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897 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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1) The purpose of a database is to help people keep track of things |
Asnwer: TRUE |
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2) In a database, each table stores data about a different type of thing. |
Answer: TRUE
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3) In a database, each row in a spreadsheet has data about a particular instance. |
Answer: FALSE
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4) In every database, not just the databases discussed in this book, table names are capitalized. |
Answer: FALSE
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5) A database shows data in tables and the relationships among the rows in those tables.
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Answer: TRUE
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6) Data is recorded facts and figures; information is knowledge derived from data.
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Answer: TRUE
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7) Databases record data in such a way that they can produce information.
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Answer: TRUE
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8) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is an example of a data mining application. |
Answer: FALSE
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9) Databases are a key component of e-commerce order entry, billing, shipping and customer support. |
Answer: TRUE
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10) The largest databases in e-commerce are the order entry databases.
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Answer: FALSE
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11) The e-commerce companies use Web activity databases to determine which items on a Web page are popular and successful.
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Answer: TRUE
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12) Small databases typically have simple structures.
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Answer: FALSE
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13) A database system is typically defined as its four components: users, database applications, the DBMS and the databases.
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Answer: TRUE
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14) A database system as typically defined can be modified to include CODASYL.
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Answer: FALSE
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15) Applications are computer programs used directly by users.
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Answer: TRUE
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16) In a database system, applications write data to the database.
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Answer: FALSE
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17) Sequenced Query Language (SQL) is an internationally recognized standard language that is understood by all commercial database management system products.
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Answer: FALSE
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18) In database systems, indexes are held by the database. |
Answer: TRUE
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19) A database management system (DBMS) creates, processes and administers databases.
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Answer: TRUE
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20) The database management system (DBMS) is responsible for inserting, modifying, reading, and deleting data.
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Answer: TRUE
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21) The database application is responsible for concurrency control. |
Answer: FALSE
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22) The database management system (DBMS) is responsible for enforcing referential integrity constraints. |
Answer: TRUE
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23) Referential integrity constraints are rules about what data values are allowed in certain columns.
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Answer: TRUE
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24) A database is a self-describing collection of non-integrated tables.
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Answer: FALSE
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25) Integrated tables store both data and the relationships among the data.
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Answer: TRUE
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26) Microsoft Access is just a DBMS.
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Answer: FALSE
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27) Microsoft Access is a low-end product intended for individuals and small workgroups.
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Answer: TRUE
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28) The current DBMS engine in Microsoft Access is called ADE.
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Answer: TRUE
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29) In Microsoft Access, you can use the Oracle DBMS in place of the ADE DBMS.
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Answer: FALSE
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30) In an Enterprise-class database system, a database application interacts with the DBMS.
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Answer: TRUE
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31) In an Enterprise-class database system, a database application accesses the database data.
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Answer: FALSE
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32) In an Enterprise-class database system, business users interact directly with the DBMS, which directly accesses the database data.
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Answer: FALSE
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33) All database applications get and put database data by sending SQL statements to the DBMS. |
Answer: TRUE
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34) The DBMS ranked as having the "most power and features" in the text is IBM's DB2.
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Answer: FALSE
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35) The DBMS ranked as being the "most difficult to use" in the text is Oracle Corporation's Oracle Database.
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Answer: TRUE
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36) The DBMS ranked as being the "easiest to use" in the text is Microsoft's SQL Server.
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Answer: FALSE
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37) The DBMS ranked as having the "least power and features" in the text is Microsoft Access.
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Answer: TRUE
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38) A database is called "self-describing" because it reduces data duplication.
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Answer: FALSE
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39) The description of a database's structure that is stored within the database itself is called the "metadata." |
Answer: TRUE
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40) In a database processing system, indexes are held by the database management system (DBMS).
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Answer: TRUE
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41) Database design is important, and fortunately it is simple to do.
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Answer: FALSE
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42) A database design may be part of a new systems development project. |
Answer: TRUE
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43) A database design is rarely a redesign of an existing database.
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Answer: FALSE
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44) Information systems that stored groups of records in separate files were called file processing systems.
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Answer: TRUE
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45) Data Language/I (DL/I) structured data relationships as a tree structure.
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Answer: TRUE
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46) The CODASYL DBTG mode structured data relationships as a tree structure.
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Answer: FALSE
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47) The relational model was first proposed in 1970 by E. F. Codd at IBM.
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Answer: TRUE
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48) The 1977 edition of this text contained a chapter on the relational model, and that chapter was reviewed by E. F. Codd. |
Answer: TRUE |
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49) dBase was the first PC-based DBMS to implement true relational algebra on a PC.
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Answer: FALSE |
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50) Paradox is the only major survivor of the "bloodbath of PC DBMS products."
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Answer: FALSE
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51) Business organizations have resisted adopting object-oriented database systems because the cost of purchasing OODBMS packages is prohibitively high.
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Answer: FALSE
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52) Bill Gates has said that "XML is the lingua-franca of the Internet Age."
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Answer: TRUE
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53) XML Web services allow database processing to be shared across the Internet.
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Answer: TRUE
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54) The NoSQL movement should really be called a NoRelational movement.
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Answer: TRUE
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55) Twitter and Facebook use NoSQL databases.
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Answer: TRUE
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56) The purpose of a database is to:
A) help people keep track of things. B) store data in tables. C) create tables of rows and columns. D) maintain data on different things in different tables. E) All of the above. |
Answer: A
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57) A database stores:
A) data. B) relationships. C) metadata. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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58) A database records:
A) facts. B) figures. C) information. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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59) A sales contact manager used by a salesperson is an example of a(n) ________. |
Answer: A
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60) A Customer Resource Management (CRM) system is an example of a(n) ________.
A) single-user database application B) multiuser database application C) e-commerce database application D) A or B E) Any of A, B, or C |
Answer: B
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61) An online drugstore such as Drugstore.com is an example of a(n) ________. |
Answer: C
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62) The industry standard supported by all major DBMSs that allows tables to be joined together is called ________. |
Answer: C
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63) A program whose job is to create, process and administer databases is called a ________.
A) Database Modeling System B) Database Management System C) Data Business Model System D) Relational Model Manager E) Data Business Management Service |
Answer: B
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64) Microsoft Access includes:
A) a DBMS. B) an application generator. C) a Web server. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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65) Microsoft Access may use which of the following DBMS engines? A) ADE B) SQL Server C) Oracle D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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66) Which of the following are basic components of an enterprise-class database system?
A) The user B) The database application C) The database management system (DBMS) D) The database E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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67) In an enterprise-class database system, ________.
A) the database application(s) interact(s) with the DBMS B) the database application(s) access(es) the database data C) the DBMS accesses the database data D) A and B E) A and C |
Answer: E
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68) In an enterprise-class database system, the database application ________.
A) creates queries B) creates forms C) creates reports D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: E
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69) In an enterprise-class database system,are created by ________. |
Answer: B
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70) In database systems, the DBMS ________.
A) inserts data B) modifies data C) reads data D) deletes data E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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71) In database systems, the DBMS enforces rules about which data can be written in certain columns. The rules are known as ________. |
Answer: E
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72) In database systems, the DBMS enforces rules about which user can perform which action when. The rules are known as ________.
A) data insertion control B) data modification control C) data reading control D) concurrency control E) referential integrity constraints |
Answer: D
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73) A database is considered "self-describing" because ________.
A) all the users' data is in one place B) it reduces data duplication C) it contains a description of its own structure D) it contains a listing of all the programs that use it E) All of the above |
Answer: C
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74) A database consists of integrated tables, which store ________.
A) data B) relationships among the data C) forms D) A and B E) All of the above |
Answer: D
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75) In database systems, the database ________.
A) holds user data B) holds metadata C) holds indexes D) holds stored procedures E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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76) A database may contain ________.
A) tables B) metadata C) triggers D) stored procedures E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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77) A database may be designed ________.
A) from existing data B) as a new systems development project C) as a redesign of an existing database D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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78) A database designed using spreadsheets from the Sales department is a database being designed ________.
A) from existing data B) as a new systems development project C) as a redesign of an existing database D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: A
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79) A database designed to implement requirements for a reporting application needed by the Sales department is a database being designed ________.
A) from existing non-database data B) as a new systems development project C) as a redesign of an existing database D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: B
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80) A database designed to combine two databases used by the Sales department is a database being designed ________. |
Answer: C
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81) Database professionals use ________ as specific data sources for studies and analyses.
A) data marts B) normalization C) data models D) entity-relationship data modeling E) data migration |
Answer: A
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82) Database professionals use a set of principles called ________ to guide and assess database design.
A) data marts B) normalization C) data models D) entity-relationship data modeling E) data migration |
Answer: B
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83) A very popular development technique used by database professionals for database design is known as ________.
A) data marts B) normalization C) data models D) entity-relationship data modeling E) data migration |
Answer: D
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84) A very popular development technique used by database professionals to adopt a database design to a new or changing requirement is known as ________. |
Answer: E
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85) The predecessor(s) of database processing was (were) ________.
A) file managers B) hierarchical models C) network models D) the relational data model E) All of the above were predecessors of database processing. |
Answer: A
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86) The relational model ________.
A) was first proposed in 1970 B) was developed by E. F. Codd C) was developed at IBM D) resulted in the DBMS product DB2 E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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87) Modern microcomputer personal DBMS products ________.
A) are supplied by several well-established manufacturers B) were essentially made obsolete by Microsoft Access C) have poor response time D) are not true DBMS products E) are really just programming languages with generalized file-processing capabilities |
Answer: B
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88) Business organizations have resisted adopting object-oriented database management systems because ________. A) object-oriented programming uses simplified data structures that fit easily into relational databases B) the cost of purchasing OODBMS packages is prohibitively high C) the cost of converting data from relational databases to OODBMSs is too high D) most large organizations have older applications that are not based on object oriented programming E) C and D |
Answer: E
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89) For database development, the most important Web-related technology to emerge in recent years is:
A) FTP. B) HTTP. C) XML. D) OODBMS. E) All of the above. |
Answer: C
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90) For database development, a challenge to the relational model and the use of SQL. This challenge is known as:
A) the Web services movement. B) the NoSQL movement. C) the SOAP movement. D) the NoSOAP movement. E) the UDDI movement. |
Answer: C
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1) SQL stands for Standard Query Language.
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Answer: FALSE
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2) SQL includes a data definition language, a data manipulation language, and SQL/Persistent stored modules.
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Answer: TRUE
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3) SQL is only a data manipulation language (DML).
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Answer: FALSE
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4) The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) maintains the standards for SQL.
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Answer: TRUE
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5) SQL was developed by IBM in the late 1970s.
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Answer: TRUE
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6) SQL is not a complete programming language. Rather it is a data sublanguage.
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Answer: TRUE
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7) In addition to being a data sublanguage, SQL is also a programming language, like Java or C#.
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Answer: FALSE
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8) SQL commands can be embedded in application programs.
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Answer: TRUE
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9) SQL, although very popular, has never become a national standard.
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Answer: FALSE
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10) The SQL keyword SELECT is used to specify the columns to be listed in the query results.
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Answer: TRUE
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11) The SQL keyword WHERE is used to specify the table(s) that contain(s) the data to be retrieved.
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Answer: FALSE
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12) The SQL keyword FROM is used to specify the table to be used.
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Answer: TRUE
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13) SQL can only query a single table.
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Answer: FALSE
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14) SQL statements end with a colon.
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Answer: FALSE
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15) The columns to be obtained by an SQL command are listed after the FROM keyword.
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Answer: FALSE
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16) To remove duplicate rows from the result of a query, specify the SQL DISTINCT keyword.
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Answer: TRUE
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17) To obtain all columns, use an asterisk (*) wildcard character instead of listing all the column names.
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Answer: TRUE
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18) The SQL WHERE clause contains the condition that specifies which rows are to be selected.
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Answer: TRUE
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19) The result of an SQL SELECT operation can contain duplicate rows.
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Answer: TRUE
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20) To have SQL automatically eliminate duplicate rows from a result, use the keyword DISTINCT with the FROM keyword.
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Answer: FALSE
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21) An asterisk (*) following the SELECT verb means that all columns are to be displayed.
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Answer: TRUE
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22) The WHERE clause contains the condition that specifies which columns are to be selected.
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Answer: FALSE
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23) The rows of the result table can be sorted by the values in one or more columns.
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Answer: TRUE
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24) Sorting is specified by the use of the SORT BY phrase.
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Answer: FALSE
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25) To sort the rows of the result table, the ORDER BY clause is specified.
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Answer: FALSE
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26) Columns can be sorted in descending sequence by using the SQL DESC keyword.
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Answer: TRUE
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27) A WHERE clause can contain only one condition.
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Answer: FALSE
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28) When two conditions must both be true for the rows to be selected, the conditions are separated by the SQL AND keyword.
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Answer: TRUE
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29) To refer to a set of values needed for a condition, use the SQL IN operator.
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Answer: TRUE
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30) To exclude one or more values using a condition, the SQL OUT keyword must be used.
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Answer: FALSE
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31) To refer to a set of values in a condition, the values are placed inside parentheses ( ) and separated by commas.
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Answer: TRUE
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32) The condition in WHERE clauses can refer to a set of values by using the IN operator.
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Answer: TRUE
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33) The SQL keyword LIKE is used in SQL expressions to select on partial values.
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Answer: TRUE
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34) The SQL wildcard character "%" represents a series of one or more unspecified characters.
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Answer: TRUE
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35) The SQL wildcard character "#" indicates a single, unspecified character in a specific location in an SQL query.
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Answer: FALSE
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36) The Microsoft Access wildcard character "*" (asterisk) indicates a sequence of one or more unspecified characters in a Microsoft Access SQL query.
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Answer: TRUE
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37) The Microsoft Access wildcard character "_" (underscore) indicates a single, unspecified character in a specific location in a Microsoft Access SQL query.
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Answer: FALSE
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38) The SQL built-in function ADDUP totals values in numeric columns.
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Answer: FALSE
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39) The SQL built-in function AVG computes the average of values in numeric columns.
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Answer: TRUE
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40) The SQL built-in function MOST obtains the largest value in a numeric column.
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Answer: TRUE
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41) The SQL built-in function MIN obtains the smallest value in a numeric column.
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Answer: TRUE
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42) The SQL built-in function COUNT computes the number of rows in a query.
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Answer: TRUE
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43) The built-in function SUM can be used with any column.
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Answer: FALSE
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44) The clause SELECT COUNT (*) results in a table with a single row and a single column.
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Answer: TRUE
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45) Arithmetic in SQL statements is limited to the operations provided by the built-in functions.
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Answer: FALSE
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46) The SQL keyword GROUP BY instructs the DBMS to group together those rows that have the same value in a column.
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Answer: TRUE
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47) A WHERE clause can contain another SELECT statement enclosed in parentheses.
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Answer: TRUE
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48) A SELECT statement used in a WHERE clause is called a subquery.
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Answer: TRUE
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49) A nested SELECT statement (one that appears within the WHERE clause of another SQL statement) is called a subquery and must be enclosed in parentheses.
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Answer: TRUE
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50) Only two tables can be queried by using a subquery.
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Answer: FALSE
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51) An alternative to combining tables by a subquery is to use a join.
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Answer: TRUE
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52) When people use the term "join" they normally mean an "equijoin."
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Answer: TRUE
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53) Two or more tables are joined by giving the table names in the WHERE clause and specifying the equality of the respective column names as a condition in the GROUP BY clause.
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Answer: FALSE
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54) The names of tables to be joined in an SQL query are listed in the FROM clause.
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Answer: TRUE
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55) In an SQL query, a join operation is achieved by specifying the equality of the respective column names as a condition in the WHERE clause.
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Answer: TRUE
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56) Every subquery can be alternatively expressed by a join.
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Answer: FALSE
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57) While many subqueries can be alternatively written as joins, correlated subqueries do work that cannot be duplicated as a join.
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Answer: TRUE
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58) The SQL syntax JOIN . . . ON can be used as alternate way of writing an SQL join statement.
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Answer: TRUE
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59) Joins that show only matching rows from the joined tables in their results are called inner joins.
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Answer: TRUE
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60) Joins that show the matching rows from the joined tables plus unmatched rows from one other table in their results are called outer joins.
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Answer: TRUE
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61) Outer joins can be either up joins or down joins.
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Answer: FALSE
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62) SQL is a ________.
A) data sublanguage B) product of IBM research C) national standard D) combination that includes a data definition language and a data manipulation language E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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63) When making an SQL query, we are using SQL as a(n) ________.
A) DDL B) DML C) embedded language D) SET E) WHERE |
Answer: B
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64) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword actually creates the query?
A) EXISTS B) FROM C) SELECT D) SET E) WHERE |
Answer: C
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65) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to specify the table(s) to be used?
A) EXISTS B) FROM C) SELECT D) SET E) WHERE |
Answer: B
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66) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword must be used to remove duplicate rows from the result table?
A) DELETE B) DISTINCT C) NOT EXISTS D) UNIQUE E) KEY |
Answer: B
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67) In an SQL query, which of the following symbols is used by ANSI SQL to represent all the columns in a single table?
A) _ (underscore) B) ? (question mark) C) * (asterisk) D) % (percent) E) # (pound) |
Answer: C
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68) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to state the condition that specifies which rows are to be selected?
A) EXISTS B) FROM C) SELECT D) SET E) WHERE |
Answer: E
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69) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to join two conditions that both must be true for the rows to be selected?
A) AND B) EXISTS C) HAVING D) IN E) OR |
Answer: A
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70) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to determine if a column value is equal to any one of a set of values?
A) AND B) EXISTS C) HAVING D) IN E) OR |
Answer: D
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71) In an SQL query, which of the following symbols is used by ANSI SQL to represent a single unspecified character?
A) _ (underscore) B) ? (question mark) C) * (asterisk) D) % (percent) E) # (pound) |
Answer: A
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72) In an SQL query, which of the following symbols is used by Microsoft Access to represent a single unspecified character?
A) _ (underscore) B) ? (question mark) C) * (asterisk) D) % (percent) E) # (pound) |
Answer: B
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73) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to sort the result table by the values in one or more columns?
A) GROUP BY B) ORDER BY C) SELECT D) SORT BY E) WHERE |
Answer: B
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74) Given a table with the structure: EMPLOYEE (EmpNo, Name, Salary, HireDate), which of the following would find all employees whose name begins with the letter "S" using standard SQL?
A) SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name IN ['S']; B) SELECT EmpNo FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name LIKE 'S'; C) SELECT * FROM Name WHERE EMPLOYEE LIKE 'S*'; D) SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name LIKE 'S%'; E) None of the above. |
Answer: D
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75) Given a table with the structure: EMPLOYEE (EmpNo, Name, Salary, HireDate), which of the following would find all employees whose name begins with the letter "S" using Microsoft Access?
A) SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name IN ['S']; B) SELECT EmpNo FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name LIKE 'S'; C) SELECT * FROM Name WHERE EMPLOYEE LIKE 'S*'; D) SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name LIKE 'S%'; E) None of the above. |
Answer: C
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76) In an SQL query, which built-in function is used to total numeric columns?
A) AVG B) COUNT C) MAX D) MEAN E) SUM |
Answer: E
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77) In an SQL query, which built-in function is used to compute the average value of numeric columns?
A) AVG B) MEAN C) MAX D) MIN E) SUM |
Answer: A
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78) In an SQL query, which built-in function is used to obtain the largest value of numeric columns?
A) AVG B) COUNT C) MAX D) MIN E) SUM |
Answer: C
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79) In an SQL query, which built-in function is used to obtain the smallest value of numeric columns?
A) AVG B) COUNT C) MAX D) MIN E) SUM |
Answer: D
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80) In an SQL query, the built-in functions SUM and AVG work with columns containing data of which of the following data types?
A) Integer B) Numeric C) Char D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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81) In an SQL query, which built-in function is used to compute the number of rows in a table?
A) AVG B) COUNT C) MAX D) MIN E) MEAN |
Answer: B
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82) In an SQL query, the built-in function COUNT works with columns containing data of which of the following data types?
A) Integer B) Numeric C) Char D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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83) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used with built-in functions to group together rows that have the same value in a specified column?
A) GROUP BY B) ORDER BY C) SELECT D) SORT BY E) DISTINCT SET |
Answer: A
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84) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used with GROUP BY to select groups meeting specified criteria?
A) AND B) EXISTS C) HAVING D) IN E) WHERE |
Answer: C
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85) Given a table with the structure: EMPLOYEE (EmpNo, Name, Salary, HireDate), which of the following is not a valid ANSI SQL command?
A) SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Name LIKE 'Ja%'; B) SELECT COUNT(*) FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Salary < 30000; C) SELECT COUNT(EmpNo) FROM EMPLOYEE; D) SELECT HireDate, COUNT(*) FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Salary < 30000; E) SELECT HireDate, COUNT(*) FROM EMPLOYEE GROUP BY HireDate; |
Answer: D
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88) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to implement a subquery? |
Answer: D |
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89) When one SQL query is embedded in another SQL query, this is referred to as a ________.
A) subset B) join C) WHERE Query D) subquery |
E) set query |
Answer: D
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90) When one SQL query is embedded in another SQL query, the second SQL query is embedded in the ________ of the first query.
A) SELECT B) FROM C) WHERE D) GROUP BY E) HAVING |
Answer: C
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91) When one SQL query is embedded in another SQL query, the first SQL query can still contain an SQL ________ clause.
A) FROM THE B) WHERE THE C) ORDER BY D) GROUP BY E) C and D |
Answer: E
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92) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to specify the names of tables to be joined?
A) FROM B) HAVING C) JOIN D) SELECT E) WHERE |
Answer: A
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93) In an SQL query, which SQL keyword is used to specify the column names to be used in a join?
A) FROM B) HAVING C) JOIN D) SELECT E) WHERE |
Answer: E
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94) Regarding the interchangeability of subqueries and joins,
A) a join can always be used as an alternative to a subquery, and a subquery can always be used as an alternative to a join. B) a join can sometimes be used as an alternative to a subquery, and a subquery can sometimes be used as an alternative to a join. C) a join can always be used as an alternative to a subquery, and a subquery can sometimes be used as an alternative to a join. D) a join can sometimes be used as an alternative to a subquery, and a subquery can always be used as an alternative to a join. E) a join can never be used as an alternative to a subquery, and a subquery can never be used as an alternative to a join. |
Answer: B
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95) In an SQL query of two tables, which SQL keyword indicates that we want data from all the rows of one table to be included in the result, even if the row does not correspond to any data in the other table?
A) LEFT JOIN B) RIGHT JOIN C) INCLUDE D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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1) All relations are tables, but not all tables are relations.
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Answer: TRUE
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2) A relation is a three-dimensional table.
|
Answer: FALSE
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3) A characteristic of a relation is that the cells of the relation hold a single value.
|
Answer: TRUE
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4) A characteristic of a relation is that the rows of a relation may hold identical values.
|
Answer: FALSE
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5) A relation is a table composed of columns and rows.
|
Answer: TRUE
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6) In relational terms as defined by E.F. Codd, a row is called a tuple.
|
Answer: TRUE
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7) In relational terms as defined by E.F. Codd, a column is called an attribute.
|
Answer: TRUE
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8) The columns of a relation are sometimes called tuples.
|
Answer: FALSE
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9) A tuple is a group of one or more columns that uniquely identifies a row.
|
Answer: FALSE
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10) A functional dependency is a relationship between attributes such that if we know the value of one attribute, we can determine the value of the other attribute.
|
Answer: TRUE
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11) If by knowing the value of A we can find the value of B, then we would say that B is functionally dependent on A.
|
Answer: TRUE
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12) In functional dependencies, the attribute whose value is known or given is referred to as the determinant.
|
Answer: TRUE
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13) Attribute Y is functionally dependent on attribute X if the value of attribute X determines the value of Y.
|
Answer: TRUE
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14) The functional dependency noted as A → B means that the value of A can be determined from the value of B.
|
Answer: FALSE
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15) In the functional dependency shown as A → B, B is the determinant.
|
Answer: FALSE
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16) Functional dependencies can involve groups of attributes.
|
Answer: TRUE
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17) Given the functional dependency (A, B) → C, the attributes (A, B) are referred to as a composite determinant.
|
Answer: TRUE
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18) Given the functional dependency A → (B, C), then it is true that A → B and A → C.
|
Answer: TRUE
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19) Given the functional dependency (A, B) → C, then it is true that A → C and B → C.
|
Answer: FALSE
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20) Given the functional dependency A → B, then it is necessarily true that B → A.
|
Answer: FALSE
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21) A determinant of a functional dependency may or may not be unique in a relation.
|
Answer: TRUE
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22) A key is a combination of one or more columns that is used to identify particular rows in a relation.
|
Answer: TRUE
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23) A row can be uniquely identified by a key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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24) A combination key is a group of attributes that uniquely identifies a row.
|
Answer: FALSE
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25) A key can be composed of a group of attributes taken together.
|
Answer: TRUE
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26) It is possible to have a relation that does not have a key.
|
Answer: FALSE
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27) A candidate key is one of a group of keys that may serve as the primary key in a relation.
|
Answer: TRUE
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28) A relation can have only one candidate key.
|
Answer: FALSE
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29) A primary key is a candidate key that has been selected to uniquely identify rows in a relation.
|
Answer: TRUE
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30) A surrogate key is an artificial column that is added to a relation to be its primary key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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31) Surrogate keys usually slow performance.
|
Answer: FALSE
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32) Surrogate keys are normally not shown on forms or reports.
|
Answer: TRUE
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33) A foreign key is one or more columns in one relation that also is the primary key in another table.
|
Answer: TRUE
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34) A referential integrity constraint is used to make sure the values of a foreign key match a valid value of a primary key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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35) A constraint that requires an instance of an entity to exist in one relation before it can be referenced in another relation is called an insertion anomaly.
|
Answer: FALSE
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36) A referential integrity constraint limits the values of a foreign key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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37) If a table meets the minimum definition of a relation, it has an effective or appropriate structure.
|
Answer: FALSE
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38) Undesirable consequences of changing the data in a relation are called "modification anomalies."
|
Answer: TRUE
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39) A deletion anomaly exists when deleting data about one entity results in the loss of data about another entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
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40) Relations are classified into "normal forms" based on the types of modification anomalies that they are vulnerable to.
|
Answer: TRUE
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41) Any table that meets the definition of a relation is said to be in first normal form (1NF).
|
Answer: TRUE
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42) Any table that meets the definition of a relation is in 2NF.
|
Answer: FALSE
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43) A relation is in 2NF if and only if it is in 1NF and all non-key attributes are determined by the entire primary key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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44) A relation is in 3NF if and only if it is in 2NF and there are no non-key attributes determined by another non-key attribute.
|
Answer: TRUE
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45) The condition that a non-key attribute determines another non-key attribute is known as transitive dependency.
|
Answer: TRUE
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46) An attribute is considered to be a non-key attribute when it is a non-prime attribute, which means that the attribute is not contained in any candidate key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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47) Candidate keys are called interlocking candidate keys when they share one or more attributes.
|
Answer: FALSE
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48) A relation is in Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF) if and only if it is in 3NF and every determinant is a candidate key.
|
Answer: TRUE
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49) A defining requirement for Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF) is that every candidate key must be a determinant.
|
Answer: FALSE
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50) Every time we break up a relation during the normalization process, we may have to create a referential integrity constraint.
|
Answer: TRUE
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51) The essence of normalization is taking a relation that is not in BCNF and breaking it into multiple relations such that each one is in BCNF.
|
Answer: TRUE
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52) When designing or normalizing relations, each relation should have only one theme.
|
Answer: TRUE
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53) A multivalued dependency exists when a determinant is matched to a set of values.
|
Answer: TRUE
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54) The multivalued dependency noted as A → → B, means that the value of A determines a set of values of B.
|
Answer: TRUE
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55) A relation is in 4NF when multivalued dependencies are isolated in their own relation.
|
Answer: TRUE
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56) A relation is in 4NF if it is in BCNF and it has no multivalued dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
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57) Domain/key normal form requires that every constraint be a logical consequence of the definition of domains and keys.
|
Answer: TRUE
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58) A relation that is in domain/key normal form is assured to be free from all anomalies.
|
Answer: TRUE
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59) A relation ________.
A) has rows containing data about an entity B) has columns containing data about attributes of the entity C) has cells that hold only a single value D) has no two identical rows E) All of the above. |
Answer: E
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60) In a relation ________.
A) entities in a column vary as to kind B) the order of the columns is important C) the order of the rows is unimportant D) more than one column can use the same name E) All of the above. |
Answer: C
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61) A relation is also known as a(n) ________.
A) table B) tuple C) relationship D) attribute E) field |
Answer: A
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62) A tuple is also known as a(n) ________.
A) table B) relation C) row D) field E) file |
Answer: C
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63) An attribute is also known as a(n) ________.
A) table B) relation C) row D) field E) file |
Answer: D
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64) Saying that two entities are functionally dependent means that ________.
A) the entities are always connected by a mathematical equation B) for one of the entities, if we are given the value of that entity, we can determine the value of one other entity C) for both of the entities, if we are given the value of one entity, we can determine the value of the other entity D) the functional dependency will have to be removed through normalization E) All of the above. |
Answer: B
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65) Given the functional dependency A → (B, C), A is a(n) ________.
A) independent variable B) dependent variable C) determinant D) composite determinant E) C and D |
Answer: C
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66) Given the functional dependency (A, B) → C, (A, B) is a(n) ________.
A) independent variable B) dependent variable C) determinant D) composite determinant E) C and D |
Answer: E
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67) Given the functional dependency (A, B) → C, then ________.
A) A → B B) A → C C) B → A D) B → C E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: E
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68) Which of the following is true about the functional dependency A → (X, Y)?
A) X is functionally dependent on A. B) A determines Y. C) A is a determinant. D) X and Y are functionally dependent on A. E) All of the above. |
Answer: E
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|
69) Which of the following is true about the functional dependency (A, B) → (C, D)?
A) A is the determinant of C. B) A and B together are determined by C and D together. C) A and B together determine D. D) C and D together determine A. E) A determines B. |
Answer: C
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70) The only reason(s) for having relations is to ________.
A) store instances of functional dependencies B) store equation components C) store equation results D) B and C E) A, B, and C |
Answer: A
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71) A combination of one or more columns used to identify particular rows in a relation is a ________.
A) record B) field C) key D) tuple E) dependency |
Answer: C
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72) A combination of two or more columns used to identify particular rows in a relation is a ________.
A) record B) field C) composite key D) foreign key E) surrogate key |
Answer: C
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73) A determinant that determines all the other columns in a relation is a ________.
A) record B) field C) foreign key D) candidate key E) surrogate key |
Answer: D
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74) When designing a database, one of the candidate keys in a relation is selected as the ________.
A) composite key B) primary key C) foreign key D) surrogate key E) dependency |
Answer: B
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75) An artificial column added to a relation to serve as the primary key is a ________.
A) composite key B) candidate key C) foreign key D) surrogate key E) dependency |
Answer: D
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76) A key consisting of one or more columns that is a primary key in another relation is a ________.
A) composite key B) candidate key C) foreign key D) surrogate key E) dependency |
Answer: C
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77) Referential integrity constraints are used to limit the possible values of a ________.
A) composite key B) candidate key C) foreign key D) surrogate key E) dependency |
Answer: C
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78) A ________ is used to limit the possible values of a(n) foreign key.
A) composite key B) surrogate key C) functional dependency D) referential integrity constraint E) normal form |
Answer: D
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79) Normalization is a process used to deal with which of the following modification anomalies?
A) Insertion anomaly B) Update anomaly C) Deletion anomaly D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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80) If the removal of facts about one entity results in the unintentional loss of data about another entity, this is referred to as a(n) ________.
A) normalization anomaly B) insertion anomaly C) update anomaly D) deletion anomaly E) removal anomaly |
Answer: D
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|
81) Suppose that you need to update one value of the column SalesCost in a relation. The way the relation is constructed, this value actually needs to be changed in three different rows. However, you only change the value in two of the rows. You have just created an a(n) ________.
A) normalization anomaly B) insertion anomaly C) update anomaly D) deletion anomaly E) removal anomaly |
Answer: C
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82) A table that meets the definition of a relation is in ________.
A) First Normal Form B) Second Normal Form C) Third Normal Form D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form E) Fourth Normal Form |
Answer: A
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83) A relation is in second normal form (2NF) if and only if it is in 1NF and ________.
A) all non-key attributes are determined by the entire primary key B) there are no non-key attributes determined by another non-key attribute C) every attribute is a candidate key D) every candidate key is a determinant E) every determinant is a candidate key |
Answer: A
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84) A relation is in third normal form (3NF) if and only if it is in 2NF and ________.
A) all non-key attributes are determined by the entire primary key B) there are no non-key attributes determined by another non-key attribute C) every attribute is a candidate key D) every candidate key is a determinant E) every determinant is a candidate key |
Answer: B
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85) A relation is in Boyce-Codd normal form (BCNF) if and only if it is in 3NF and ________.
A) all non-key attributes are determined by the entire primary key B) there are no non-key attributes determined by another non-key attribute C) every attribute is a candidate key D) every candidate key is a determinant E) every determinant is a candidate key |
Answer: E
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86) If a table is designed so that every determinant is a candidate key, then that relation is in ________.
A) First Normal Form B) Second Normal Form C) Third Normal Form D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form E) Fourth Normal Form |
Answer: D
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87) If a relation is in BCNF, and each multivalued dependency has been moved to a relation of its own, then the first relation is in ________.
A) First Normal Form B) Second Normal Form C) Third Normal Form D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form E) Fourth Normal Form |
Answer: E
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88) A relation is in fourth normal form if it is in BCNF and it has no ________.
A) transitive dependencies B) multivalued dependencies C) partial dependencies D) deletion dependencies E) referential integrity conflicts |
Answer: B
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89) A relation is in domain/key normal form if ________. |
Answer: D
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90) In general, each relation should have ________.
A) one and only one theme B) one or more themes C) exactly two themes D) one or two themes E) exactly three themes |
Answer: A
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|
1) When you are given a set of tables and asked to create a database to store their data, the first step is to assess the tables' structure and content.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
2) The first step in assessing table structure is to count rows and examine columns.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
3) To count the number of rows in a table, use the SQL construct COUNT(ROWS).
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
4) To determine the number and type of columns in a table, use the SQL construct COUNT(*).
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
5) To limit the number of rows retrieved from a table, use the SQL TOP keyword.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
6) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, you should try to determine two types of dependencies: functional dependencies and functional dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
7) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, you should try to determine three types of keys: the primary key, any candidate keys and any foreign keys.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
8) The second step in assessing table structure is to examine data values and determine dependencies and keys.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
9) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, you should try to determine functional dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
10) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, you should try to determine multivalued dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
11) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, you should try to determine the table's primary key.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
12) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, there is no need to try to determine candidate keys other than the table's primary key.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
13) When examining data values as a part of assessing table structure, there is no need to try to determine foreign keys.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
14) The third step in assessing table structure is to check the validity of presumed referential integrity constraints.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
15) The elimination of modification anomalies and the reduction of duplicated data are advantages of normalization.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
16) Database design varies depending on whether you're building an updatable database or a read-only database.
|
Answer: TRUE
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17) Normalization eliminates modification anomalies and data duplication.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
18) The presence of one or more foreign keys in a relation means that we cannot eliminate duplicated data in that table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
19) Normalization requires applications to use more complex SQL since they will need to write subqueries and joins to recombine data stored in separate relations.
|
Answer: TRUE
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|
20) Relations are sometimes left unnormalized to improve performance.
|
Answer: TRUE
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|
21) Relations in BCNF have no modification anomalies in regard to functional dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
22) A defining requirement for BCNF is that every determinant must be a candidate key.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
23) The SQL INSERT statement can be used to populate normalized tables.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
24) The SQL DELETE TABLE statement can be used to remove unneeded tables after the normalized tables are created and populated.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
25) SQL statements that can be used to create referential integrity statements for normalized tables are created during the normalization process.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
26) The standard sales order/line item pattern is a classic example of unneeded normalization.
|
Answer: FALSE
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|
27) Multivalued dependencies create anomalies so serious that multivalued dependencies must always be eliminated.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
28) Writing SQL subqueries and joins against normalized tables is simple compared to the code that must be written to handle anomalies from multivalued dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
29) To eliminate multivalued dependencies, normalize your tables so that they are all in BCNF.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
30) Creating a read-only database is a job often given to beginning database professionals.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
31) Read-only databases are often updated.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
32) Design guidelines and priorities are the same whether you're working with an updatable database or a read-only database.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
33) Normalization is an advantage for a read-only database.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
34) Denormalization is the process of joining previously normalized tables back together.
|
Answer: TRUE |
|
|
|
35) Denormalization reduces the complexity of the SQL statements needed in an application to read required data.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
36) Denormalization is simple—join the data together and store it in a table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
37) Read-only databases seldom use more than one copy of a set of same data.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
38) Read-only databases often use several copies of a set of the same data, where each copy is modified for a specific use.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
39) Multivalued dependencies show up under a different name as the multivalued, multicolumn problem.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
40) The multivalued, multicolumn problem occurs when a set of columns are used to store data that should actually be in one column.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
41) One situation created by the multivalued, multicolumn problem is that the maximum number of data values for an attribute is limited.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
42) If you have a table with a set of columns named "Child01", "Child02" and "Child03", the table has the multivalued, multicolumn problem.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
43) When you are creating a database from existing data, you will have only minor problems with inconsistent values.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
44) An inconsistent values problem is created when different users have coded the same data entries differently.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
45) The problem of misspelled data entries is an entirely different problem than the inconsistent values problem.
|
Answer: FALSE
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46) You are creating a BOAT table using existing data from multiple sources, and you find that you have "power boat blue", "boat, power, blue" and "blue power boat" as data values for the same column. This is an example of the inconsistent values problem.
|
Answer: TRUE
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47) A missing value is called a null value.
|
Answer: TRUE
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48) Null values are a problem because they are ambiguous.
|
Answer: TRUE
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49) A null value in a column may indicate that there is no appropriate value for that attribute.
|
Answer: TRUE
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50) A null value in a column may indicate that there is an appropriate value for that attribute, but it is unknown.
|
Answer: TRUE
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51) A null value in a column may indicate that there is an appropriate value for that attribute, and although the value is known no one has entered the value into the database.
|
Answer: TRUE
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52) Most DBMS products will let you define a primary key on a column that contains null values.
|
Answer: FALSE
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53) The SQL IS NULL keyword can be used to count the number of nulls in a column.
|
Answer: TRUE
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54) General-purpose remarks columns rarely contain important data.
|
Answer: FALSE
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55) The problem with a general-purpose remarks column is that the data it contains are likely to be verbal, inconsistent and stored in a verbose manner.
|
Answer: TRUE
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56) If you see a column name Notes, it is likely that this is a general-purpose remarks column.
|
Answer: TRUE
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57) When you are given a set of tables and asked to create a database to store their data, the first step is to ________.
A) assess the existing tables' structure and content B) design the database structure C) create one or more new tables D) move the data into the new database E) design the applications that will use the database |
Answer: A
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58) The first step in assessing table structure includes ________.
A) counting rows B) examining columns C) examining data values D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: D
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59) The second step in assessing table structure includes ________.
A) counting rows B) examining columns C) examining data values D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: C
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60) During the second step of assessing table structure, you are trying to determine ________.
A) multivalued dependencies B) functional dependencies C) foreign keys D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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61) During the second step of assessing table structure, you are trying to determine ________.
A) primary keys B) candidate keys C) foreign keys D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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62) To count the number of rows in a table, use the SQL construct ________.
A) SELECT * B) SELECT TOP n * C) SELECT COUNT(TOP n) D) SELECT COUNT(*) E) SELECT COUNT * |
Answer: D
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63) The SQL function COUNT ________.
A) counts the number of columns in a table B) counts the number of rows in a table C) counts the number of tables in a database D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: B
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64) To limit the number of rows retrieved from a table, use the SQL construct ________.
A) SELECT * B) SELECT TOP n * C) SELECT COUNT(TOP n) D) SELECT COUNT(*) E) SELECT COUNT * |
Answer: B
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65) The SQL keyword TOP ________.
A) limits the number of columns retrieved from a table B) limits the number of rows retrieved from a table C) limits the number of tables retrieved from a database D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: B
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67) The advantages of normalization include ________. A) the elimination of modification anomalies B) the elimination of duplicated data C) more complex SQL for multitable subqueries and joins D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: A
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68) The disadvantages of normalization include ________.
A) the elimination of modification anomalies B) the elimination of duplicated data C) more complex SQL for multitable subqueries and joins D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: C
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69) The presence of one or more foreign keys in a relation prevents ________.
A) the elimination of modification anomalies B) the elimination of duplicated data C) more complex SQL for multitable subqueries and joins D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: B
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70) Anomalies caused by functional dependencies can be eliminated by putting tables into ________.
A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) BCNF E) 4NF |
Answer: D
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71) The defining characteristic of BCNF is that a table is in BCNF if ________.
A) all rows are unique B) all columns are consistent C) the primary key is a candidate key D) all determinants are candidate keys E) all candidate keys are determinants |
Answer: D
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72) A classic example of unneeded normalization is when we are dealing with ________.
A) ZIP codes B) sales orders and line items C) association patterns D) multivalued dependencies E) general purpose remarks columns |
Answer: A
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73) Unlike the anomalies from functional dependencies, the anomalies from ________ are so serious that they should always be eliminated.
A) ZIP codes B) sales orders and line items C) association patterns D) multivalued dependencies E) general purpose remarks columns |
Answer: D
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74) Read-only databases are used for ________.
A) updating B) querying C) reporting D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: E
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75) For a number of reasons, ________ is not often an advantage for a read-only database.
A) updating B) normalization C) denormalization D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: B
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76) ________ is the process of joining two or more tables and storing the result as a single table.
A) Querying B) Normalization C) Denormalization D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: C
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77) An advantage of denormalization is ________.
A) faster updating B) faster querying C) less complex SQL in application code D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: E
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78) A table designed to store PhoneNumber01, PhoneNumber02 and PhoneNumber03 contains ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: A
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79) A form of multivalued dependency is found in ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: A
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80) When a table is created using existing data from multiple sources, you are likely to find that the different sources code data in slightly different ways. This is an example of ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: B
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81) You are creating a PRODUCT table using existing data from multiple sources. Examining the data, you find that you have "large red hat", "large hat, red", "red hat large" and "hat, large, red." This is an example of ________.
A) the multivalue, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: B
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|
82) The problem of misspelled data entries is really the same as ________.
A) the multivalue, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: B
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|
83) When a table is created using existing data from multiple sources, you are likely to find that some data values have never been provided. This is an example of ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: C
|
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|
84) When a table is created using existing data from multiple sources, you are likely to find that some data values have never been provided. This is an example of ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: C
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|
85) Reviewing the work done on a table that was created using existing data from multiple sources, you are likely to find that some data values that were provided were never entered into the table. This is an example of ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: C
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|
86) A missing value is called a(n) ________.
A) empty value B) null value C) missing value D) Any of A, B, or C can be used. E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: B
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|
87) A null value can indicate which of the following conditions?
A) The value is inappropriate. B) The value is appropriate but unknown. C) The value is appropriate and known, but not entered into the database. D) A, B, and C E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: D
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|
|
88) To check for null values in a column in a table, use the SQL phrase ________.
A) IS B) IS NOT C) IS NULL D) COUNT(IS NOT) E) COUNT(IS NULL) |
Answer: C
|
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|
|
89) The SQL keyword IS NULL can be used to ________.
A) count the number of columns in a table B) count the number of rows in a table C) count the number of null values in a column D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: C
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|
90) Reviewing the work done on a table that was created using existing data from multiple sources, you find that a column name Remarks has been included, and it is populated with inconsistent and verbose verbal data. This is an example of ________.
A) the multivalued, multicolumn problem B) the inconsistent values problem C) the missing values problem D) the general-purpose remarks column problem E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: D
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|
|
|
1) A data model is a plan for a database design.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
2) The method of constructing data models used in the text is the extended entity-relationship (E-R) model.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
3) An entity is something that users want to track.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
4) Entities of a given type are grouped into entity classes.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
5) An entity class is described by the structure of the entities in that class.
|
Answer: TRUE |
|
|
|
6) An entity instance is the occurrence of a particular entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
7) An entity instance of an entity class is the representation of a particular entity and is described by the values of the attributes of the entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
8) An identifier of an entity instance is one or more attributes that name or identify entity instances.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
9) A compound identifier is an identifier consisting of two or more attributes.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
10) In E-R modeling, an attribute describes the characteristics of an entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
11) In E-R modeling, entities within an entity class may have different attributes.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
12) An identifier of an entity instance must consist of one and only one attribute.
|
Answer: FALSE
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|
|
|
13) A composite identifier is defined as a composite attribute that is an identifier.
|
Answer: FALSE
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|
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|
14) An identifier serves the same role for a table that a key does for an entity.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
15) Entities can be associated with one another in relationships.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
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|
16) The degree of a relationship is the number of entity classes in the relationship.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
17) A binary relationship is a relationship between two or more entities.
|
Answer: FALSE
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|
|
18) Relationships of degree two are referred to as binary relationships.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
19) E-R modeling recognizes both relationship classes and relationship instances.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
20) In today's E-R models, attributes of relationships are still used.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
21) A single relationship class involves only one entity class.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
22) A binary relationship is a relationship based on numerical entity instance identifiers.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
23) The degree of a relationship is expressed as the relationship's maximum cardinality.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
24) When transforming a data model into a relational design, relationships of all degrees are treated as combinations of binary relationships.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
25) The principal difference between an entity and a table is that you can express a relationship between entities without using foreign keys.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
26) When designing a database, first identify the entities, then determine the attributes, and finally create the relationships.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
27) The notation 1:N shows the relationship's maximum cardinality.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
28) Relationships are classified by their cardinality.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
29) A relationship's maximum cardinality indicates the maximum number of entities that can participate in the relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
30) In an E-R model, the three types of maximum cardinality are 1:1, 1:N and N:M.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
31) In a 1:N relationship, the term parent refers to the N side of the relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
32) In a 1:N relationship, the parent entity is on the one side of the relationship, and the child entity is on the many side of the relationship.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
33) A relationship's minimum cardinality indicates the number of entity instances that must participate in the relationship.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
34) A relationship's minimum cardinality indicates whether or not an entity must participate in the relationship.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
35) In an E-R model, the three types of minimum cardinality are mandatory, optional and indeterminate.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
36) An entity that represents something that can exist on its own is called a strong entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
37) E-R models use an identifying relationship to connect entities that are ID-dependent.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
38) An ID-dependent entity is an entity whose identifier includes the identifier of another entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
39) ID-dependent entities are associated by a nonidentifying relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
40) A weak entity is an entity that cannot exist in the database without (and is logically dependent upon) another type of entity also existing in the database.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
41) ID-dependent entities are a common type of weak entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
42) All weak entities must have a minimum cardinality of 1 on the entity on which it depends.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
43) Subtype entities contain only attributes unique to the subtypes.
|
Answer: TRUE
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|
44) An attribute that determines which subtype is appropriate is called a discriminator.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
45) An exclusive subtype pattern has one supertype entity that relates to one or more subtype entities.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
46) Entities with an IS-A relationship should have the same identifier.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
47) One example of a database design using an ID-dependent relationship is the association pattern.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
48) One example of a database design using a strong relationship is the multivalued attribute pattern.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
49) One example of a database design using an ID-dependent relationship is the archetype/instance pattern.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
50) Data modelers agree that weak, non-ID-dependent entities exist and are important.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
51) Entities containing optional sets of attributes are often represented using subtypes.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
52) The supremetype entity contains the attributes that are common to all subtypes.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
53) An attribute that determines which subtype is appropriate is called a discriminator.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
54) Subtypes can be exclusive or inclusive.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
55) Relationships between supertypes and subtypes are called IS-A relationships.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
56) Relationships among instances of a single entity class are called redundant relationships.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
57) There are three types of recursive relationships: 1:1, 1:N and N:M.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
58) Recursive relationships only exist for one-to-one relationships.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
59) Which of the following is not a key element of an E-R model?
A) Identifiers B) Entities C) Objects D) Attributes E) Relationships |
Answer: C
|
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|
60) Entities of a given type are grouped into an ________.
A) entity class B) entity relationship C) entity instance D) entity attribute E) None of the above. |
Answer: A
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|
61) The occurrence of a particular entity is called an ________.
A) entity class B) entity relationship C) entity instance D) entity attribute E) None of the above. |
Answer: C
|
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|
62) The characteristics of a thing are described by its ________.
A) identifiers B) entities C) objects D) attributes E) relationships |
Answer: D
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|
63) Attributes may be ________.
A) composite B) element C) multivalued D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: D
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|
64) An identifier may be ________.
A) composite B) a single attribute C) a relationship D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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|
65) A composite attribute is an attribute that ________.
A) is multivalued B) describes a characteristic of the relationship C) consists of a group of attributes D) is calculated at run-time E) is an identifier |
Answer: C
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|
66) For a relationship to be considered a binary relationship it must satisfy which of the following conditions?
A) It must involve exactly two entity classes. B) It must have a maximum cardinality of 1:1. C) It must have a maximum cardinality of 1:N. D) A and B E) A and C |
Answer: A
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|
67) Common variants of the E-R model include:
A) IE Crow's Foot B) IDEF1X C) UML D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
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|
|
68) Maximum cardinality refers to ________.
A) the most instances of one entity class that can be involved in a relationship instance with another entity class B) the minimum number of entity classes involved in a relationship C) whether or not an instance of one entity class is required to be related to an instance of another entity class D) whether or not an entity is a weak entity E) None of the above. |
Answer: A
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|
70) You are given an E-R diagram with two entities, ORDER and CUSTOMER, as shown above, and are asked to draw the relationship between them. If a given customer can place many orders and a given order can be placed by at most one customer, which of the following should be indicated in the relationship symbol between the two entities?
A) 0:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:N D) N:1 E) N:M |
Answer: D
|
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|
71) You are given an E-R diagram with two entities, ORDER and CUSTOMER, as shown above, and are asked to draw the relationship between them. If a given customer can place many orders and a given order can be placed by one or more customers, which of the following should be indicated in the relationship symbol between the two entities?
A) 0:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:N D) N:1 E) N:M |
Answer: E
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|
72) Minimum cardinality refers to ________.
A) the most instances of one entity class that can be involved in a relationship with one instance of another entity class B) the minimum number of entity classes involved in a relationship C) whether or not an instance of one entity class is required to be related to an instance of another entity class D) whether or not an entity is a weak entity E) None of the above. |
Answer: C
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|
|
73) In a minimum cardinality, minimums are generally stated as ________.
A) 0 B) 1 C) N D) A or B E) A, B, or C |
Answer: D
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|
74) A hash mark across the relationship line near an entity indicates ________.
A) a maximum cardinality of "zero" B) a maximum cardinality of "one" C) a minimum cardinality of "optional" D) a minimum cardinality of "required" E) None of the above. |
Answer: D
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|
75) A circle across the relationship line near an entity indicates ________.
A) a maximum cardinality of "zero" B) a maximum cardinality of "one" C) a minimum cardinality of "optional" D) a minimum cardinality of "required" E) None of the above. |
Answer: C
|
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|
77) You are given an E-R diagram with two entities, ORDER and CUSTOMER, as shown above. What does the symbol next to the CUSTOMER entity indicate?
A) A maximum cardinality of "zero" B) A maximum cardinality of "one" C) A minimum cardinality of "optional" D) A minimum cardinality of "required" E) None of the above. |
Answer: D
|
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|
78) An entity whose identifier includes the identifier of another entity is a(n) ________.
A) strong entity B) weak entity C) ID-dependent entity D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: E
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|
79) An entity whose existence depends on the presence of another entity but whose identifier does not include the identifier of the other entity is a(n) ________.
A) strong entity B) weak entity C) ID-dependent entity D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: B
|
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|
80) Which of the following is considered to be a weak entity?
A) ID-dependent entity B) subtype entity C) association entity D) B and C E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
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|
81) An entity that holds specialized attributes that distinguish it from one or more other similar entities is a ________.
A) supertype B) subtype C) discriminator D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: B
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|
82) Which of the following is not true about subtype entities?
A) Subtypes may be exclusive. B) The supertype and subtypes will have the same identifier. C) Subtypes are used to avoid a situation in which some attributes are required to be null. D) Subtypes have attributes that are required by the supertype. E) Subtypes can produce a closer-fitting data model. |
Answer: E
|
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|
83) An attribute that determines which subtype should be used is a ________.
A) supertype B) subtype C) discriminator D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: C
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|
84) Discriminators can be ________.
A) exclusive only B) inclusive only C) decisive only D) A or B E) B or C |
Answer: D
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|
85) Supertype/subtype entities are said to have a(n) ________ relationship.
A) HAS-A B) IS-A C) recursive D) redundant E) multivalue |
Answer: B
|
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|
|
86) To represent an association pattern in an E-R model, ________.
A) create a new ID-dependent entity with a 1:1 relationship to one other entity B) create a new weak, but not ID-dependent entity with a 1:1 relationship to one other entity C) create a new strong entity with a 1:1 relationship to one other entity D) create a new ID-dependent entity with a 1:N relationship to one of two parent entities E) create a new weak, but not ID-dependent entity with a 1:N relationship to one of two parent entities |
Answer: D
|
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|
87) To represent a multivalued attribute in an E-R model, ________.
A) create a new ID-dependent entity with a 1:N relationship B) create a new weak, but not ID-dependent entity with a 1:N relationship C) create a new strong entity with a 1:1 relationship D) create a new ID-dependent entity with a 1:1 relationship E) create a new weak, but not ID-dependent entity with a 1:1 relationship |
Answer: A
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|
88) To represent an archetype/instance pattern in an E-R model, ________.
A) create a new ID-dependent entity with a 1:N relationship B) create a new weak, but not ID-dependent entity with a 1:N relationship C) create a new strong entity with a 1:1 relationship D) create a new ID-dependent entity with a 1:1 relationship E) create a new weak, but not ID-dependent entity with a 1:1 relationship |
Answer: A
|
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|
89) When an entity has a relationship to itself, we have a(n) ________.
A) supertype/subtype relationship B) archetype/instance relationship C) recursive relationship D) A or C E) B or C |
Answer: C
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|
90) Recursive relationships can have which of the following maximum cardinalities?
A) 1:1 B) 1:N C) N:M D) A or B E) A, B, or C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
1) The first step in the database design process is to create tables and columns from entities and attributes.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
2) When creating a relational database design from E-R diagrams, first create a relation for each relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
3) Each entity in the extended E-R model is represented as a table in the relational database design.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
4) An entity needs to be examined according to normalization criteria before creating a table from it in the relational database design.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
5) When creating a table in the relational database design from an entity in the extended E-R model, the attributes of the entity become the rows of the table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
6) By default, the identifier of the entity becomes the foreign key of the corresponding table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
7) The ideal primary key is short, numeric, and fixed.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
8) A surrogate key is appropriate when the primary key of a table contains a lengthy text field.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
9) One of the important properties of an attribute is whether or not it is required.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
10) A surrogate key is a unique, system-supplied identifier used as the primary key of a table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
11) The values of a surrogate key have no meaning to the users.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
12) A surrogate key should be considered when the key contains a lengthy text field.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
13) Whether or not an attribute is required is determined during the database modeling phase.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
14) A null value is an attribute value that has been set to zero.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
15) Data types are consistent across all DBMS products.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
16) A default value is the value the user enters into the row the first time the user enters data.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
17) A data constraint is a limitation on data values.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
18) The last step in creating a table is to verify table normalization.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
19) One of the important properties of a column is whether or not it can have a NULL value.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
20) A foreign key is a key that does not belong in any table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
21) In a relational database design, all relationships are expressed by creating a foreign key.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
22) When the key of one table is placed into a second table to represent a relationship, the key is called a "relational key" in the second table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
23) To represent a 1:1 binary relationship in a relational database design, the key of one table is placed into the second table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
24) When placing a foreign key for a 1:1 relationship, the key of either table can be used as the foreign key in the other table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
25) In a 1:1 relationship, the foreign key is defined as an alternate key to make the DBMS enforce uniqueness.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
26) In a 1:N relationship, the term "parent" refers to the table on the "many" side of the relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
27) In 1:N relationships, the table on the "one" side is called the parent.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
28) In representing a 1:N relationship in a relational database design, the key of the table representing the parent entity is placed as a foreign key in the table representing the child entity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
29) In representing a 1:N relationship in a relational database design, the key of the table representing the entity on the "many" side is placed as a foreign key in the table representing the entity on the "one" side of the relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
30) To represent a 1:N relationship in a relational database design, an intersection table is created.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
31) In 1:N relationships, the table on the "many" side is called the child.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
32) To represent a one-to-many relationship in a relational database design, the key of the child table is placed as a foreign key into the other table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
33) To represent an M:N relationship in a relational database design, a table is created to represent the relationship itself.
|
Answer: TRUE |
|
|
|
34) To represent an M:N relationship in a relational database design, an intersection table is created.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
35) To represent an M:N relationship in a relational database design, in essence it is reduced to two 1:N relationships.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
36) The key of an intersection table is always the combination of the keys of both parents.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
37) In many-to-many relationships in a relational database design, the primary keys of both tables are joined into a composite primary key in the intersection table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
38) An intersection table is always ID-dependent on both of its parent tables.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
39) An intersection table can have additional attributes besides the keys of its parent tables.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
40) Like all ID-dependent relationships, the parents of an association table are required.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
41) Association tables sometimes connect more than two entities.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
42) An ID-dependent table can be used to represent multivalued attributes.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
43) All identifying relationships are 1:N.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
44) When creating a table for an ID-dependent entity, both the key of the parent and the key of the entity itself must appear in the table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
45) The design transformation for all IS-A relationships can be summarized by the phrase "place the key of the parent table in the child table."
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
46) When transforming an ID-dependent E-R data model relationship into a relational database design where the child entity is designed to use a surrogate key, the relationship changes to a weak but not ID-dependent relationship.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
47) When transforming supertype/subtype entities into a relational database design, an entity is created for the supertype only.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
48) When transforming supertype/subtype entities into a relational database design, the key of the supertype table is placed into the subtype table typically as the key.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
49) To represent an IS-A relationship in a relational database design, the IS-A relationship must be converted into a HAS-A relationship.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
50) Discriminator attributes can be represented in relational designs.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
51) When transforming supertype/subtype entities into a relational database design, all of the attributes for the supertype table are placed into the subtype relations.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
52) When transforming an extended E-R model into a relational database design, recursive relationships are treated fundamentally the same as other HAS-A relationships.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
53) Recursive M:N relationships are represented with an intersection table that shows pairs of related rows from a single table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
54) Referential integrity constraints should disallow adding a new row to a child table when the foreign key does not match a primary key value in the parent table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
55) A referential integrity constraint policy that insures that foreign key values in a table are correctly maintained when there is a change to the primary key value in the parent table is called cascading changes.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
56) A referential integrity constraint policy that insures that all rows containing a particular foreign key value in a table are eliminated from the table when the row containing the corresponding primary key value in a parent table is eliminated from the database is called cascading deletes.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
57) When the parent entity is required (M) in a relationship, every row of the child table must have a valid, non-null value of the foreign key.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
58) Cascading deletions are generally not used with relationships between strong entities.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
59) Cascading deletions are generally not used with relationships for weak child entities.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
60) If the parent is required, then a new child row must be created with a valid foreign key value.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
61) When the parent entity has a surrogate key, the enforcement actions are the same for both parent and child.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
62) When the child entity is required (M) in a relationship, there needs to be at least one child row for each parent row at all times.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
63) It is easy to enforce the referential integrity actions for M-M relationships.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
64) Which of the following is not a step in the database design process?
A) Create tables and columns from entities and attributes B) Select primary keys C) Represent relationships D) Create constraints and triggers E) All of the above are steps in the database design process. |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
65) The first step in transforming an extended E-R model into a relational database design is to ________.
A) create a table for each relationship B) evaluate the entities against the normalization criteria C) create a table for each entity D) remove any recursive relationships E) document referential integrity constraints |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
66) Each attribute of an entity becomes a(n) ________ of a table.
A) column B) primary key C) foreign key D) alternate key E) B or D |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
67) The identifier of the entity becomes the ________ of the corresponding table.
A) primary key B) foreign key C) supertype D) subtype E) either A or B |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
68) The ideal primary key is ________.
A) short B) numeric C) fixed D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
69) A surrogate key should be considered when ________.
A) a relationship is M:N B) a composite key is required C) the key contains a lengthy text field D) the key contains a number E) an index needs to be created |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
70) Which of the following is not true about surrogate keys?
A) They are identifiers that are supplied by the system, not the users. B) They have no meaning to the users. C) They are nonunique within a table. D) They can be problematic when combining databases. E) The DBMS will not allow their values to be changed. |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
71) One of the important properties of a column is whether or not it is ________.
A) found in more than one entity B) required C) character or numeric D) subject to normalization E) subject to denormalization |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
72) In a relational database design, all relationships are expressed by ________.
A) creating a primary key B) creating a foreign key C) creating a supertype D) creating a subtype E) creating a line between entities |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
73) When representing a 1:1 relationship in a relational database design, ________.
A) the key of each table must be placed as foreign keys into the other B) the key of either table may be placed as a foreign key into the other C) the key of both tables must be the same D) the intersection table gets the key from both relations E) B and C |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
74) To represent a one-to-many relationship in a relational database design, ________.
A) the key of the child is placed as a foreign key into the parent B) the key of the parent is placed as a foreign key into the child C) an intersection table must be created D) the key of the table on the "many" side is placed in the table on the "one" side E) the keys of both tables are joined into a composite key |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
75) When representing a one-to-many relationship in a relational database design, ________.
A) the parent is always on the one side of the "one-to-many" relationship B) the child is always on the one side of the "one-to-many" relationship C) either parent or child can be on the one side of the "one-to-many" relationship, and the choice is arbitrary D) either parent or child can be on the one side of the "one-to-many" relationship, and special criteria indicate which table should be on the one side E) None of the above is correct. |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
76) Many-to-many relationships are represented by ________.
A) two tables with an M:N relationship B) two tables with a 1:N relationship C) an intersection table which has M:N relationships with the two tables D) an intersection table which has 1:N relationships with the two tables E) two intersection tables which each have 1:N relationships with the two tables |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
77) In many-to-many relationships in a relational database design, ________.
A) the key of the child is placed as a foreign key into the parent B) the key of the parent is placed as a foreign key into the child C) the keys of both tables are placed in a third table D) the keys of both tables are joined into a composite key E) C and D |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
78) In many-to-many relationships in a relational database design, ________.
A) the intersection table is ID-dependent on one of the parents B) the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents C) the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M D) A and B E) B and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
79) In relational database design, ID-dependent entities are used to ________.
A) represent N:M relationships B) handle associative relationships C) handle multivalued attributes D) handle archetype/instance relationships E) All of the above. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
80) When transforming an E-R data model into a relational database design, the key of the parent entity should be placed as part of the primary key into the child entity ________.
A) when the child entity is ID-dependent B) when the child entity is non-ID-dependent C) when the child entity has a 1:1 relationship with the parent entity D) when the child entity has a 1:N relationship with the parent entity E) when the child entity has a recursive relationship with the parent entity |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
81) When transforming an ID-dependent E-R data model relationship into a relational database design and the parent entity has a surrogate primary key and the child entity has a data identifier, then the primary key of the child table should be ________.
A) the parent's surrogate key + the child's data key B) the parent's surrogate key + a surrogate key in the child C) either A or B will work, and neither way is preferable D) either A or B will work, but method A is preferable E) either A or B will work, but method B is preferable |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
82) When transforming an ID-dependent E-R data model relationship into a relational database design and the child entity is designed to use a surrogate key, then ________.
A) the parent entity must also use a surrogate key B) the relationship remains an ID-dependent relationship C) the relationship changes to a non-ID-dependent relationship D) A and B E) A and C |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
83) Which of the following is not true about representing subtypes in a relational database design?
A) One table is created for the supertype and one for each subtype. B) All of the attributes of the supertype are added to the subtype relations. C) The key of the supertype is made the key of the subtypes. D) A subtype and its supertype are representations of the same underlying table. E) An instance of the supertype may be related to one instance each of several subtypes. |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
84) In a supertype-subtype structure, discriminator attributes ________.
A) are easily represented in a relational design B) cannot be represented in a relational design C) require application logic to determine which subtypes correspond to a specific supertype instance D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
85) Which of the following is not true of recursive relationships?
A) When the recursive relationship is M:N, an intersection table is created. B) The rows of a single table can play two different roles. C) The techniques for representing the tables are the same as for non-recursive relationships except the rows are in the same table. D) Recursive relationships can be 1:1, 1:N, or M:N relationships. E) Even when the relationship is 1:N, a new table must be defined to represent the relationship. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
86) Which of the following is not true of ternary relationships?
A) Can be treated as a collection of binary relationships B) Are represented in the same way as binary relationships C) Must involve at least one M:N relationship D) Involve three entities of different logical types E) Often require documentation of special considerations as business rules |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
87) The binary constraint MUST NOT indicates that ________.
A) a specific binary relationship must not be included in a ternary relationship B) a table includes values that must not occur in a binary relationship C) a table includes values that must not occur in a ternary relationship D) a binary relationship includes value combinations that must not occur in a binary relationship E) a binary relationship includes value combinations that must not occur in a ternary relationship |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
88) The binary constraint MUST COVER indicates that ________.
A) a specific binary relationship must be included in a ternary relationship B) a table includes values that must occur in a binary relationship C) a table includes values that must occur in a ternary relationship D) a binary relationship includes value combinations that must occur in a binary relationship E) a binary relationship includes a set of value combinations that must all occur in a ternary relationship |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
89) To which of the following actions are referential integrity constraints not applied?
A) create B) insert C) modify D) delete E) Referential integrity constraints are applied to all of the listed actions. |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
90) A referential integrity constraint policy that insures that foreign key values in a table are correctly maintained when there is a change to the primary key value in the parent table is called ________.
A) incremental updates B) incremental deletes C) controlled key adjustments D) cascading updates E) cascading deletes |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
91) A referential integrity constraint policy that insures that all rows containing a particular foreign key value in a table are eliminated from the table when the row containing the corresponding primary key value in a parent table is eliminated from the database is called ________.
A) incremental updates B) incremental deletes C) controlled key adjustments D) cascading updates E) cascading deletes |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
92) A referential integrity constraint policy that guarantees that a row in a parent table always has a required entry in a child table ________.
A) is known as a minimum cardinality enforcement action B) needs to be documented by the database development team C) is enforced in most DBMS products D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
93) When transforming an ID-dependent E-R data model relationship into a relational database design, the referential integrity constraints should allow ________.
A) parent updates to cascade B) child updates to cascade C) child deletes to cascade D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
1) The SQL CREATE TABLE statement is used to name a new table and describe the table's columns.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
2) The SQL keyword CONSTRAINT is used to define one of five types of constraints.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
3) The SQL keyword PRIMARY KEY is used to designate the column(s) that are the primary key for the table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
4) The SQL keyword CONSTRAINT is used to limit column values to specific values.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
5) The SQL keyword CONSTRAINT is used in conjunction with the SQL keywords PRIMARY KEY and FOREIGN KEY.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
6) One advantage of using the CONSTRAINT command to define a primary key is that the database designer controls the name of the constraint.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
7) The SQL keyword UNIQUE is used to define alternative keys.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
8) If the table PRODUCT has a column PRICE, and PRICE has the data type Numeric (8,2), the value 98765 stored in that field will be displayed by the DBMS as 98765.00.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
9) If the table ITEM has a column WEIGHT, and WEIGHT has the data type Numeric (7,2), the value 4321 with be displayed by the DBMS as 43.21.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
10) The SQL keyword CHECK is used to limit column values to specific values.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
11) The SQL keyword MODIFY is used to change the structure, properties or constraints of a table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
12) Data values to be added to a table are specified by using the SQL VALUES clause.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
13) The SQL keyword DELETE is used to delete a table's structure.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
14) When the correct SQL command is used to delete a table's structure, the command can only be used with a table that has already had its data removed.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
15) One or more rows can be added to a table by using the SQL INSERT statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
16) Unless it is being used to copy data from one table to another, the SQL INSERT statement can be used to insert only a single row into a table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
17) Rows in a table can be changed by using the SQL UPDATE statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
18) The SQL SET keyword is used to specify a new value when changing a column value.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
19) The SQL keyword MODIFY is used to change a column value.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
20) Rows can be removed from a table by using the SQL DELETE statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
21) An SQL virtual table is called a view.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
22) The SQL command CREATE USER VIEW is used to create a virtual table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
23) SQL views are constructed from SELECT statements.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
24) According to the SQL-92, statements used to construct views cannot contain the WHERE clause.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
25) The SQL command SELECT is used to retrieve view instances.
|
Answer: TRUE |
|
|
|
26) The values in an SQL view are not always changeable through the view itself.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
27) SQL views can be used to hide columns.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
28) SQL views can be used to provide a level of insulation between data processed by applications and the data actually stored in the database tables.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
29) If the values in an SQL view are changeable through the view itself, the SQL command UPDATE is used to change the values.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
30) The values in an SQL view are always changeable through the view itself.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
31) SQL views are updatable when the view is based on a single table with no computed columns, and all non-null columns are present in the view.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
32) Because SQL statements are table-oriented, whereas programs are variable-oriented, the results of SQL statements used in programs are treated as pseudofiles.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
33) A set of SQL statements stored in an application written in a standard programming language is called embedded SQL.
|
Answer: TRUE |
|
|
|
34) Because SQL statements are table-oriented, whereas programs are variable-oriented, the results of SQL statements used in programs are accessed using an SQL cursor.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
35) A stored program that is attached to a table or view is called a stored procedure.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
36) SQL triggers use the ANSI SQL keywords BEFORE, INSTEAD OF, and AFTER.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
37) SQL triggers can be used with SQL operations INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
38) SQL triggers can be used when the DBMS receives an INSERT request.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
39) SQL triggers are used for providing default values, validity checking, updating views, and performing referential integrity actions.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
40) The Oracle DBMS supports the SQL BEFORE trigger.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
41) The SQL Server DBMS supports the SQL BEFORE trigger.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
42) SQL triggers can be used when the DBMS receives an insert request.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
43) To set a column value to an initial value that is selected according to some business logic, you would use the SQL DEFAULT constraint with the CREATE TABLE command.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
44) SQL triggers are created using the SQL ADD TRIGGER statement.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
45) If the values in an SQL view are not changeable through the view itself, you may still be able to update the view by using unique application logic. In this case, the specific logic is placed in an INSTEAD OF trigger.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
46) If a trigger is being written to enforce referential integrity actions, you cannot use an INSTEAD OF trigger.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
47) When a trigger is fired, the DBMS makes the appropriate data available to the trigger code.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
48) A stored program that is stored within the database and compiled when used is called a trigger.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
49) Stored procedures have the advantage of greater security, decreased network traffic, SQL optimized by the DBMS compiler, and code sharing.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
50) Unlike application code, stored procedures are never distributed to the client computers.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
51) Because SQL stored procedures allow and encourage code sharing among developers, stored procedures give database application developers the advantages of less work, standardized processing, and specialization among developers.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
52) Which SQL keyword is used to name a new table and describe the table's columns?
A) SET B) CREATE C) SELECT D) ALTER E) CONSTRAINT |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
53) If the table PRODUCT has a column PRICE that has the data type Numeric (8,2), the value 12345 will be displayed by the DBMS as ________.
A) 123.45 B) 12345 C) 12345.00 D) 123450.00 E) 00012345 |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
54) Which SQL keyword is used to impose restrictions on a table, data or relationship?
A) SET B) CREATE C) SELECT D) ALTER E) CONSTRAINT |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
55) One advantage of using the CONSTRAINT phrase to define a primary key is that the database designer controls the ________.
A) name of the primary key B) name of the foreign key C) name of the constraint D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
58) The SQL keyword used to limit column values to specific values is ________. A) CONSTRAINT B) CHECK C) NOT NULL D) UNIQUE E) UPDATE |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
59) Which SQL keyword is used to change the structure, properties or constraints of a table?
A) SET B) CREATE C) SELECT D) ALTER E) CONSTRAINT |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
60) Which SQL keyword is used to delete a table's structure?
A) DELETE B) DROP C) DISPOSE D) ALTER E) MODIFY |
Answer: B
|
|
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|
61) When the correct SQL command is used to delete a table's structure, what happens to the data in the table?
A) If the deleted table was a parent table, the data is added to the appropriate rows of the child table. B) If the deleted table was a child table, the data is added to the appropriate rows of the parent table. C) The data in the table is also deleted. D) Nothing because there was no data in the table since only an empty table can be deleted. E) A and B |
Answer: C
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62) Which SQL keyword is used to add one or more rows of data to a table?
A) DELETE B) INSERT C) SELECT D) SET E) UPDATE |
Answer: B
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63) Which SQL keyword is used to change one or more rows in a table?
A) MODIFY B) INSERT C) SELECT D) CHANGE E) UPDATE |
Answer: E
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64) Which SQL keyword is used to change the values of an entire column?
A) CHANGE B) INSERT C) SELECT D) SET E) MODIFY |
Answer: D
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65) Which keyword is used to remove one or more rows from a table?
A) DELETE B) INSERT C) ERASE D) SET E) UPDATE |
Answer: A
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67) An SQL virtual table is called ________. A) a CHECK constraint B) a view C) embedded SQL D) a trigger E) a stored procedure |
Answer: B
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68) The SQL command used to create a virtual table is ________.
A) CREATE VTABLE B) CREATE VIEW C) VTABLE D) VIEW E) NEWLOOK |
Answer: B
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69) SQL views are constructed from ________.
A) CREATE statements B) INSERT statements C) UPDATE statements D) SELECT statements E) VIEW statements |
Answer: D
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70) According to the SQL-92, statements used to construct views cannot contain ________.
A) the SELECT clause B) the FROM clause C) the WHERE clause D) the ORDER BY clause E) SQL view statements can use all of the listed clauses. |
Answer: D
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71) Which SQL statement is used to retrieve view instances?
A) CREATE B) DELETE C) INSERT D) SELECT E) UPDATE |
Answer: D
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72) SQL views are used ________.
A) to hide columns B) to show results of computed columns C) to hide complicated SQL statements D) to provide a level of indirection between data processed by applications and the data actually stored in the database tables E) SQL views are used for all of the above. |
Answer: E
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73) If the values in an SQL view are changeable through the view itself, which SQL statement is used to change the values?
A) CREATE B) DELETE C) INSERT D) SELECT E) UPDATE |
Answer: E
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74) SQL views are always updatable when ________.
A) the view is based on a single table with no computed columns, and all non-null columns are present in the view B) the view is based on any number of tables, with or without computed columns, and the INSTEAD OF trigger is defined for the view C) the view is based on multiple tables, the update is being done on the most subordinate table, and the rows of that table can be uniquely identified D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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75) A set of SQL statements stored in an application written in a standard programming language is called ________.
A) a CHECK constraint B) a view C) embedded SQL D) a trigger E) a stored procedure |
Answer: C
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76) Because SQL statements are set-oriented, whereas programs are element-oriented, the results of SQL statements used in programs are treated as ________.
A) tables B) columns C) rows D) files E) pseudofiles |
Answer: E
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77) Because SQL statements are table-oriented, whereas programs are element-oriented, the results of SQL statements used in programs are accessed using ________.
A) standard programming tools B) custom written programming tools C) an SQL cursor D) an SQL trigger E) an SQL stored procedure |
Answer: C
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78) A stored program that is attached to a table or view is called ________.
A) a CHECK constraint B) a view C) embedded SQL D) a trigger E) a stored procedure |
Answer: D
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79) Which of the following is not an ANSI SQL trigger?
A) BEFORE UPDATE B) INSTEAD OF UPDATE C) BEFORE INSERT D) INSTEAD OF CONSTRAINT E) AFTER DELETE |
Answer: D
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80) Which of the following is an SQL trigger Oracle supports?
A) BEFORE B) INSTEAD OF C) AFTER D) B and C only E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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81) Which of the following is an SQL trigger Microsoft SQL Server supports?
A) BEFORE B) INSTEAD OF C) AFTER D) B and C only E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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82) SQL triggers can be used when the DBMS receives a(n) ________ request.
A) INSERT B) UPDATE C) DELETE D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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83) SQL triggers are used for ________.
A) validity checking B) providing default values C) updating views D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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84) When a trigger is fired, the DBMS makes the appropriate data available to ________.
A) the SQL interpreter B) the application code C) the embedded SQL code D) the trigger code E) the stored procedure code |
Answer: D
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85) SQL triggers are created using ________.
A) the SQL CREATE TRIGGER statement B) the SQL ADD TRIGGER statement C) the SQL TRIGGER statement D) the SQL ADD CONSTRAINT TRIGGER statement E) the SQL CONSTRAINT TRIGGER statement |
Answer: A
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86) To set a column value to an initial value that is selected according to some business logic, you would use:
A) the SQL DEFAULT constraint with the CREATE TABLE command. B) an SQL view. C) embedded SQL. D) an SQL trigger. E) an SQL stored procedure. |
Answer: D
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87) If the values in an SQL view are not changeable through the view itself, you may still be able to update the view by using unique application logic. In this case, the specific logic is placed in ________.
A) a BEFORE trigger B) an INSTEAD OF trigger C) an AFTER trigger D) Depending on the specific logic, either A or B can be used. E) Depending on the specific logic, any of A, B, or C can be used. |
Answer: B
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88) A stored program that is attached to the database is called ________.
A) a CHECK constraint B) a view C) embedded SQL D) a trigger E) a stored procedure |
Answer: E
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89) Stored procedures have the advantage of ________.
A) greater security B) decreased network traffic C) SQL optimized by the DBMS compiler D) code sharing E) All of the above |
Answer: E
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90) Because SQL stored procedures allow and encourage code sharing among developers, stored procedures give database application developers the advantages of ________.
A) less work B) standardized processing C) specialization among developers D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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1) Database redesign is rarely needed because databases are usually built correctly the first time.
|
Answer: FALSE
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2) In a real sense, information systems and organizations do not just influence each other, but rather they create each other.
|
Answer: TRUE
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3) A continuous circular process of changes in user behaviors and change in the information systems they use is a natural outcome of information system use.
|
Answer: TRUE
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4) The continuous circular process of changes is known as the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
|
Answer: TRUE
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5) Database redesign is equally difficult whether or not the database has data in it.
|
Answer: FALSE
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6) In the database redesign process, it is often useful to test whether certain conditions or assumptions are valid before proceeding with the redesign.
|
Answer: TRUE
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7) In the database redesign process, two SQL tools are useful for testing whether or not certain conditions or assumptions are valid: uncorrelated subqueries and EXISTS/NOT EXISTS.
|
Answer: FALSE
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8) A correlated subquery looks very different from a noncorrelated subquery.
|
Answer: FALSE
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9) Correlated subqueries can be used to verify functional dependencies.
|
Answer: TRUE
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10) In a correlated subquery, the same table is used in the upper and lower SELECT statements.
|
Answer: TRUE
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11) In the SQL statement: SELECT S1.CustName, S1.SalesRepNo FROM SALES S1; the "S1"
is called an alias. |
Answer: TRUE
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12) In a correlated subquery, the DBMS can run the lower SELECT statement by itself and then send the results to the upper SELECT statement.
|
Answer: FALSE
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13) In a correlated subquery, the DBMS must run the lower SELECT statement as a process that is nested within the upper SELECT statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
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14) There is a common trap in writing a correlated subquery, which will cause no rows to ever be displayed in the results.
|
Answer: TRUE
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15) Although correlated subqueries are useful in database redesign, they cannot be used to verify functional dependencies.
|
Answer: FALSE
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|
16) When using queries with EXISTS and NOT EXISTS, the processing of the associated SELECT statements must be nested.
|
Answer: TRUE
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17) The use of a double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements can be used to find rows that meet some specified condition for every row in a table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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18) The use of a double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements is a famous pattern in SQL use.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
19) EXISTS and NOT EXISTS are actually just another form of correlated subqueries.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
20) Because EXISTS and NOT EXISTS are forms of correlated subqueries, the processing of the associated SELECT statements must be nested.
|
Answer: TRUE
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21) The EXISTS keyword will be true if any row in the subquery meets the condition.
|
Answer: TRUE
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22) The NOT EXISTS keyword will be true if any row in the subquery fails to meet the condition.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
23) A double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements can be used to find rows that meet some specified condition for every row in a table.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
24) When using a double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements, a row that does not match any row matches every row.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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25) The use of a double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements is so rare that even if you are a professional database developer you will probably never see it used.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
26) There is no good SQL command that can be used to change table names.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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27) The process of reading an actual database schema and producing a data model from that schema is called reverse engineering.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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28) The data model produced by reverse engineering is a true conceptual schema.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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29) The data model produced by reverse engineering may include some entities that should not appear in the data model.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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30) The design produced by reverse engineering may be described as a table-relationship diagram.
|
Answer: TRUE
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31) The authors refer to the data model produced by reverse engineering as the RE data model.
|
Answer: TRUE
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32) Because of the need to know the functional dependencies in a database, it is a good idea to create a dependency graph.
|
Answer: TRUE
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33) Dependency graphs are graphical displays like bar charts.
|
Answer: FALSE
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34) Typically, there are at least four different copies of the database schema used in the redesign process.
|
Answer: FALSE
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35) A means must be created to recover all test databases to their original state during the redesign testing process.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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36) Even if an organization has a very large database, it will be possible to make a complete backup copy of the operational database prior to making structure changes.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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37) SQL contains an SQL command RENAME TABLENAME that can be used to change table names.
|
Answer: FALSE
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38) SQL Server 2012 contains a system-stored procedure named sp_rename that can be used to change table names.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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39) Changing table names is complicated by the fact that constraints and triggers are often associated with the table and will also need to be changed.
|
Answer: TRUE
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40) In order to minimize the need to change table names, some organizations have a policy that no user or application should ever employ the true name of a table, but use views as table aliases instead.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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41) To add a NULL column to a table, we simply use the MODIFY TABLE statement.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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42) If a DEFAULT constraint is included when a new column is added to a table, the default value is only applied to new rows and not to the existing rows at the time the new column is added.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
43) To add a NOT NULL column to a table, we first add a NULL column, then we insert values into every row, and finally we change the NULL constraint to NOT NULL.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
44) To drop a nonkey column from a table, no preliminary steps are needed and we can simply use the ALTER TABLE DROP COLUMN statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
45) To drop a foreign key column from a table, no preliminary steps are needed and we can simply use the ALTER TABLE DROP COLUMN statement.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
46) To drop a primary key column from a table the primary key constraint must first be dropped, but this does not require that related foreign keys based on the column be dropped.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
47) To drop a constraint, no preliminary steps are needed and we can simply use the ALTER TABLE DROP CONSTRAINT statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
48) Converting date, money or other more specific data types to char or varchar will usually succeed.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
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|
49) To change the minimum cardinality on the parent side from zero to one, the foreign key, which would have been NULL, must be changed to NOT NULL.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
50) Depending on the DBMS, when changing the minimum cardinality on the parent side from zero to one, the foreign key constraint that defines the relationship may have to be dropped before the change is made and re-added afterwards.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
51) There are several difficulties with increasing cardinalities from 1:1 to 1:N, one of which is preserving the existing relationships.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
52) When increasing cardinalities from 1:N to N:M, we basically create a new intersection table, fill it with data and drop the old foreign key.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
53) When decreasing cardinalities, there will always be data loss.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
54) Adding new tables and relationships to a database is difficult.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
55) Deleting tables and relationships is basically a matter of dropping foreign key constraints and then dropping the tables.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
56) Database redesign is fairly easy when ________.
A) information systems and organizations influence each other B) the design was done correctly the first time C) there is no data in the database D) good backups of the database are available E) All of the above |
Answer: C
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|
57) Which of the following is not a possible step in the database redesign process?
A) Checking whether certain conditions or assumptions about the data are valid B) Reverse engineering the data model C) Testing proposed changes D) Maintaining backups of the existing database E) All of the above are possible steps in the database redesign process. |
Answer: E
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58) In the database redesign process, before proceeding with the redesign it is often useful to ________.
A) check whether certain conditions or assumptions about the data are valid B) find out why the design was not done properly the first time C) stop information systems and users from influencing each other D) set standards for user behavior E) All of the above |
Answer: A
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59) In the database redesign process, SQL tools that are useful for testing whether or not certain conditions or assumptions are valid are ________.
A) correlated subqueries B) EXISTS C) NOT EXISTS D) B and C E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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60) In a correlated subquery of a database that has tables TableOne and TableTwo, if table TableOne is used in the upper SELECT statements, then which table is used in the lower SELECT statement?
A) TableOne B) TableTwo C) both TableOne and TableTwo D) either TableOne or TableTwo E) neither TableOne nor TableTwo |
Answer: A
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61) In the SQL statements SELECT C1.CustName, C1.SalesRepNo / FROM CUSTOMER C1; the "C1" is called a(n) ________.
A) term B) alias C) convention D) phrase E) label |
Answer: B
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|
62) When running a correlated subquery, the DBMS ________.
A) runs the lower SELECT statement by itself and then sends the results to the upper SELECT statement. B) runs the upper SELECT statement by itself and then sends the results to the lower SELECT statement. C) alternates running the lower SELECT statement with running the upper SELECT statement based on each result of the lower SELECT statement D) Either A or B may be used depending on the query. E) None of the above describes how a correlated subquery is run by the DBMS. |
Answer: C
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63) When running a correlated subquery, the DBMS always uses ________.
A) regular processing B) nested processing C) "quick and dirty" processing D) SQL-92 processing E) a form of processing that is specific to the DBMS product |
Answer: B
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|
65) SQL queries that use EXISTS and NOT EXISTS are ________.
A) normal subqueries B) correlated subqueries C) uncorrelated subqueries D) constraint dependent subqueries E) constraint independent subqueries |
Answer: B
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66) When running an SQL query that uses EXISTS, the EXISTS keyword will be true if ________.
A) any row in the subquery meets the condition B) all rows in the subquery meet the condition C) no row in the subquery meets the condition D) any row in the subquery fails to meet the condition E) all rows in the subquery fail to meet the condition |
Answer: A
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|
67) When running an SQL query that uses NOT EXISTS, the NOT EXISTS keyword will be true if ________.
A) any row in the subquery meets the condition B) all rows in the subquery meet the condition C) no row in the subquery meets the condition D) any row in the subquery fails to meet the condition E) all rows in the subquery fail to meet the condition |
Answer: E
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|
68) A double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements is ________.
A) a famous pattern in SQL B) regularly used C) rarely used to nonexistent in the real world D) A and B E) A and C |
Answer: D
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|
69) In a double nested set of NOT EXISTS SELECT statements, ________.
A) if a row does not match any row, then it matches every row B) if a row matches any row, then it matches every row C) if a row does not match any row, then it does not match every row D) if a row matches any row, then it does not match every row E) if a row does not match any row, then referential integrity has been broken |
Answer: A
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|
70) The process of reading an actual database schema and producing a data model from that schema is called ________.
A) data modeling B) data engineering C) reverse engineering D) schema modeling E) schema engineering |
Answer: C
|
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|
71) The data model produced by reverse engineering is not truly a logical model because it will contain tables for ________.
A) strong entities B) weak non-ID-dependent entities C) ID-dependent entities D) intersection tables E) supertype/subtype tables |
Answer: D
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72) The data model produced by reverse engineering is a(n) ________.
A) conceptual schema B) internal schema C) dependency graph D) table-relationship diagram E) entity-relationship diagram |
Answer: D
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|
73) Because of the need to know the functional dependencies in a database, it is a good idea to create a(n) ________.
A) conceptual schema B) internal schema C) dependency graph D) table-relationship diagram E) entity-relationship diagram |
Answer: C
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|
74) A dependency graph should include:
A) tables B) views C) triggers D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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|
75) Which of the following different copies of the database schema is/are typically used in the database redesign process?
A) Small test database B) Large test database C) Operational database D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
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|
76) In order to make sure the database redesign is working properly during the redesign testing process, a means must be created to ________.
A) reverse engineer all test databases B) graph dependencies in all test databases C) recover all test databases to their original state D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: C
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|
77) To change a table name, we ________.
A) use the SQL RENAME TABLE command B) use the SQL ALTER TABLENAME command C) use the SQL MODIFY TABLENAME command D) create a new table, move the data, and drop the old table E) None of the above is the correct way to change a table name. |
Answer: D
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78) When making any change to the database structure, we may need to check for effects of the change on ________.
A) data B) foreign keys C) constraints D) triggers E) All of the above may need to be checked. |
Answer: E
|
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79) To add a NULL column to a table, we ________.
A) use the REVISE TABLE command B) use the ALTER TABLE command C) use the MODIFY TABLE command D) create a new table with the NULL column, move the other data, and drop the old table E) None of the above is the correct way to add a NULL column. |
Answer: B
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80) If a DEFAULT constraint is included when a new column is added to a table, the default value is applied to ________.
A) all existing rows at the time the column is added B) all new rows C) all new rows but only after the UPDATE command is issued D) A and B E) A and C |
Answer: B
|
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|
81) To add a NOT NULL column to a table, we ________.
A) use the REVISE TABLE command B) use the ALTER TABLE command C) use the MODIFY TABLE command D) create a new NULL column, insert data values into every row, and change the NULL constraint to NOT NULL E) None of the above is the correct way to add a NOT NULL column to a table. |
Answer: D
|
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|
82) When dropping a nonkey column from a table, which of the following steps is (are) included in the process? (The order of the steps listed below is not relevant, only the steps themselves.)
A) Drop any column constraints from the table B) Drop the column from the table C) Drop any foreign keys constraints based on the column D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: B
|
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|
83) When dropping a primary key column from a table, which of the following steps is (are) included in the process? (The order of the steps listed below is not relevant, only the steps themselves.)
A) Drop the primary key constraint from the table B) Drop the primary key column from the table C) Drop the foreign keys in other tables based on the primary key column D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
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|
84) When dropping a foreign key column from a table, which of the following steps is (are) included in the process? (The order of the steps listed below is not relevant, only the steps themselves.)
A) Drop the foreign key constraint from the table B) Drop the foreign key column from the table C) Drop the primary key in the other table referenced by the referential integrity constraint D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
|
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|
85) Changing cardinalities ________.
A) never occurs in database redesign B) rarely occurs in database redesign C) commonly occurs in database redesign D) always occurs in database redesign E) cannot be done once a database is implemented |
Answer: C
|
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|
86) When changing column data types, which of the following data conversions will either usually or always succeed?
A) Numeric → char or varchar B) Date or money → char or varchar C) Char or varchar → numeric, date or money D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
|
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87) When changing the minimum cardinality on the parent side of the relationship from zero to one, the foreign key ________.
A) must be changed from NULL to NOT NULL B) must be changed from NOT NULL to NULL C) must be changed to a composite key D) must be changed to a surrogate key E) does not change |
Answer: A |
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|
|
88) Which of the following are difficulties when changing the maximum cardinality from 1:1 to 1:N?
A) Preserving the existing tables B) Preserving the existing relationships C) Preserving the existing data D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: B
|
|
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|
89) When increasing cardinalities from 1:N to N:M, which of the following steps is/are included in the process? (The order of the steps listed below is not relevant, only the steps themselves.) A) Create an intersection table B) Populate the intersection table C) Drop the old foreign key D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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|
90) When decreasing cardinalities, there will always be ________.
A) relationship loss B) foreign key loss C) data loss D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: C
|
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|
91) When dropping tables and relationships, which of the following steps is/are included in the process? (The order of the steps listed below is not relevant, only the steps themselves.)
A) Drop the foreign key constraints from the tables B) Drop the tables C) Drop the primary key constraints from the tables D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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|
|
|
1) Every DBMS product has an application programming interface (API).
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
2) Every DBMS product uses the same API.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
3) ODBC stands for Open Database Connectivity.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
4) If a server is using a Microsoft Windows operating system, it is usually running Internet Information Server (IIS) as its Web server.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
5) The most commonly used Web server on servers running the Unix or Linux operating system is Internet Information Server (IIS).
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
|
6) If the Web server and the DBMS are running on the same server, the system has a three-tier architecture.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
7) ODBC has not had practical success, but has shown great potential for future development.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
8) ODBC works with table-like data sources such as relational databases and spreadsheets.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
9) ODBC acts as a wrapper for OLE DB.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
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|
10) With ODBC, a database and the DBMS that processes it are identified by the data source.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
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|
|
11) With ODBC, the driver manager serves as an intermediary between the application and the DBMS drivers.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
12) With ODBC, only a single driver is needed to handle all data source types, such as Oracle, DB2, and Access.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
13) In ODBC, the amount of work that the driver must do is largely determined by the degree of SQL-compliance of the data source.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
14) A multiple-tier ODBC driver may reformat an SQL request, but it does not actually process the SQL statement.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
15) With ODBC, a file data source is available only to the user that created it.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
16) In general, the best type of ODBC data source to define for a Web application is a system data source.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
17) OLE DB objects are COM objects.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
18) OLE DB can be used to access ODBC data sources.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
19) OLE DB is an object-oriented interface.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
20) In OLE DB, a RecordSet is a more abstract representation of a rowset.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
21) Object classes have properties that represent characteristics of the objects in the class.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
22) One of the properties of all collections is Count, which is the number of objects in the collection.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
23) In OLE DB, all of an object's properties must be exposed in all interfaces, but not all methods have to be exposed.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
24) One important result of OLE DB is that data does not have to be moved or converted from one form to another.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
25) An OLE DB service provider accepts data from an OLE DB tabular data provider.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
26) ADO provides access to ODBC functionality to programming languages that ordinarily could not access ODBC functions.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
27) ADO is accessible from languages such as C++ and C#, but not Visual Basic or scripting languages.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
28) ADO was (and still is) frequently used for database applications.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
29) ADO.NET is a completely new product, with no connection to ADO except the similar name.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
30) ADO.NET provides the capability to create and process in-memory databases called DataSets.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
31) An ADO.NET DataSet has all the characteristics, features, and functions of a regular database.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
32) An ADO.NET DataSet is connected to databases.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
33) An ADO.NET dataset can have primary and foreign keys, but ADO.NET does not support referential integrity.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
34) Once an ADO.NET dataset is constructed, its contents can be formatted as an XML document with a single command.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
35) An ADO.NET dataset can only be used with optimistic locking.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
36) Only open source products may be used in conjunction with JDBC.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
37) To use JDBC, programs must be written in Java.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
38) JDBC drivers only exist for a limited number of DBMS products at this time.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
39) JDBC-ODBC bridge drivers resolve inconsistencies between Java and C/C++ to allow Java access to ODBC data sources.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
40) Type 2 JDBC drivers access ODBC data sources over a network.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
41) Type 4 JDBC drivers translate JDBC calls into a DBMS-independent network protocol.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
42) Java programs are compiled into machine-independent bytecode.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
43) Java programs tend to execute faster than programs compiled into machine-dependent code because the Java virtual machine only has to interpret the bytecode.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
44) An applet is a Java bytecode program that executes on the Web server.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
45) Applet bytecode is sent to the user's computer and is invoked using the HTTP protocol.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
46) Java programs that access a database from an applet must use a Type 2 JDBC driver.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
47) The first step in using a JDBC driver is to establish a connection.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
48) JSP can be coded only in Java and JavaScript.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
49) JSP pages are automatically re-compiled if the uncompiled JSP page is newer than the compiled version of the page.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
50) Basic Web pages are created using Hypertext Markup Language (HTML).
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
51) HTML is defined by the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C).
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
52) A common default Web page name recognized by most Web servers is FirstPage.html.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
53) Database processing and document processing are unrelated to one another.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
54) HTML is an application of a document markup language called Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
55) In the 1990s the database community and the document processing community created a standard called Expandable Markup Language (XML).
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
56) XML provides a standardized, non-customizable way to describe the content of a document.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
57) Unlike SQL views, XML views are not limited to one multivalued path.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
58) SOAP was originally an XML-based standard for providing remote procedure calls over the Internet.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
59) XML designers created a system that allows document structure, data content, and materialization to be mixed.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
60) DTD stands for Document Type Declaration.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
61) Possible uses of XML go far beyond using it to display Web pages.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
62) All type-valid XML documents are required to have a DTD.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
63) XSLT is a declarative transformation language.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
64) XML documents that conform to their DTD are said to be type-valid XML documents.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
65) XML documents that do not conform to their DTD are said to be non-type-valid XML documents.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
66) XSLT is a robust and powerful transformation language that can be used to materialize XML documents into HTML.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
67) XSLT is a non-declarative transformation language.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
68) An XSLT stylesheet is used by XSLT to indicate how to transform the elements of an XML document into another format.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
69) An XSLT command embedded in the structure of an XSLT stylesheet is of the form {loop, action}.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
70) When XSLT actions are indicated in a loop, the loop ends with .
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
71) XSLT processors are context oriented; that is, each statement is evaluated within the context of the match that has already been made.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
72) After an XSLT processor transforms an XML document into an HTML document, the HTML document is materialized using a browser.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
73) Most of today's Web browsers still lack a built-in XSLT processor.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
74) XML Schema is a synonym for Document Type Declaration (DTD).
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
75) XML documents that conform to an XML Schema are validated against that schema.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
76) XML documents and XML Schemas are created in different languages.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
77) An important improvement of XML Schema over DTDs is that XML Schemas are themselves XML documents.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
78) The first statement of an XML document indicates the schema that will be used to validate the document.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
79) XML Schemas consist of elements, attributes, and properties.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
80) In XML Schema, there are two types of elements, simple and composite.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
81) Elements of complexType must have more than one simple element.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
82) For database/XML applications, a good rule to follow is that elements are used to carry data and attributes are used to carry metadata.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
83) In XML Schema, the default cardinality of elements is 0.1.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
84) In XML Schema, the default minimum cardinality can be overridden using the minOccurs attributes.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
85) Setting the minimum cardinality to 0 is similar to using a NULL constraint in SQL.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
86) An XML Schema where all the elements occur at the same level is called a structured schema.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
87) To eliminate definition duplication, XML Schema elements can be declared globally.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
88) SQL Server has facilities for generating XML documents from database data.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
89) Oracle requires the use of Java for generating XML documents from database data.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
90) MySQL Server does not have facilities for generating XML documents from database data.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
91) The SQL Server statement SELECT...FOR XML is used to place column data as elements in an XML document.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
92) The SQL Server statement SELECT ...FOR XML RAW tells SQL Server to place the data values from the columns in the table into XML elements.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
93) The SQL Server statement SELECT...FOR XML EXPLICIT is used to control placement of column data as either elements or attributes in an XML document.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
94) The SQL Server statement SELECT...FOR XML can only be used with a single table.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
95) XML processing provides a standardized facility to describe, validate, and materialize any database view.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
96) Few industries have shown an interest in developing XML industry standards.
|
Answer: FALSE
|
|
|
|
97) XML industry standards have been published for the Accounting industry.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
98) Xquery is a standard for expressing generalized queries on XML documents.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
99) XML Namespaces are used to define domains, support domains, and disambiguate terms.
|
Answer: TRUE
|
|
|
|
100) Which of the following can only interact with relational database and table-like data structures?
A) OLE DB B) ODBC C) ASP D) ADO E) All of the above |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
101) Which of the following is true about ODBC?
A) ODBC has experienced little practical success. B) ODBC requires developers to have a thorough knowledge of many DBMS native libraries. C) ODBC can be used to access data from spreadsheets. D) ODBC has an object-oriented interface. E) ODBC does not include facilities to return error messages. |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
102) According to the ODBC standard, which of the following is not part of the specification of a data source?
A) The associated DBMS B) The database C) The driver D) The operating system E) The network platform |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
103) The ODBC standard defines a means of doing which of the following?
A) Start transactions B) Rollback transactions C) Create a connection D) Issue SQL commands E) All of the above |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
104) Which of the following is a function performed by the driver manager in ODBC?
A) Submit SQL statements to the data source B) Determine the type of DBMS that processes a given ODBC data source C) Load the appropriate ODBC driver into memory D) Convert data source error codes into ODBC error codes E) B and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
105) The intermediary between the application and the DBMS drivers in the ODBC architecture is the ________.
A) driver manager B) OLE DB interface C) ODBC driver D) data source E) database connector |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
106) Which of the following is a task performed by the driver according to the ODBC standard?
A) Determines the appropriate DBMS B) Validates the format of the ODBC command received from the application C) Converts data source error codes into ODBC standard error codes D) Verifies the application to the data source E) Converts the data source into an SQL-compliant data structure |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
107) The ________ processes ODBC requests and submits specific SQL statements to a given type of data source.
A) driver manager B) ADO C) driver D) source converter E) ODBC translator |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
108) A data source that is fully SQL-compliant would use what type of DBMS driver?
A) Single-tier B) Multiple-tier C) SQL transform D) Text-based E) Conformance |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
109) How does an application determine the level of ODBC conformance available from a driver?
A) The application makes a call to the driver manager. B) The application makes a call to the data source. C) The application makes a call to the driver. D) The developer must determine the level of conformance before the application is written. E) It does not have to determine ODBC conformance since all ODBC drivers have the same functionality by definition. |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
110) Support for a scrollable cursor is a sign of what type of conformance in a DBMS driver?
A) Level 1 API B) Extended SQL Grammar C) Core API D) Level 2 API E) Core SQL Grammar |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
111) Support for subqueries and creating indexes is a sign of what type of SQL conformance in a DBMS driver?
A) Level 2 API B) Minimum SQL Grammar C) Core API D) Extended SQL Grammar E) Core SQL Grammar |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
112) A ________ data source can be shared among database users as long as they have the same DBMS driver and privilege to access the database.
A) file B) common C) shared D) system E) user |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
113) A data source that is local to a single computer and can be used by the operating system and any user on that computer is called a ________ data source.
A) file B) common C) shared D) system E) user |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
114) In general, for Web applications it is best to create what type of data source on the Web server?
A) File B) Common C) Shared D) System E) User |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
115) OLE DB breaks the features and functions of a DBMS into what type of objects?
A) COM B) DBMS C) MTS D) ODBC E) ASP |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
116) Which of the following is not true about OLE DB?
A) Scripting languages cannot access OLE DB. B) OLE DB is object-oriented. C) OLE DB can access ODBC data sources. D) OLE DB can access non-relational data sources. E) OLE DB is used as a wrapper for ADO objects. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
117) The characteristics of an object are called ________.
A) classes B) collections C) methods D) properties E) procedures |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
118) The actions that an object can perform are called ________.
A) classes B) collections C) methods D) properties E) procedures |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
119) An important method of a collection is a(n) ________, which can be used to pass through or otherwise identify the items in the collection.
A) iterator B) identifier C) converter D) transformer E) signal |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
120) A set of objects and the properties and methods that they expose are known as a(n) ________.
A) provider B) data consumer C) implementation D) instantiation E) interface |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
121) Which of the following is a type of OLE DB data provider?
A) relational data provider B) method provider C) sequential data provider D) tabular data provider E) implementation provider |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
122) Which standard interface in OLE DB is invoked to declare a forward-only cursor?
A) IRowSet B) IAccessor C) IColumnsInfo D) adXact E) ADODB |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
123) Which of the following is not true of ADO?
A) ADO is a simple object model for OLE DB data consumers. B) ADO can be used from VBScript and JavaScript. C) ADO is harder to understand than OLE DB. D) ADO can be called from languages such as Visual Basic.NET, Java and C#. E) All of the above are true of ADO. |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
124) Which of the following is true about ADO.NET?
A) It is an improved and expanded version of ADO. B) It facilitates the transformation of XML documents to and from relational database constructs. C) It provides the ability to create and process in-memory databases. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
125) ADO.NET in-memory databases are called ________.
A) adoBases B) adoDatabases C) dotNetBases D) dotNetDatabases E) DataSets |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
126) An ADO.NET Data Provider is a(n) ________ that provides ADO.NET services.
A) class library B) windows application C) Web application D) XML service E) DND service |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
127) Which of the following is true about ADO.NET DataSets?
A) They can have multiple tables and relationships. B) They can have foreign keys and surrogate keys. C) They can support referential integrity actions. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
128) Which of the following is true of JDBC?
A) Programs must be written in Java. B) JDBC only works with open-source products. C) JDBC is only available for Unix-like operating systems, such as Linux. D) JDBC is actually a DBMS. E) B and C |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
129) What type of JDBC driver is known as a JDBC-ODBC bridge?
A) Type J-O driver B) Type 1 driver C) Type 2 driver D) Type 3 driver E) Type 4 driver |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
130) What type of JDBC driver connects to the native API of the DBMS?
A) Type J-O driver B) Type 1 driver C) Type 2 driver D) Type 3 driver E) Type 4 driver |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
131) What type of JDBC driver translates JDBC calls into DBMS-independent network protocols?
A) Type J-O driver B) Type 1 driver C) Type 2 driver D) Type 3 driver E) Type 4 driver |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
132) What type of JDBC driver translates JDBC calls into DBMS-specific network protocols?
A) Type J-O driver B) Type 1 driver C) Type 2 driver D) Type 3 driver E) Type 4 driver |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
133) A Java virtual machine is actually a ________.
A) program compiler B) JDBC data source C) bytecode interpreter D) JDBC driver E) servlet |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
134) Which of the following is true about bytecode interpretation?
A) It may be performed on the client. B) It may be performed on the server. C) It is slower than running a program compiled into machine code. D) It increases portability. E) All of the above. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
135) Applet bytecode is transmitted to the user's computer via ________.
A) the JDBC driver B) the Java virtual machine C) HTTP D) SQL E) the bytecode interpreter |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
136) A(n) ________ is a Java program that is interpreted and executed by a bytecode interpreter on the Web server.
A) applet B) Java virtual machine C) servlet D) HTTP E) JDBC translator |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
137) In a three-tier or n-tier architecture, which type of JDBC driver can be used if the DBMS and the Web server are running on the same computer?
A) Type 1 driver B) Type 2 driver C) Type 3 driver D) Type 4 driver E) All of the above. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
138) The first step in using a JDBC driver is to ________.
A) establish a connection to the database B) load the driver C) create a statement D) call the DriverManager object E) invoke the executeQuery method |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
139) The coding for Java Server Pages must be written in ________.
A) Java B) JavaScript C) C++ D) Visual Basic E) Any of the above |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
140) Which of the following is true about JSP code?
A) It must be written in Java or JavaScript. B) It does not have access to HTTP functionality. C) It must be coded as complete Java classes and methods. D) It is automatically converted into Java servlets. E) All of the above. |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
141) Which of the following is not true about Tomcat?
A) It is a servlet processor. B) it can be used as a standalone Web server. C) It is often used in conjunction with Apache. D) It is an applet processor. E) It has limited Web server facilities. |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
142) JSP pages are ________.
A) automatically compiled by the servlet processor as needed B) required to be compiled by the developer before being made public C) automatically checked for syntax errors by the servlet as they are written D) slower to execute but more memory efficient than CGI files E) A and D |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
143) As compared to CGI files, JSP pages ________.
A) are less memory efficient B) require more processor time C) execute faster D) keep more copies of a given page in memory E) None of the above |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
144) In PHP, any programming language statements that are to be processed on the server must be enclosed in:
A) |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
145) The first PHP element to be created is the:
A) Command object. B) Connection object. C) Errors collection. D) Parameters collection. E) RecordSet object. |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
146) The final step of using a PHP connection to a DBMS is to:
A) open the connection. B) test the connection. C) query the database. D) process the query results. E) close the connection. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
147) PDO stands for:
A) PHP Data Objects. B) PHP Design Objects. C) Personal Data Objects. D) Personal Design Objects. E) None of the above. |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
148) HTML is an application of ________.
A) SGML B) XML C) SOAP D) XSLT E) ADO.NET |
Answer: A
|
|
|
|
149) XML stands for ________.
A) Experimental Markup Language B) Extendable Markup Language C) Extensible Markup Language D) Active X-control Markup Language E) Active X-control Management Language |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
150) Which of the following is true about XML?
A) It is a subset of SGML. B) Additional standards and capabilities have been added to XML processing. C) It is a hybrid of document processing and database processing. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
151) SOAP originally stood for ________.
A) Simple Operational Application Protocol B) Standard Operational Application Protocol C) Simple Object Application Protocol D) Simple Object Access Protocol E) Standard Object Access Protocol |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
152) SOAP has become ________.
A) just a name, not an acronym B) a standard protocol for sending any type of message C) an old technology replaced by XML D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
153) Which of the following is true about XML?
A) It allows the confounding of document structure, content, and format. B) It is non-standardized to allow for extension by developers. C) The structure of documents is formally defined. D) XML tags, like some HTML tags, are vague and arbitrary. E) None of the above. |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
154) The first section of an XML document might be a ________.
A) Document Definition Section (DDS) B) Document Type Declaration (DTD) C) Data Type (DTYPE) D) Document Type (DOCTYPE) E) Type Declaration (TYPEDECL) |
Answer: B
|
|
|
|
155) The document type declaration for an XML document begins with the keyword ________.
A) XML B) DTD C) TYPE D) DOCTYPE E) TYPEDECL |
Answer: D
|
|
|
|
156) XML documents that conform to their DTD are said to be ________.
A) DTD-valid B) XML-valid C) DTD-compliant D) not-type-valid E) type-valid |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
157) XML documents that are not-type-valid can still be ________.
A) DTD-valid B) XML-valid C) DTD-compliant D) XML-compliant E) proper XML documents |
Answer: E
|
|
|
|
158) Which of the following is not true about document type declarations for XML documents?
A) They are not required. B) They are required for type-valid documents. C) They cannot be contained inside the XML document. D) Storing the DTD externally allows many documents to be validated against the same DTD. E) The DTD can be extended by the developer with any elements he or she wants to include. |
Answer: C
|
|
|
|
159) Which of the following is not true about XSLT?
A) It is a declarative language. B) It is a transformation language. C) It can materialize XML documents into HTML. D) It can transform an XML document into another XML document with a different structure. E) It requires the use of CSS. |
Answer: E
|
|
|
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160) Which of the following is true about XSLT?
A) It can be used to materialize XML documents into HTML. B) XSLT processors are context oriented. C) It is a non-declarative transformation language. D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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161) XML Schema is used to define ________.
A) document content and structure B) XQL queries C) DOM-compliant parsers D) DTDs E) XPath searches |
Answer: A
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162) XML documents can be ________ against their XML Schema.
A) measured B) grown C) validated D) browsed E) All of the above |
Answer: C
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163) An important improvement of XML Schema over DTDs is that ________.
A) XML Schema can be stored external to the document B) XML Schema support XQL queries C) XML Schema are XML documents D) XML Schema are not required E) XML Schema can validate XML documents |
Answer: C
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164) The XML Schema "mother of all schemas" is located at ________.
A) a user-defined Web server for each organization B) www.w3.org C) www.google.com D) www.microsoft.com E) www.xmlschema.net |
Answer: B
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165) The XML Schema statement xmlns:xsd indicates that ________.
A) this XML Schema uses a labeled namespace called xsd B) this XML Schema is validated at www.xsd.com C) this XML Schema is validated at www.xmlns.com using the xsd XML Schema located there D) this XML Schema is using a non-standard looping procedure, where xsd is the variable name of the loop increment E) the value of the variable xmnls is being set equal to the value of the variable xsd |
Answer: A
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166) XML Schemas consist of ________.
A) elements B) attributes C) properties D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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167) Which of the following is a type of element in an XML Schema?
A) simple B) composite C) compound D) complex E) A and D |
Answer: E
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168) XML Schema elements of the complexType may contain ________.
A) one simple element B) one complexType element C) more than one simple element D) more than one complexType element E) Any of the above |
Answer: E
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169) In an XML Schema, the tags ...<\xsd:ComplexType> indicate that:
A) a sequence of numbers is listed between the tags. B) a sequence of letters or words is listed between the tags. C) a set of elements will occur in a multi-layered format between the tags. D) A or B E) A, B, or C |
Answer: C
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170) In database/ XML applications, it is a recommended practice that ________.
A) elements carry data, and attributes carry metadata B) elements carry metadata, and attributes carry data C) elements and attributes carry data, and the XML Schema carry metadata D) elements and attributes carry metadata, and the XML Schema carry data E) either A or B |
Answer: A
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171) The default cardinality for elements in an XML Schema is ________.
A) 0.1 B) 1.1 C) 1.N D) N.1 E) M.N |
Answer: B
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172) The use of the XML Schema expression minOccurs="0" ________.
A) is an XML Schema default B) is required as there are no defaults in an XML Schema C) is similar to the SQL schema NULL constraint D) A and C E) B and C |
Answer: C
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173) XML Schema that have all elements residing at the same level are called ________.
A) flat B) structured C) single-leveled D) multi-leveled E) styled |
Answer: A
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176) The SQL Server XML SELECT statements can be applied to ________. A) single table SELECT statements B) multiple table SELECT statements C) XML Schema statements D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: D
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177) XML is important because XML processing provides a standardized facility to ________ any database view.
A) describe B) validate C) materialize D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: E
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178) The standard for locating particular elements within a document is called ________.
A) XML B) XSL C) XPath D) SAX E) DOM |
Answer: C
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179) XQuery is a standard for expressing ________.
A) queries as ADO.NET datasets B) queries as XML documents C) queries on SQL databases D) A and B E) A, B, and C |
Answer: B |
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