Fod Bbd-700 Oral Exam Questions And Limitations

Front 1

Airplane General

Back 1

Airplane General

Front 2

What are the model designations for the Global Express?

Back 2

BD-700-1A10 for Global Express and XRS

BD-700-1A11 for Global 5000

Both models are referred to as the BBD-700

Front 3

What is the minimum flight crew required

Back 3

One pilot and one co-pilot

Front 4

What is the Global Express and XRS wingspan, length and tail height?

Back 4

94 feet wingspan

99 feet 5 inch length

Tail approximately 25 feet tall

Front 5

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn with the Global Express and XRS?

Back 5

68 feet

Front 6

What is the maximum ramp / taxi weight?

Back 6

9002, 9027, 9195: 98,250 lbs

9005: 96,250 lbs

9468: 92,750 lbs

Front 7

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

Back 7

9002, 9027, 9195: 98,000 lbs

9005: 96,000 lbs

9468: 92,500 lbs

Front 8

What is the maximum landing weight

Back 8

9002, 9005, 9027, 9195, 9468: 78,600 lbs

Front 9

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

Back 9

56,000 lbs

Front 10

What is the minimum flight weight?

Back 10

48,200 lbs

Front 11

What is the minimum operating weight empty?

Back 11

45,000 lbs

Front 12

What are the Flap "0" load limits?

Back 12

-1 to +2.5 G's

Front 13

What are the load limits with slats/flaps extended?

Back 13

0 to +2 G's

Front 14

What is the Center of Gravity range?

Back 14

20% MAC to 41% MAC

Front 15

What is the minimum / maximum runway slope?

Back 15

plus or minus 2%

Front 16

May operations from unprepared runways be conducted?

Back 16

No

Front 17

What is the normal circling approach configuration and category?

Back 17

Flaps 30 and Vref+10

CAT C minimums

At or above 141 knots, CAT D

Front 18

What is the prioritization of checklist?

Back 18

Memory Items

Emergency checklists (Reds)

Normal checklists (Normals)

Caution (Amber)

Advisory (Cyan)

Front 19

What are the buoyancy limitations for takeoff and landing near water above maximum landing weight?

Back 19

OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed, one air-conditioning pack must be shut down for take-off

Front 20

What is the maximum altitude for take-off and landing?

Back 20

10,000 feet

Front 21

What is the maximum operating altitude?

Back 21

51,000 feet

Front 22

What is the maximum ambient air temperature approved for take-off and landing?

Back 22

+50C

Front 23

What is the minimum ambient temperature approved for take-off?

Back 23

-40C

Front 24

Is take-off with the cowl anti-ice in AUTO mode allowed?

Back 24

No

Front 25

Is take-off with the wing anti-ice system in AUTO allowed?

Back 25

No

Front 26

During ground operations when must cowl anti-ice be ON?

Back 26

OAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one mile) or less, rain, snow and ice crystals). When operating on runways, ramps, or taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present

Front 27

During ground operations when must wing anti-ice be ON?

Back 27

During take-off when the OAT is 5C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one mile) or less, rain, snow and ice crystals). Also when the runway is contaminated with surface snow, slush or standing water.

Front 28

When do icing conditions exist in flight?

Back 28

TAT of 10C or below, and visible moisture in any form is encountered (such as clouds, rain, snow or ice crystals), except when the SAT is -40C or below

Front 29

What is the holding configuration in icing conditions?

Back 29

Do not hold in icing conditions with the slats extended

Front 30

What minimum engine speed should be maintained when operating in icing conditions?

Back 30

When in icing conditions, maintain a minimum engine speed of 76% N2.

Ice shedding

Front 31

What is the maximum tailwind component approved for take-off and landing?

Back 31

10 knots

Front 32

Above what temperature are display units prohibited?

Back 32

Groung operation of the DUs with flight compartment temperatures in excess of 40C, for greater that 30 minutes, is prohibited

Front 33

What is the maximum permitted published glidepath angle for instrument approaches?

Back 33

Flying an approach with a published glidepath angle of 4.5 degrees or greater is prohibited

Front 34

When flying a steep glidepath angle what must be considered?

Back 34

Approaches with published glidepath angles greater that 3.5 degrees must be flown in accordance with Supplement 29 in QRH Vol 1, Approaches With Published Glidepath Angles Greater Than 3.5 Degrees

Front 35

Power Plant

Back 35

Power Plant

Front 36

Which engines are installed on the Global Express?

Back 36

Rolls Royce BD700-710A2-20

Front 37

What is the maximum ITT for ground /air start?

Back 37

Ground: 700C

Air 850C

Front 38

What are the engine idle limitations?

Back 38

Max ITT: 860C

Min N2: 58%

Front 39

What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations?

Back 39

Max ITT: 900C

N2: 99.6%

N1: 102.0%

5 minutes 2 engines, 10 minutes single engine

Front 40

What are the engine max continuous operating limitations?

Back 40

Max ITT: 860C

N2: 98.9%

N1: 102%

Front 41

What is the static ground operation limitation?

Back 41

Steady operation between 66% and 80% N1 prohibited.

Front 42

Do not engage starter if RPM exceeds?

Back 42

N2 - 42%

Front 43

What are the engine start duty cycles?

Back 43

3 min on, 15 sec off

3 min on, 15 sec off

3 min on, 15 min off

Front 44

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?

Back 44

-40C

Front 45

What is the minimum oil temperature before bringing the engine above idle?

Back 45

+20C

Front 46

What is the Max oil temperature?

Back 46

+160C

Front 47

What is the maximum oil consumption rate?

Back 47

.21 US quarts/hour

Front 48

When is oil replenishment prohibited?

Back 48

OAT at or below -12C

Front 49

The autothrottles must be engaged and verified by what KIAS?

Back 49

60 KIAS

Front 50

Use of autothrottle when landing is restricted to what flap setting?

Back 50

Flaps 30 only

Front 51

Engine shutdown required for what minimum oil pressure?

Back 51

25 PSI

Front 52

How much thrust do the engines on the global express supply at sea level?

Back 52

14,750 lbs @ SLV ISA to +20C

Front 53

What is the certificated dB noise lever for Flyover, Lateral, and Approach

Back 53

Flyover 89.0 dB

Lateral 94.7 dB

Approach 98.7 dB

Front 54

Where is bleed air extracted from the engines?

Back 54

5th stage low-pressure or 8th stage high-pressure compression

Front 55

Bleed air extracting is used for?

Back 55

Air conditioning

Pressurization

Cowl and wing anti-ice

Engine starts

Front 56

How is thrust management controlled throughout all phases of flight?

Back 56

Full authority engine control (FADEC)

An electronic engine controller (EEC) is a major component of the FADEC

Front 57

Describe the 2 main engine rotating assemblies

Back 57

Single-stage LP fan driven by a two-stage turbine

Ten-stage HP compressor driven by a two-stage turbine

Front 58

How is the engine protected from overspeed?

Back 58

By closing the fuel high pressure SOV when the EEC recognizes N1 or N2 overspeed value

Front 59

How is the FADEC normally powered during engine operation?

Back 59

via the dedicated generator on the accessory gearbox

Front 60

How is interturbine temperature (ITT) measured?

Back 60

N1 - near the LP compressor shaft

N2 - front of the accessory gear box

Front 61

How is engine oil cooled?

Back 61

Fuel cooled oil cooler

Front 62

What is the total engine oil quantity?

Back 62

12.8 US quarts max

10.62 minimum for greater than a 3 hour flight

Typically fill to 11.0 US quarts via oil replenishment system

Note: engines run best at 10.2

Front 63

What is the capacity of the oil replenishment tank?

Back 63

6 quarts

Front 64

Selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF closes which fuel shutoff valve?

Back 64

High-pressure shutoff valve within the fuel metering unit

Front 65

When is high idle commanded by the EEC?

Back 65

Airplane is in the approach configuration

Front 66

How is EPR calculated?

Back 66

Ratio of engine inlet total pressure (TAT probe) and Engine exhaust total pressure

Front 67

When should "Rotorbow" dry cranking be expected during automatic starts?

Back 67

Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of previous engine shutdown

Front 68

What are the two auto start - air envelopes and associated airspeeds?

Back 68

ATS ENVELOPE <249 knots

WINDMILL ENVELOPE >250 knots

Front 69

When will the automatic ground engine start abort?

Back 69

-ENG RUN switch to OFF

-N2 speed not 15% within 120 seconds

-Idle speed not achieved within 120 seconds

-Starter cutout not reached within starter duty limit 3 minutes

-ITT exceeding start limit 700C

Front 70

What are the ground external air pressure requirements for start?

Back 70

40 psi desired

Front 71

For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours, the oil system must be verified?

Back 71

Full before flight

Greater than 10.62 US quarts

Front 72

When must oil replenishment be conducted?

Back 72

ENG: From 5 minutes to 30 minutes after shutdown

APU: From 15 minutes after shutdown

Front 73

How long should the engine stabilize in idle before selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF on the shutdown checklist?

Back 73

3 minutes

Front 74

What is the maximum engine relight altitude

Back 74

30,000 feet

Front 75

What is the maximum engine start wind speed and direction?

Back 75

Engine starts are not permitted when the tailwind component exceeds 20 knots

Anytime there is an external or EICAS indication of N1 rotation due to tailwinds, the engine must be cranked for 30 seconds and must be followed by an immediately by an AUTO start

Front 76

What limitation exists when winds exceed 20 knots?

Back 76

do not exceed the minimum thrust required for taxi when winds exceed 20 knots. Do not exceed 66% N1 below 30 KIAS

Front 77

Thrust Reversers

Back 77

Thrust Reversers

Front 78

What is maximum reverse thrust?

Back 78

70% N1 (EEC controlled) for 30 seconds

Front 79

Name three thrust reverser limitations

Back 79

1. Must not be selected in flight

2. Must not be used for touch and go's

3. May not back up the airplane

Front 80

How are the thrust reversers controlled and powered?

Back 80

Controlled by the EEC

Powered by the respective engine hydraulic system 1A or 2A

Front 81

What will occur if a thrust reverser becomes unlocked?

Back 81

L(R) REVERSER UNLKD Red CAS Message

Front 82

Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

Back 82

Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

Front 83

What is the APU type?

Back 83

RE220

Front 84

What is the maximum APU RPM?

Back 84

106%

Front 85

What is the maximum altitude for APU operations?

Back 85

45,000 feet

Front 86

Minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU?

Back 86

-40C

Front 87

How many start attempts are permitted on the APU?

Back 87

3 per hour, 1 minute between starts

Front 88

What is the maximum starting altitude for the APU?

Back 88

37,000 feet

Front 89

What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU?

Back 89

30,000 feet

Front 90

What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning operations?

Back 90

less than 45C

Front 91

What is the maximum load rating for the APU?

Back 91

40KVA

Front 92

What is the associated limit if the APU is powering an AC Bus above 37,000 feet?

Back 92

The associated hydraulic pump (1B, 2B, 3B, 3A) must be selected OFF

Front 93

How is the APU controlled by the FADEC to ensure priority for electrical loads?

Back 93

Cycling the Load Control Valve (LPV)

Front 94

When does the APU door position appear on the STAT page?

Back 94

In conjunction with an APU DOOR FAIL caution CAS message

Front 95

When is it recommended to top up the APU oil reservoir?

Back 95

STAT page indication shows less than 4.5 quarts

Front 96

What will occur if the APU run switch is selected to the "RUN" position prior to the 60 second cooldown period?

Back 96

The APU returns to 100% and continues normal operation

Front 97

When is manual operation of the APU LCV not possible?

Back 97

Anti-ice is active

Left ENG pressure regulating valve is manually opened

Right Eng pressure regulating valve and crossbleed valve are manually opened

Front 98

How is the APU controlled by the FADEC to ensure priority for electrical loads?

Back 98

Cycling the Load Control Valve (LPV)

Front 99

How is the emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished?

Back 99

- BATT MASTER switch selected OFF with no AC power on

- APU fire DISCH handle pulled

- APU SHUTOFF button (service panel)

- APU compartment SHUTDOWN button

Front 100

When does the APU automatically shutdown in flight only?

Back 100

- FADEC failure or DC power loss

- Inlet door uncommanded position

- Loss of overspeed protection

- Overspeed 106%

- EGT over-temperature

- Loss of speed signals

- Slow start, no crank, no acceleration

Front 101

FIRE PROTECTION

Back 101

FIRE PROTECTION

Front 102

Where are the engine fire detection sensing elements located?

Back 102

Accessory gear box

Engine core

Fixed cowl

Front 103

What extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles?

Back 103

Halon

Front 104

What five events occur when the ENG FIRE DISCH handle is pulled?

Back 104

1. Fuel SOV closes

2. Hydraulic SOV closes

3. Bleed air SOV closes (PRV and HPV close)

4. AC VFGs taken off line

5. Fire bottles armed

Front 105

What happens when the APU DISCH is pulled?

Back 105

1. Fuel SOV closes

2. Ignition shut off

3. Pneumatics shut off

4. APU electrics isolated

5. Fire bottles armed

Front 106

Does pulling the fire DISCH command an immediate engine shutdown?

Back 106

No

note: immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch

Front 107

If an APU fire is detected on the ground, what will the FADEC command?

Back 107

After 5 seconds the FADEC will command automatic shutdown of the APU

Front 108

Where are the smoke detectors installed on "green" configuration aircraft?

Back 108

Forward avionics bay

Aft avionics bay

Baggage compartment

Avionics rack (5000 only)

Front 109

How is fire suppression for the baggage compartment, lavatories and cabin closets provided?

Back 109

Portable fire extinguishers

Front 110

HYDRAULICS

Back 110

HYDRAULICS

Front 111

Which pumps supply normal hydraulic power to the Hydraulic system?

Back 111

Systems 1 and 2

Pumps 1A and 2A

Front 112

What is normal hydraulic operating pressure?

Back 112

3,000 PSI

Front 113

What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Global Express?

Back 113

SKYDROL LD-4 & HYJET IV-4

Front 114

What is the priority for ACMP pumps?

Back 114

3A - 3B - 2B - 1B

Front 115

When the ACMP switch is set to AUTO, when will the 1B and 2B pumps start?

Back 115

Alternating Current Motor Pumps (ACMP) are 1B and 2B

AUTO position: the electrical logic is determined by the ACPC, the pump starts automatically when:

- Either slats or flaps not IN/0 position

- System low pressure detected in flight

Front 116

How long will the hydraulic "B" pumps operate once activated?

Back 116

Will remain energized by the ACPC for 5 minutes

Front 117

What is normal hydraulic system 2 accumulator pressure?

Back 117

500 PSI

Front 118

How are the EDP HYD SOVs closed?

Back 118

Selecting the HYD SOV switch "closed"

Pulling the fire DISCH handle

Front 119

What are the electricity driven pumps and associated AC buses?

Back 119

1B - AC Bus 3

2B - AC Bus 2

3B - AC Bus 1

3A - AC Bus 4

Front 120

What hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?

Back 120

System 3

Front 121

What is normal hydraulic system 3 RAT accumulator pressure?

Back 121

1,000PSI

Front 122

What is normal hydraulic system 3 brake accumulator pressure?

Back 122

500PSI

Front 123

How is hydraulic case drain fluid cooled prior to returning to the applicable reservoir?

Back 123

Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks

Left wing - systems 1 and 3

Right wing - system 2

Front 124

What hydraulic pumps are available / operating during single generator operations in flight?

Back 124

Engine Pumps 1A and 2A

AC Pumps 3A and 3B

Front 125

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

Back 125

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

Front 126

What types of brakes are used on the Global Express?

Back 126

Carbon disc brakes

Front 127

How are the main wheel brakes powered and actuated?

Back 127

Hydraulically powered

Electrically actuated via brake and wire system

Front 128

How is weight on wheels (WOW) sensing accomplished?

Back 128

Via two proximity sensors on each gear assembly

Front 129

How is normal extension and retraction of the landing gear controlled?

Back 129

Electrically controlled by the landing gear electronic control unit (LGECU)

Front 130

Which hydraulic systems operate the landing gear?

Back 130

Hydraulic systems 2 and 3

Front 131

How are the main gear inboard doors operated?

Back 131

Hydraulically by system 3

Front 132

How is excessive air pressure due to hear buildup in the main wheel/tire assembly released?

Back 132

Four heat sensitive fuseplugs

Front 133

How is main landing gear overheat detected in the gear bays?

Back 133

Single-loop heat sensing elements

Front 134

How are the nose gear and forward doors normally actuated?

Back 134

Hydraulically by system 3

Front 135

When is the "Too Low Gear" aural warning sounded?

Back 135

Any landing gear is not down and locked, and

Radio altimeter less than 500 feet AGL

Front 136

What is the maximum operating speed for extending / retracting the landing gear?

Back 136

200 KIAS

Front 137

What is the maximum airspeed with landing gear extended?

Back 137

250 KIAS / .70 Mach

Front 138

What is the maximum operating altitude with the lading gear extended?

Back 138

20,000 feet

Front 139

After "manual" landing gear extension, which gear doors caution message are displayed?

Back 139

L-R MAIN GEAR DOOR

NOSE DOOR

Front 140

What will be the NWS operation mode after "manual" gear extension?

Back 140

Free caster mode

Front 141

How is the NWS controlled and actuated?

Back 141

Electrically controlled

Hydraulically actuated (system 3)

Front 142

What are the NWS limits for the Tiller and Rudder?

Back 142

Tiller +/- 75 degrees

Rudder +/- 7.5 degrees

Note: NWS inputs are summed

Front 143

What is recommended for all towing operations?

Back 143

Disconnect the NWS torque link

Front 144

When is towbarless towing prohibited?

Back 144

Unless the operation is performed in compliance with the Airplane Maintenance Manual towbarless towing requirements. Minimum wing fuel 10,000 lbs

Front 145

May the aircraft be towed when gear pins are not installed?

Back 145

Yes provided aircraft power is on and Hydraulic 3A pump is on.

Front 146

What is the tire limit speed

Back 146

The tire limit speed is 183 knots ground speed

Front 147

After landing what is the minimum about of time before a takeoff can be made?

Back 147

15 minutes

Front 148

How are the brake wear indicator pins normally checked?

Back 148

Parking brake applied

Hydraulic system 3 pressurized

Front 149

Which hydraulic system operate the brake system?

Back 149

Hydraulic system 2 (outboard brakes)

Hydraulic system 3 (inboard brakes)

Front 150

How is the PARK/EMER BRAKE actuated?

Back 150

Mechanical linkages transfer manual inputs to the parking brake valve

Front 151

Under what conditions will the autobrake apply?

Back 151

Autobrake either LOW, MED, or HI

Both MLG indicate WOW

Ground spoilers are commanded to deploy

Front 152

How is the BRAKE OVHT warning message cancelled?

Back 152

By momentarily Pressing the BTMS OVHT WARNING RESET

Note: Provided the overhear conditions no longer exist

Front 153

FUEL SYSTEM

Back 153

FUEL SYSTEM

Front 154

What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance for on ground and during takeoff and landing?

Back 154

1,100 lbs < 19,450 fuel tank load

600 lbs > 20,250 fuel tank load

Front 155

What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during flight?

Back 155

1,100 lbs

Front 156

What is the maximum permissible fuel load for the Global Express fuel tanks (pressure refueling)?

Back 156

9002, 9005, 9027

Wing - 15,050 lbs per wing tank

Center 12,700 lbs

Aft Aux 2,300 lbs

Total load 43,550 lbs

Front 157

What is the maximum permissible fuel load for the Global Express XRS fuel tanks (pressure refueling)?

Back 157

9195

Wing - 15,050 lbs per wing tank

Center 12,700 lbs

Aft Aux 2,300 lbs

Total load 45,100 lbs

Front 158

What is the maximum permissible fuel load for the Global 5000 fuel tanks (pressure refueling)?

Back 158

9468

Wing - 15,050 lbs per wing tank

Center - 9,150 lbs with SB-700-1A11-11-008

Total - 39,250 lbs

Front 159

Fuel in the center tank must be considered unusable unless?

Back 159

Each wing is full at departure and

Planned cruise altitude is greater that 30,000 feet

Front 160

Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unusable unless?

Back 160

Each wing contains at least 5,500 lbs fuel at departure and

The planned cruise altitude is greater than 30,000 feet

Front 161

If use of the centre / aft tank is panned, what is the minimum tank fuel load?

Back 161

500 lbs to ensure the xfer pump reprime

Front 162

What is minimum go around fuel?

Back 162

600 lbs per wing

Note: Level flight and Maximum 10 nose up

Front 163

What ar the limitations when using wide cut or CIS fuels?

Back 163

Operation limited to 13,000 feet until the bulk fuel temperature is below 15C

Front 164

What are the 2 limitations associated with the FRTT?

Back 164

Fuel Return To Tank recirculation FRTT

1. FRTT is prohibited when using wide cut or CIS fuels

2. Asymmetric operation is prohibited

Front 165

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature indication for takeoff?

Back 165

+5C

Front 166

When must the Fuel Crossfeed be selected OFF?

Back 166

Takeoff and Landing

Front 167

Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled?

Back 167

Forward or aft aux tanks

Front 168

How is positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight?

Back 168

Ram air via NACA scoops

Front 169

Do not test operation of the pressure relied valves when?

Back 169

Wing take above 11,800 lbs

Center tank above 8,000 lbs

Front 170

What does the FMS COMPARE FUEL QUANT message indicate?

Back 170

2% or greater difference between FMQGC and FMS fuel quantity reading

Note: 2% of the BOW equals 1020 lbs

Front 171

When does FRTT (fuel return to tank) automatically operate?

Back 171

Above 34,000 feet and

Single fuel temp sensor below -20C

or

Average of all temp sensors below -9C

Note not applicable for 9002, 9005, 9027

Front 172

When do the AC wing boost pumps operate?

Back 172

ENG RUN switches to "ON"

Front 173

Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed?

Back 173

Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead

Closed via the associated fire discharge handle

Front 174

When does fuel transfer from the centre tank to the wing tank start?

Back 174

Wing tank quantity below 93%

Continues until wing reaches full (3% of volume)

Front 175

When does fuel transfer from the aux tank start?

Back 175

Wing tank falls to 5,500 lbs

Front 176

When does fuel transfer from the aux tank start?

Back 176

When wing tank falls to 5,500 lbs

Front 177

What is the refuel schedule?

Back 177

W-A-C

Wings

Aft

Center

Front 178

When does the wing DC aux fuel pump operate automatically?

Back 178

One or both AC pumps low pressure

Flap position > 0

In flight with landing gear down & locked

Low fuel condition < 600 lbs wing

Wing transfer - 400 lbs or greater wing imbalance

Front 179

When will the AC boos pumps operate regardless of the ENG RUN switch position?

Back 179

XFEED SOV to open

Note: This ensures balanced fuel during SE operation

Front 180

Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?

Back 180

Right wing tank

Front 181

Which fuel pumps operate autonomously (no pilot control)

Back 181

Center tank transfer pumps

Front 182

How is fuel moved from the forward aux fuel tank to the center tank?

Back 182

Transfer ejector receiving "motive flow" and / or

via gravity flow at a slower rate

Front 183

When is wing transfer automatically initiated?

Back 183

Lateral fuel imbalance of 400 lbs or more

Front 184

When is wing transfer inhibited?

Back 184

Flap postion > 0

In flight with landing gear down and locked

Low fuel condition < 600 lbs wing

DC aux pump is supplying fuel feed to an engine

Front 185

Why must crew monitor "manual" operation of the wing to wing transfer system?

Back 185

No automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection.

If not monitored and wing is overfilled will spill on ramp.

Front 186

Where is power for the Refuel/Defuel panel taken?

Back 186

APU battery direct bus

Front 187

Durring the refuel SOV test, what does display of the "SOV FAIL" message indicate?

Back 187

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full

Front 188

ELECTRICAL

Back 188

ELECTRICAL

Front 189

What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?

Back 189

Four 40 kVA engine driven generators

one 40 kVA APU generator

Ram air turbine

Front 190

Hoe many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?

Back 190

Eight total

Four primary busses 1, 2, 3, 4

Four secondary busses 1A, 2A, 3A, ESS

Front 191

What is the purpose of the AC power center (ACPC)

Back 191

Protects, Controls and distributes AC power to the main AC busses

Front 192

In the advent of single generator operation, which AC Busses are automatically shed?

Back 192

AC Busses 2 and 3

This results in AC buses 2A and 3A also being shed

Front 193

What does a EXT AC "AVAIL" light on the electrical panel indicate?

Back 193

External AC power is connected and is the correct phase, voltage and frequency but its NOT online.

3 phase, 115VAC, 400HZ

Front 194

What does a GEN FAIL light on the electrical panel indicate?

Back 194

Failed generating channel

or fire discharge handle is pulled

Front 195

What is the primary / alternate power priority for the ESS AC BUS?

Back 195

RAT GEN is deployed

GEN 4 via AC ESS BUS

GEN 1 via AC BUS 1A

GEN 2 via AC BUS 2A

GEN 3 via AC BUS 3A

APU GEN

Front 196

What are the 6 primary DC power sources?

Back 196

TRU 1, TRU 2, ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2

Avionics Battery

APU Battery

Front 197

What are the 4 main DC buses?

Back 197

DC BUS 1 and 2

DC ESS BUS

BATT BUS

Front 198

How long will the aircraft main batteries last as the sole source of power?

Back 198

Minimum of 15 minutes

Front 199

What is the primary / alternate power priority for the DC ESS bus?

Back 199

ESS TRU 1

ESS TRU 2

TRU 2

TRU 1

Front 200

Which DC Buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation?

Back 200

DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2

Front 201

What is the purpose of the DC POWER EMERGENCY OVERRIDE?

Back 201

Durring loss of all DC power, allows ESS TRU 1 and 2 to bypass the DCPC and power the SPDA's directly

Front 202

Can the pilot change a thermal circuit breaker from the EMSCDU?

Back 202

No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location

Front 203

INTEGRATED AIR MANAGEMENT IAMS

Back 203

INTEGRATED AIR MANAGEMENT IAMS

Front 204

What is the pack discharge temperature range for Manual mode operation?

Back 204

+5 C to + 60 C

One pack must be selected OFF

40lbs of air per minute

Front 205

What is Normal and Maximum cabin differential pressure?

Back 205

Normal - 10.33 PSID

Maximum - 10.73 PSID

"Delta P" - 10.85 PSID

Front 206

What is the maximum negative relied differential pressure?

Back 206

-0.5 PSID

Front 207

On taxi and takeoff the cabin PSID should not exceed this value?

Back 207

0.1 PSI

Front 208

On landing the cabin PSID should not exceed this value?

Back 208

1.0 PSID

Front 209

AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude

Back 209

41,000 feet

Front 210

The Bleed Management Controllers (BMCs) extract bleed air from which engine ports?

Back 210

5th stage low-pressure port

8th stage high-pressure port

Front 211

During ground operation, what is the priority bleed source for engine starting?

Back 211

APU bleed air

Front 212

How are hot air (bleed) leaks monitored in the airplane?

Back 212

Dual loop detection sensing elements connected to the BMCs

Front 213

What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed air leak?

Back 213

The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves

Front 214

How is air flow regulated from the pneumatic duct to the air conditioning units?

Back 214

By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning system controllers (ACSC)

Front 215

Can one engine supply two AC packs simultaneously?

Back 215

No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine. In the case of single pack operation, the high flow schedule is automatically

Front 216

What are the two functions of the air conditioning units?

Back 216

Decrease the air temperature and

Decrease the water contained in the hot bleed air

Front 217

When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)?

Back 217

- Bleed failure, shutdown or engine starting

- Ditching operation (below 15,000 feet)

- Pack inlet overheat

- Compressor discharge overheat

- Pack discharge overheat or under pressure

Front 218

Selecting the TRIM AIR PBA switch to the OFF position closes which valves?

Back 218

Hot Air Shut Off Valves (HASOV)

and the ACSC closes the three trim air valves

Front 219

What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system?

Back 219

1. Providing cooling for the heat exchangers of the cooling packs

2. Alternate source of fresh air at an altitude of 15,000 feet or less

Front 220

What are the requirements for using AUX Press?

Back 220

Both cooling packs inoperative

Recirculation system maintained "ON"

Prohibited above 41,000 feet

Front 221

What are the typical cabin altitudes for 51,000 and 45,000 feet aircraft altitude?

Back 221

51,000 feet - 5,670 feet

45,000 feet - 4,500 feet

Front 222

What are the two modes of operation with the cabin pressure control system in AUTO?

Back 222

- PRIMARY mode (predictive) uses:

- FMS programmed

- Autopilot and VNAV engaged

- SECONDARY mode (reactive) uses:

- Pressure altitude

- Vertical speed

Front 223

What are the warning messages and associated cabin altitudes for loss of pressurization?

Back 223

CAB ALT - 8,200 feet

CAB ALT Warning - 9,000 feet

or 1,000 / 1,800 feet above landing alt if landing above 7,230 feet MSL

Front 224

When selecting MAN pressurization, what is displayed on the STAT page?

Back 224

Both outflow valve position indicators

Cabin rate analog gauge

Front 225

What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page?

Back 225

- LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selector set to FMS

- Landing destination programmed in the FMS

- Flight plan activated

Note: landing elevation will not display in magenta if FMS are in independent

Front 226

What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates?

Back 226

Normal mode - 500 ft/min climb and 300 ft/min descent rate

High mode - 800 ft/min climb and 800 ft/min descent rate

Front 227

What occurs when EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON?

Back 227

Both out flow valves (OFVs) are commanded open

Cabin altitude limited to 14,500 feet

Front 228

What does the selecting the Ditching switch to ON provide?

Back 228

PACKS flow is shut off

Cabin is depressurized

OFVs are driven to the closed position

Sequence is inhibited above 15,000 feet

Front 229

What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead?

Back 229

Ensures overpressure and negative pressure relief

Provides an OPEN position signal to the EICAS

Front 230

ANTI-ICE

Back 230

ANTI-ICE

Front 231

When is cowl anti-ice, required? Prohibited?

Back 231

OAT 10C or less and visible moisture or contaminated taxiways / runways

AUTO prohibited for Takeoff

Front 232

When is wing anti-ice required? Prohibited?

Back 232

OAT 5C or less and visible moisture or contaminated taxiways / runways

AUTO prohibited for takeoff

Type II or IV, anti-ice prohibited ON until just prior to thrust increase on takeoff

Front 233

What are the conditions for in-flight icing operations?

Back 233

Visible moisture and temperature between TAT +10C and SAT -40C

Front 234

What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?

Back 234

Do not hold with slats extended

Front 235

What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions

Back 235

76%N2

Front 236

Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?

Back 236

Wing leading edges

Engine cowls

Windshields

Side windows

Air data probes and sensors

Front 237

Due to the sensitivity of the ice detector probes, the ice detection is ineffective below what airspeeds?

Back 237

30 KIAS

Front 238

When wing anti-ice is selected, how long may it take before the leading edges display green?

Back 238

Approximately 2 minutes

Front 239

What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve (CBW)?

Back 239

Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine

Front 240

Which engine bleed is used for cowl anti-ice?

Back 240

5th stage low-pressure bleed air only

Front 241

In the event of electrical failure, the cowl anti-ice valve (CAIV) defaults to what position?

Back 241

Fully open position

Front 242

Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external power?

Back 242

All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied to the aircraft

Front 243

OXYGEN

Back 243

OXYGEN

Front 244

How many oxygen bottles does the crew system have?

Back 244

4

Front 245

What is the normal pressure charge at 21C for the crew oxygen bottles?

Back 245

1,850 PSI

Front 246

At what pressure does the oxygen pressure regulator function?

Back 246

72.5 PSI

Front 247

When do the passenger masks deploy?

Back 247

14,500 feet cabin altitude

Front 248

What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to or below 75%

Back 248

Amber OXY LO QTY message

Front 249

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

Back 249

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

Front 250

The evacuation equipment consists of what 2 items?

Back 250

Crash axe

Cabin escape rope

Front 251

What type portable fire extinguisher is located in the cockpit?

Back 251

Halon 1211

Note: Effective in fighting A, B, and C fires

Front 252

What must the flight crew wear if discharging a fire extinguisher in the cockpit?

Back 252

Oxygen masks with 100% oxygen selected

Front 253

Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit door?

Back 253

No

Front 254

Lighting

Back 254

Lighting

Front 255

When does the "SEAT BELTS" sign illuminate when selected to AUTO?

Back 255

Landing gear selected down

Flaps are not in the 0 position

Cabin altitude > 8000 feet

Front 256

When fo the EMER Lights illuminate when selected in ARM?

Back 256

No power to the DC essential bus

Front 257

Do the area lights operate with no power on the aircraft (battery master off)?

Back 257

Yes

Front 258

How is the nose wheel compartment light operated?

Back 258

Switch on the forward external service control panel

Front 259

FLIGHT CONTROLS

Back 259

FLIGHT CONTROLS

Front 260

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?

Back 260

Mechanically controlled

Hydraulically actuated

Front 261

Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs?

Back 261

Left aileron - systems 1 and 3

Right aileron - systems 2 and 3

Front 262

How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system?

Back 262

Via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube

Front 263

If the aileron/rudder/stabilizer trim is outside the allowable range during throttle advancement for takeoff, what will occur?

Back 263

CONFIG AIL / RUD / STAB TRIM red warning message

NO TAKEOFF voice message

Front 264

When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the fight guidance computer

Back 264

First engine start at 35% N2

Front 265

Which hydraulic systems power the rudder PCUs?

Back 265

Hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3

Front 266

Which hydraulic systems power the elevator PCUs?

Back 266

Left elevator - systems 1 and 3

Right elevator - systems 2 and 3

Front 267

Which 3 trim modes activate the horizontal stabilizer and their priority?

Back 267

Manual trip (pilot then copilot)

Auto trim (autopilot 1 or 2)

Mach trim (autopilot off)

Front 268

What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?

Back 268

AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected

Pitch trim disconnect - held

Stall pusher interrupt - held

Front 269

When will the stabilizer in motion aural clacker sound?

Back 269

Stabilizer runaway

Stabilizer trim switch is held for an extended period

Front 270

How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled?

Back 270

By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCUs)

Front 271

What is the purpose of the "Flap Override Switch"?

Back 271

Used to cancel the flap aural warning if the flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing

Front 272

How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?

Back 272

4 multifunctional spoilers and 2 ground spoilers

Front 273

With flaps extended, which multifunctional spoilers are available?

Back 273

Only the two inboard pairs of MFS

MAX selection on the FSCL has no effect

Front 274

The MFS are used for what purpose?

Back 274

Roll assist

Proportional lift dumping

Ground lift dumping

Combination roll assist and proportional lift dumping

Front 275

How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?

Back 275

The opposite panel is automatically disabled

Front 276

Ground spoilers when "armed" will deploy on landing with?

Back 276

Engine throttles at idle or below and two of the following three conditions:

- RA below 7 feet

- One main landing gear WOW

- One wheel speed greater than 16 knots

Front 277

How may a pilot stop the stick pusher?

Back 277

Pressing and holding the autopilot/stick pusher disconnect (AP/SP DISC) button

N/A for JAA certified aircraft

Front 278

Automatic Flight Control System AFCS

Back 278

Automatic Flight Control System AFCS

Front 279

What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temperature in excess of 40C?

Back 279

Operation of the DUs for greater than 30 minutes is prohibited

Front 280

What is maximum altitude for flight with the yaw damper disengaged?

Back 280

41,000 feet

Front 281

What is the minimum autopilot engage height?

Back 281

400 feet AGL

Front 282

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision approach? Non-precision approach?

Back 282

Cat I ILS - 50 feet AGL

Non-precision - 400 feet AGL

Front 283

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference?

Back 283

160 feet AGL

Front 284

What is the operational limitation when using FLCH?

Back 284

Use of FLC mode with the speed bug above .85M is prohibited

Front 285

When must both stall protection pusher switches be selected ON?

Back 285

For duration of the flight

Front 286

What is the purpose of the master disconnect switch on the control wheel?

Back 286

Disconnect the autopilot

Silence a disconnect aural

Front 287

What is the purpose of the touch control steering switch (TCS)?

Back 287

Momentarily override the autopilot

Front 288

Does the indicator light on the GP indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

Back 288

No, pilot must confirm mode status / operation from the flight director annunciator on the PFD

Front 289

How are active / armed flight director and autothrottle modes indicated on the AFCS display?

Back 289

Active display in "green"

Armed display in "white"

Front 290

How does the pilot manually switch the flight guidance computer (FGC)?

Back 290

On the MFD control panel

MENU button, page 2

Front 291

How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director mode is armed?

Back 291

Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes

Front 292

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

Back 292

Pressing the AP pushbutton

Pressing either the MASTER DISC pushbutton

Pressing either TOGA switch

Manual trim activation

Pressing the YD switch on the GP

Physical override of the AP servos (not recommended)

Front 293

What will cause an automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

Back 293

Activation of windshear avoidance

Unusual attitude

Stall warning activation

Front 294

When is use of the FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches prohibited?

Back 294

Prohibited past the FAF unless APP is annunciated on the PFD

Front 295

Wheat is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer to occur?

Back 295

Lateral mode is LNAV

Aircraft has captured the LOC beam

Pilot has selected the APR button

Front 296

What course is set to capture and track a back course localizer?

Back 296

Front course

Front 297

What must be the active lateral navigation mode for VPTH to be operational?

Back 297

LNAV

Front 298

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

Back 298

Within 75 NM flight plan distance or

30 NM direct distance to the airfield

Front 299

When does Dual Coupling of the AFCS occur?

Back 299

Below 1,200 feet with

The PFDs displaying localizer data from different navigational sources

Front 300

What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff, SE takeoff and GA?

Back 300

Takeoff - 17.5 degrees

SE Takeoff - 13 degrees

GA - 10 degrees

Front 301

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

Back 301

By selecting at AP on or

Selecting another vertical mode

Front 302

When is the automatic emergency descent mode (EDM) enabled?

Back 302

Aircraft altitude above 25,000 feet

Cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500

Aircraft not incorporating SB700-22-003: 9002, 9005, 9027

Front 303

Once the EDM is activated, what will occur?

Back 303

FD will command a descent to 15,000 feet

FD will command a turn of 90 degrees left

Autothrottles will target airspeed of Vmo-10 until 250 knots at 15,000 feet

Front 304

On the ground, what parameters are required to engage the autothrottles?

Back 304

Either engage switch selected

Aircraft speed less than 60 knots

Throttle levers are above 23 degrees TLA

Front 305

When is autothrottle takeoff HOLD control mode activated?

Back 305

On ground above 60 knots

In flight below 400 feet AGL

Front 306

When will the autothrottles transition to the RETARD mode?

Back 306

Aircraft in landing configuration

Radio altitude of 50 feet AGL

Front 307

Electronic Displays

Back 307

Electronic Displays

Front 308

Which colors are used to depict normal, precautionary and system limits?

Back 308

Green - normal range

Amber - precautionary range

Red - limits exceeded

Front 309

Which colors are used to depict the flow lines?

Back 309

Black - no flow

Amber - below normal value

Green - normal value

Red - exceeding normal value

Front 310

What is the priority of the Aural alerts?

Back 310

STALL

EGPWS

TCAS

All other voice messages

Front 311

What will occur when selecting the EFIS PFD reversion control to alternate?

Back 311

The MFD data is displayed by PFD data

Front 312

Durring normal operation, SG 1 generated symbols for which DUs?

Back 312

DU 1 and DU 2

Front 313

Hos is a SG failure indicated?

Back 313

Red X across the corresponding displays

Front 314

Selection of the ADC reversion button for PFD 1 enables which ADC to feef PFD 1?

Back 314

ADC 3

Second selection - ADC 2

Front 315

Selection of the IRS reversion button for PFD 1 enables which IRS to feed PFD 1

Back 315

IRS 3

Second selection - IRS 2

Front 316

What is the result of pushing the event button on the landing gear control panel?

Back 316

Flags a particular event in time within the flight data recorder FDR memory

Encodes the central aircraft information maintenance system CAIMS

Front 317

The airspeed trend vector represents the airspeed in how many seconds?

Back 317

10 seconds

Front 318

The altitude trend vector represents the altitude the airplane will attain in how many seconds?

Back 318

6 seconds

Front 319

How does the pilot switch the altitude readout to metric?

Back 319

Using the MENU display on the MFD control panel

Front 320

Navigation and Communication

Back 320

Navigation and Communication

Front 321

Durring a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate?

Back 321

Unacceptable RAIM value is detected

Front 322

IRS system accuracy may me degraded above what latitudes preventing system engagement in the NAV mode?

Back 322

78 degrees latitude

Front 323

How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors to drift since the last alignment?

Back 323

IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV

Front 324

How does the crew inhibit the terrain awareness alerting when landing at an airport not in the FMS database?

Back 324

Select the TERRAIN switch to OFF

Front 325

On FMS system power up, what information is displayed on the NAV IDENT page?

Back 325

Date and Time (synchronized with GPS)

Software version

Database status

Front 326

What does selecting the EMER pushbutton with failure of the audio control panel accomplish?

Back 326

Microphone audio to bypass the audio control panel

Microphone is connected directly to the onside VHF communication radio

Audio is directly connected from the radio to the pilot's headset

Front 327

How does the pilot enable the flight and maintenance interphones?

Back 327

Hot microphone (H'MIC) switch on the audio panel

Front 328

When does the radio management unit (RMU) carry out a unit and system self-test?

Back 328

System power up

Front 329

How does the pilot switch between the active (white) and preset (cyan) on the RMU?

Back 329

The transfer key or

The line select key adjacent to the preselect frequency in the simplex mode

Front 330

How does the pilot change kHz spacing (8.33) on the RMU?

Back 330

Select PGE key

Select SYS SELECT from menu

Front 331

How does the pilot select DME hold on the RMU?

Back 331

Selecting the DME KEY

An "H" will appear next to DME

Front 332

What is the priority for navigation sensors used by the FMS?

Back 332

GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME

Front 333

What are the two prerequisites to make a stand alone GPS approach?

Back 333

Approach must be retrieved from the database

APP annunciated durring approach

Front 334

OPERATING LIMITATIONS

Back 334

OPERATING LIMITATIONS

Front 335

Mmo, FL350, FL414, FL470, and FL510

Back 335

FL350 - 0.89M

FL414 - 0.88M

FL470 - 0.858M

FL510 - 0.842M

Front 336

Vmo, above and below 8,000 feet

Back 336

Above 8,000 feet - 340KIAS

Below 8,000 feet - 300KIAS

Front 337

What is Turbulence Penetration speed?

Back 337

300KIAS / 0.80M

Front 338

What is the maximum operating altitude?

Back 338

FL510

Front 339

What is the maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

Back 339

10,000 feet pressure altitude

Front 340

What is the maximum and minimum ambient temperature for takeoff?

Back 340

+50C / -40C

Front 341

What is the maximum tailwind component for engine start

Back 341

20 knots

Front 342

What must be done is a tailwind start causes observed N1 rotation?

Back 342

Extended Dry Crank (EDC) for 30 seconds followed by an immediate auto start

Front 343

When winds exceed 20 knots, what is the required thrust for taxi?

Back 343

Minimum thrust

Front 344

What must be done if crosswind component exceeds 20 knots on takeoff?

Back 344

Do not exceed 66% N1 until 30 KIAS

Increase takeoff distance by:

1,700 Feet - Flaps 6

1,500 Feet - Flaps 16

Front 345

What is the maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing?

Back 345

10 knots

Front 346

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

Back 346

29 knots

Note: Not considered limiting

Front 347

What is the maximum authorized altitude for use of slats/flaps?

Back 347

18,000 feet

Front 348

At what altitude must flight spoilers be retracted on approach?

Back 348

300 feet AGL

Front 349

What are "slats in / flaps 0 recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 349

200 KIAS

Vref +45

Front 350

What is maximum slats extended speed?

Back 350

225 KIAS

Front 351

What are "slats out / flaps 0" recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 351

180 KIAS

Vref +20

Front 352

What is the maximum flaps 6 speed?

Back 352

210 KIAS

Front 353

What are "slats out / flaps 6: recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 353

160 KIAS

Vref +13

Front 354

What is maximum flaps 16 speed?

Back 354

210 KIAS

Front 355

What are "Slats out / flaps 16" recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 355

140 KIAS

Vref +6

Front 356

What is the maximum flaps 30 speed?

Back 356

185 KIAS

Front 357

What are "slats out / flaps 30" recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 357

Vref +10

Front 358

What is Vlo?

Back 358

200 KIAS

Front 359

What is Vle

Back 359

250 KIAS

Front 360

What is tire limiting speed?

Back 360

183 KIAS

Front 361

What is Vmcg?

Back 361

80 KIAS

Front 362

What is Vmca?

Back 362

86 KIAS