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250 Cards in this Set

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What selections are required to make a "PA" to the passengers?
1. Select the microphone selector to the "PA" position on the ARCDU.
2. Depress the "PA" switchlight on the Interphone Control Panel.
3. Use either the hand held or boom mic to communicate to the passengers.
What selections are required to "call" the flight attendants?
1. Select the microphone selector switch to the "PA" position.
2. Depress the "call" switchlight on the Interphone Control Panel.
Pressing the "Call" switchlight on the Interphone Control Panel produces what type of tone?
High/Low chime
Pressing the "Chime" switchlight on the Interphone Control Panel produces what type of tone?
High/Low chime
What signal is given to the flight attendants to signal them to close the cabin doors?
Make a cabin announcement "Flight Attendants, Ready for door closure".
What signal is given to the flight attendants when "Takeoff is Imminent"?
Press the "Chime" switch.
What signal is given to the flight attendants when it is OK to "begin cabin service" following takeoff?
Select the "No Smoking Sign" to the "OFF" position.

Note:
The switch is actually a dummy switch. The No Smoking signs will always remain illuminated in the cabin!
What type of tone does cycling the "No Smoking" sign create?
Low Chime
What signal is given to the flight attendants to "prepare the cabin for landing"?
Select the "No Smoking" sign back to the "ON" position.

Signal the flight attendants no later than 5 minutes prior to landing.

Note:
The switch is actually a dummy switch. The No Smoking signs will always remain illuminated in the cabin!
What signal is given to the flight attendants to "open the cabin doors" following parking at the gate?
Press the "chime" switch.
If an emergency exists in the cabin, how do the flight attendants report it to the flight deck?
- The flight attendants press the "Emergency" switchlight on the flight attendants panel.

- The flight attendants report the emergency to the flight deck via the handset (if able).
What is the "normal" brace signal?
"BRACE, BRACE, BRACE" over the PA system.
What is the "alternate" brace signal to be used in the event of an inoperative PA system?
The pilots depress the "EMERGENCY" switchlight on the Interphone Control Panel.
Pressing the "EMERGENCY" pushbutton on the pilot's Interphone Control Panel will cause what indications in the cabin?
1. Produces one (1)"High/Low" chime.

2. A "RED" light will flash on the flight attendants advisory panel.

3. The "EMERGENCY" switch on the flight attendants panel will flash "amber".
At what times is it required to have the "HOT MIC" on?
The Hot Mic is required to be "ON" during all "critical phases of flight".
What is the correct response to a Comm bleedover event?
Always protect communication with ATC! If the other pilot is communicating to company on Comm 2 and bleeding over on ATC you may rotate the other pilots comm select switch to the right to stop the bleed-over! It may be possible to communicate to company using the hand mic without bleeding over onto ATC.
What will occur when the Hot Mic is selected to "ON"?
The cockpit overhead speakers are "cut out".
Where is the spare headset located on the aircraft?
The spare headset has been moved to the Forward/Left side of the galley, just behind the cockpit door.
At what times is the use of the HGS required per the automation policy?
1. For all operations while operating below 10,000 feet AFE.

2. For all approaches when below 1,800 RVR (in AIII mode).

3. For all takeoffs below 500/500/500 RVR.
At what times is it required for the pilots to wear the headsets?
For all operations below 18,000 feet!
With regards to the "altitude alerter", what is required of the pilots?
Both pilots must verify that the altitude alerter is set properly and that "ALT SEL" is armed!
During a climb, what modes are permitted to be used on the AFCS to control the aircraft's pitch?
- "Pitch Hold" is required for all climbs below "Acceleration Height".

- Above Acceleration Height "IAS" or "Pitch Hold" is used for sustained climbs.

- "VS" mode may be used to transition into a climb only when above acceleration height.
What is used for the "primary" means of determining the "Top of Descent" during descent planning?
The FMS VNav!
What is used as the "secondary" means of determining the "Top of Descent" while descent planning?
The 3:1 descent profile!

Note:
This requires a descent rate of approximately 5 times the aircraft's ground speed.
Is it recommended to use the "IAS" mode during descent to control the aircraft's speed?
No ... it is not recommended!

It is permissable as low as 1,000 feet AFE.
If "IAS" mode is used during descent to control the aircraft's speed, what limitation applies?
"IAS" mode is not authorized below 1,000 feet AGL.
At what times are both pilots required to review any changes to the FMS flight plan?
Anytime that the change affects "lateral or vertical" guidance.
When reviewing a change to the FMS flight plan, what is the correct command and response that is required prior to entering the change?
Pilot making change: "VERIFY (change)"

Flying pilot response: "VERIFIED"
Is it permissible to program in a "Contingency" flight plan into the pilot monitoring's FMS?
YES ... If an arrival change is anticipated then a contingency flight plan may be programmed provided:

1. Both pilots are in agreement.
2. The procedure is reviewed and briefed.
3. Both FMS's contain the same flight plan when ATC advises which procedure will be used.
4. The clearance page must be verified!
Is it permissible to have different "LNav and VNav" parameters programmed into the two FMS's?
Yes

However the LNav and VNavs should be programmed identically as much as possible to ensure both pilots maintain situational awareness.
When is it required to program in the anticipated approach and transition into the FMS?
The approach and transition may be programmed at any time!
For what type of approach is V-Nav not available beyond the FAF?
VNav will not normally be provided on approaches with a "Letter Suffix" designation (GPS-D, VOR/DME-C).

If VNav is provided on a suffixed approach it must be considered unusable!
Is it permissible for one pilot to manage the "Ice Protection Panel" and the other to manage the "Air Conditioning Panel" individually?
Yes

At the captain's discretion, the captain can manage the Ice Protection Panel and the First Officer can manage the Air Conditioning Panel.
Anytime that the cockpit door is "opened", what procedure must be followed?
Challenge and Response
At what times should you press the "Event Marker" switch on the Engine Control Panel?
1. Anytime that a caution or warning occurs.

2. Anytime aircraft anomalies are observed.

3. Anytime that Vmo is exceeded and the "Aural Speed Warning" occurs. If the airspeed indicator "turns red" only a "correcting" response is required.

4. When climbing through 10,000 feet (maintenance oil pressure check).
What is required if Vmo is exceeded?
1. The pilot monitoring will call "AIRSPEED".

2. The flying pilot will state: "CORRECTING".

3. Press the "Event Marker" switch on the Engine Control Panel (only if the aural warning occurs).
At what time is a "maintenance logbook entry" required with regards to exceeding Vmo?
Anytime that Vmo is exceeded by:

SMOOTH AIR

Below 10,000 feet:
20 kts or more

At or Above 10,000 feet:
6 kts or more

TURBULENCE

- Vmo is exceeded by any amount.
- The bank angle exceeds 30 degrees.
When entering a discrepancy in the maintenance logbook with regards to a Vmo exceedance, what information should be included in the write-up?
1. Aircraft Altitude.
2. Turbulence conditions.
3. The maximum observed airspeed.
4. The aircraft's bank angle.
At what times is the "Preflight Checklist" required to be completed?
1. First flight of the day.

2. The captain receives a new aircraft.

3. Unobserved maintenance.
At what times is the "Power-Up Checklist" required to be completed?
Only when the aircraft is received in a "powered down" state.
At what times is the "Originating Checklist" required to be completed?
1. The first flight of the day.

2. Anytime that a "terminating checklist" had been completed.

3. Anytime that the captain receives a new aircraft.
What should be avoided when first powering up the aircraft?
Avoid moving any of the flight controls or trims until the "FCECU Power Up Tests" have completed.

Many systems go through a self-test procedure on initial power-up!
How long does it take the "
Power-Up" systems tests to complete?
Approximately 70 to 90 seconds.
What indicates when the "Power-Up" tests have completed?
1. A "single chime".

2. The "PITCH TRIM" and "ELEVATOR FEEL" caution lights will extinguish.
What systems goes through a "self-test" during the "Power-Up" sequence?
1. Rudder
2. Elevator
3. Ailerons
4. All trims
5. FLT/TAXI switch

Note:
During the Power-Up tests the trims may indicate "out of range".
The "PITCH TRIM" and "ELEVATOR FEEL" caution lights will be illuminated.
What is required to "Initialize" the EFB's?
1. The main cabin door must be open.
2. Both EFB's must be selected "ON" within 1 minute of each other.
At what time are you required to set the runway length and field elevation into the HGS control panel for takeoff?
Only if "Takeoff" mode is used!

For a normal takeoff only "Primary" mode is required to be verified in the HGS control panel.
What is the minimum O2 pressure allowed for dispatch?
2-Crew: 1,050 PSI
3-Crew: 1,450 PSI

These values are based on the OAT being 21 degrees C. For values above or below 21 degrees C you must consult the FSM Supplementary Procedures for the allowable quantity based on the existing temperature.
During the preflight inspection, you must ensure that the oxygen pressure is at least _______ PSI on the oxygen pressure gauge.
1,450 PSI
What restriction applies to the first flight of the day with regards to the aircraft's "emergency lighting system"?
Prior to the first flight of the day the cabin overhead and sidewall lights must be turned "ON" for a minimum of 15 minutes prior to boarding passengers. This will charge the photo luminescent floor track lighting.
What is the "normal" nose wheel strut extension while at the gate?
1 to 3 inches is considered nominal

Only contact maintenance control if:

1. There is "no chrome" showing on the nose strut.
2. The nosewheel bottoms out during taxi.
At what time should maintenance control be contacted if the nose wheel strut seems low?
Only contact maintenance control if:

1. The strut extension is less than 1 inch (no discrepancy write-up is required).
"or"
2. There is "no chrome" showing on the nose strut (maintenance entry is required).
"or"
3. The nosewheel bottoms out during taxi (maintenance entry is required).
At what time is a maintenance log entry "required" for a low nose strut condition?
Only when:

1. No chrome is visible on the strut.

2. The strut "bottoms out" during taxi.
What is the normal "Main Gear" strut extension while at the gate?
1.5 to 4.5 inches.
At what time would you not allow the "push tug" to connect to the aircraft?
Anytime that the nose gear doors are "OPEN".

If the aircraft engines were to be started the gear doors would close with great force!
At what time is a "visual inspection" of the engine intakes required during the preflight inspection of the aircraft?
When the OAT is 0 degrees C or less and there is visible rain, snow or freezing rain present.

Use a ladder and a flashlight if necessary to inspect the engine intakes.
At what time is the "Abbreviated Preflight Inspection" required?
1. Following each flight.

2. Anytime that a "Terminating Checklist" has been completed.

3. Anytime that the aircraft has been left "unattended".

4. When receiving the aircraft directly from another crew.
What items are required to be checked during the "Abbreviated Preflight Check"?
1. Nose Gear - Ground Lock
2. Engine Nacelles
- Engine cowls secure
- Fluid leaks
- Lip de-ice boots.
- Engine Intake leading edge
3. Gear and wheel wells
4. Flight control surfaces
5. De-Ice boots
What are the "Captain's" originating duties upon initially entering the flight deck?
1. Ensure that the "Electrical Power-Up" and "Avionics Power-Up" checklists have been completed.

2. Store you flight bag.

3. Review the maintenance logbook.

4. Complete the "Originating Flow" (if DC power is available).
What requirements exist regarding EFB operation?
1. The "Main Cabin Door" must be open to "initialize the flight".

2. Both EFB's must be powered ON within 1 minute of each other.
What restriction applies to the use of the aircraft's "Logo Lights" while at the gate?
Do not turn on the Logo lights if on "battery power" only!
How long does it take the IRS to "initialize"?
Approximately 7 minutes during a "full" alignment.
How do you know when the IRS has completed its initial alignment?
"IRS NAV" is displayed in the FMS! (Data Page 2/4)
What procedure should be accomplished if the IRS "does not" align?
If after 1 minute the IRS has not aligned, select the "Update Sensors" button on FMS #1 to re-enter the aircraft's position.

The IRS initialization will stop after 1 minute.

If the IRS still does not align, select the "Update Sensors" button on FMS #2.
At what time is it required to align the IRS?
Until further notice the IRS alignment procedure should only be accomplished when:

The outbound crew will conduct a "FULL" IRS alignment during the originating flow if:

1. The IRS was received in a "turned off state".
2. "IRS #____ DIFFERENCE" warning message is displayed.

The outbound crew will conduct a "RAPID" IRS alignment during the originating flow if:

1. Receiving the aircraft and the IRS is already aligned.

Note:

Until further notice, you are not required to realign the IRS prior to each departure!
During the Originating Flow, which gets turned "ON" first ... the FMS or IRS?
The FMS must be selected to "ON" first and allowed to fully self-test prior to turning on the IRS.
What is required prior to "initializing" the FMS?
Wait at least 10 seconds after selecting the IRS to the "NAV" position prior to "initializing" the FMS.

After 10 seconds press "ACCEPT" on the FMS when GNSS or WAAS is displayed.
What is the minimum brake pressure reading allowed prior to starting the engines?
Left Engine First: 1,000 PSI

Right Engine First: 500 PSI
During the originating check, what is the minimum "hydraulic quantities" allowed?
40% on all three (3) systems.

50% is recommended!
If electrical power is lost while conducting the Before Start Checklist, what is required?
You must repeat the complete "Originating" and "Before Start" checklists from the beginning!
What is the "priority" for ground power?
1. DC Rectifier GPU

2. Gas Powered GPU

3. Aircraft's APU Generator
Running the APU with the "Bleed Air" selected to "ON" will increase the APU's fuel burn by how much?
It will double the fuel burn:

Bleeds Off: 130 lbs/hr

Bleeds On: 260 lbs/hr
At what time should the APU bleed air be selected to "ON" to provide for passenger comfort?
Only when there is no "ground based" air conditioning unit available and the cabin gets too hot.
What must be verified prior to selecting the APU Bleed Air to "ON"?
The engine bleed air switches must be selected to the "OFF" position.

The APU will not supply bleed air with the engine bleed air switches physically in the "ON" position!
Where should the cockpit and cabin temperature control switches be initially rotated to?
Both should be between the 9:00 and 12:00 positions.
At what times may the aircraft's APU be used for engine start during pushback in lieu of a GPU?
1. Engine start at the gate would be delayed due to boarding/deplaning of an adjacent aircraft.

2. Starting at the gate will delay boarding of another aircraft.
The altimeters must be check when and to what tolerance?
The altimeters must be checked prior to each departure against a known elevation to be within 75 feet.

Any error in excess of 75 feet must be logged as a discrepancy in the maintenance logbook.
What is the procedure to conduct an IRS "Rapid Alignment"?
1. Select the IRS "OFF" for 1 second then back to "NAV" within 5 seconds.

2. Select the NAV page 3/3 on the FMS.

3. Press"UPDATE SENS" (R4)

The IRS is ready for use when "IRS NAV" is displayed on the FMS Data page 2/4.
What restriction applies while aligning the IRS?
The aircraft must remain stationary!
At what times is a "position update" required to be conducted on the IRS?
No longer required until further notice!
How early should the "Before Start" checklist be called for?
At least 10 minutes prior to "scheduled departure" to ensure an "on time" departure.
What must be accomplished if the "Internal Bag Door" key is found missing?
No maintenance write up is required. The flight attendants have procedures in place to replace missing keys.
At what time is it required to charge the batteries prior to engine start?
Anytime that the battery load on any of the three (3) batteries "exceeds .40".
What is the procedure for charging the batteries?
1. Select the RECIRC Fan "OFF".
2. Select the "Battery Master" and the "Main Bat" to "ON" - all others to "OFF".
- Allow the Main Battery to charge until the load reads below .40, then ...
3. Select the "AUX Battery" to "ON".
- Allow the Aux Battery to charge until the load reads below .40, then ...
4.Select the "STBY Battery" to "ON".
- Allow the Stby Battery to charge until the load reads below .40

NOTE: Monitor the APU generator load to ensure it does not exceed 1.00 on the Electrical Systems page.
At what time is it permissible to "delete" the "End of Approach: (EOA) from the FMS?
We are no longer required to delete the "EOA" on an ILS approach!

The FMS has been updated to automatically sequence following an ILS approach!
What is the recommended range to have the TCAS selected to for departure?
10 NM

This will reduce TCAS "clutter" on the screen.
What is the recommended range to have the radar selected during departure?
20 to 40 NM range for radar depiction of weather.
Between what range should the "hydraulic pressure" read?
Between 2,600 PSI to 3,200 PSI
At what times should "Reduced Takeoff Torque" (RDC TOP) be used for takeoff?
Reduced Torque Takeoffs are no longer approved!

NTOP is now used for all takeoffs unless performance requires MTOP power!
At what times is it "not allowed" to use "Reduced Takeoff Torque" (RDC TOP) for takeoff?
1. First flight of the day.

2. Contaminated runways.

3. Icing conditions below 1,000 feet AGL.
At what times should "Normal Takeoff Power" (NTOP) be used?
We always use NTOP power for takeoff now!

NTOP Power should be used for all takeoffs unless performance requires the use of MTOP Power!

Always use NTOP Power when:

1. First flight of the day.

2. "Reduced Takeoff Power" is not allowed per the aircraft's performance.

3. The actual takeoff weight exceeds the "Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight" for RDC TOP.
At what times should "Maximum Takeoff Power" (MTOP) be used?
1. MTOP performance is provided.

2. The actual takeoff weight exceeds the "Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight" for NTOP.
If a change is made to the flight plan while taxiing out, what must be accomplished "prior" to briefing the change?
The aircraft must be stopped with the parking brake set.
Following the flight plan briefing what must the captain state prior to "cross filling" the flight plan?
"FLIGHT PLAN VERIFIED" and then cross fill the flight plan to the captain's side.
During the departure briefing, use of the FMS is called _____ needles and use of a ground based nav is call _____ needles.
FMS: Magenta Needles

Ground based Nav: Blue Needles
Is it permissible to start the aircraft engines without having the headsets on for communication?
No .. Both pilots must have on their headsets prior to engine start!
Normally the ____ engine is started first!
Right engine
Is there a "tailwind limitation" for starting the engines?
No
If exhaust fumes are a concern entering the cabin following engine start with a tailwind, what procedure should be accomplished?
Delay turning on the engine bleeds following engine start.
How does the first officer check the "HYD #3 ISOL VALVE" during the Before Start Checklist?
1. Press the "HYD #3 ISOL VALVE" switchlight "IN".
2. Confirm the pressure reads between 2600 - 3200 psi.
3. Press the "HYD #3 ISOL VALVE" switchlight back "OUT"

Note: The "Automatic" function of the ISOL Valve will "OPEN" during engine start with the "Parking Brake OFF".
What must be accomplished prior to starting an engine?
Clear the propellers.

The first officer or captain states "CLEAR".
What is the procedure for starting the aircraft engines?
1. Select the APU Bleed Air to "OFF".

NOTE: "BLEED" annuciator does not have to be extinguished prior to starting engine!

2. Select the Recir Fan to "OFF".

3. Position the Start Select switch to the desired engine to be started.

- Verify the "SELECT" light illuminates.
- Clear the propeller and state: "STARTING ONE/TWO".

4. Press the "START" pushbutton momentarily.

- verify the "START" light illuminates.

5. When Nh rotation is first observed, move the Condition Lever to "Start and Feather" position.

- After the start select switch "resets" the first officer will select the bleeds back to "ON" and the "Recirc Fan" to "ON" (unless the second engine is to be started).
If an engine needs to be started for heating or cooling purposes prior to boarding passengers, may it be started before reading the "Before Start Checklist"?
Yes ... The #2 engine may be started prior to reading the checklist.

Ensure that the required items are accomplished which are listed in the FSM 3.5.7
Following the initiation of the first engines start, at what time may the second engine be started?
Following the Start Select switch resetting!

Wait until the "START" segment goes out (up to 15 seconds) prior to starting the second engine or you will not have fault protection!

Ensure that the "Main Battery" load is below .40!

"Bleed Air" annunciation does not have to be extinguished on the APU Control Panel, however the bleed air switch must be selected to off!
At what times will FADEC "automatically" abort the engine start sequence?
1. ITT exceeds 920 degrees C.

2. Engine "light off" has not occurred within 16 seconds of moving the Condition Lever to the "Start and Feather" position.

3. NH has not reached 64% within 70 seconds of moving the Condition Lever to the"Start and Feather" position.

NOTE:
Fadec does not monitor the "oil pressure" during the start!
At what times is a "manual" abort required during the engine start sequence?
1. ITT approaches 920 degrees C.

2. Oil pressure has not reached 44 PSI by "Start Select" reset.

3. The Nh is not in the "green arc" within 70 seconds of selecting the Condition Lever to "Start and Feather" position.
Is it normal for the Engine Start "SELECT" light to remain on following engine start?
Yes

The engine start "SELECT" light will remain illuminated for 15 seconds after the start select switch resets.
What duties does the pilot monitoring the engine start perform?
1. Observes the ground personnel and equipment for abnormal conditions which may require an engine shutdown.

2. Verifies that the oil pressure reaches 44 PSI and the "OIL PRESS" warning light extinguishes.

3. Verifies that the "ENG FUEL PRESS" and the "ENG HYD PUMP" caution lights extinguish.

REMEMBER:

Check these caution/warning panel lights:

1. OIL PRESS
2. ENG FUEL PRESS
3. ENG HYD PUMP
At what time is the Engine Bleed Air switches selected "ON" after start?
The respective engine bleed air switch is selected to "ON" following each individual engines start.
At what time is the "RECIRC Fan" selected to "ON" following engine start?
Only when both engines have been started and the start select switch has reset.
At what time is it permitted to move the Condition Levers out of the "Start and Feather" position following pushback?
Only after the tug has been removed from the aircraft and the aircraft's parking brake is set!

Note: The aircraft could lunge forward otherwise!
At what time is it permissible to start the "After Start" flows if the ramp is slippery?
Only after the tug is removed from the aircraft and ground personnel is clear!
How long can it take for the propellers to come out of feather?
Up to 30 seconds!
What is the normal time that the HGS combiner is lowered into position?
Following the "After Start" checklist and prior to taxi.

This allows you to use the ground speed indication for taxi speed reference.
Is it permissible to "Clear" the HGS symbology during taxi out?
Yes

If the symbology restricts your view it may be cleared!
If during the taxi-out the first officer's control check does not show full deflection on the roll spoilers, what can be accomplished?
Select the "FLT/TAXI" switch to the flight position and retest the controls.

Note: The roll spoilers are limited by aileron travel.
At what times is it required to have the "Bleed Air" control selected to the "MIN" position?
For all "ground operations" to avoid receiving a "Bleed Hot" caution message during takeoff.

Bleed air "MIN" selection is verified by the "BLEED" annunciation on the Engine Display being a white color.
What must be checked prior to turning on any ice protection equipment?
The "AC GEN" caution light must be extinguished!
Following "ARMING" the nosewheel steering system, how long must be given prior to moving the tiller?
8 seconds

Moving the tiller prior to 8 seconds may cause the "NOSE STEERING" caution to illuminate!
Is it permissible to begin your taxi with the "Nose Steer Fail" caution illuminated after pushback?
No ... You may only taxi the aircraft if the steering fails after landing.
Is it permissible to taxi the aircraft with the "NOSE STEERING" caution illuminated after landing?
Yes

If the aircraft can be safely maneuvered to the gate using differential power and braking.
During taxi out the "De-Ice Pressure" gauge should be verified to be between what values?
18 PSI (+/- 3 PSI)
Is it permitted to conduct a "Single-Engine" taxi?
No ... Both engines must be running with the propellers out of feather.
At what time is it permissible to "not use" the headset during pushback?
1. When the interphone system is inoperative and "on MEL".

2. When thunderstorms are reported within 5 nm.

Note:
It is required to use the headsets for push back when the ATIS indicates"Low Visibility Operations Are In Effect".
All taxiing must be accomplished with ____ engines running and the propellers ____.
Both engines running

Propellers "out of feather".
How much steering deflection of the nosewheel is provided with:
Rudder pedals / Tiller / Free Castor?
Rudder Pedals:
+/- 8 degrees

Tiller
Powered Steering: +/- 70 degrees
Free Castor: +/- 120 degrees
At what time is it permitted to use reverse thrust during pushback?
Never!
What is the maximum groundspeed allowed during taxi?
Normal Braking: 25 kts

Poor Braking/Contamination: 10 kts
Where can the taxi speed be referenced during taxi out?
HGS
FMS's
MFD's
At what times is the nosewheel required to remain on the center line during taxi?
1. During Low Visibility takeoffs ... to ensure the runway light sensors are triggered.
2. When parking at the gate and following "J" lines.
Lead in lines should be followed onto the runway except under what conditions?
The takeoff report shows that performance is either limited by "Obstacle" (O) or "Field Length" (F).

A 90 degree turn is then authorized onto the runway.
Why are you limited to 10 kts taxi speed when operating on contaminated surfaces?
Speeds in excess of 10 kts can cause slush and wet snow to contaminate the nosewheel well.
At what time is it not authorized to apply brakes during taxi?
With the Power Levers out of "DISC".
What must the Pilot Monitoring "verify" during the takeoff roll?
1. The Roll Spoilers show retracted.

2. "A/F ARM" advisory is displayed on the Engine Display.
What is the "maximum" pitch attitude allowed during initial rotation?
8 degrees nose up

Pitch angles in excess of 8 degrees may cause a tail strike!
After the "initial rotation", at what time would it be permissible to exceed 8 degrees pitch up attitude?
When required for "obstacle clearance".
If a "Bleeds Off" takeoff is accomplished, at what altitude does the pilot monitoring select the bleeds back to "ON"?
Climbing through 400 feet agl.
What power setting is required to be used for the "first flight of the day"?
Normal Takeoff Power (NTOP)

Used to verify engine performance.
Is it recommended to use "intersection" departures?
Yes ...
1. Anytime that performance data is available for the intersection!
2. The approach end of the runway is clearly visible.
What is required to be called for in the event of a vertical or lateral change in the flight plan prior to takeoff?
Call for the "Departure Review Items".

They are noted with a "D" on the Before Start Checklist and printed in Bold.
What is the maximum crosswind allowed for takeoff?
32 kts
What is the maximum tailwind allowed for takeoff?
20 kts

Tailwinds of 11 to 20 kts require special procedures to be used!
What procedure should be used when taking off in wet snow or slush?
1. Advance the Power Levers more rapidly so that you can accelerate through 40 kts as soon as possible to avoid contamination in the wheel well.

2. Delay gear retraction to allow time for the slush to blow off the gear.

3. At the captain's discretion, you may cycle the gear "once" following takeoff to assist in removing any contamination.
What is the minimum oil temperature allowed for takeoff while in "icing conditions"?
55 degrees C
What procedure must be accomplished prior to taking off in icing conditions below 1,000 feet if the oil temperature is below 55 degrees?
1. Request a short delay on the runway from ATC.
2. Line up on the runway and "set the parking brake".
3. Run-up the engines to 20% to 40% torque until the engine oil temperature reaches 55 degrees C.
4. Reduce the power to idle and remove the parking brake.
What is the minimum oil temperature allowed for takeoff "without icing"?
0 degrees C.
What is the lowest altitude that the "autopilot" may be engaged following takeoff?
1,000 feet AGL
What is the "minimum" climb speed allowed at all times?
Vse (OPEN BUG)
"or"
175 kts in icing conditions
There are two (2) different "climb profiles", what are they?
Type I Climb (normal):
200 kts to 2,500 feet AGL.
240 kts to 10,000 feet MSL then 5-6 degree pitch.

Type II Climb:
185 kts to FL250, or until no longer required.
What is the maximum deck angle allowed during climb out?
Do not exceed 7 degrees pitch unless required by ATC.
Advice the flight attendants to delay service if a steeper climb is required. The galley cart brakes are only certified to 7.5 degrees pitch!
What are the three (3) different "cruise profiles"?
Cruise - MCR (Maximum Cruise Rating) / Detent Power

Cruise - HSC (High Speed Cruise) / Designated IAS

Cruise - CI (Cost Index Cruise) / Designated IAS
At what times should the "Cost Index" cruise tables be referenced on the TLR portion of the takeoff data?
1. Anytime that the "flight planned" altitude or route is not flown.

2. When the actual winds at altitude is more than 25 kts different than that indicated on the planned data.

3. The tables may also be referenced to determine the best Cost Index "cruise speed" when the actual takeoff weight is 2,000 lbs or more from Planned Takeoff Weight (PTW).
At what time is the cruise power set?
Once the target airspeed has been reached following "level off".

"or"

Vmo - 10 kts (whichever occurs first).
What landing minimums does the Q-400 utilize?
Category "C" landing minimums.
When using the FMS, at what time is "temperature compensation" required for adjusting approach altitudes?
Anytime that the arrival airports surface temperature is 0 degrees C or below!
Where can the "altitude compensation" charts be found?
In the "Flight Operations Manual".
What will occur if a GNSS sensor has de-selected during an approach?
The associated FMS will not transition into "approach scaling".
When conducting an "FMS Approach" what must both pilots verify prior to conducting the approach?
Both pilots must verify correct "GNSS sensor" operation!
What is the preferred method for determining the "Top of Descent"?
The FMS VNav.
What is the "Optimum" descent rate?
2,000 FPM
What is the maximum recommended descent rate allowed for the passenger and flight attendants comfort?
2,500 FPM
If VNav is not available, how should descent planning be accomplished?
Use the 3 to 1 descent profile!
When using the 3 to 1 descent profile, what is the minimum descent rate which should be used?
The descent rate is based on the aircraft's ground speed.

Use 5 times the aircraft's ground speed!

400 kt ground speed = 2,000 fpm descent rate!
At what time should the "Descent Checklist" be called for?
At top of descent!
What configuration is required when "holding" in the Q-400?
Gear Up
Flaps Up
Speed = 200 kts
Is it permissible to delete the "EOA" from any approach loaded into the FMS?
NO .. Do not remove the EOA from any approach!
At what time should the "approach chime" be given to the flight attendants?
When the approach checklist is called for at 10,000' AFE.

No later than:

5 minutes to landing "or" descending through 5,000 feet msl, whichever occurs first.
What restriction is there if the QRH is missing from the aircraft?
The QRH is not required to be on the aircraft!
The QRH is now found on the I-Pad!
If the QRH is not available then RNP approaches are not allowed!
What is the "maximum airspeed" allowed to intercept the "Final Approach Course" when conducting a procedure turn or flying an arc?
200 kts
At what times are deviations from standard approach profiles "not authorized"?
1. Timed Approach

2. Single engine operations
What are the "minimum speeds" during an approach?
Flaps 0 degrees: 180 kts

Flaps 5 degrees: 160 kts

Flaps 10 degrees: 150 kts

Note:
These speeds will allow for an adequate maneuvering margin for up to a 30 degree bank angle up to the "Maximum Landing Weight".
What is required to be called for if a change in the arrival or approach occurs following the approach briefing?
Call for the "Approach Review Items".

They are annotated with the letter "A" in bold print on both the Descent and Approach Checklists.
During the Approach Review, where is the appropriate approach verified from?
From the "Flight Plan Clearance Page" of the FMS.
The "standard" landing is conducted in what configuration?
Flaps 35 degrees

Open Bug
At what times is it permissible to conduct a flaps 15 degree landing?
1. AIII approach

2. Single Engine Approach

3. PRM Approach

4. To meet landing performance limitations.
What is the maximum tailwind allowed when conducting a flaps 15 degree landing?
10 kts

The captain should use the HGS for landing!
What restrictions apply when conducting a "Flaps 15 degree" landing?
1. The captain must fly all approaches with the flaps 15 degrees.

2. HGS is required if available.

3. The tailwind is limited to 10 kts.
At what time must the flying pilot determine whether to use the "open bug" or "closed bug" for landing?
Prior to 1,000 feet agl during landing!

Landings are assumed to use the "open bug" unless briefed otherwise.
At what time would the "Open Bug" be used for landing?
Normal landing with "no icing" or contamination on the wings.

- "REF SPEEDS SWITCH" selected to the "OFF" position.
The "Open Bug" provides what margin of safety above the stall speed?
23% for wind gusts up to 10 kts.
At what times is the "Solid Bug" used for landing?
1. Contaminated wings or icing conditions.

2. Suspected windshear or wind gusts exceeding 10 kts.

3. When bank angles in excess of 15 degrees is required.
If prior to 1,000 feet agl the pilots notice that icing is occurring on the aircraft, what must be stated?
"LEFT/RIGHT WING CONTAMINATED - REF SPEEDS INCREASE"
"or"
"LEFT/RIGHT WING CLEAN - REF SPEEDS
OFF"
At what time during an approach must the airspeed be stabilized?
At 500 feet AFE
What is the correct procedure to discontinue a FMS based approach "Prior to" the MAP?
Follow the lateral track as follows:

- Press "ALT" to maintain current altitude.
- If a climb is necessary use "pitch" or "IAS" mode.
- Follow the lateral track until the EOA is the "NX" waypoint before pressing the GA button.
What is the maximum OAT allowed for landing with the "Bleeds ON"?
39 degrees C / 100 degrees F
If the bleeds need to be "OFF" for landing at what time are they selected to the "OFF" position?
Only when within 1,000' AGL!
What is the "normal" pitch that is used during the flare?
2 degrees nose up attitude.

Reduce torque approximately 2 percent.
What is the "maximum" pitch that is allowed during the flare?
6 degrees nose up attitude.
Is it permissible to "chop" the power during the flare?
No

Only reduce the torque by about 2% during the flare.
At what times would it be required to hold power all the way to touchdown?
When landing at field elevations of 5,000' or more.

If power is reduced prior to touchdown the aircraft's descent rate may become excessive!
At what time may a tail strike occur during the landing flare?
At pitch attitudes above 6 degrees!
During the flare if an excessive pitch attitude develops what must the pilot monitoring state?
At 5 degrees Pitch:
"FIVE DEGREES" / No response required!

At 6 degrees Pitch:
"SIX DEGREES" / FP states "CORRECTING"
During the approach if an excessive "sink rate" develops what must the pilot monitoring state?
"SINK RATE"
When decelerating following landing at what time is control of the aircraft returned to the captain?
Below 60 kts.

The Pilot Monitoring calls "SIXTY" during the landing roll.
What is the "Bounced Landing Recovery" procedure?
Low Bounce or Skip:

- Do not attempt to transfer control of the aircraft!
- Advance the power levers slightly to avoid a tail strike.
- Lower the nose to a 1 degree or 2 degree nose up attitude.

High Bounce:

- Do not attempt to transfer control of the aircraft!
- Execute a "Missed Approach"!
Landing performance data is based on what conditions?
1. Crossing the end of the runway at 50' and Vref.
2. Power is reduced to "Idle" at touchdown.
3. Nosewheel contact with the runway within 2 seconds of touchdown.
4. Power Levers moved to "DISC" within 3 seconds of touchdown.
Is the use of reverse thrust ever factored into the performance data?
No

The use of reverse thrust will reduce the landing performance below what the performance data indicates!
Is it recommended to apply "forward pressure" to the control column following landing?
No

Applying forward pressure will cause excessive nose wheel stress.

Applying forward pressure will also cause an "uplift" on the main gear and reduce braking effectiveness!
What is the maximum ground speed allowed when on the runway?
Good Braking / Good Visibility:
60 kts

Less than good braking "OR" visibility less than 1,000 feet:
25 KTS

Within 1,000 feet of the runway end:
25 KTS
Is reverse thrust used for "Normal" operations?
No
At what times is it "recommended" to use reverse thrust on landing?
1. The braking action is poor.

2. The anti-skid system engages due to reduced braking action.

3. When the available runway length is close to that which is required.
If reverse thrust is used on landing, at what time must the Power Levers be brought back to "DISC"?
Below 60 kts.
What is the procedure to make an "Emergency Stop"?
1. Use maximum reverse power.

2. Use maximum braking.

3. Maintain a constant pressure on the brakes and allow the anti-skid system modulate brake pressure.
What is the maximum taxi speed allowed when taxing on a contaminated runway?
10 kts
Is it permissible to stow the combiner following landing?
Yes ... The combiner may be "cleared" using the clear button on the HCP control panel if required.

The combiner may only be stowed when the aircraft is stopped with the "Parking Brake Set"either following landing or at the gate!

Use both hands to stow the combiner to prevent damage!
What procedure should be used prior to taxiing into the parking spot when the ramp and taxiways are slippery?
- Periodically test the braking action while taxiing.

- If braking is compromised, stop the aircraft at least 15 feet from the parking spot and well clear of personnel and equipment.

- Set the parking brake!

- Feather one propeller. If the aircraft slides during feather, do not taxi into the parking spot! Have the aircraft towed to spot or deplane where it currently is.
When parking at the gate what should be accomplished to prevent "prop blast"?
Advance the power levers slightly to reduce the prop blast to the ground personnel during the 30 second cool down period.
How long must be given for the engines to "cool down" prior to engine shutdown at the gate?
30 seconds after feathering the propellers.
Is it permissible to feather a propeller "prior to" parking at the gate?
No

Do not feather the propellers until "at the gate"!
At what time should the APU be started when parked at the gate?
Only when:

- Bleed air is required for passenger comfort.

- No ground power is available.

- The aircraft is stopped with the parking brake set.
What restriction applies when terminating the aircraft with regards to turning the "Battery Master" off?
Do not turn off the battery master until the "Main and Standby" hydraulic system pressures indicate near zero.

This will prevent the gear doors from cycling!
At what time may the APU be left "ON" while unattended?
1. No passengers are on board.

2. The ground duration is less than 1 hour.

3. Overwing fueling is not conducted!

NOTE:
All batteries must remain "ON".
The APU generator must be "operating".
The external power switch must be "OFF".
What is the procedure for shutting down the IRS?
- Wait at least 3 minutes following setting the parking brake prior to turning off the IRS.

- Wait at least 20 seconds after turning off the IRS prior to turning off the FMS.

- Wait at least 30 seconds after turning off the IRS before selecting the batteries off.
Why are the battery switches selected to the "OFF" position with external power applied to the aircraft?
It prevents the external power cart from drawing down the batteries.
Is it permissible to leave the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) "ON" when powering down the aircraft?
No

It will drain the internal batteries in the EFB.
The "Power Down Checklist" should be completed when?
1. Aircraft is on the ground for over 1 hour.

2. Final flight of the day and servicing will not be accomplished on the aircraft.

3. Whenever deemed appropriate by the captain.
At what time is the "Terminating Checklist" required?
1. Final Flight of the Day.

2. Aircraft is on the ground for over 1 hour.

3. When leaving the aircraft and the new crew has not arrived.

4. At any time deemed appropriate by the captain.
When would the external power switch normally be left "ON" during RONs?
When the outside air temperature is 0 degrees C or less.

This helps keep the electronic components warm.
When are the "Daily System Checks" required to be completed?
At least once each calendar day.

In order of preference:

1. If there is "no record" of the daily checks being completed on the "previous" day then prior to the next flight.

"or"

2. First arrival at a maintenance base.

"or"

3. Any out station if the aircraft does not pass through a maintenance base.
Does activation of the aircraft's de-ice system while inflight satisfy the requirement for the "Ice Protection Check"?
Yes
If the "Daily Systems Checks" are conducted prior to departure, what restriction applies?
They must be completed prior to the "Before Start Checklist".
If the "Daily Systems Checks" are conducted after arrival, what restriction applies?
They must be accomplished after the "Parking Checklist" is completed.
What "Daily System Checks" is the captain responsible for?
1. Stall Warning Check
2. ADC Test
3. VOR Receiver Checks
4. Display Power Cycle
5. Ice Protection System Check
6. Rudder Actuator Check
What "Daily System Checks" is the First Officer responsible for?
1. Engine Fire Detection Test
2. APU Fire Detection Test
3. Baggage Smoke Warning Test
4. APU Control Test
5. Flight Guidance Controller Test
6. Propeller Control / Autofeather Test
7. EGPWS Test
8. TCAS System Test
At what time is it permissible to "stow" the combiner after landing?
Only when the aircraft has come to a complete stop "with the parking brake set"! This can be accomplished either after landing or at the gate. Use both hands to stow the combiner!
What codes should be placed on the "Landing Data Card" for the NP setting?
Reduced Np = "R"
1020 Np = "N"
MTOP (Windshear) = "M"
At what time may "IMC Mode" be used on the HGS Control Panel?
Only for CAT I ILS approaches!

This dampens the localizer and glideslope fluctuations.
At what time is AIII mode required on the HGS?
For all approaches below 1,800 RVR.
At what time is the VNav crossing altitude review "not required"?
When the FMS is used to "backup" a visual approach.
Is it permissible to conduct an instrument approach "without" vertical guidance?
No

All approaches inside the FAF must be conducted using vertical guidance!
The approach plate will have a "runway number" designated in the approach title.
Which circling approaches are approved for use?
Only those circling approaches that are labeled "Horizon Approved"!
If not labeled Horizon Approved the minimum circling minimums is 1,000' / 3 miles.
Why is Vmo speed limited to 245 kts when below 8,000 feet?
For bird strike protection!
How are "Conditional Items" depicted on the Originating checklist?
They are "indented".
When are Conditional Items "not required" to be accomplished on the Originating Checklist?
1. When the aircraft is received from another crew.
2. When re-positioning the aircraft.
If the APU "Bleed" light does not illuminate on the APU Control Panel once selected "ON", what should be checked?
Check that the Engine Bleed switches are selected to "OFF". The APU bleed valve is inhibited "closed" with the engine bleeds selected to "ON".
When are we required to check the NVS system?
On the "Preflight Checklist".
During the Captain's originating flow, what two checklist must be checked for completion?
1. Electrical Power-Up
2. Avionics Power-Up
At what time is the captain required to review the "Maintenance Logbook"?
Anytime that he leaves the vicinity of the aircraft.
"Fit for Duty" signatures must be obtained prior to what point in the flight?
Prior to closing the Main Cabin Door for departure!
Prior to starting the "1st engine", what must be checked?
All three (3) battery loads must be below 40%!
Prior to starting the "2nd engine", what must be checked?
Only the Main battery must be below 40%!
What must be verified prior to selecting the "Bus Tie" to "OFF" and the pitot switches to "ON" following engine start?
You must verify that the "AC GEN" caution lights are extinguished!
How long does it take for the Nose Wheel Steering to activate once selected to ON?
8 seconds
What is the Normal Taxi Speeds?
Normal: 20 to 25 kts
Good Braking: 25 kts
Poor Braking: 10 kts
What should be accomplished if during the Takeoff Configuration check the Takeoff Warning horn sounds but everything appears to be set correctly?
Accomplish the elevator trim test. The pitch trim indicator may be misaligned.
What is the "minimum airspeed" allowed during climb out?
V2 + 10 kts
What is the maximum bank angle allowed following takeoff?
Below V2 + 10 kts = 15 degrees
Above V2 + 10 kts = 30 degrees
What is the maximum airspeed allowed following takeoff prior to retracting the flaps?
180 kts
How is a "Short Field Landing" defined?
Runways with less than 5,000 feet of landing distance available.

The captain should make all "Short Field Landings"!
During a "Visual Approach" what should the HCP glideslope angle be set to?
To the VASI or PAPI glidepath angle.