old, seriously ill, physically, mentally or emotionally impaired, those lacking finacial or human resources
|
|
|
True/False: Nurses as advocates are in charge of making ethical decisions for their patients.
|
False: Instead, they facilitate patients' decision making.
|
|
|
True/False: Research supports the fact that educated patients experience better health and have fewer complications then less educated patients.
|
True
|
|
|
True/False: The basic purpose of teaching and counseling is to help patients become more independent from their families and nursing staff.
|
False: The basic purpose of teaching and counseling is to help patients and families develop the self-care abilities they need to maximize their functioning and quality of life.
|
|
|
Which aim of nursing does hygiene, nutrition, and exercise fall under? a) Promoting health b) Preventing Illness c) Restoring Health d) Facilitating Coping
|
a)Promoting Health
|
|
|
What are the 3 clinical areas that much of patient education focuses on?
|
1. Preparation for receiving care 2. Preparation before discharge c) Documentation of pt education
|
|
|
For Toddlers and preschoolers, is the heathcare teaching directed at the child or the parent?
|
The parent: although the child may have some degree of understanding about medical tests or procedures, health teaching continues to be directed toward the parents.
|
|
|
The ability to use logical reasoning to solve hypothetical problems is what stage of Piagets development?
|
Formal Operations
|
|
|
If a patient's intellectual development is delayed and they are able to use logical reasoning to solve concerte problems and think abstractly, what stage of Piagets development are they in?
|
Concrete operations
|
|
|
The science of teaching children and adolescents is termed_________, while the science of teaching adults is termed________. a) pedagogy,andragogy b) andragogy,pedagogy c)pedagogy, gerigogy
|
a) pedagogy-kids,andragogy-adults
|
|
|
True/False 10% of adults lack basic literacy skills needed to function successfully in our society.
|
False: 46-51% !!!!
|
|
|
The ability to read and write is termed?
|
Literacy
|
|
|
Learning the side effects of a new medication is termed: a) affective learning b) psychomotor learning c) cognitive learning
|
c) cognitive learning
|
|
|
Learning how to do a dressing change through the integration of mental and muscular activity is termed: a) affective learning b) psychomotor learning c) cognitive learning
|
b) psychomotor learning
|
|
|
A patient learning to value his health and have positive feelings towards his disease outcome is what type of learning? a) affective learning b) psychomotor learning c) cognitive learning
|
a) affective learning
|
|
|
The patient is considered the____source of information while the patients chart is considered the_____source of information. a)secondary,primary b)primary,secondary c) main, primary
|
b)patient-primary, medical record-secondary
|
|
|
What is needed before the nurse can involve family members in the teaching-learning process? a)doctor's order b)nurse's order c)social worker consult d) patient's permission
|
d) patient's permission
|
|
|
Which 2 people, when planning and coordinating the implimentation of a plan constitutes team teaching? a) the nurse and the patient b) the patient and his family c) a nurse and another nurse
|
c) the nurse and another nurse
|
|
|
True/False Duplicating teaching that has already been completed by other members of the healthcare team is encouraged as it acts to reinforce previously learned material.
|
False: It wastes time and causes frustration
|
|
|
According the learning statistics, we remember__% of what we read and__% of what we say and do. a)80%,10% b)10%,30% c)10%,80%
|
c)10% of what we read and 80% of what we say and do
|
|
|
True or False: A contractual agreement is a legally binding document in which two separate parties agree to complete an activity.
|
False: Contractual agreements are a pact between two people setting out mutually agreed-on-goals. The contracts are usually informal and not legally binding.
|
|
|
True/False: It is better to plan for shorter, more frequent teaching sessions than for one or two longers sessions.
|
True: Short sessions allow patients to digest the new material and prevent them from becoming too tired or uncomfortable.
|
|
|
What type of teaching occurs unplanned and deals with the patient's immediate learning needs and concerns? a) formal teaching b) informal teaching c)unplanned teaching
|
b) informal teaching
|
|
|
What type of teaching is pre-planned and done to fulfill learner outcomes. a) formal teaching b) informal teaching c)unplanned teaching
|
a) formal teaching
|
|
|
True/False Only formal teaching is effective.
|
False: Both forms are effective when used appropriately
|
|
|
True/False Try to use accurate medical terms when speaking to the patient. These are adults and they need to be treated as so.
|
False: This will confuse the patient. Use terms they understand. If they have knowledge in the medical area then speak to them as so, but otherwise, cater your words to their level of education/knowledge.
|
|
|
True/False: Undesirable behavior is usually best ignored; negative reinforcement is generally ineffective.
|
True! Use positive reinforcement for good behaviors/accomplishments or ignore undesirable behavior.
|
|
|
True/False: It is best to evaluate one's own teaching effectiveness 1-2 days after the teaching session.
|
False: Evaluation should occur immediately after a teaching session.
|
|
|
True/False Questionnaires should be used to evaluate a teaching session.
|
True
|
|
|
Many women going through menopause need the assistance of a nurse when adjusting to the changes they experience. What type of crisis is this? a) situational b) menopausal c) developmental d) hormonal
|
c) developmental
|
|
|
A nurse has taught a diabetic patient how to administer his daily insulin. The nurse should evaluate the teaching learning process by: a) allowing the patient to practice the new skill they learned b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
|
|
What is the difference between the integrated and unifying approach to the spiritual dimension?
|
The integrated approach model has four equal dimensions(bio-psycho-social-spiritual) which influence each other. The unifying approach involves the spiritual dimension grounding the bio-social-psycho dimensions.
|
|
|
What are the 3 spiritual needs common to all religious traditions?
|
1. Meaning and purpose 2. Love and belonging 3. Forgiveness
|
|
|
Anything that pertains to a person's relationship with a nonmaterial life force or higher power is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
c) spirituality
|
|
|
A confident belief in something for which there is no proof or material evidence is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
b) faith
|
|
|
A person who denies the existence of God is a__ while a person who holds that nothing can be known about the existence of God is a___. a) agnostic, atheist b)atheist, agnostic c) atheist, protistant
|
b) atheist, agnostic
|
|
|
True or False: We cannot be spiritually whole or spiritually healthy unless the need for love is met.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion beleives in "the Great Physician" which taught the Four Nable Truths about suffering. a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
c) buddhism
|
|
|
Which religion denies the existence of health crises and believes that sickness and sin are errors of the human mind and not physical. a) Christian Scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
a) christian scientist
|
|
|
Which religion believes in divine healing through the "laying on of hands"? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons)
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on the appreciation of life and the desire to keep the body from untimely or unnecessary death? a) confucianism b) daoism c) hinduism d) Jehovah's witnesses
|
a) confucianism
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on health as a manifestation of the harmony of the universe, obtained through the proper balancing of internal and external forces? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints c) buddhism d) daoism
|
d) daoism
|
|
|
True/False: The courts have not supported the right of Jehovah Witness parents to refuse life-saving treatment for their child.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion allows only natural means of birth control and forbids abortion, euthanasia and sterilization?
|
Roman Catholicism
|
|
|
A nurse avoid touching the lips while administering oral medication for which of the following religions? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) Buddhism d) Hinduism
|
d) Hinduism
|
|
|
Which religion does not allow for blood transfusions? a) christian scientist b) Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints(mormons) c) Jehovah's Witnesses d) Daoism
|
c) Jehovah's Witnesses
|
|
|
True/False: The American Academy of Pediatrics is urging that all child abuse, neglect, and medical neglect statutes be applied without potential or actual exemption for religious beliefs.
|
True
|
|
|
A patients inability to accept the death of his son is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
a) pain
|
|
|
A belief about the worth of something, about what matters, that acts as a standard to guide one's behavior is termed: a) value system b)morality c)ethics d)value
|
d)value
|
|
|
An organization of values in which each is ranked along a continuum of importance, often leading to a personal code of conduct is termed: a) value system b)morality c)ethics d)value
|
a)value system
|
|
|
Modeling, moralizing, Laissez-faire, rewarding and punishing and responsible choice all represent: a)theories of ethics b) theories of morality c)modes of value transmission d) modes of ethics transmission
|
c)modes of value transmission
|
|
|
What mode of value transmission puts children at risk because it provides little opportunity for them to weigh different values?
|
Moralizing
|
|
|
What mode of value transmission gives the child little or no guidance and can lead to confusion and conflict?
|
Laissez-faire
|
|
|
The concern for the welfare and well-being of others is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
d) altruism
|
|
|
The right to self-determination and making decisions about your own healthcare is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
a) autonomy
|
|
|
The respect for the inherent worth and uniqueness of individuals and populations is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
b) human dignity
|
|
|
Acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics and accepted standards of practice is termed: a) autonomy b) human dignity c) integrity d)altruism
|
c) integrity
|
|
|
Upholding moral, legal, and humanistic principles is termed?
|
social justice
|
|
|
What are the 3 main activites involved in the process of placing value on something?
|
1. Choosing 2. Prizing 3. Acting
|
|
|
The systematic inquiry into principles of right and wrong conduct of virtue and vice, and of good and evil as they relate to conduct is termed? a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
a) ethics
|
|
|
Personal or communal standards of right and wrong are termed: a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
c) morals
|
|
|
Fields and disciplines grouped broadly under the rubric "the life sciences" is termed: a) ethics b)values c)morals d)bioethics
|
d) bioethics
|
|
|
The branch of bioethics that is literally concerned with ehtical problems "at the bedside" is termed a) nursing ethics b) clinical ethics c) bedside ethics
|
b) clinical ethics
|
|
|
Which subset of bioethics is concerned with the formal study of ethical issues that arise in the practice of nursing and the analysis used by nurses to make ethical judgments? a) nursing ethics b) clinical ethics c) bedside ethics
|
a) nursing ethics
|
|
|
A husband who lies and tells his wife that her dress looks nice on her is utilizing what theory of ethics? a) utilitarian b) deontologic c) authoritatian
|
a) utilitarian
|
|
|
A pro-life advocate who says that abortion is wrong reguardless of the reason for it, is utilizing what theory of ethics? a) utilitarian b) deontologic c) authoritatian
|
b) deontologic
|
|
|
What are the 4 components of Beauchamp/Childress's principle-based approach to bioethics?
|
1. Autonomy 2. nonmaleficence 3. beneficence 4. justice
|
|
|
A nurse sees a patient watching a soap-opera and she changes it to the health station is violating which principal of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
a) autonomy-respect the rights of the patient and let them make decisions
|
|
|
A nurse who promises to bring the patient a pitcher of water, but gets busy and forgets; is violating what principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
e) fidelity-keep promises
|
|
|
A nurse who is too busy to lower the bed before she exits the room; is violating what principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
b) nonmaleficence-avoid causing harm
|
|
|
A nurse who always sees her homeless patient last, as he is not paying for healthcare like the others, is violating which principle of bioethics? a) autonomy b) nonmaleficence c) beneficence d) justice e) fidelity
|
d) justice-act fairly and distribute the benefits, risks, and costs of nursing care justly
|
|
|
The natural ability to behave in an ethical way and to do the ethically right thing because it is the right thing to do; is termed? a) code of ethics b) morality c)moral agency d) ethical agency
|
d) ethical agency
|
|
|
What are the 2 cheif reasons nurses cite for the declining quality of nursing care at their facilities? a)inadequate staffing b)poor upper management c) burnout d) decreased nurse satisfaction
|
a) inadequate staffing & d) decreased nurse satisfaction
|
|
|
What is the difference between ethical dilemmas and ethical distress?
|
Ethical dilemma- you have to pick between 2+ different courses of action Ethical distress- you know the right thing to do but personal or institutional factors make it difficult to follow the correct course of action
|
|
|
What groups of patients have special advocacy needs?
|
Those with: sensory impairment, do not speak english, are very young or very old, seriously ill, physically, mentally or emotionally impaired, those lacking finacial or human resources
|
|
|
True/False: Nurses as advocates are in charge of making ethical decisions for their patients.
|
False: Instead, they facilitate patients' decision making.
|
|
|
True/False: Research supports the fact that educated patients experience better health and have fewer complications then less educated patients.
|
True
|
|
|
True/False: The basic purpose of teaching and counseling is to help patients become more independent from their families and nursing staff.
|
False: The basic purpose of teaching and counseling is to help patients and families develop the self-care abilities they need to maximize their functioning and quality of life.
|
|
|
Which aim of nursing does hygiene, nutrition, and exercise fall under? a) Promoting health b) Preventing Illness c) Restoring Health d) Facilitating Coping
|
a)Promoting Health
|
|
|
What are the 3 clinical areas that much of patient education focuses on?
|
1. Preparation for receiving care 2. Preparation before discharge c) Documentation of pt education
|
|
|
For Toddlers and preschoolers, is the heathcare teaching directed at the child or the parent?
|
The parent: although the child may have some degree of understanding about medical tests or procedures, health teaching continues to be directed toward the parents.
|
|
|
The ability to use logical reasoning to solve hypothetical problems is what stage of Piagets development?
|
Formal Operations
|
|
|
If a patient's intellectual development is delayed and they are able to use logical reasoning to solve concerte problems and think abstractly, what stage of Piagets development are they in?
|
Concrete operations
|
|
|
The science of teaching children and adolescents is termed_________, while the science of teaching adults is termed________. a) pedagogy,andragogy b) andragogy,pedagogy c)pedagogy, gerigogy
|
a) pedagogy-kids,andragogy-adults
|
|
|
True/False 10% of adults lack basic literacy skills needed to function successfully in our society.
|
False: 46-51% !!!!
|
|
|
The ability to read and write is termed?
|
Literacy
|
|
|
Learning the side effects of a new medication is termed: a) affective learning b) psychomotor learning c) cognitive learning
|
c) cognitive learning
|
|
|
Learning how to do a dressing change through the integration of mental and muscular activity is termed: a) affective learning b) psychomotor learning c) cognitive learning
|
b) psychomotor learning
|
|
|
A patient learning to value his health and have positive feelings towards his disease outcome is what type of learning? a) affective learning b) psychomotor learning c) cognitive learning
|
a) affective learning
|
|
|
The patient is considered the____source of information while the patients chart is considered the_____source of information. a)secondary,primary b)primary,secondary c) main, primary
|
b)patient-primary, medical record-secondary
|
|
|
What is needed before the nurse can involve family members in the teaching-learning process? a)doctor's order b)nurse's order c)social worker consult d) patient's permission
|
d) patient's permission
|
|
|
Which 2 people, when planning and coordinating the implimentation of a plan constitutes team teaching? a) the nurse and the patient b) the patient and his family c) a nurse and another nurse
|
c) the nurse and another nurse
|
|
|
True/False Duplicating teaching that has already been completed by other members of the healthcare team is encouraged as it acts to reinforce previously learned material.
|
False: It wastes time and causes frustration
|
|
|
According the learning statistics, we remember__% of what we read and__% of what we say and do. a)80%,10% b)10%,30% c)10%,80%
|
c)10% of what we read and 80% of what we say and do
|
|
|
True or False: A contractual agreement is a legally binding document in which two separate parties agree to complete an activity.
|
False: Contractual agreements are a pact between two people setting out mutually agreed-on-goals. The contracts are usually informal and not legally binding.
|
|
|
True/False: It is better to plan for shorter, more frequent teaching sessions than for one or two longers sessions.
|
True: Short sessions allow patients to digest the new material and prevent them from becoming too tired or uncomfortable.
|
|
|
What type of teaching occurs unplanned and deals with the patient's immediate learning needs and concerns? a) formal teaching b) informal teaching c)unplanned teaching
|
b) informal teaching
|
|
|
What type of teaching is pre-planned and done to fulfill learner outcomes. a) formal teaching b) informal teaching c)unplanned teaching
|
a) formal teaching
|
|
|
True/False Only formal teaching is effective.
|
False: Both forms are effective when used appropriately
|
|
|
True/False Try to use accurate medical terms when speaking to the patient. These are adults and they need to be treated as so.
|
False: This will confuse the patient. Use terms they understand. If they have knowledge in the medical area then speak to them as so, but otherwise, cater your words to their level of education/knowledge.
|
|
|
True/False: Undesirable behavior is usually best ignored; negative reinforcement is generally ineffective.
|
True! Use positive reinforcement for good behaviors/accomplishments or ignore undesirable behavior.
|
|
|
True/False: It is best to evaluate one's own teaching effectiveness 1-2 days after the teaching session.
|
False: Evaluation should occur immediately after a teaching session.
|
|
|
True/False Questionnaires should be used to evaluate a teaching session.
|
True
|
|
|
Many women going through menopause need the assistance of a nurse when adjusting to the changes they experience. What type of crisis is this? a) situational b) menopausal c) developmental d) hormonal
|
c) developmental
|
|
|
A nurse has taught a diabetic patient how to administer his daily insulin. The nurse should evaluate the teaching learning process by: a) allowing the patient to practice the new skill they learned b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
|
|
What is the difference between the integrated and unifying approach to the spiritual dimension?
|
The integrated approach model has four equal dimensions(bio-psycho-social-spiritual) which influence each other. The unifying approach involves the spiritual dimension grounding the bio-social-psycho dimensions.
|
|
|
What are the 3 spiritual needs common to all religious traditions?
|
1. Meaning and purpose 2. Love and belonging 3. Forgiveness
|
|
|
Anything that pertains to a person's relationship with a nonmaterial life force or higher power is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
c) spirituality
|
|
|
A confident belief in something for which there is no proof or material evidence is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
b) faith
|
|
|
A person who denies the existence of God is a__ while a person who holds that nothing can be known about the existence of God is a___. a) agnostic, atheist b)atheist, agnostic c) atheist, protistant
|
b) atheist, agnostic
|
|
|
True or False: We cannot be spiritually whole or spiritually healthy unless the need for love is met.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion beleives in "the Great Physician" which taught the Four Nable Truths about suffering. a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
c) buddhism
|
|
|
Which religion denies the existence of health crises and believes that sickness and sin are errors of the human mind and not physical. a) Christian Scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
a) christian scientist
|
|
|
Which religion believes in divine healing through the "laying on of hands"? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons)
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on the appreciation of life and the desire to keep the body from untimely or unnecessary death? a) confucianism b) daoism c) hinduism d) Jehovah's witnesses
|
a) confucianism
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on health as a manifestation of the harmony of the universe, obtained through the proper balancing of internal and external forces? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints c) buddhism d) daoism
|
d) daoism
|
|
|
True/False: The courts have not supported the right of Jehovah Witness parents to refuse life-saving treatment for their child.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion allows only natural means of birth control and forbids abortion, euthanasia and sterilization?
|
Roman Catholicism
|
|
|
A nurse avoid touching the lips while administering oral medication for which of the following religions? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) Buddhism d) Hinduism
|
d) Hinduism
|
|
|
Which religion does not allow for blood transfusions? a) christian scientist b) Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints(mormons) c) Jehovah's Witnesses d) Daoism
|
c) Jehovah's Witnesses
|
|
|
True/False: The American Academy of Pediatrics is urging that all child abuse, neglect, and medical neglect statutes be applied without potential or actual exemption for religious beliefs.
|
True
|
|
|
A patients inability to accept the death of his son is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
a) pain
|
|
|
A woman that is beaten by her husband says "I guess God has forgotten and abondoned me"is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
b)alienation
|
|
|
A man recently diagnosed with AIDS says" Does God hate me! Am I being punished!" is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
e) anger
|
|
|
A man who lives alone says "No one would miss me if I died; it would prob be for the best" is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
g) despair
|
|
|
A man diagnosed with cancer says" I don't get it,I pray and where is God when I need him! I am not going to pray anymore! is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss
|
f) loss
|
|
|
"My parents were Methodists, but when I left home for college I stopped going to church...there was always something else to do. I started going again but it never meant much: is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis?
|
Spiritual Anxiety
|
|
|
You are least likely to encounter resistance to emergency lie-saving surgery for a patient from which of the following families? a) Christian Scientist family b) Faith Assembly Healer family c) Jehovah's Witness family d) Orthodox Jewish family
|
Orthodox Jewish family
|
|
|
When assessment data point to a spiritual problem that can be treated by independent nursing intervention, it receives the NANDA- approved diagnosis label: a) Spiritual Alienation b) Spiritual Despair c) Spiritual Distress d) Spiritual Pain
|
c. Spiritual Distress: The only NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis amoung the options is Spiritual Distress. The other options may be further specifications of the broader diagnosis Spiritual Distress
|
|
|
Who has prescriptive authority? Check all that apply: a) physicians b) dentists c) nurses d) CNAs e) podiatrists f) APRNs g) PAs h) respiratory therapists
|
a) physicians b) dentists e) podiatrists f) APRNs g) PAs
|
|
|
Which name identifies a drug's active ingredient? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
a) generic name
|
|
|
Which name is a precise description of the drug's chemical composition? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
d) chemical name
|
|
|
By which name is a drug identified by in the offical publications? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
b) official name
|
|
|
Which drug name is selected by the drug company that sells the drug and is protected by trademark? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
c) trade name
|
|
|
Which drugs names should the nurse be familiar with? a) generic and trade b) chemical and generic c) trade and offical d) all 5 names
|
a) generic and trade
|
|
|
Concerning plasma drug levels, what is the trough level? a)the highest blood plasma concentration of the drug b) the lowest plasma concentration of the drug c) the average sustained concentration of the drug
|
b) the lowest plasma concentration of the drug
|
|
|
What is the primary site for drug metabolism? a) liver b) kidneys c) stomach d) intestines
|
a) liver
|
|
|
In terms of drug metabolism, what is a cummulative effect?
|
When the body cannot metabolize one dose of a drug before another dose is administered. The drug is taken in more frequently than it is excreted, and each new dose increases the total quantity in the body.
|
|
|
In a drug-drug interaction, the combined effect of 2+ drugs acting simutaneously can produces an effect > of each drug alone termed ______ or < than that of each drug alone termed _____. (teratogenic effect, antagonist effect, synergistic effect)
|
Antagonist- 2+ drugs produce an effect less then that of each drug alone; Synergistic effect- 2+ drugs produce an effect greater than that of each drug alone
|
|
|
Drugs such as cocaine, alcohol and dilantin have a ____ effect are known to have the potential to cause developmental defects in the embryo or fetus and are definetely contraindicted. a) teratogenic effect b) antagonist effect c)synergistic effect
|
a)teratogenic
|
|
|
True or false: In most settings, a student nurse is not permitted to accept a verbal order from a physician.
|
True
|
|
|
Who determines the length of time an order for a narcotic remains valid? a) the doctor b) hospital policy c) state law d) pharmacy
|
c) state law
|
|
|
Which system of measurement uses grains,minim, drams, ounces, pints, quarts, roman numerals, and fractions? a) Metric b) Apothecary c) Household
|
b) Apothecary
|
|
|
How is the narcotic count performed in computerized narcotic dispensing systems? a) the nurse does it at the end of her shift b) no one does it; the computer does it automatically c) narcotic counts are not done: nurses are on the honor system
|
b) no one does it; the computer does it automatically; Unless the narcotic count is incorrect, computerized systems eliminate the need to manually check the narcotic count at specific intervals each day
|
|
|
JCAHO states that at least __ patient identifier(s) must be used whenever administering patient medications. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
|
b) 2
|
|
|
When giving multiple meds to a patient: a) crush them together in one cup b) mix them all in apple sause and give in one spoonful if possible/safe c) give each med individually d) combine the smaller meds together, and give larger pills separatly
|
c) Give each med individually so that if one is refused or dropped, positive identification can be made and the drug can be recorded or replaced.
|
|
|
True or False: Checking the patients mouth to see if a pill was swallowed is derogatory and makes the patient feel bullied so it should not be practiced.
|
False: Occasionally a patient may unintentionally or intentionally hide a medication in the mouth or cheek"" it. You should check their mouth. If it's an elderly patient and they cheek it, they may inadvertently choke on it later! "
|
|
|
What should you do if you need to administer 1/2 a tablet and it is not score? a) manually break it in half b) use a disignated sharp object or knife to score it manually then break it in half c) call pharmacy and get a scored tablet
|
c) call pharmacy and get a scored tablet; manually breaking an unscored tablem or scoring the tablet yourself can result in an inaccurate dose! Plus you should not be playing with knives :)
|
|
|
Other than mixing it with a tasty food or drink, how would you minimize the bad flavor of an oily medication? Check all that apply: a) refrigerate it b) have pt suck on ice beforehand c) administer licocane spray to the mouth and tongue
|
a) refrigerate it- cold oil is less aromatic than oil at room temp. b) have pt suck on ice beforehand- the ice knumbs the taste buds
|
|
|
When choosing a food or drink to mix with a child's medication, pick something the child really enjoys such as their favorite food or formula. True or False?
|
False: The item should not be an essential part of the child's diet, such as formula or the child's favorite food. The child may refuse to eat a food associated with medications.
|
|
|
How would you facilitate swallowing in an older patient? a) put on the food network station b) massage their stomach c) plug their nose, and they will have to swallow to breath d) massage their laryngeal prominence
|
d) massage their laryngeal prominence; If you picked c, I am reporting you to JCAHO.
|
|
|
When administering medication through an enteral feeding tube, what should the temperature of the medication be? a) hot b) cold c) room temp d) it doesn't matter
|
c) room temp; cold liquids may cause patient discomfort and odviously you don't want to risk burning the patient
|
|
|
What's wrong here? A student nurse disconnects a patient's nasogastric tube from suction, flushes it with 30cc water, administers liquid medication at room temp, flushes it again with 30cc water and then reconnects the NG tube back up to suction.
|
The student should have kept the NG tube disconnected from the suction and clamped for 20-30 minutes after administering the medication to allow the med to absorb.
|
|
|
A patient has tube feeding running at 40 cc/hr. You have an order for liquid Tylenol via the peg tube port. What needs to be checked prior to giving the medication? a)the pt's last bm b) if the drug is compatible with the tube feed c) the pt's BP
|
b) Compatability with the tube feeding; Absorption of some drugs is affected by tube feeding formulas. Discontinue a continuous tube feeding and leave the tube clamped for the required period of time before and after the medication has been given.
|
|
|
Needle gauges are numbered 18 through 30. As the diameter of the needle increases, the gauge(or width of the needle) _____. a) increases b) decreases c) stays the same
|
b) decreases; So an 18-gauge needle is larger in diameter than a 30-gauge needle.
|
|
|
What part of a needle don't need to be kept sterile during administration/preparation? a)inside of the barrel b)exterior of the needle hub c)inside of the barrel d) the part of the pluger that enters the barrel e)tip of the barrel f) needle
|
b) the exterior of the needle hub
|
|
|
What should be done because of the risk of small glass shards falling into the ampule after snapping it open? a) pour ampule contents through a filter screen b)snap a filter over the top of the ampule c) use a filter needle
|
c) use a filter needle (I made up the rest of the choices!)
|
|
|
True or False: When drawing fluid out of an ampule, DO NOT invert the ampule because the medication will run right out of the large opening you created when you snapped the top off the ampule.
|
False: The liquid will not flow out! It is magic!
|
|
|
What must you avoid when drawing medication out of an ampule? a) touching the needle to the bottom of the ampule b) touching the needle to the liquid c) touching the needle to the rim of the ampule
|
c) touching the needle to the rim of the ampule contaminates the needle
|
|
|
What should you do to facilitate removal of medication from an ampule? a) inject saline into the ampule b) inject heparin into the ampule c) inject air into the ampule d) inject cheese wiz into the ampule
|
c) inject air into the ampule
|
|
|
How much air should you inject into an ampule to facilitate removal of the medication?
|
As much medication as you are going to draw out is how much air you will push in. So if you need 1 unit of insulin, push 1 unit of air into the insulin vial.
|
|
|
What do you do if you have a prefilled syringe with 1.5 mL Lovenox but you have an MD order for 1mL Lovenox? a) don't use the prefilled syringe b) inject only the ordered 1mL then disguard the needle(with the remaining 0.5mL) c)eject excess medication
|
c) Most prefilled cartridges are overfilled; so eject the excess medication to give an exact dose and avoid a medication error.
|
|
|
True or False: Always eject air from an needle as the air is harmful.
|
False: Some prefilled syringes or cartridges come with excess air. In some cases, this air should not be expelled before administering the medication. Lovenox is an example of a syringe where the air should not be expelled before administering.
|
|
|
When mixing two drugs in one syringe, what would indicate an incompatibility? a) the solution remains clear b) the solution turns cloudy and forms a precipitate c) the solutions mix and you can't distinguish between the 2 different meds in the vial
|
b) the solution turns cloudy and forms a precipitate
|
|
|
How are insulin syringes different then other syringes? a) they are calibrated in units b) they are made out of thicker plastic c) they hold more volume d) they are made out of glass
|
a) the are calibrated in units
|
|
|
Where are subcutaneous injections administered into? a)the dermis b) the epidermis c) the muscle d) the adipose tissue
|
d) the adipose tissue
|
|
|
Why do you massage the injection site after giving a shot?
|
You dont!!! Massaging the site is not necessary and can damage underlying tissue and increase the absorption of the medication.
|
|
|
Why would you particularly not massage the injection site after administering heparin? a) it will inactivate the drug b) it will cause a chemical reaction c) it will cause itching and a rash d) it can contribute to hematoma formation
|
d) it can contribute to hematoma formation
|
|
|
What is the most common site used to administer heparin? a) deltoid muscle b) outer middle third of the thigh c) vastus lateralis d) abdomen
|
d) abdomen
|
|
|
What area of the abdomen must be avoided when administering and injection? a) the sides of the abdomen b) the 2" aroung the umbilicus and the belt line c) the belt line and 6" around the umbilicus d) the abdomen should not be used for injections
|
b) the 2" aroung the umbilicus and the belt line
|
|
|
Where on the vastus lateralis should you administer injections? a) outer middle third b) the inner middle third c) the outer upper third d) the outer lower third
|
a) the outer middle third
|
|
|
Who are appropriate candidates for using the deltoid muscle for an injection site? a) adults b) adults and children c) adults,children and babies
|
a) adults; The deltoid muscle is not developed well enough in infants and children to absorb medications adequately
|
|
|
What site is no longer recommended for injection due to reported significant injury, pain, and paralysis? a) vastus lateralis b) deltoid muscle c) dorsogluteal d) biceptsfemoris
|
c) dorsogluteal
|
|
|
Bolus medications should be administered AT LEAST over how much time? a) 10 seconds b) 30 seconds c) 1 minute d) 5 minutes
|
c) At least one minute; however exact administration times should be confirmed by consulting a pharmacist or drug reference.
|
|
|
What is an inunction? a)mixing a medication into a suppository b) mixing a medication with alcohol c) mixing a medication with saline d) mixing a medication in an ointment or agent
|
d) mixing a medication in an ointment or agent; The medication is then rubbed onto the skin for absorption.
|
|
|
When properly placed, eye medication disks: a) are covered by the lower lid b) are covered by the upper lid c) are centered on the cornea d) migrate behind to the back of the eye near the optic nerve attachment site.
|
a) are covered by the lower lid
|
|
|
What if a patient who wears contact lenses needs to use an eye medication disk? a) they have to remove their contacts while the disk is in place b) they can continue to wear their contacts with the disk in place
|
b) they can continue to wear their contacts with the disk in place
|
|
|
When do most medication errors occur? Check all that apply. a) with student nurses b)on admission to a hospital c) at transfer from one department to another d) while in the ER d) at discharge home or to another facility
|
Most medication errors occur at point of transition in care such as: b) on admission to a hospital c) at transfer from one department to another d) at discharge home or to another facility
|
|
|
The name selected and protected by the pharmaceutical company selling the drug and protected by trademark is the drug's a) chemical name b) generic name c) official name d) trade name
|
d) trade name
|
|
|
Put the following steps in order following the administration of a wrong medication: Notify and physician and nurse manager; Check the patients condition; Write a description of the error on the patients medical record.
|
1. Check the patients condition immediately when the error is noted: observe for the development of adverse effects related to the error 2) Notify the nurse manager and the physician 3) Write a description of the error on the patients medical record
|
|
|
True/False Only formal teaching is effective.
|
False: Both forms are effective when used appropriately
|
|
|
True/False Try to use accurate medical terms when speaking to the patient. These are adults and they need to be treated as so.
|
False: This will confuse the patient. Use terms they understand. If they have knowledge in the medical area then speak to them as so, but otherwise, cater your words to their level of education/knowledge.
|
|
|
True/False: Undesirable behavior is usually best ignored; negative reinforcement is generally ineffective.
|
True! Use positive reinforcement for good behaviors/accomplishments or ignore undesirable behavior.
|
|
|
True/False: It is best to evaluate one's own teaching effectiveness 1-2 days after the teaching session.
|
False: Evaluation should occur immediately after a teaching session.
|
|
|
True/False Questionnaires should be used to evaluate a teaching session.
|
True
|
|
|
Many women going through menopause need the assistance of a nurse when adjusting to the changes they experience. What type of crisis is this? a) situational b) menopausal c) developmental d) hormonal
|
c) developmental
|
|
|
A nurse has taught a diabetic patient how to administer his daily insulin. The nurse should evaluate the teaching learning process by: a) allowing the patient to practice the new skill they learned b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
|
|
What is the difference between the integrated and unifying approach to the spiritual dimension?
|
The integrated approach model has four equal dimensions(bio-psycho-social-spiritual) which influence each other. The unifying approach involves the spiritual dimension grounding the bio-social-psycho dimensions.
|
|
|
What are the 3 spiritual needs common to all religious traditions?
|
1. Meaning and purpose 2. Love and belonging 3. Forgiveness
|
|
|
Anything that pertains to a person's relationship with a nonmaterial life force or higher power is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
c) spirituality
|
|
|
A confident belief in something for which there is no proof or material evidence is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
b) faith
|
|
|
A person who denies the existence of God is a__ while a person who holds that nothing can be known about the existence of God is a___. a) agnostic, atheist b)atheist, agnostic c) atheist, protistant
|
b) atheist, agnostic
|
|
|
True or False: We cannot be spiritually whole or spiritually healthy unless the need for love is met.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion beleives in "the Great Physician" which taught the Four Nable Truths about suffering. a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
c) buddhism
|
|
|
Which religion denies the existence of health crises and believes that sickness and sin are errors of the human mind and not physical. a) Christian Scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
a) christian scientist
|
|
|
Which religion believes in divine healing through the "laying on of hands"? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons)
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on the appreciation of life and the desire to keep the body from untimely or unnecessary death? a) confucianism b) daoism c) hinduism d) Jehovah's witnesses
|
a) confucianism
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on health as a manifestation of the harmony of the universe, obtained through the proper balancing of internal and external forces? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints c) buddhism d) daoism
|
d) daoism
|
|
|
True/False: The courts have not supported the right of Jehovah Witness parents to refuse life-saving treatment for their child.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion allows only natural means of birth control and forbids abortion, euthanasia and sterilization?
|
Roman Catholicism
|
|
|
A nurse avoid touching the lips while administering oral medication for which of the following religions? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) Buddhism d) Hinduism
|
d) Hinduism
|
|
|
Which religion does not allow for blood transfusions? a) christian scientist b) Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints(mormons) c) Jehovah's Witnesses d) Daoism
|
c) Jehovah's Witnesses
|
|
|
True/False: The American Academy of Pediatrics is urging that all child abuse, neglect, and medical neglect statutes be applied without potential or actual exemption for religious beliefs.
|
True
|
|
|
A patients inability to accept the death of his son is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
a) pain
|
|
|
A woman that is beaten by her husband says "I guess God has forgotten and abondoned me"is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
b)alienation
|
|
|
A man recently diagnosed with AIDS says" Does God hate me! Am I being punished!" is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
e) anger
|
|
|
A man who lives alone says "No one would miss me if I died; it would prob be for the best" is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
g) despair
|
|
|
A man diagnosed with cancer says" I don't get it,I pray and where is God when I need him! I am not going to pray anymore! is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss
|
f) loss
|
|
|
"My parents were Methodists, but when I left home for college I stopped going to church...there was always something else to do. I started going again but it never meant much: is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis?
|
Spiritual Anxiety
|
|
|
You are least likely to encounter resistance to emergency lie-saving surgery for a patient from which of the following families? a) Christian Scientist family b) Faith Assembly Healer family c) Jehovah's Witness family d) Orthodox Jewish family
|
Orthodox Jewish family
|
|
|
When assessment data point to a spiritual problem that can be treated by independent nursing intervention, it receives the NANDA- approved diagnosis label: a) Spiritual Alienation b) Spiritual Despair c) Spiritual Distress d) Spiritual Pain
|
c. Spiritual Distress: The only NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis amoung the options is Spiritual Distress. The other options may be further specifications of the broader diagnosis Spiritual Distress
|
|
|
Who has prescriptive authority? Check all that apply: a) physicians b) dentists c) nurses d) CNAs e) podiatrists f) APRNs g) PAs h) respiratory therapists
|
a) physicians b) dentists e) podiatrists f) APRNs g) PAs
|
|
|
Which name identifies a drug's active ingredient? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
a) generic name
|
|
|
Which name is a precise description of the drug's chemical composition? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
d) chemical name
|
|
|
By which name is a drug identified by in the offical publications? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
b) official name
|
|
|
Which drug name is selected by the drug company that sells the drug and is protected by trademark? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
c) trade name
|
|
|
Which drugs names should the nurse be familiar with? a) generic and trade b) chemical and generic c) trade and offical d) all 5 names
|
a) generic and trade
|
|
|
Concerning plasma drug levels, what is the trough level? a)the highest blood plasma concentration of the drug b) the lowest plasma concentration of the drug c) the average sustained concentration of the drug
|
b) the lowest plasma concentration of the drug
|
|
|
What is the primary site for drug metabolism? a) liver b) kidneys c) stomach d) intestines
|
a) liver
|
|
|
In terms of drug metabolism, what is a cummulative effect?
|
When the body cannot metabolize one dose of a drug before another dose is administered. The drug is taken in more frequently than it is excreted, and each new dose increases the total quantity in the body.
|
|
|
In a drug-drug interaction, the combined effect of 2+ drugs acting simutaneously can produces an effect > of each drug alone termed ______ or < than that of each drug alone termed _____. (teratogenic effect, antagonist effect, synergistic effect)
|
Antagonist- 2+ drugs produce an effect less then that of each drug alone; Synergistic effect- 2+ drugs produce an effect greater than that of each drug alone
|
|
|
Drugs such as cocaine, alcohol and dilantin have a ____ effect are known to have the potential to cause developmental defects in the embryo or fetus and are definetely contraindicted. a) teratogenic effect b) antagonist effect c)synergistic effect
|
a)teratogenic
|
|
|
True or false: In most settings, a student nurse is not permitted to accept a verbal order from a physician.
|
True
|
|
|
Who determines the length of time an order for a narcotic remains valid? a) the doctor b) hospital policy c) state law d) pharmacy
|
c) state law
|
|
|
Which system of measurement uses grains,minim, drams, ounces, pints, quarts, roman numerals, and fractions? a) Metric b) Apothecary c) Household
|
b) Apothecary
|
|
|
How is the narcotic count performed in computerized narcotic dispensing systems? a) the nurse does it at the end of her shift b) no one does it; the computer does it automatically c) narcotic counts are not done: nurses are on the honor system
|
b) no one does it; the computer does it automatically; Unless the narcotic count is incorrect, computerized systems eliminate the need to manually check the narcotic count at specific intervals each day
|
|
|
JCAHO states that at least __ patient identifier(s) must be used whenever administering patient medications. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
|
b) 2
|
|
|
When giving multiple meds to a patient: a) crush them together in one cup b) mix them all in apple sause and give in one spoonful if possible/safe c) give each med individually d) combine the smaller meds together, and give larger pills separatly
|
c) Give each med individually so that if one is refused or dropped, positive identification can be made and the drug can be recorded or replaced.
|
|
|
True or False: Checking the patients mouth to see if a pill was swallowed is derogatory and makes the patient feel bullied so it should not be practiced.
|
False: Occasionally a patient may unintentionally or intentionally hide a medication in the mouth or cheek"" it. You should check their mouth. If it's an elderly patient and they cheek it, they may inadvertently choke on it later! "
|
|
|
True/False Only formal teaching is effective.
|
False: Both forms are effective when used appropriately
|
|
|
True/False Try to use accurate medical terms when speaking to the patient. These are adults and they need to be treated as so.
|
False: This will confuse the patient. Use terms they understand. If they have knowledge in the medical area then speak to them as so, but otherwise, cater your words to their level of education/knowledge.
|
|
|
True/False: Undesirable behavior is usually best ignored; negative reinforcement is generally ineffective.
|
True! Use positive reinforcement for good behaviors/accomplishments or ignore undesirable behavior.
|
|
|
True/False: It is best to evaluate one's own teaching effectiveness 1-2 days after the teaching session.
|
False: Evaluation should occur immediately after a teaching session.
|
|
|
True/False Questionnaires should be used to evaluate a teaching session.
|
True
|
|
|
Many women going through menopause need the assistance of a nurse when adjusting to the changes they experience. What type of crisis is this? a) situational b) menopausal c) developmental d) hormonal
|
c) developmental
|
|
|
A nurse has taught a diabetic patient how to administer his daily insulin. The nurse should evaluate the teaching learning process by: a) allowing the patient to practice the new skill they learned b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
b) deciding if the learning outcomes have been achieved
|
|
|
What is the difference between the integrated and unifying approach to the spiritual dimension?
|
The integrated approach model has four equal dimensions(bio-psycho-social-spiritual) which influence each other. The unifying approach involves the spiritual dimension grounding the bio-social-psycho dimensions.
|
|
|
What are the 3 spiritual needs common to all religious traditions?
|
1. Meaning and purpose 2. Love and belonging 3. Forgiveness
|
|
|
Anything that pertains to a person's relationship with a nonmaterial life force or higher power is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
c) spirituality
|
|
|
A confident belief in something for which there is no proof or material evidence is termed: a) religion b) faith c) spirituality
|
b) faith
|
|
|
A person who denies the existence of God is a__ while a person who holds that nothing can be known about the existence of God is a___. a) agnostic, atheist b)atheist, agnostic c) atheist, protistant
|
b) atheist, agnostic
|
|
|
True or False: We cannot be spiritually whole or spiritually healthy unless the need for love is met.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion beleives in "the Great Physician" which taught the Four Nable Truths about suffering. a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
c) buddhism
|
|
|
Which religion denies the existence of health crises and believes that sickness and sin are errors of the human mind and not physical. a) Christian Scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
a) christian scientist
|
|
|
Which religion believes in divine healing through the "laying on of hands"? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) buddhism d) daoism
|
b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons)
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on the appreciation of life and the desire to keep the body from untimely or unnecessary death? a) confucianism b) daoism c) hinduism d) Jehovah's witnesses
|
a) confucianism
|
|
|
Which religion focuses on health as a manifestation of the harmony of the universe, obtained through the proper balancing of internal and external forces? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints c) buddhism d) daoism
|
d) daoism
|
|
|
True/False: The courts have not supported the right of Jehovah Witness parents to refuse life-saving treatment for their child.
|
True
|
|
|
Which religion allows only natural means of birth control and forbids abortion, euthanasia and sterilization?
|
Roman Catholicism
|
|
|
A nurse avoid touching the lips while administering oral medication for which of the following religions? a) christian scientist b) church of jesus christ of latter day saints(mormons) c) Buddhism d) Hinduism
|
d) Hinduism
|
|
|
Which religion does not allow for blood transfusions? a) christian scientist b) Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints(mormons) c) Jehovah's Witnesses d) Daoism
|
c) Jehovah's Witnesses
|
|
|
True/False: The American Academy of Pediatrics is urging that all child abuse, neglect, and medical neglect statutes be applied without potential or actual exemption for religious beliefs.
|
True
|
|
|
A patients inability to accept the death of his son is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
a) pain
|
|
|
A woman that is beaten by her husband says "I guess God has forgotten and abondoned me"is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
b)alienation
|
|
|
A man recently diagnosed with AIDS says" Does God hate me! Am I being punished!" is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
e) anger
|
|
|
A man who lives alone says "No one would miss me if I died; it would prob be for the best" is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss g) despair
|
g) despair
|
|
|
A man diagnosed with cancer says" I don't get it,I pray and where is God when I need him! I am not going to pray anymore! is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis? a)pain b) alienation c) anxiety d) guilt e) anger f) loss
|
f) loss
|
|
|
"My parents were Methodists, but when I left home for college I stopped going to church...there was always something else to do. I started going again but it never meant much: is an example of what Spiritual Distress nursing diagnosis?
|
Spiritual Anxiety
|
|
|
You are least likely to encounter resistance to emergency lie-saving surgery for a patient from which of the following families? a) Christian Scientist family b) Faith Assembly Healer family c) Jehovah's Witness family d) Orthodox Jewish family
|
Orthodox Jewish family
|
|
|
When assessment data point to a spiritual problem that can be treated by independent nursing intervention, it receives the NANDA- approved diagnosis label: a) Spiritual Alienation b) Spiritual Despair c) Spiritual Distress d) Spiritual Pain
|
c. Spiritual Distress: The only NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis amoung the options is Spiritual Distress. The other options may be further specifications of the broader diagnosis Spiritual Distress
|
|
|
Who has prescriptive authority? Check all that apply: a) physicians b) dentists c) nurses d) CNAs e) podiatrists f) APRNs g) PAs h) respiratory therapists
|
a) physicians b) dentists e) podiatrists f) APRNs g) PAs
|
|
|
Which name identifies a drug's active ingredient? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
a) generic name
|
|
|
Which name is a precise description of the drug's chemical composition? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
d) chemical name
|
|
|
By which name is a drug identified by in the offical publications? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
b) official name
|
|
|
Which drug name is selected by the drug company that sells the drug and is protected by trademark? a) generic name b) official name c) trade name d) chemical name
|
c) trade name
|
|
|
Which drugs names should the nurse be familiar with? a) generic and trade b) chemical and generic c) trade and offical d) all 5 names
|
a) generic and trade
|
|
|
Concerning plasma drug levels, what is the trough level? a)the highest blood plasma concentration of the drug b) the lowest plasma concentration of the drug c) the average sustained concentration of the drug
|
b) the lowest plasma concentration of the drug
|
|
|
What is the primary site for drug metabolism? a) liver b) kidneys c) stomach d) intestines
|
a) liver
|
|
|
In terms of drug metabolism, what is a cummulative effect?
|
When the body cannot metabolize one dose of a drug before another dose is administered. The drug is taken in more frequently than it is excreted, and each new dose increases the total quantity in the body.
|
|
|
In a drug-drug interaction, the combined effect of 2+ drugs acting simutaneously can produces an effect > of each drug alone termed ______ or < than that of each drug alone termed _____. (teratogenic effect, antagonist effect, synergistic effect)
|
Antagonist- 2+ drugs produce an effect less then that of each drug alone; Synergistic effect- 2+ drugs produce an effect greater than that of each drug alone
|
|
|
Drugs such as cocaine, alcohol and dilantin have a ____ effect are known to have the potential to cause developmental defects in the embryo or fetus and are definetely contraindicted. a) teratogenic effect b) antagonist effect c)synergistic effect
|
a)teratogenic
|
|
|
True or false: In most settings, a student nurse is not permitted to accept a verbal order from a physician.
|
True
|
|
|
Who determines the length of time an order for a narcotic remains valid? a) the doctor b) hospital policy c) state law d) pharmacy
|
c) state law
|
|
|
Which system of measurement uses grains,minim, drams, ounces, pints, quarts, roman numerals, and fractions? a) Metric b) Apothecary c) Household
|
b) Apothecary
|
|
|
How is the narcotic count performed in computerized narcotic dispensing systems? a) the nurse does it at the end of her shift b) no one does it; the computer does it automatically c) narcotic counts are not done: nurses are on the honor system
|
b) no one does it; the computer does it automatically; Unless the narcotic count is incorrect, computerized systems eliminate the need to manually check the narcotic count at specific intervals each day
|
|
|
JCAHO states that at least __ patient identifier(s) must be used whenever administering patient medications. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
|
b) 2
|
|
|
When giving multiple meds to a patient: a) crush them together in one cup b) mix them all in apple sause and give in one spoonful if possible/safe c) give each med individually d) combine the smaller meds together, and give larger pills separatly
|
c) Give each med individually so that if one is refused or dropped, positive identification can be made and the drug can be recorded or replaced.
|
|
|
True or False: Checking the patients mouth to see if a pill was swallowed is derogatory and makes the patient feel bullied so it should not be practiced.
|
False: Occasionally a patient may unintentionally or intentionally hide a medication in the mouth or cheek"" it. You should check their mouth. If it's an elderly patient and they cheek it, they may inadvertently choke on it later! "
|
|
|
What should you do if you need to administer 1/2 a tablet and it is not score? a) manually break it in half b) use a disignated sharp object or knife to score it manually then break it in half c) call pharmacy and get a scored tablet
|
c) call pharmacy and get a scored tablet; manually breaking an unscored tablem or scoring the tablet yourself can result in an inaccurate dose! Plus you should not be playing with knives :)
|
|
|
Other than mixing it with a tasty food or drink, how would you minimize the bad flavor of an oily medication? Check all that apply: a) refrigerate it b) have pt suck on ice beforehand c) administer licocane spray to the mouth and tongue
|
a) refrigerate it- cold oil is less aromatic than oil at room temp. b) have pt suck on ice beforehand- the ice knumbs the taste buds
|
|
|
When choosing a food or drink to mix with a child's medication, pick something the child really enjoys such as their favorite food or formula. True or False?
|
False: The item should not be an essential part of the child's diet, such as formula or the child's favorite food. The child may refuse to eat a food associated with medications.
|
|
|
How would you facilitate swallowing in an older patient? a) put on the food network station b) massage their stomach c) plug their nose, and they will have to swallow to breath d) massage their laryngeal prominence
|
d) massage their laryngeal prominence; If you picked c, I am reporting you to JCAHO.
|
|
|
When administering medication through an enteral feeding tube, what should the temperature of the medication be? a) hot b) cold c) room temp d) it doesn't matter
|
c) room temp; cold liquids may cause patient discomfort and odviously you don't want to risk burning the patient
|
|
|
What's wrong here? A student nurse disconnects a patient's nasogastric tube from suction, flushes it with 30cc water, administers liquid medication at room temp, flushes it again with 30cc water and then reconnects the NG tube back up to suction.
|
The student should have kept the NG tube disconnected from the suction and clamped for 20-30 minutes after administering the medication to allow the med to absorb.
|
|
|
A patient has tube feeding running at 40 cc/hr. You have an order for liquid Tylenol via the peg tube port. What needs to be checked prior to giving the medication? a)the pt's last bm b) if the drug is compatible with the tube feed c) the pt's BP
|
b) Compatability with the tube feeding; Absorption of some drugs is affected by tube feeding formulas. Discontinue a continuous tube feeding and leave the tube clamped for the required period of time before and after the medication has been given.
|
|
|
Needle gauges are numbered 18 through 30. As the diameter of the needle increases, the gauge(or width of the needle) _____. a) increases b) decreases c) stays the same
|
b) decreases; So an 18-gauge needle is larger in diameter than a 30-gauge needle.
|
|
|
What part of a needle don't need to be kept sterile during administration/preparation? a)inside of the barrel b)exterior of the needle hub c)inside of the barrel d) the part of the pluger that enters the barrel e)tip of the barrel f) needle
|
b) the exterior of the needle hub
|
|
|
What should be done because of the risk of small glass shards falling into the ampule after snapping it open? a) pour ampule contents through a filter screen b)snap a filter over the top of the ampule c) use a filter needle
|
c) use a filter needle (I made up the rest of the choices!)
|
|
|
True or False: When drawing fluid out of an ampule, DO NOT invert the ampule because the medication will run right out of the large opening you created when you snapped the top off the ampule.
|
False: The liquid will not flow out! It is magic!
|
|
|
What must you avoid when drawing medication out of an ampule? a) touching the needle to the bottom of the ampule b) touching the needle to the liquid c) touching the needle to the rim of the ampule
|
c) touching the needle to the rim of the ampule contaminates the needle
|
|
|
What should you do to facilitate removal of medication from an ampule? a) inject saline into the ampule b) inject heparin into the ampule c) inject air into the ampule d) inject cheese wiz into the ampule
|
c) inject air into the ampule
|
|
|
How much air should you inject into an ampule to facilitate removal of the medication?
|
As much medication as you are going to draw out is how much air you will push in. So if you need 1 unit of insulin, push 1 unit of air into the insulin vial.
|
|
|
What do you do if you have a prefilled syringe with 1.5 mL Lovenox but you have an MD order for 1mL Lovenox? a) don't use the prefilled syringe b) inject only the ordered 1mL then disguard the needle(with the remaining 0.5mL) c)eject excess medication
|
c) Most prefilled cartridges are overfilled; so eject the excess medication to give an exact dose and avoid a medication error.
|
|
|
True or False: Always eject air from an needle as the air is harmful.
|
False: Some prefilled syringes or cartridges come with excess air. In some cases, this air should not be expelled before administering the medication. Lovenox is an example of a syringe where the air should not be expelled before administering.
|
|
|
When mixing two drugs in one syringe, what would indicate an incompatibility? a) the solution remains clear b) the solution turns cloudy and forms a precipitate c) the solutions mix and you can't distinguish between the 2 different meds in the vial
|
b) the solution turns cloudy and forms a precipitate
|
|
|
How are insulin syringes different then other syringes? a) they are calibrated in units b) they are made out of thicker plastic c) they hold more volume d) they are made out of glass
|
a) the are calibrated in units
|
|
|
Where are subcutaneous injections administered into? a)the dermis b) the epidermis c) the muscle d) the adipose tissue
|
d) the adipose tissue
|
|
|
Why do you massage the injection site after giving a shot?
|
You dont!!! Massaging the site is not necessary and can damage underlying tissue and increase the absorption of the medication.
|
|
|
Why would you particularly not massage the injection site after administering heparin? a) it will inactivate the drug b) it will cause a chemical reaction c) it will cause itching and a rash d) it can contribute to hematoma formation
|
d) it can contribute to hematoma formation
|
|
|
What is the most common site used to administer heparin? a) deltoid muscle b) outer middle third of the thigh c) vastus lateralis d) abdomen
|
d) abdomen
|
|
|
What area of the abdomen must be avoided when administering and injection? a) the sides of the abdomen b) the 2" aroung the umbilicus and the belt line c) the belt line and 6" around the umbilicus d) the abdomen should not be used for injections
|
b) the 2" aroung the umbilicus and the belt line
|
|
|
Where on the vastus lateralis should you administer injections? a) outer middle third b) the inner middle third c) the outer upper third d) the outer lower third
|
a) the outer middle third
|
|
|
Who are appropriate candidates for using the deltoid muscle for an injection site? a) adults b) adults and children c) adults,children and babies
|
a) adults; The deltoid muscle is not developed well enough in infants and children to absorb medications adequately
|
|
|
What site is no longer recommended for injection due to reported significant injury, pain, and paralysis? a) vastus lateralis b) deltoid muscle c) dorsogluteal d) biceptsfemoris
|
c) dorsogluteal
|
|
|
Bolus medications should be administered AT LEAST over how much time? a) 10 seconds b) 30 seconds c) 1 minute d) 5 minutes
|
c) At least one minute; however exact administration times should be confirmed by consulting a pharmacist or drug reference.
|
|
|
What is an inunction? a)mixing a medication into a suppository b) mixing a medication with alcohol c) mixing a medication with saline d) mixing a medication in an ointment or agent
|
d) mixing a medication in an ointment or agent; The medication is then rubbed onto the skin for absorption.
|
|
|
When properly placed, eye medication disks: a) are covered by the lower lid b) are covered by the upper lid c) are centered on the cornea d) migrate behind to the back of the eye near the optic nerve attachment site.
|
a) are covered by the lower lid
|
|
|
What if a patient who wears contact lenses needs to use an eye medication disk? a) they have to remove their contacts while the disk is in place b) they can continue to wear their contacts with the disk in place
|
b) they can continue to wear their contacts with the disk in place
|
|
|
When do most medication errors occur? Check all that apply. a) with student nurses b)on admission to a hospital c) at transfer from one department to another d) while in the ER d) at discharge home or to another facility
|
Most medication errors occur at point of transition in care such as: b) on admission to a hospital c) at transfer from one department to another d) at discharge home or to another facility
|
|
|
The name selected and protected by the pharmaceutical company selling the drug and protected by trademark is the drug's a) chemical name b) generic name c) official name d) trade name
|
d)trade name
|
|
|
Put the following steps in order following the administration of a wrong medication: Notify and physician and nurse manager; Check the patients condition; Write a description of the error on the patients medical record.
|
1. Check the patients condition immediately when the error is noted: observe for the development of adverse effects related to the error 2) Notify the nurse manager and the physician 3) Write a description of the error on the patients medical record
|
|
|
What drug reaction is characterized by widespread epidermal sloughing of 30% or more, and multisystem organ failure when the liver fails to properly break down a drug? a) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome b) Anaphylaxis shock c) Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
|
c) Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis or TEN
|
|
|
What drug reaction is characterized by skin sloughing of 10% of the body and blisterlike lesions? a) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome b) Anaphylaxis shock c) Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
|
a) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome or SJS
|
|
|
An acquired hyperresponse of body defenses to a foreign substance is termed a_____?
|
Allergic reaction
|
|
|
A severe type of allergic reaction that involves the massive, systemic release of histamine and other chemical mediators of inflammation that can lead do life threatening shock is termed____?
|
Anaphylaxis
|
|
|
A nurse walks in a room and verifies the medication, dose, route, and time for the medication administration and proceeds to give the med to the pt. What right has she violated?
|
The first right. The right client. The nurse failed to verify the patients identity.
|
|
|
A nurse walks in a room and verifies the patients name and medication dose, route, and time for the medication administration and proceeds to give the med to the pt. What right has she violated?
|
The second right. The right medication. The nurse failed to verify that she was administering the right medication.
|
|
|
A nurse walks in a room and verifies the medication,right patient, dose, and route for the medication administration and proceed to give the med to the pt. What right has she violated?
|
The fifth right. The right time of delivery.The nurse failed to verify the correct time of delivery.
|
|
|
A nurse walks in a room and verifies the patient, medication, dose, and time for the medication administration and proceed to give the med to the pt. What right has she violated?
|
The fourth right. The right route of administration. The nurse did not verify the correct route to use.
|
|
|
What are the 3 checks of drug administration that the nurse must perform in addition to the 5 rights?
|
1. Check the drug with the MAR 2. Check the drug when preparing it 3. Check the drug before administering it to the client
|
|
|
True/False: Reliability is taking a medication in the manner prescribed by the practitioner, or in case of OTC drugs, following the instructions on the label.
|
False: The definition described is of compliance!
|
|
|
What side effects often prompt nncompliance? Check all that apply a) headaches b)constipation c) dizziness d) wheezing e)nausea f) diarrhea g) impotence
|
a,c,e,f,g(headache,dizziness,nausea,diarrhea,impotence)
|
|
|
What juice may not be safe for people taking certain medications such as Versed, Sandimmune, Mevacor, Zocor, Sporanox, Nizoral, Posicor? a)Apple Juice b)Grape juice c)Orange Juice d)Grapefruit Juice
|
d) Grapefruit Juice
|
|
|
When a stat order is written, how much time do you have to administer the order? a) 5 minutes b) 10 minutes c)30 minutes d)it depends on what type of medication ordered
|
a) 5 minutes
|
|
|
What does tid stand for? a) once a day b) twice a day c) three times a day d) before meals
|
c) three times a day
|
|
|
True or False: When a doctor orders a drug ASAP, they have 30 minutes to administer it.
|
True
|
|
|
How long do you have to carry out a routine order?
|
2 hours
|
|
|
What are the 3 systems of measurement that are used in pharmacology?
|
Metric, Apothecary, and Household
|
|
|
1 ml = how many drops?
|
15 drops
|
|
|
1 teaspoon = how many ml?
|
5 ml
|
|
|
1 glass = how many ml?
|
240 ml
|
|
|
1 kg = how many pounds?
|
2.2 lbs
|
|
|
True or False: The 3 broad categories of routes of drug administration are enteral, topical, and parenteral.
|
True
|
|
|
True or False: The enteral route includes drugs given orally, through a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube, or transdermally.
|
False: Enteral routes do NOT include transdermal meds!
|
|
|
True or False: Crushing tablets or opening capsules and sprinkling the drug over food or mixing it with juice will make it more palatable and easier to swallow.
|
True!
|
|
|
True or False: Tablets that have a hard, waxy coating may be crushed to help with swallowing.
|
False: This coating is often enteric, and helps to protect the pill from the highly acidic stomach acids.
|
|
|
When multiple drugs are ordered, when in the sequence should the sublingual preparation be administered? a) first b) second c) last d) never, you do not take sublingual meds with any other meds
|
c) last
|
|
|
True or False: When instructing a patient to take a med via the buccal route, instruct them to manipulate the med around with their tongue to help introduce more digestive enzyme containing saliva to the med.
|
False: The client must be instructed not to manipulate the medication with the tongue; otherwise it could get displaced to the sublingual area, where it would be more rapidly absorbed, or to the back of the throat where it could be swallowed.
|
|
|
True or False: Topical medication tends to produce more side effects due to the wide range of skin allergies people have.
|
False: Local, topical delivery produces fewer side effects compared with oral or parenteral administration of the same drug. This is because topically applied drugs are absorbed very slowly, and amounts reaching the general circulation are minimal.
|
|
|
What 2 things should you do prior to administering a transdermal medication? a) wipe the intended site with iodine b) apply gloves c) relocate the previous patch to a new area d) remove any previous medication and patch and wipe site.
|
b+d (wear gloves, and remove previous patches and wipe old meds off)
|
|
|
True of False: Drops or sprays are often used for their local histamine effect; that is they allow the membrane to expand and slough so that they can be expelled.
|
False: Drops and sprays are often used for their local astringent effect; that is they SHRINK swollen mucous membranes or loosen secretions and facilitate drainage.
|
|
|
What technique should be used for administering parenteral drug administration? a) clean b) sterile c) aseptic technique
|
c) aseptic technique
|
|
|
An intradermal (ID) injection is administered into the_____. a) deepest layer of the skin b) dermis of the skin c) muscle
|
b) dermis of the skin
|
|
|
A subcutaneous injection is delivered to what layer of the skin? a) deepest layer of the skin b) dermis of the skin c) muscle
|
a) deepest layer of the skin
|
|
|
During an intradermal drug administration, the needle is inserted, bevel up at ___to___ degrees. a) 10 to 15 b) 40 to 50 c)90 to 95
|
a) 10-15
|
|
|
True or False: Be sure to aspirate the needle prior to injection when giving any subcutaneous injection.
|
False: No aspiration is needed when giving subcutaneous injections.
|
|
|
True or False: tuberculine syringes and insulin syringes may be used interchangeably as long as you document the type of needle used in the MAR.
|
False: They are NOT interchangeable, so the nurse should not substitute one for the other.
|
|
|
Put the following meds in order from slowest to fastest, according to their absorption rate into the body: tablet, IM injection, ID injection, IV bolus, liquid.
|
tablet, liquid, ID injection, IM injection, IV bolus.
|
|
|
At what angle are subcutaneous drug administrations given?
|
45 degree angle
|
|
|
At what angle are intramuscular drug administrations given?
|
90 degree angle
|
|
|
True or False: Large-volume infusions are arranged tandem with or piggybacked to the intermittent infusion.
|
False: Vise versa, Intermittent infusions are arranged tandem with or piggybacked to the primary large-volume infusion.
|
|
|
True or False: IV bolus administrations are concentrated doses delivered directly to the circulation via syringe to administer single-dose medication.
|
True
|
|
|
Why is the IV route the most dangerous of routes? a) The site is at most risk for infection b) the IV site causes the least allergic reactions c) once injected the medication cannot be retrieved d) patients run the risk of a transfusion reaction
|
c) once injected the medication cannot be retrieved
|
|
|
What is the primary role of a nurse in med administration? a) Ensure meds are administered and delivered in a safe manner b) Be certain that physician orders are accurate c) Inform the clent that ordered meds need to be taken only if the client agrees
|
a) Ensure meds are administered and delivered in a safe manner
|
|
|
Which of the following medications should not be administered through a nasogastric tube? Check all that apply: a) liquids b) enteric-coated tablets c) sustained-release tablets d) tablets e) IV medications
|
b) enteric-coated tablets c) sustained-release tablets d) IV medications
|
|
|
The study of drug movement through the body is termed? a) pharmacokinetics b) absorption c) pharmacodynamics
|
a) pharmacokinetics
|
|
|
True or False: The kidneys, large intestine, and other organs attempt to excrete the medications from the body.
|
True
|
|
|
By what 2 mechanisms do drugs primarily use to cross body membranes?
|
Diffusion/passive transport and active transport.
|
|
|
Choose one word from each pair of words, which will cause drugs to pass through plasma membranes more easily. (small size/large size), (nonionized/ionized), (fat soluble/water soluble).
|
Drug molecules that are small, nonionized, and lipid soluble will usually pass through plasma membranes by simple diffusion and more easily reach their target cells.
|
|
|
True or False: All drugs must be absorbed in order to produce an effect.
|
False: MOST drugs must be absorbed in order to produce an effect, with the exception of a few topical meds, intestinal meds anti-infectives, and some radiological contrast agents.
|
|
|
Are acids absorbed better in basic, neutral, or acidic environments? How about bases?
|
Acids are absorbed better in acids, and bases are absorbed better in bases.
|
|
|
True or False: High fat meals can slow stomach motility significcantly and delay the absorption of oral medications taken with the meal
|
True
|
|
|
What factor determines the transportation of drugs throughout the body? a) temperature of body tissues b) acid present c) digestive enzymes present d) blood flow to body tissues
|
d) blood flow to body tissues
|
|
|
True or False: Water soluble agents are not limited by the barriers that normally stop lipid soluble drugs; thus they are more completely distributed to body tissues.
|
False: Vise versa, LIPID-soluble agents are not limited by the barriers that normally stop water-soluble drugs.
|
|
|
The bone marrow, teeth, eyes, and adipose tissue have especially high affinity for certain medications. What does this mean?
|
It means that those aread ATTRACT certain medications.
|
|
|
Why are drug-protein complexes formed?
|
Because not all drug molecules in the plasma can reach their target cells, since many drugs bind reversibly to plasma proteins.
|
|
|
Only ____ drugs can reach their cells. a) bound b) unbound c) basic d) acidic
|
b) unbound
|
|
|
Why must aspirin not be taken if you are already taking Coumadin?
|
Drugs such as aspirin displace warfarin from the drug-protein complex, thus raising blood levels of free warfarin to unintended levels. Your risk of hemorrhage is much greater!
|
|
|
How does the addition of side chains, known as conjugates, effect drugs?
|
They makes the drug more water soluble and more easily excreted by the kidneys.
|
|
|
What is the function of a hepatic microsomal enzyme system?
|
The primary actions of the hepatic microsomal enzymes are to inactivate drugs and accelerate their excretion.
|
|
|
True or False: During metabolism, drugs are always broken down to become less active as they are digested.
|
False: Some agents, such as prodrugs, have no pharmacological activity unless they are first metabolized to their active form by the body.
|
|
|
The process of increasing metabolic activity is termed? a) metabolistic antagonist b) metabolistic agonist c) enzyme induction d) enzyme reduction
|
c) enzymen induction
|
|
|
What about the liver, caused pediatric and geriatric clients to be more sensitive to drug therapy than middle-age clients?
|
They have reduced hepatic enzyme activity, so drugs are broken down and excreted slower from the body.
|
|
|
How should the drug dosage of patients with liver damage be altered? a) dosage should be increased since they have a reduced ability to break down the meds b) dosage should be reduced because of the decreased metabolic activity.
|
b) dosage should be reduced because of the decreased metabolic activity.
|
|
|
What is the first pass effect and how does it affect drug absorption?
|
Before blood is sent to the general circulation, it is passes through the liver circulation, where is may be completely metabolized to an inactive form before it ever has a chance to reach the general circulation.
|
|
|
What is the primary site of excretion for drugs?
|
The kidneys!
|
|
|
What would a nurse give to a patient who over-dosed on aspirin, to speed the renal excretion of the aspirin? a) more aspirin b) orange juice c) potassium bicarbonate d) sodium bicarbonate
|
d) sodium bicarbonate: Sodium bicarbonate will make the urine more basic, which ionizes more aspirin, causing it to be excreted more readily.
|
|
|
How should doses be altereed for patients with impaired kidney function?
|
They should be reduced to avoid drug toxicity.
|
|
|
What is the term given to the plasma concentration between the minimal effective concentration and the toxic concentration of a drug in the blood?
|
Therapeutic range
|
|
|
Theoretically how many half-lives does it take to reach the therapeutic range? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
|
c) 3
|
|
|
How does a loading dose compare to a maintenance dose?
|
A loading does is much larger. It is often given only once or twice to "prime" the bloodstream with a level sufficient to quickly induce a therapeutic response.
|
|
|
Before plasma levels can drop back toward zero, intermittent______doses are given to keep the plasma drug concentration in the therapeutic range. a) maintenance b) loading c) sequential d) secondary
|
a) maintenance
|
|
|
The term used to describe how a medicine changes the body is______? a) pharmacodynamics b) pharmacomedicine c)pharmacokinetics
|
a) pharmacodynamics
|
|
|
In the frequency distribution curve of the Interpatient variability in drug response, what does the peak of the curve represent?
|
The largest number of clients responding to the drug. Refer to p.57-58 of Adams for further explanation.
|
|
|
What is the median effective dose? (ED 50)?
|
It is the dose in the middle of the frequency distribution curve that represents the dose required to produce a response in 50% of a group of clients.
|
|
|
True or False: The nurse can feel confident that the standard average dose has been proved to elicit a response in over 75% of the population.
|
False: Only 50%!
|
|
|
How do you determine the therapeutic index?
|
Divide the median lethal dose(LD 50) by the median effective dose(ED 50).
|
|
|
What does a higher therapeutic index indicate?
|
That the drug has a larger safety margin. In other words, a larger therapeutic range means there is a larger range of a safe dose that can be administered. The larger the range, the better.
|
|
|
True or False: During the 3rd phase of the graded dose-response, a plateau is reached in which increasing the drug produces no additional therapeutic response.
|
True
|
|
|
When comparing two drugs side by side, what 2 factors would you assess to best understand how the drug works on the body. a) their potency and efficacy b) their route and timing c) their half life and pH
|
a) their potency and efficacy
|
|
|
The magnitude of the maximum response a drug can elicit is termed its______. a) potency b) efficacy c) strength d) action
|
b) efficacy
|
|
|
A drug that require 50 mg to be effective is considered more ____ then a drug that requires 100 mg to be effective. a) efficive b) weak c) potent d) basic
|
c) potent- a lower dosage means it is more strong or potent
|
|
|
Although a drug receptor can be any type of macromolecule, the vast majority are ____. a) lipids b) fats c) carbohydrates d) proteins
|
d) proteins
|
|
|
True or false: All components except steroid medications, vitamins, and hormones, are able to bind intracellular components.
|
False: Steroid medications, vitamins, and hormones, are some example of agents that ARE able to bind intracellular components.
|
|
|
True or false: Some drugs act independently of cellular receptors and these are termed non-specific cellular responses.
|
True! Non-specific cellular responses are associated with other mechanisms,like changing the permeability of cellular membranes,depressing membrane excitability, or altering the activity of cellular pumps. They act independently of the cellular receptors.
|
|
|
A drug that mimics the type of response as the endogenous substance is called a____.
|
Agonist
|
|
|
The term______refers to a medication that produces a weaker, or less efficacious, response than an agonist. a) antagonist b) partial antagonist c) agonist d) partial agonist
|
d) partial agonist
|
|
|
An unpredictable and unexplained drug reaction is termed_____. a) adverse reactions b) idiosyncratic reactions c) enzyme-specific reactions d) unaltered reactions
|
b) idiosyncratic reactions
|
|
|
A drug that occupies a receptir site and prevents endogenous chemicals from acting is termed? a) antagonist b) partial agonist c) agonist d) protagonist
|
a) antagonist
|
|
|
In considering the pharmacotherapeutic perspective, which property is considered to be of most importance? a) potency b) efficacy c) toxicity d) interaction with other drugs
|
b) efficacy
|
|
|
Morphine has greater efficacy than (check all that apply) a) aspirin b) Acetominophen c) inderal d) ibuprofen d) atenolol
|
b) acetominophen and d) Ibuprofen
|
|
|
The standard of care appropriate for the nurse-patient relationship or the obligation to care falls under which element of liability? a) breach of duty b) causation c) duty d) damages
|
c) duty
|
|
|
What are the 4 elements of liability that must be established to prove that malpractice or negligence has occured?
|
Duty, Breach of Duty, Causation, Damages
|
|
|
What disease is characterized by the progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia of the cerebrum causing unnecessary skeletal movements that result in tremors and muscle rigidity?
|
Parkinson's Disease
|
|
|
Diseases characterized by a larger breakdown of protein than that which is manufactured leads to a _____? a) positive nitrogen balance b) negative nitrogen balance c) neutral nitrogen balance
|
b) negative nitrogen balance
|
|
|
Swimming, walking, jogging, ROM exersizes, and bicycling involve muscle shortening and active movement termed: a) isotonic exercise b) isometric exercise c) isokinetic exercise d) isotonic exercise
|
a) isotonic exercise
|
|
|
______ refers to muscle mass that is decreased through disuse. _____ refers to increased muscle mass resulting from exercise or training a) atrophy, hypertrophy b) hypertrophy, atrophy
|
a) atrophy, hypertrophy
|
|
|
What part of the brain assumes the major role of controlling precise, discrete movements?
|
the cerebral motor cortex
|
|
|
Sprain, Strains and dislocations are considered: a) muscle injuries b) overexertion injuries c) soft tissue injuries d) skeletal muscle injuries
|
c) soft tissue injuries
|
|
|
What is the non-inflammatory progressive disorder of movable joints, particularly weight-bearing joints, characterized by the deterioration of articular cartilage and pain with motion?
|
Degenerative joint diseases, also termed osteoarthritus
|
|
|
What part of the brain integrates semivoluntary movement such as walking, swimming, and laughing? a) basal ganglia b) corpus callosum c) cerebral motor cortex d) LGN cortex
|
a) Basal ganglia
|
|
|
Exercises involving muscle contraction without shortening including contractions of the quadricepts and gluteal muscles are termed?
|
Isometric!
|
|
|
If you are called as a plaintiff or defendant in a court case, you should not/cannot talk to anyone at your agency including your peers, coworkers, supervisors and risk managers
|
You cannot talk to anyone except your risk manager.
|
|
|
True/False If a the prosecuter's lawyer asks you a question in a manner which would cause you to look bad or negligent, be sure to include in your answer, information that will defend your position to make sure that the judge/jury is not mislead.
|
False. Never volunteer any information.
|
|
|
What is the difference between an expert witness and a fact witness?
|
A fact witness can testify only on first hand knowledge of the incident while an expert witness offers an opinion based on the patient's record on whether or not nursing care met acceptable standards
|
|
|
True/False A signed consent is not needed in an emergency if there is an immediate threat to life or health, if experts would agree that it is an emergency, and if the patient is unable to consent and a legally authorized person cannot be reached.
|
True!
|
|
|
When the nurse signs the consent form as a witness, they are acknowledging that they have educated the patient and obtained reasonable consent. True or False?
|
False! Unless the nurse is obtaining consent for a nurse-prescribed and initiated intervention, then the nurse is signing the form acknowledging only that the all conditions of signing the form have been met. I.E. the nurse does not give consent, the
|
|
|
True or False: The use of a back belt prevents back injury.
|
False. It does not.
|
|
|
What is the difference between hemiparesis and hemiplegia?
|
Hemiparesis-weakness on 1/2 of body Hemiplegia- paralysis of 1/2 of body
|
|
|
Impaired muscle strength or weakness is termed____?
|
Paresis
|
|
|
The absence of strength secondary to nerve impairment is called______?
|
Paralysis
|
|
|
True or False. Muscle mass refers to the weight of the muscle.
|
False. It refers to the size of the muscle.
|
|
|
Describe the patient body when standing in correct body alignment.
|
The head is held errect, the face is in the forward position, the chest is held upward and forward.
|
|
|
True or False: Proper body alignment may only be observed when a person is standing hands by their sides, and face looking straight ahead.
|
False: Alignment may be observed when a patient is standing, sitting, or lying.
|
|
|
What are the 3 elements to a comprehensive risk management program?
|
A safety program, a product safety program, and a quality assurance program.
|
|
|
True or False: When documenting in a patient's record, be sure to include the fact that an incident report was filed.
|
False- you do not document in the patients file that an incident report was filled out; incident reports are for QA!
|
|
|
A______ event is an unexpecteed occurance involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof.
|
A sentinal event.
|
|
|
True or False: If a nurse erroneously but in good faith files a report of a suspected abuse, they are protected by the law.
|
True!
|
|
|
When a state attorney decides to charge a nurse with manslaughter for allegedly administering a lethal medication order, this is an example of what type of law?
|
Criminal law
|
|
|
If you wanted to find a list of violations that can result in disciplinary actions against a nurse, you should read what?
|
The nurse practice acts.
|
|
|
A nurse that has specialty knowledge, experience, and clinical judgement and had met certain criteria established by a non-governmental association as a result which she was granted recognition in a special area is termed a _______.
|
Certification
|
|
|
If a review of a patient's record revealed that she had never consented to eye surgery, of which intentional tort might the surgeon have been guilty of?
|
Battery
|
|
|
True or False: Presbycusis is an abnormal hearing loss due to an absess or obstruction in the external auditory canal.
|
False: Presbycusis is a normal loss of hearing due to the aging process.
|
|
|
The process of bone demineralization is termed____?
|
osteoporosis
|
|
|
The consolidation and immobilization of a joint is termed_____? a) atrophy b) ankylosis c) rigamortis
|
b) ankylosis
|
|
|
How can inactivity result in a possibly acid-base imbalance?
|
When areas of lung tissues are not used, over time, atelectasis(incomplete expansion) may occur. This poor exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen can result in an acid-base imbalance.
|
|
|
Why would orthostatic hypotension result from inactivity?
|
The normal neurovascular adjustments that occur to maintain systemic bp with position changes are not used during periods of inactivity and they eventually become inoperative.
|
|
|
During periods of immobility, calcium leaves the ______ and enters the ______. This leads to an increased risk of thrombus formation. a) blood,bones b) blood,cells c) blood,tissues d) bones,blood
|
d) Calcium leaves the bones and enters the blood
|
|
|
Injuries resulting from exercise are typically treated with RICE. What does this stand for?
|
Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation
|
|
|
Who is recommended to receive a pre-exercise medical examination? Check all that apply: a) teenagers b) sedetary people c) people greater than 35 years of age d) people with past or current diabetes, asthma, osteoporosis, cardiovascular conditions
|
b,c,d
|
|
|
True or False: Some of the benefits of regular exercise include increased energy, improved appearance, improved sleep, and improved self-concept.
|
True...Duh!
|
|
|
How does exercise help to noursih the skin?
|
It increased circulation to the skin!
|
|
|
During exercise, blood is shunted away from the ______ towards the______.
|
Away from the stomach and intestines and towards the muscles.
|
|
|
True or False: Regular exercise is also believed to slow the effects of aging.
|
True. It helps to prevent osteoporosis associated with aging.
|
|
|
Exercising involving muscle contractions with resistance such as rehab exercises or weight lifting are considered a) isotonic b)isometric c)isokinetic
|
c) isokinetic
|
|
|
When using the cane for maximum support, the nurse should instruct the patient to hold the cane on the weaker or stronger side?
|
Stronger
|
|
|
In many situations, a patient has sufficient strength to walk if he or she can... a) lie prone for 1 hour b)bathe him or herself c) raise their feet off the bed 1 inch d) sit up in bed for 1 hour
|
c) raise their feet 1 inch off the bed
|
|
|
The greatest danger to feet occurs when: a) the are unsupported in the dorsiflexion position b) they are over-supported in the lateral flexion position c) they are held in place by foot boards
|
a) when they are allowed to go unsupported to the dorsiflexion position
|
|
|
Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess when a patient experiences a greater breakdown of protein than that which is manufactured? a) fluid volume excess b) a contracture c) osteoporosis d) negative nitrogen balance
|
d) negative nitrogen balance
|
|
|
A person that performs rehab exercises with resistance after a knee injury is practicing what type of exercise?
|
isokinetic
|
|
|
What bands connect muscle to bone?
|
tendons
|
|
|
What is the difference between single-ended canes with a half circle handle and single-ended canes with a straight handle? Who are recommended to use each?
|
Circle ones-for people requiring minimal support; Straight ones-for those with hand weakness(the straight handle is easier to hold).
|
|
|
What type of assistive devise widens a person's base of support providing increased balance?
|
A cane
|
|
|
What is the most important muscle group used in walking? a) quadricepts femoris b) gluteus maximus c) bicepts femoris
|
a) quadricepts femoris
|
|
|
What is a lateral assist devise?
|
A devise such as an air mattress, that is placed under the patient to help with bed to bed or bed to stretcher transfers
|
|
|
A nurse who fails to accuratly assess her patient, violates which element of liability?
|
Breach of duty
|
|
|
Decreased muscle tone is termed? a) flaccidity b) spasticity c) ROM d) muscle tone
|
a) flaccidity
|
|
|
Any conditon that interferes with the transportation of oxygenated blood to the tissues is classified as what type of nursing diagnosis? a) activity intolerance b) impaired physical mobility
|
a) activity intolerance
|
|
|
How are sandbags used?
|
To immobilize an extremity and support body alignment
|
|
|
The slight residual tension in a resting normal muscle with an intact nerve supply is termed its_______.
|
Muscle tone
|
|
|
Increased muscle tone that interferes with movement is termed_______.
|
spasticity
|
|
|
What is used to support the hips and legs so the femurs do not rotate outward?
|
Trochanter rolls
|
|
|
True/False: Massage pressure areas especially if reddened.
|
False dummie! We DO NOT massage reddened areas!
|
|
|
What position is often used to promote cardiac and respiratory functioning because abdominal organs drop in this position thereby providing maximal space in the thoracic cavity? a) fowlers b) semi-fowlers c) supine
|
Fowlers
|
|
|
You should perform ROM exercises___times a day, and each exercise should be carried out___to___ times. a) 2,3,6 b)1,2,5 c)2,2,5
|
c. 2,2,5
|
|
|
Expect a patient's respiratory and heart rate to increase during exercise, however these rates should return to usual resting level within____minutes otherwise the exercixe is prob too strenuous for the patient.
|
3 minutes!
|
|
|
How should you avoid phrasing an instruction to a patient with dementia? a) "Please stand up" b) "Walk this way" c) "Don't sit down"
|
c) dont sit down...the patient may not register the "don't" and may just hear the "sit down" and preceed to sit. Phrase directions positively.
|
|
|
BMI's greater than___ require special bariatric beds and special lifting equipment.
|
50
|
|
|
A nurse who fails to alert the doctor to changes in her patient's condition violates which element of liability?
|
Breach of Duty
|
|
|
A nurse who fails to competently execute safety measures for her/his patient violates which element of liability?
|
Breach of Duty
|
|
|
What are the 4 sources of law?
|
Constitutions, Statutes, Administrative law, Common law
|
|
|
What is the difference between duty and breach of duty?
|
Duty-what a nurse is legally responsible for doing...Breach of Duty- what the nurse failed to do, or did wrong
|
|
|
The actual harm or injury resulting to the patient is what element of liability?
|
Damages
|
|
|
Proving that failure to meet the standard of care actually caused the damages is termed? a) Duty b)Breach of Duty c)Causation d)Damages
|
c)Causation- this is the toughest one to establish
|
|
|
The failure to provide the standard of care is termed? a)Duty b)Breach of Duty c)Causation d)Damages
|
b)Breach of Duty
|
|
|
True/False: Most healthcare facilities carry claims insurance which covers the nurse after she/he is no longer working, the facility closes, or any advise and care given outside of work.
|
False! Claims insurance does not cover any of those!
|
|
|
What type of insurance would you want to take out if you wanted to be insured after you are no longer working, or if the facility closes and a lawsuit is braught againt you later? a) claims made b) professional liability c) professional claims made
|
b) professional liability insurance
|
|
|
What reason is mainly given for failing to document patient education? a) lack of knowledge b) lack of resources c) lack of time d) wrong forms used
|
c) lack of time
|
|
|
The presumption of the law is that if something was not documented, then ___ ___ ___ ___!
|
It Was Not Done!
|
|
|
What are the most common types of overexertion injuries for healthcare workers? Check all that apply. a) neck b) wrists c) shoulders d) backs e) abdomens
|
a)necks c)shoulders d)backs
|
|
|
What reflexes contribute to posture by altering the person to spatial relationships? a) labrinthine b) proprioceptor c) kinesthetic d) optic/visual
|
d)optic/visual
|
|
|
The sense of position and movement is provided by the sense organs in the inner ear which are stimulated by body movement(changes in head position). This sense is termed: a) labyrinthine b) proprioceptor c) propiolabythetic
|
a) labyrinthine
|
|
|
The point at which an objects mass is centered is termed its______and is located? a) center, pelvis between the belly button and symphis pubis b) center of gravity, in the chest c)center of gravity, pelvis between the belly button and symphsis pubis
|
c)center of gravity, pelvis between the belly button and symphysis pubis
|
|
|
If bedrest is prolonged, there is danger of developing____or permanent contraction of a muscle. a) tonus b) contracture c)rigamortis d)tonitus
|
b)contracture
|
|
|
The usual state of our muscles is____, which is the state of slight contraction. a)tonus b)contracture c)rigamortis d)tonitis
|
a)tonis
|
|
|
The correction or prevention of disorders of body structures used in locomotion is termed? a) physical therapy b)occupational therapy c)orthotics d)orthopedics
|
d)orthopedics
|
|
|
What are the 3 important functions of a muscle?
|
Motion, posture, and heat production
|
|
|
What is the insertion point for a muscle?
|
When a muscle attaches to a more movable bone.
|
|
|
What is the point of origin of a muscle?
|
When the muscle attaches to a more stationary bone.
|
|
|
What are the 2 different points of attachment for a muscle?
|
Point of origin and point of insertion.
|
|
|
True or False: Temporary management solutions to understaffing such as floating nurses, asking nurses to work overtime, asking nurses to work double shifts...are an effective method of countering the nursing shortage until better staffing can be achieved.
|
False: They are ineffective because they can further jeapardize patient safety.
|
|
|
What functions as a shock absorber and as a bearing surface that reduces friction between the moving parts of a joint?
|
Cartilage
|
|
|
Tendons connect____to____.
|
Muscle to bone
|
|
|
Ligaments connect____and____.
|
Bones and cartilage
|
|
|
Jaw and spinal column bones are examples of what kind of bones? a)irregular b) long c)flat d)short
|
a)irregular
|
|
|
Ribs and skull bones are examples of what type of bones? a)irregular b)long c)flat d)short
|
c)flat
|
|
|
The humerus and femur are examples of what types of bones? a)irregular b)long c)flat d)short
|
b)long bones
|
|
|
A person with unusual body sensations, or preoccupations with somatic complaints(ex.dry mouth) may be experiencing...? a)sensory overload b)sensory deprivation c)both
|
c)both
|
|
|
For a patient with sensory overload, what would nursing care focus on?
|
Reducing distressing stimuli and helping the patient gain control over the environment
|
|
|
Why might a person with sensory deprivation hallucinate?
|
To allow their brain to maintain an optimal level of arousal.
|
|
|
True or False: All incoming stimuli will elicit a response in the brain.
|
False: a stimulus must be variable or irregular to evoke a response
|
|
|
______describes over 100 different diseases that affect areas in or around the joints, and are characterized by inflammation, pain, and/or stiffness. a)osteoarthritis b)arthritis c)degenerative joint disease
|
b)arthritis
|
|
|
Excessive bone destruction and abnormal regeneration result in skeletal pain, deformities, and patholic fractures are termed? a)achondroplasia b)osteogenesis imperfects c)Paget's disease d)osteoporosis
|
c)Paget's disease
|
|
|
Bone destruction that exceeds bone formation and in which the resulting porous bones fracture easily is termed: a)achondroplasia b)osteogenesis imperfects c)Paget's disease d)osteoporosis
|
d)osteoporosis
|
|
|
True or False: Do not sit sensory deprived people at a table with more then 2 other people as it will overload their systems.
|
False: Do sit them with 4 individuals per table to encourage adequate stimulation.
|
|
|
What do all of these people have in common: Children in non-stimulating environments, older people, terminally ill people, patients on bedrest, patients on isolation, patients in a critical care unit?
|
They are all at high risk for sensory deprivation.
|
|
|
True or False: Avoid discussing perceptual and thought distortion with confused patients, as it will only confuse them further.
|
False: Help them to acknowledge the fact and reassure them that these experiences are normal and usually temporary; it should help to decrease anxiety if you talk it over with them
|
|
|
True or false: Use non-prescription eye drops to help lubricate dry or irritated eyes.
|
False: Avoid non-prescription eye drops and seek medical consultation. Don't self medicate!
|
|
|
True or false: To help preserve your sense of tast, avoid eating spiced foods.
|
False: Enhance taste with the use of spices.
|
|
|
True or False: Temporary hearing losses are typically cause by central nervous system problems, and are usually correctable.
|
False: Temporary hearing losses are generally conductive in nature, that is they are due to problems with the external or middle ear such as wax build up, infections, or foreign body obstruction.
|
|
|
True or False: When communicating witha confused patient, keep the emphasis on their strengths rather than on deficiencies and verbally reinforce strenths.
|
True!
|
|
|
True or False: The elbow should be flexed at a 40 degree angle when walking with a cane.
|
False: a 30 degree angle
|
|
|
True or False: When walking with a cane, patients are generally instructed to hold the cane in the opposite hand from the leg with the least severe deficit(ie hold the cane on the weaker leg side).
|
False: Hold the cane on the side of the stronger leg
|
|
|
What is the most common reason for a nurses license to be rovoked or suspended? a)negligence b)malpractice c)med errors d)drug/alcohol abuse
|
d)drug/alcohol abuse
|
|
|
True or False: Accreditation by NLNAC is a legal requirment for a nursing school.
|
False: Only state accreditation is a legal requirment.
|
|
|
The person or government bringing suit against another is called the ______ while the person being accused of a crime or tort is called the _______. a)defendant,defendant b)plaintiff,defendant c)defendant,plaintiff
|
b) plaintiff,defendant
|
|
|
The process of bringing and trying a lawsuit is termed?
|
litigation
|
|
|
The term allocated for the case that first sets down the rule by decision is called a ______.
|
Precedent
|
|
|
Most law involving malpractice is what source of law? a)constitutional b)statute c)administration d)common
|
d)common
|
|
|
The nurse practice acts fall under what source of law?
|
Statutes
|
|
|
Which of the following positions promotes drainage from the mouth for clients with throat or oral surgery, but inhibits chest expansion? a)fowlers b)semi-fowlers c)prone d)reverse trendelenburg
|
c)prone
|
|
|
_____is oral defammation of character while____ is written defammation of character. a)slander,libel b)libel,slander c)none of the above
|
a)slander=verbal, libel=written
|
|
|
John says" Sit down now or I will come over there and sit your down myself" to a patient who is tying to stand from their unlocked wheelchair. What law suit might be brought up against him? a) assault and battery b) assault c)demamation of character
|
b)assault-he verbally threatened the patient with harm
|
|
|
Forcibly removing a patients clothing or administering an injection after the patient told you they didn't want it, are both examples of what? a)assault b)battery c)assault and battery d)negligence e)defamation of character
|
b)battery
|
|
|
Assault and battery, defamation of character, invasion of privacy and false imprisonment are all torts which are usally...a)settled with money and no jail time b)settled with money and jail time c)settled with jail time
|
a)settled with money and no jail time
|
|
|
_____are commonly punishable with fines and/or imprisonment for less then 1 year with parole while____ are punishable by imprisonment in a federal penitentiary for more than 1 year. a)torts,felonies b)misdemeanors,felonies c)felonies,misdemeanors
|
b)misdemeanors,felonies
|
|
|
What type of crutches are used for patients requiring bilateral upper-extremity support with infrequent weight bearing? a) axillary b)semi-axillary c)forearm
|
c)forearm crutches
|
|
|
What is the first and second step in speaking with a person with a visual impairment?
|
1. Call them by their name when you first enter the room to avoid startling them 2. Introduce yourself
|
|
|
_____crutches are most likely to be used for patient with a permanent disability. a)forearm b)axillary c)semi-axillary
|
a)forearm
|
|
|
_____crutches are used for people with temporary restrictions on ambulation. a)forearm b)axillary
|
b)axillary
|
|
|
The sensory experience consists mainly of what 2 components? a) a stimulus and response b) kinesthesia and visceral c) vision and hearing d)reception and perception
|
d)reception and perception
|
|
|
Boards of Nursing fall under what source of law? a)constitutional b)statutes c)adminiatrative d) common
|
c)administrative
|
|
|
Bernice, a 92 year old with a broken leg, and poor upper body strength would most likely be given what type of crutches? a)axillary b)forearm
|
b)forearm crutches: axillary crutches require significan upper body strength to use.
|
|
|
True or False: When using axillary crutches, put most of your weight on your hands and arms and not on your arm pits.
|
True
|
|
|
The good leg goes up, the bad leg goes down describes what?
|
The process of going up and down stairs when using crutches.
|
|
|
What 4 characteristics must be met for a person to experience the world?
|
There needs to be a stimulus present, a sense organ to receive the stimulus, conduction along a nerve pathway, and an area of the brain to receive and translate the stimulus into a sensation.
|
|
|
The willful and purposeful misrepresentation that could cause or has caused loss or harm to a person or property is termed______
|
Fraud
|
|
|
Which of the following is an affetive method of making a home environment safe? a) cleaning the carpets b) polishing the floors c) removing throw rugs d)locking the bathroom door
|
c)removing throw rugs as they pose a tripping hazzard
|
|
|
When signing a consent form with a doctor present, what are you acknowledging? a) the client signed the document in front of you b)client was not coerced c) the doctor explained the procedure d) requirments for giving informed consent have been met
|
d) the requirments for giving informed consent have been met
|
|
|
Which amendment of the constitution gives us the right to privacy?
|
The 4th!
|
|
|
True or false: It is best to lift and object rather than to slide/roll/push/pull it?
|
False: it is best to slide/roll/push/pull over lifting an object
|
|
|
A disease characterized by excessively brittle bones with multiple fracture both at birth and later in life is termed: a)achondroplasia b) osteogenesis imperfecta c) Paget's disease d)osteoporosis
|
b)osteogensis imperfecta
|
|
|
The standard of care appropriate for the nurse-patient relationship or the obligation to care falls under which element of liability? a) breach of duty b) causation c) duty d) damages
|
c) duty
|
|
|
What are the 4 elements of liability that must be established to prove that malpractice or negligence has occured?
|
Duty, Breach of Duty, Causation, Damages
|
|
|
What disease is characterized by the progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia of the cerebrum causing unnecessary skeletal movements that result in tremors and muscle rigidity?
|
Parkinson's Disease
|
|
|
Diseases characterized by a larger breakdown of protein than that which is manufactured leads to a _____? a) positive nitrogen balance b) negative nitrogen balance c) neutral nitrogen balance
|
b) negative nitrogen balance
|
|
|
Swimming, walking, jogging, ROM exersizes, and bicycling involve muscle shortening and active movement termed: a) isotonic exercise b) isometric exercise c) isokinetic exercise d) isotonic exercise
|
a) isotonic exercise
|
|
|
______ refers to muscle mass that is decreased through disuse. _____ refers to increased muscle mass resulting from exercise or training a) atrophy, hypertrophy b) hypertrophy, atrophy
|
a) atrophy, hypertrophy
|
|
|
What part of the brain assumes the major role of controlling precise, discrete movements?
|
the cerebral motor cortex
|
|
|
Sprain, Strains and dislocations are considered: a) muscle injuries b) overexertion injuries c) soft tissue injuries d) skeletal muscle injuries
|
c) soft tissue injuries
|
|
|
What is the non-inflammatory progressive disorder of movable joints, particularly weight-bearing joints, characterized by the deterioration of articular cartilage and pain with motion?
|
Degenerative joint diseases, also termed osteoarthritus
|
|
|
What part of the brain integrates semivoluntary movement such as walking, swimming, and laughing? a) basal ganglia b) corpus callosum c) cerebral motor cortex d) LGN cortex
|
a) Basal ganglia
|
|
|
Exercises involving muscle contraction without shortening including contractions of the quadricepts and gluteal muscles are termed?
|
Isometric!
|
|
|
If you are called as a plaintiff or defendant in a court case, you should not/cannot talk to anyone at your agency including your peers, coworkers, supervisors and risk managers
|
You cannot talk to anyone except your risk manager.
|
|
|
True/False If a the prosecuter's lawyer asks you a question in a manner which would cause you to look bad or negligent, be sure to include in your answer, information that will defend your position to make sure that the judge/jury is not mislead.
|
False. Never volunteer any information.
|
|
|
What is the difference between an expert witness and a fact witness?
|
A fact witness can testify only on first hand knowledge of the incident while an expert witness offers an opinion based on the patient's record on whether or not nursing care met acceptable standards
|
|
|
True/False A signed consent is not needed in an emergency if there is an immediate threat to life or health, if experts would agree that it is an emergency, and if the patient is unable to consent and a legally authorized person cannot be reached.
|
True!
|
|
|
When the nurse signs the consent form as a witness, they are acknowledging that they have educated the patient and obtained reasonable consent. True or False?
|
False! Unless the nurse is obtaining consent for a nurse-prescribed and initiated intervention, then the nurse is signing the form acknowledging only that the all conditions of signing the form have been met. I.E. the nurse does not give consent, the
|
|
|
True or False: The use of a back belt prevents back injury.
|
False. It does not.
|
|
|
What is the difference between hemiparesis and hemiplegia?
|
Hemiparesis-weakness on 1/2 of body Hemiplegia- paralysis of 1/2 of body
|
|
|
Impaired muscle strength or weakness is termed____?
|
Paresis
|
|
|
The absence of strength secondary to nerve impairment is called______?
|
Paralysis
|
|
|
True or False. Muscle mass refers to the weight of the muscle.
|
False. It refers to the size of the muscle.
|
|
|
Describe the patient body when standing in correct body alignment.
|
The head is held errect, the face is in the forward position, the chest is held upward and forward.
|
|
|
True or False: Proper body alignment may only be observed when a person is standing hands by their sides, and face looking straight ahead.
|
False: Alignment may be observed when a patient is standing, sitting, or lying.
|
|
|
What are the 3 elements to a comprehensive risk management program?
|
A safety program, a product safety program, and a quality assurance program.
|
|
|
True or False: When documenting in a patient's record, be sure to include the fact that an incident report was filed.
|
False- you do not document in the patients file that an incident report was filled out; incident reports are for QA!
|
|
|
A______ event is an unexpecteed occurance involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof.
|
A sentinal event.
|
|
|
True or False: If a nurse erroneously but in good faith files a report of a suspected abuse, they are protected by the law.
|
True!
|
|
|
When a state attorney decides to charge a nurse with manslaughter for allegedly administering a lethal medication order, this is an example of what type of law?
|
Criminal law
|
|
|
If you wanted to find a list of violations that can result in disciplinary actions against a nurse, you should read what?
|
The nurse practice acts.
|
|
|
A nurse that has specialty knowledge, experience, and clinical judgement and had met certain criteria established by a non-governmental association as a result which she was granted recognition in a special area is termed a _______.
|
Certification
|
|
|
If a review of a patient's record revealed that she had never consented to eye surgery, of which intentional tort might the surgeon have been guilty of?
|
Battery
|
|
|
True or False: Presbycusis is an abnormal hearing loss due to an absess or obstruction in the external auditory canal.
|
False: Presbycusis is a normal loss of hearing due to the aging process.
|
|
|
The process of bone demineralization is termed____?
|
osteoporosis
|
|
|
The consolidation and immobilization of a joint is termed_____? a) atrophy b) ankylosis c) rigamortis
|
b) ankylosis
|
|
|
How can inactivity result in a possibly acid-base imbalance?
|
When areas of lung tissues are not used, over time, atelectasis(incomplete expansion) may occur. This poor exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen can result in an acid-base imbalance.
|
|
|
Why would orthostatic hypotension result from inactivity?
|
The normal neurovascular adjustments that occur to maintain systemic bp with position changes are not used during periods of inactivity and they eventually become inoperative.
|
|
|
During periods of immobility, calcium leaves the ______ and enters the ______. This leads to an increased risk of thrombus formation. a) blood,bones b) blood,cells c) blood,tissues d) bones,blood
|
d) Calcium leaves the bones and enters the blood
|
|
|
Injuries resulting from exercise are typically treated with RICE. What does this stand for?
|
Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation
|
|
|
Who is recommended to receive a pre-exercise medical examination? Check all that apply: a) teenagers b) sedetary people c) people greater than 35 years of age d) people with past or current diabetes, asthma, osteoporosis, cardiovascular conditions
|
b,c,d
|
|
|
True or False: Some of the benefits of regular exercise include increased energy, improved appearance, improved sleep, and improved self-concept.
|
True...Duh!
|
|
|
How does exercise help to noursih the skin?
|
It increased circulation to the skin!
|
|
|
During exercise, blood is shunted away from the ______ towards the______.
|
Away from the stomach and intestines and towards the muscles.
|
|
|
True or False: Regular exercise is also believed to slow the effects of aging.
|
True. It helps to prevent osteoporosis associated with aging.
|
|
|
Exercising involving muscle contractions with resistance such as rehab exercises or weight lifting are considered a) isotonic b)isometric c)isokinetic
|
c) isokinetic
|
|
|
When using the cane for maximum support, the nurse should instruct the patient to hold the cane on the weaker or stronger side?
|
Stronger
|
|
|
In many situations, a patient has sufficient strength to walk if he or she can... a) lie prone for 1 hour b)bathe him or herself c) raise their feet off the bed 1 inch d) sit up in bed for 1 hour
|
c) raise their feet 1 inch off the bed
|
|
|
The greatest danger to feet occurs when: a) the are unsupported in the dorsiflexion position b) they are over-supported in the lateral flexion position c) they are held in place by foot boards
|
a) when they are allowed to go unsupported to the dorsiflexion position
|
|
|
Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess when a patient experiences a greater breakdown of protein than that which is manufactured? a) fluid volume excess b) a contracture c) osteoporosis d) negative nitrogen balance
|
d) negative nitrogen balance
|
|
|
A person that performs rehab exercises with resistance after a knee injury is practicing what type of exercise?
|
isokinetic
|
|
|
What bands connect muscle to bone?
|
tendons
|
|
|
What is the difference between single-ended canes with a half circle handle and single-ended canes with a straight handle? Who are recommended to use each?
|
Circle ones-for people requiring minimal support; Straight ones-for those with hand weakness(the straight handle is easier to hold).
|
|
|
What type of assistive devise widens a person's base of support providing increased balance?
|
A cane
|
|
|
What is the most important muscle group used in walking? a) quadricepts femoris b) gluteus maximus c) bicepts femoris
|
a) quadricepts femoris
|
|
|
What is a lateral assist devise?
|
A devise such as an air mattress, that is placed under the patient to help with bed to bed or bed to stretcher transfers
|
|
|
A nurse who fails to accuratly assess her patient, violates which element of liability?
|
Breach of duty
|
|
|
Decreased muscle tone is termed? a) flaccidity b) spasticity c) ROM d) muscle tone
|
a) flaccidity
|
|
|
Any conditon that interferes with the transportation of oxygenated blood to the tissues is classified as what type of nursing diagnosis? a) activity intolerance b) impaired physical mobility
|
a) activity intolerance
|
|
|
How are sandbags used?
|
To immobilize an extremity and support body alignment
|
|
|
The slight residual tension in a resting normal muscle with an intact nerve supply is termed its_______.
|
Muscle tone
|
|
|
Increased muscle tone that interferes with movement is termed_______.
|
spasticity
|
|
|
What is used to support the hips and legs so the femurs do not rotate outward?
|
Trochanter rolls
|
|
|
True/False: Massage pressure areas especially if reddened.
|
False dummie! We DO NOT massage reddened areas!
|
|
|
What position is often used to promote cardiac and respiratory functioning because abdominal organs drop in this position thereby providing maximal space in the thoracic cavity? a) fowlers b) semi-fowlers c) supine
|
Fowlers
|
|
|
You should perform ROM exercises___times a day, and each exercise should be carried out___to___ times. a) 2,3,6 b)1,2,5 c)2,2,5
|
c. 2,2,5
|
|
|
Expect a patient's respiratory and heart rate to increase during exercise, however these rates should return to usual resting level within____minutes otherwise the exercixe is prob too strenuous for the patient.
|
3 minutes!
|
|
|
How should you avoid phrasing an instruction to a patient with dementia? a) "Please stand up" b) "Walk this way" c) "Don't sit down"
|
c) dont sit down...the patient may not register the "don't" and may just hear the "sit down" and preceed to sit. Phrase directions positively.
|
|
|
BMI's greater than___ require special bariatric beds and special lifting equipment.
|
50
|
|
|
A nurse who fails to alert the doctor to changes in her patient's condition violates which element of liability?
|
Breach of Duty
|
|
|
A nurse who fails to competently execute safety measures for her/his patient violates which element of liability?
|
Breach of Duty
|
|
|
What are the 4 sources of law?
|
Constitutions, Statutes, Administrative law, Common law
|
|
|
What is the difference between duty and breach of duty?
|
Duty-what a nurse is legally responsible for doing...Breach of Duty- what the nurse failed to do, or did wrong
|
|
|
The actual harm or injury resulting to the patient is what element of liability?
|
Damages
|
|
|
Proving that failure to meet the standard of care actually caused the damages is termed? a) Duty b)Breach of Duty c)Causation d)Damages
|
c)Causation- this is the toughest one to establish
|
|
|
The failure to provide the standard of care is termed? a)Duty b)Breach of Duty c)Causation d)Damages
|
b)Breach of Duty
|
|
|
True/False: Most healthcare facilities carry claims insurance which covers the nurse after she/he is no longer working, the facility closes, or any advise and care given outside of work.
|
False! Claims insurance does not cover any of those!
|
|
|
What type of insurance would you want to take out if you wanted to be insured after you are no longer working, or if the facility closes and a lawsuit is braught againt you later? a) claims made b) professional liability c) professional claims made
|
b) professional liability insurance
|
|
|
What reason is mainly given for failing to document patient education? a) lack of knowledge b) lack of resources c) lack of time d) wrong forms used
|
c) lack of time
|
|
|
The presumption of the law is that if something was not documented, then ___ ___ ___ ___!
|
It Was Not Done!
|
|
|
What are the most common types of overexertion injuries for healthcare workers? Check all that apply. a) neck b) wrists c) shoulders d) backs e) abdomens
|
a)necks c)shoulders d)backs
|
|
|
What reflexes contribute to posture by altering the person to spatial relationships? a) labrinthine b) proprioceptor c) kinesthetic d) optic/visual
|
d)optic/visual
|
|
|
The sense of position and movement is provided by the sense organs in the inner ear which are stimulated by body movement(changes in head position). This sense is termed: a) labyrinthine b) proprioceptor c) propiolabythetic
|
a) labyrinthine
|
|
|
The point at which an objects mass is centered is termed its______and is located? a) center, pelvis between the belly button and symphis pubis b) center of gravity, in the chest c)center of gravity, pelvis between the belly button and symphsis pubis
|
c)center of gravity, pelvis between the belly button and symphysis pubis
|
|
|
If bedrest is prolonged, there is danger of developing____or permanent contraction of a muscle. a) tonus b) contracture c)rigamortis d)tonitus
|
b)contracture
|
|
|
The usual state of our muscles is____, which is the state of slight contraction. a)tonus b)contracture c)rigamortis d)tonitis
|
a)tonis
|
|
|
The correction or prevention of disorders of body structures used in locomotion is termed? a) physical therapy b)occupational therapy c)orthotics d)orthopedics
|
d)orthopedics
|
|
|
What are the 3 important functions of a muscle?
|
Motion, posture, and heat production
|
|
|
What is the insertion point for a muscle?
|
When a muscle attaches to a more movable bone.
|
|
|
What is the point of origin of a muscle?
|
When the muscle attaches to a more stationary bone.
|
|
|
What are the 2 different points of attachment for a muscle?
|
Point of origin and point of insertion.
|
|
|
True or False: Temporary management solutions to understaffing such as floating nurses, asking nurses to work overtime, asking nurses to work double shifts...are an effective method of countering the nursing shortage until better staffing can be achieved.
|
False: They are ineffective because they can further jeapardize patient safety.
|
|
|
What functions as a shock absorber and as a bearing surface that reduces friction between the moving parts of a joint?
|
Cartilage
|
|
|
Tendons connect____to____.
|
Muscle to bone
|
|
|
Ligaments connect____and____.
|
Bones and cartilage
|
|
|
Jaw and spinal column bones are examples of what kind of bones? a)irregular b) long c)flat d)short
|
a)irregular
|
|
|
Ribs and skull bones are examples of what type of bones? a)irregular b)long c)flat d)short
|
c)flat
|
|
|
The humerus and femur are examples of what types of bones? a)irregular b)long c)flat d)short
|
b)long bones
|
|
|
A person with unusual body sensations, or preoccupations with somatic complaints(ex.dry mouth) may be experiencing...? a)sensory overload b)sensory deprivation c)both
|
c)both
|
|
|
For a patient with sensory overload, what would nursing care focus on?
|
Reducing distressing stimuli and helping the patient gain control over the environment
|
|
|
Why might a person with sensory deprivation hallucinate?
|
To allow their brain to maintain an optimal level of arousal.
|
|
|
True or False: All incoming stimuli will elicit a response in the brain.
|
False: a stimulus must be variable or irregular to evoke a response
|
|
|
______describes over 100 different diseases that affect areas in or around the joints, and are characterized by inflammation, pain, and/or stiffness. a)osteoarthritis b)arthritis c)degenerative joint disease
|
b)arthritis
|
|
|
Excessive bone destruction and abnormal regeneration result in skeletal pain, deformities, and patholic fractures are termed? a)achondroplasia b)osteogenesis imperfects c)Paget's disease d)osteoporosis
|
c)Paget's disease
|
|
|
Bone destruction that exceeds bone formation and in which the resulting porous bones fracture easily is termed: a)achondroplasia b)osteogenesis imperfects c)Paget's disease d)osteoporosis
|
d)osteoporosis
|
|
|
True or False: Do not sit sensory deprived people at a table with more then 2 other people as it will overload their systems.
|
False: Do sit them with 4 individuals per table to encourage adequate stimulation.
|
|
|
What do all of these people have in common: Children in non-stimulating environments, older people, terminally ill people, patients on bedrest, patients on isolation, patients in a critical care unit?
|
They are all at high risk for sensory deprivation.
|
|
|
True or False: Avoid discussing perceptual and thought distortion with confused patients, as it will only confuse them further.
|
False: Help them to acknowledge the fact and reassure them that these experiences are normal and usually temporary; it should help to decrease anxiety if you talk it over with them
|
|
|
True or false: Use non-prescription eye drops to help lubricate dry or irritated eyes.
|
False: Avoid non-prescription eye drops and seek medical consultation. Don't self medicate!
|
|
|
True or false: To help preserve your sense of tast, avoid eating spiced foods.
|
False: Enhance taste with the use of spices.
|
|
|
True or False: Temporary hearing losses are typically cause by central nervous system problems, and are usually correctable.
|
False: Temporary hearing losses are generally conductive in nature, that is they are due to problems with the external or middle ear such as wax build up, infections, or foreign body obstruction.
|
|
|
True or False: When communicating witha confused patient, keep the emphasis on their strengths rather than on deficiencies and verbally reinforce strenths.
|
True!
|
|
|
True or False: The elbow should be flexed at a 40 degree angle when walking with a cane.
|
False: a 30 degree angle
|
|
|
True or False: When walking with a cane, patients are generally instructed to hold the cane in the opposite hand from the leg with the least severe deficit(ie hold the cane on the weaker leg side).
|
False: Hold the cane on the side of the stronger leg
|
|
|
What is the most common reason for a nurses license to be rovoked or suspended? a)negligence b)malpractice c)med errors d)drug/alcohol abuse
|
d)drug/alcohol abuse
|
|
|
True or False: Accreditation by NLNAC is a legal requirment for a nursing school.
|
False: Only state accreditation is a legal requirment.
|
|
|
The person or government bringing suit against another is called the ______ while the person being accused of a crime or tort is called the _______. a)defendant,defendant b)plaintiff,defendant c)defendant,plaintiff
|
b) plaintiff,defendant
|
|
|
The process of bringing and trying a lawsuit is termed?
|
litigation
|
|
|
The term allocated for the case that first sets down the rule by decision is called a ______.
|
Precedent
|
|
|
Most law involving malpractice is what source of law? a)constitutional b)statute c)administration d)common
|
d)common
|
|
|
The nurse practice acts fall under what source of law?
|
Statutes
|
|
|
Which of the following positions promotes drainage from the mouth for clients with throat or oral surgery, but inhibits chest expansion? a)fowlers b)semi-fowlers c)prone d)reverse trendelenburg
|
c)prone
|
|
|
_____is oral defammation of character while____ is written defammation of character. a)slander,libel b)libel,slander c)none of the above
|
a)slander=verbal, libel=written
|
|
|
John says" Sit down now or I will come over there and sit your down myself" to a patient who is tying to stand from their unlocked wheelchair. What law suit might be brought up against him? a) assault and battery b) assault c)demamation of character
|
b)assault-he verbally threatened the patient with harm
|
|
|
Forcibly removing a patients clothing or administering an injection after the patient told you they didn't want it, are both examples of what? a)assault b)battery c)assault and battery d)negligence e)defamation of character
|
b)battery
|
|
|
Assault and battery, defamation of character, invasion of privacy and false imprisonment are all torts which are usally...a)settled with money and no jail time b)settled with money and jail time c)settled with jail time
|
a)settled with money and no jail time
|
|
|
_____are commonly punishable with fines and/or imprisonment for less then 1 year with parole while____ are punishable by imprisonment in a federal penitentiary for more than 1 year. a)torts,felonies b)misdemeanors,felonies c)felonies,misdemeanors
|
b)misdemeanors,felonies
|
|
|
What type of crutches are used for patients requiring bilateral upper-extremity support with infrequent weight bearing? a) axillary b)semi-axillary c)forearm
|
c)forearm crutches
|
|
|
What is the first and second step in speaking with a person with a visual impairment?
|
1. Call them by their name when you first enter the room to avoid startling them 2. Introduce yourself
|
|
|
_____crutches are most likely to be used for patient with a permanent disability. a)forearm b)axillary c)semi-axillary
|
a)forearm
|
|
|
_____crutches are used for people with temporary restrictions on ambulation. a)forearm b)axillary
|
b)axillary
|
|
|
The sensory experience consists mainly of what 2 components? a) a stimulus and response b) kinesthesia and visceral c) vision and hearing d)reception and perception
|
d)reception and perception
|
|
|
Boards of Nursing fall under what source of law? a)constitutional b)statutes c)adminiatrative d) common
|
c)administrative
|
|
|
Bernice, a 92 year old with a broken leg, and poor upper body strength would most likely be given what type of crutches? a)axillary b)forearm
|
b)forearm crutches: axillary crutches require significan upper body strength to use.
|
|
|
True or False: When using axillary crutches, put most of your weight on your hands and arms and not on your arm pits.
|
True
|
|
|
The good leg goes up, the bad leg goes down describes what?
|
The process of going up and down stairs when using crutches.
|
|
|
What 4 characteristics must be met for a person to experience the world?
|
There needs to be a stimulus present, a sense organ to receive the stimulus, conduction along a nerve pathway, and an area of the brain to receive and translate the stimulus into a sensation.
|
|
|
The willful and purposeful misrepresentation that could cause or has caused loss or harm to a person or property is termed______
|
Fraud
|
|
|
Which of the following is an affetive method of making a home environment safe? a) cleaning the carpets b) polishing the floors c) removing throw rugs d)locking the bathroom door
|
c)removing throw rugs as they pose a tripping hazzard
|
|
|
When signing a consent form with a doctor present, what are you acknowledging? a) the client signed the document in front of you b)client was not coerced c) the doctor explained the procedure d) requirments for giving informed consent have been met
|
d) the requirments for giving informed consent have been met
|
|
|
Which amendment of the constitution gives us the right to privacy?
|
The 4th!
|
|
|
True or false: It is best to lift and object rather than to slide/roll/push/pull it?
|
False: it is best to slide/roll/push/pull over lifting an object
|
|
|
A disease characterized by excessively brittle bones with multiple fracture both at birth and later in life is termed: a)achondroplasia b) osteogenesis imperfecta c) Paget's disease d)osteoporosis
|
b)osteogensis imperfecta
|
|
|
A post-operative client is lying in a semi-fowlers position. What finding would a nurse note as incorrect? a) the client is in mild pain b)the HOB is at 50 degrees c) the clients knees and legs are flat d)there is a pillow behind the cliens head
|
b)the HOB is at 50. Semi-fowlers should have the head raise 30-40 degrees!
|
|
|
What type of medication should be considered for the bed ridden patient?
|
anticoagulants
|
|
|
When assessing the immobile client's breath sounds, what finding would indicate poor respiratory status due to immobility? a) decreased breath sounds in dependent areas of the lungs b)crackles in the lower lobes c)wheezes in the right upper lobes
|
a) decreased breath sounds in dependent areas of the lungs
|
|
|
Exposure to noise, ototonic medications, aging and acoustic neuroma are all contributing factors to what type of hearing loss? a) conductive b) sensorineural
|
b)sensorineural
|
|
|
Obstructive, tympanic membrane perforation, ear infections and otosclerosis are all contributing factors to what type of hearing loss? a) conductive b)sensorineural
|
a)conductive
|
|
|
Timely, Accurate, Complete, and Concise are guidelines for what?
|
Documentation
|
|
|
is responsible for the reduction of urine production
|
antidiuretic hormone
|
|
|
is released in response to decreased blood flow or decreased renal pressure and is sensed by receptors in the nephrons
|
renin
|
|
|
is produced by the adrenal cortex in response to stimulation by angiotensin II causing the tubules to excrete K+ while retaining Na2+, adding to the reabsorption of water back into the vascular system
|
aldosterone
|
|
|
body loses both water and electrolytes from the EFC
|
hypovolemia
|
|
|
water is lost from the body, but there is no loss of electrolytes
|
dehydration
|
|
|
what are 3 risk factors for dehydration?
|
hyperventilation, diabetic ketoacidosis, and enteral feeding without sufficient water intake
|
|
|
what are 6 risk factors for hypovolemia?
|
GI losses, skin losses, renal losses. third spacing (burns, ascites, obstruction), hemorrhage, and altered intake
|
|
|
hgb and hct are ____ during hypovolemia
|
LOW
|
|
|
hgb and hct are ____ during dehydration
|
HIGH
|
|
|
serum osmolarity, sp. gravity, serum sodium are all ___ during dehydration
|
HIGH
|
|
|
common vital signs for hypovolemia and dehydration are:
|
hyperthermia, tachycardia, thready pulse, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, < central venous pressure
|
|
|
occurs when both water and sodium are retained in abnormally high proportions
|
hypervolemia
|
|
|
occurs when more water is gained than electrolytes
|
overhydration
|
|
|
risk factor for overhydration
|
water replacement without electrolyte replacement such as strenuous exercise with profuse diaphoresis
|
|
|
risk factors for hypervolemia
|
chronic stimulus to the kidney (heart failure, cirrhosis, glucocorticosteriods), abn renal function, fluid shifts (burns, hypertonic fluids), age-related changes, excessive sodium intake
|
|
|
hgb and hct are ___ with overhydration
|
LOW
|
|
|
serum osmolarity and serum sodium are ___ with overhydration
|
LOW
|
|
|
electrolytes, BUN, and creatinine are ___ with hypervolemia
|
HIGH
|
|
|
what are vital signs for overhydration and hypervolemia?
|
tachycardia, bounding pulse, HTN, tachypnea, > central venous pressure
|
|
|
what position is best for pt with overhydration or hypervolemia?
|
semi-fowler's
|
|
|
pt with pulmonary edema should be in what position?
|
fowler's
|
|
|
a pt with hypovolemic shock should be placed in what position?
|
on back with legs elevated
|
|
|
major electrolyte found in EFC
|
sodium
|
|
|
essential for the maintance of acid-base balance, active and passive transport mechanisms, and maintaining irritability and conduction of nerve and muscle tissue
|
sodium
|
|
|
normal sodium values
|
135-145
|
|
|
is the major cation in ICF
|
potassium
|
|
|
plays vital role in cell metabolism, transmission of nerve impulses, functioning cardiac, lung, and muscle tissues, and acid-base balance
|
potassium
|
|
|
___ has reciprocal action with sodium
|
potassium
|
|
|
normal potassium values
|
3.5-5
|
|
|
normal calcium values
|
8.5-10.5
|
|
|
normal magnesium values
|
1.3-2.1
|
|
|
is a gain of water or the loss of sodium-rich fluids
|
hyponatremia
|
|
|
delays and slows the depolarization of membranes
|
hyponatremia
|
|
|
water moves from ECF into the ICF
|
hyponatremia
|
|
|
risk factors for hyponatremia
|
abn GI losses, renal losses, skin losses, > or normal ECF volume, edematous state (heart failure, cirrhosis), excessive hypotonic IV, age-related factors
|
|
|
vital signs of hyponatremia
|
hypothermia, tachycardia, thready pulse, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension
|
|
|
is a serious electrolyte inbalance and can cause significant neurological, endocrine, and cardiac disturbances
|
hypernatremia
|
|
|
cells are dehydrated with ___
|
hypernatremia
|
|
|
risk factors for hypernatremia
|
water deprivation, excessive Na intake, excessive Na retention, fluid losses, age-related changes
|
|
|
vital signs of hypernatremia
|
hyperthermia, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension
|
|
|
is the result of increased loss of K from the body ot movement of K into the cells
|
hypokalemia
|
|
|
risk factors for hypokalemia
|
< K thru GI losses, renal losses, skin losses, <intake, ICF shift, age-related factors
|
|
|
with hypokalemia the body is in a ____ state
|
alkalosis state
|
|
|
vital signs for hypokalemia
|
hyperthermia, weak irregular pulse, hypotension, resp distress
|
|
|
NEVER PUSH ____ IV
|
potassium
|
|
|
phlebitis
|
tissue irritant
|
|
|
is the result of > intake of K, movement of K out of the cells, or inadequate renal excretion
|
hyperkalemia
|
|
|
risk factors for hyperkalemia
|
ECF shift (< insulin, acidosis, fever, surgery, sepsis), < excretion (renal failure, dehydration, NSAIDS), age-related factors
|
|
|
with hyperkalemia the body is in a ____ state
|
acidosis
|
|
|
vital signs for hyperkalemia
|
slow, irregular pulse, hypotension
|
|
|
foods with potassium
|
avocado, broccoli, dairy, dried fruit, cantaloupe, bananas
|
|
|
risk factors for hypocalcemia
|
malaborption (chrons disease), end-stage renal disease, post thyroidectomy
|
|
|
+ chvostek's sign and + trousseau's sign
|
hypocalcemia and hypomagnesmia
|
|
|
vital signs for hypocalcemia
|
< heart rate, hypotension, dysrhythemia
|
|
|
what food has high calcium and magnesium?
|
dairy and dark green veggies
|
|
|
risk factors for hypomagnesmia
|
malnutrition, alcohol ingestion
|
|
|
greater concentration of H+ ions the more ____ the body fluids are with a ___ pH
|
acidic, LOW
|
|
|
lesser concentration of H+ ions the more ____ the body fluids are with a ___ pH
|
alkaline, HIGHER
|
|
|
occurs when the body attempts to correct changes and imbalances in pH levels
|
compensation
|
|
|
occurs when pH returns to normal
|
full compensation
|
|
|
pH is not able to normalize
|
partial compensation
|
|
|
risk factors for respiratory acidosis
|
resp. depression, inadequate chest expansion, airway obstruction, alveolar-capillary blockage, inadequate mechanical ventilation
|
|
|
risk factors for respiratory alkalosis
|
hyperventilation and hypoxemia
|
|
|
risk factors for metabolic acidosis
|
excess production of H+ (DKA, stravation, heavy exercise, seizures, fever, hypoxia), inadequate elimination of H+ions (renal failure), inadequate production of bicarb (renal failure, pancreatitis, liver failure, dehyration), and excess elim of bicarb
|
|
|
risk factors for metabolic alkalosis
|
base excess, acid def (loss of GI secretions from vomiting or suction and K+ depletion due to diuetics, laxatives, cushings syndrome)
|
|
|
vital signs and cardiovascular for resp acidosis
|
tachycardia and tachypnea, dysrthmias
|
|
|
vital signs and cardiovascular for resp alkalosis
|
tachypnea, palpitations, chest pain, dysrhytmias
|
|
|
vital signs and cardiovascular for metabolic acidosis
|
bradycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, dysrhymias
|
|
|
vital signs and cardiovascular for metabolic alkalosis
|
tachycardia, hypotension,dysrhytmias
|
|
|
what are common neurological s/s for resp alkalosis
|
tetany and convulsions
|
|
|
what are common neurological s/s for metabolic alkalosis
|
tetany and muscle weakness
|
|
|
impaired gas exchange or ineffective breathing pattern
|
respiratory acidosis/alkalosis
|
|
|
decreased cardiac OP related to dysrhythmias
|
metabolic acidosis/alkalosis
|
|
|
what is a med that puts older adults at risk for hyperkalemia?
|
lisinopril (prinivil)
|
|
|
normal ionized Ca values
|
4.5-5.5
|
|
|
normal bicarb (HCO3-) values
|
22-26
|
|
|
normal CO2 values
|
35-45
|
|
|
normal base (blood buffer) that exists
|
#NAME?
|
|
|
normal range for PaO2
|
80-100
|
|
|
normal O2 sats
|
95-100%
|
|
|
normal Chloride values
|
95-105
|
|
|
normal Magnesium values
|
1.5-2.5
|
|
|
normal Phosphate (PO43-)
|
2.8-4.5
|
|
|
normal serum osmolality values
|
275-295
|
|
|
movement of solvent across semipermeable membrane from an area of LOWER concentration to an area of HIGHER concentration
|
osmosis
|
|
|
membrane allows solvent in, but not the solute so there is a fluid shift
|
osmosis
|
|
|
movement of solute in a solution across semipermeable membrane from an area of HIGHER concentration to an area of LOWER concentration
|
diffusion
|
|
|
during diffusion, what effects the movement?
|
size, concentration, and temp of solution
|
|
|
process by which water and diffusible substances move together across a membrane in repsonse to fluid pressure, and area of HIGHER pressure to an area of LOWER pressure
|
filtration
|
|
|
example of filtration?
|
edema
|
|
|
requires metabolic activity and expenditure of energy to move substances across cell membranes
|
active transport
|
|
|
average adult fluid intake
|
2200-2700 mL daily
|
|
|
where is the antidiuretic hormone stored?
|
posterior pituitary gland
|
|
|
when is the antidiuretic hormone released?
|
response to changes in blood osmolarity
|
|
|
makes renal tubules and collecting ducts more permeable to H2O
|
antidiuretic hormone
|
|
|
what initiates the renin-sngiotensin-aldosterone mechanism?
|
renal perfusion
|
|
|
proteoltic enzyme that responds to decrease renal perfusion secondary to decrease ECF volume
|
renin
|
|
|
what produces angiotension I?
|
renin
|
|
|
what happens when angiotension I turns into angiotension II?
|
massive vasoconstriction of vessels and relocates and increases blood flow to kidneys to improve perfusion
|
|
|
what releases aldosterone and why?
|
adrenal cortex in response to increase plasma K+ levels ot when helping counteract hypovolema
|
|
|
helps maintain vascular tone?
|
atrial natriuretic peptide
|
|
|
where and why is atrial natriuretic peptide secreted?
|
from atrial cells of heart in response to atrial stretching and an increase in circulating blood vloume
|
|
|
average adult fluid loss daily
|
2200-2700
|
|
|
where are most fluids lost?
|
kidneys (then lungs, skin, GI)
|
|
|
essential for enzyme activities, neurochemical activites, and cardiac and skeletal muscles
|
magnesium
|
|
|
where is 50-60% of Mg found?
|
bone
|
|
|
nescessary for glycogen deposits in liver and muscles, transmission and conduction of nerve impulses
|
potassium
|
|
|
substance or group of substances that can absorb or release H+ to correct acid-base balance
|
buffer
|
|
|
regulated by lungs
|
CO2
|
|
|
regulated by kidneys
|
HCO3
|
|
|
normal pH range
|
7.35-7.45
|
|
|
what are the 3 acid-base regulators?
|
chemical, biological, and physiological regulations
|
|
|
largest chemical buffer in ECF
|
carbonic acid and bicarb buffer system
|
|
|
when CO2 increases ___ increases
|
H+ ions
|
|
|
when H+ ions increase ____ increasees
|
CO2
|
|
|
what are 2 physiological regulators?
|
lungs and kidneys
|
|
|
pH is ____ during hyperventalation
|
< 35
|
|
|
pH is ____ during hypoventalation
|
> 45
|
|
|
when bicarb is < 22 _____
|
metabolic acidosis
|
|
|
when bicard is > 26 _____
|
metabolic alkalosis
|
|
|
metabolic ALKALOSIS takes place when pH _____, PaCO2 ______, PaO2 ______, O2 sats _______, HCO3- ____,ionized Ca _____, and K+ _____
|
pH- >7.45-----------PaCO2- norm or >45---------PaO2-norm----------O2 sats-norm------------HCO3---->26-------ionized Ca+----<4.5------------K+- <3.5
|
|
|
metabolic ACIDOSIS takes place when pH _____, PaCO2 _____, PaO2 _____, O2 sats _____, HCO3 _____, K+ ______
|
pH- <7.35--------PaCO2- norm or <35------PaO2- norm--------O2 sats- norm-----HCO3- <22------K+- >5
|
|
|
respiratory ALKALOSIS takes place when pH _____, PaCo2 ____, PaO2 ____, O2 sats ____, HCO3- _____, ionized Ca+ ______, K+ _____
|
pH- >7.45------PaCO2- <35-----PaO2-norm-----O2 sats- norm------HCO3- <22----ion Ca+- <4.5-----K+- <3.5
|
|
|
respiratory ACIDOSIS takes place when pH _____, PaCO2 _____, PaO2 ____, O2 sats ____, HCO3- ____, K+ _____
|
pH- <7.35------PaCO2- >45--------O2 PaO2- norm or <80----sats- norm or <95%-------HCO3- norm or >26-----K+- >5.0
|
|
|
aldoserone holds in ___
|
Na (sodium)
|
|
|
polydipsia
|
excessive thrist (ex:DM)
|
|
|
hormone that prevents from going to BR
|
antidiuretic hormone
|
|
|
diabetes insipidis
|
go, go, go prob with antidiuretic hormone
|
|
|
disorder that holds in too much fluid b/c if inappropriate amount of antidiruetic hormone
|
SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH)
|
