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414 Cards in this Set

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What is exclusive jurisdiction?
Only Federal Law applies, The United States code, applies. The state has no authority over the base except to serve civil or criminal warrants and subpoenas resulting from acts occurring off-base. These documents should be reviewed at the legal office before the civilian officer serves them. You may not serve them but you can escort the civil authorities so they can.
What is Concurrent jurisdiction?
Both state and federal law applies
What is proprietary jurisdiction?
When federal government has a right or tile to an area or building in a state, but does not exercise any measures of authority over the area. (Landowner Rights) In this situation the Federal Government has no jurisdiction, but it has the same rights as any landowner. However, the military does have criminal jurisdiction (UMCJ) over military personnel in these areas.
What is reciprocal jurisdiction
Each armed force branch has courts-martial jurisdiction over all persons subject to the code.
Patrick Air Force base is comprised of two geographically separated areas, what are they?
Main base proper Area and the beach access area.
Who can security forces apprehend?
All military persons subject to the punitive articles of the UCMJ. Detain nonmilitary persons including dependents and retirees
When a juvenile is being detained, what must the SFCC controller record?
- Time of detention of the juvenile
- Time the parents/guardians are notified
- Time the parents/guardians arrive at the SFCC
- Condition and attitude of the parents/guardians
- Any interference on the part of the parents/guardians
- Time the juveniles is released to parents to parents/guardians
When interviewing persons of the opposite sex, what must be done?
Have another person of the same sex as the interviewee present or if another person of the same sex is not available, two SF members will be present during the interview
For military suspects/subjects, rights are advised according to __________.
Article 31,UCMJ
For all others (Civilians) suspects/subjects rights are advised under the _______.
Fifth Amendment to the US constitution
True or False: Juvenile names or identities are not used in the SF blotter.
True (Identify the rank of the sponsor, if any, and assigned organization. If the sponsor is civilian, identity the sponsor and sponsor address)
When do you issue juveniles a DD Form 1805?
Only for minor traffic offenses or when instructed to do so by SJA personnel
Processing Civil warrants on base, what must be accomplished?
- Complete two copies of the Release on Bail or Recognizance Letter. One copy is given to the subject; the second copy is attached to the report
- Have arresting official read and sign two copies of agreement letter. Give one copy of the letter to the arresting official. The second copy is attached to the report.
- Ensure a copy of the warrant/writ is provided to the SFCC
Processing summons or subpoenas, what is done?
- During duty hours, the SFCC controller contacts the military member’s first sergeant or commander and request the member be escorted to the SFCC.
- After duty hours, or for civilians, the SFCC controller dispatches a patrolman to escort the civil processor to the residence or work center.
- The SFCC controller records the information in the SF blotter
- Security forces personnel will never accept/serve summons or subpoenas for other
Release nonmilitary persons on their own recognizance unless they committed a _______. In this case, civil authorities are requested to respond and take custody of the subject.
Security forces are given four authorities, what are they?
Detain, Apprehend, Report and Correct
Taking a person into custody
Means restrain of free movement
Physical Restraint
The loss of free movement
What two factors that you must keep in mind when you approach a suspect to affect an apprehension?
Position and Attitude
What are the three sources of Military Jurisdiction?
US Constitution, Federal Statues and International Law
What is Article 2 of the UCMJ?
States who is subject to military jurisdiction.
What is Article 5 of the UCMJ?
States that the UMCJ applies in all places.
What gives security forces authority to apprehend?
Rule 302 of the Manual for Courts-Martial and Article 7b of the UCMJ
What is the Posse Comitatus Act?
Restrict the use of federal military personnel to enforce civil law
On all human error alarms, what must be accomplished?
A human error worksheet and blotter entry.
In all cases of an unsecure building, an entry will be made in the_____
45 SFS blotter system.
If the facility is an alarmed facility, an entry will be made in the_____
AF Form 3545
Notify the resource Protection manager on alarm activations, when?
- If three alarm activations are received from the same facility within 24 hrs
- Any alarmed facility is found insecure.
- Any alarmed facility fails to activate its alarm system
- Facility custodian refuses or is unable to respond
AFTAC alarm response:During duty hours
AFTAC/SF will response to all AFTAC alarms. SF patrols will respond as backup if required. SF patrols responding to AFTAC will respond to the affected area or as directed by AFTAC/SF.
AFTAC alarm response:During Non-duty hours_____
Dispatch two SF patrols to AFTAC. The first will respond to the area of the affected exterior door. The second will respond to the non-duty hours entrance at the northwest corner of the facility (point 4) and contact the AFTAC Duty Officer. Notify the Duty Officer to respond to the non-duty hours entrance and contact the responding SF patrol. The Duty Officer and SF patrol will conduct an interior check of the affected area and determine the cause of the alarm.
What should a patrol do immediately when finding unsecure building?
Seek cover, notify the controller, and observe the unsecure area.
Who should conduct the building search of unsecure building?
MWD patrol, if available or a minimum of two security forces members.
What are the requirements for the Entry Controllers during Unannounced Alarm Activation?
The Desk Sergeant will instruct entry controllers to stop all out-bound traffic by gating the roadway and allow in-bound traffic to proceed as long as other vehicles entering provide a barrier that prevents a perpetrator from exiting through the in-bound lane (Stop, Check, and Pass).
What is a passive duress?
When a post/patrols fails to respond to three consecutive communication attempts
What is a Active duress?
When a Security Forces member activates the portable radio duress system or passes a wrong authentication response.
What is a Code 12?
Duress Situation
What actions are required if a Code-12, 9-Delta is broadcast over the radio?
This means a duress on the SFCC or Armory. Patrols should maintain radio silence, go to alternate radio frequency and respond to the west side of Bldg 559 and wait for further directions by the element leader or senior patrolman.
What are the security status check procedures for any post, patrols or SFCC?
Respond to all security status checks phonetically with the first letter of the individual’s last name. Example: If the SFCC conducts a security status check with Sgt Smith on Lima 2, Sgt Smith’s response would be “All secure, Sierra.”
What the authentication procedures?
To properly authenticate, the person/patrol will respond by giving the phonetic symbol for the letter of their last name corresponding to the number given by the SFCC. Example: The SFCC asks Sgt Jones to “Authenticate Two” and Sgt Jones replies “Oscar”.
How do you challenge a patrol under duress?
In the same manner as a high risk traffic stop.
Where is the alternate SFCC located?
Combat Arms Training and Maintenance (The senior patrol will assume control until alternate SFCC is activated)
Who should Golf-1 attempt to contact, if there is duress on SFCC during duty hours?
Personnel within building 575, to alert everyone of the situation. Command post should also be contacted.
What is the primary communications for security forces?
Base mobile, and portable radios tuned to the SF frequencies
What is the backup communications for security forces
Landline telephones and manual hand and arm signals
Entry controllers are authorized to remove their ascot when?
Heat index reaches 90 degrees, according to the heat index chart. During inclement weather, the SFO Superintendent may authorize removal of the ascot. This policy is not in effect during visits by distinguished personnel
How many rounds are carried with the M-9?
30 rounds of 9MM ammunition
How many rounds are carried with the M-16 rifle?
120 rounds of 5.56mm
What forms must be in the patrol vehicle?
AF Form 1800, DD Form 518, SF Form 91 and Fuel Key
Upon assuming the gate (post), what must you check?
Current Pass-ons, Be on the Look Outs, revocation/Suspension list, inspect the gate and report discrepancies to the SFCC
When may the far inbound traffic lane be closed?
During the hours of darkness. Ensure that all traffic lanes remain open during daylight hours.
Where will traffic be directed during peak traffic hours?
Will be directed from the traffic lanes
Which vehicles to you render a salute to?
Salute all vehicles displaying blue officer decal and staff cars. During 100 percent identification checks, a valid form of identification will be checked prior to rendering salutes.
What ID media can be used to enter PAFB?
DD Form 2/Active Green
DD Form 2/Retiree/Blue or Gray
DD Form 2/Reservist/Pink or Blue
DD Form 1173/Tan/Dependents
DD Form 1173-1/Pink/Reservist
AF Form 354/Blue/issued to local hire DoD, AAFES, and NAF employees
DD Form 2574/Orange/issued to AAFESS personnel
EAL approved by Superintendent or higher authority
DD Form 2220 properly affixed to the vehicle
Attached Coast guard Decal
Restricted area badge from CCAFS or NASA badge from KSC
Can personnel possessing contractor badges from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station and Kennedy Space Center be allowed entry into PAFB?
No, not allowed entry into PAFB
What documents must be checked for commercial vehicles?
Valid commercial driver’s license and Bill of Lading.
What is the policy on Explosive Laden Vehicle Entry?
They must enter through the South Gate after being met by munitions personnel. The Explosive Laden Vehicle will be escorted to the munitions inspection site on Hole Sunset Drive.
Where will the Explosive-Laden vehicle be escorted if it is unsafe?
The Hot Cargo Pad. Munitions arriving at the gate after duty hours will be directed to use the safe parking area located at Cape parking areas off base.
Where are the munitions personnel directed arriving at the gate during after duty hours?
To use the safe parking area located at Cape Canaveral Air Station
the news media personnel appear at a base entry point requesting entry or information, who is notified?
Immediately contact SFCC for instructions. The SFCC controller will contact the Base Public Affairs Office and request a representative to respond to the gate. News media personnel will not be allowed entry unless authorized by public affairs. Note: At No Time Will Any Security Forces Personnel Answer Any questions or Make Comments Regarding Policy, Procedures, or Events When Asked by News Media.
When large groups (10 or more persons) require access to the installation, what is required?
The sponsor will submit a letter in person to 45 SFS/SFO at least three duty days in advance. The letter will include sponsor’s name, address, telephone number, type of event, location, date, time access is required, and a listing of all guests.
When are one hundred percent ID card checks conducted?
Are conducted at all times or when directed by higher FPCON’s. Periodically throughout the shift check at least one ID Card per vehicle and cross-reference with the revocation/barment list prior to allowing entry onto the installation. Use personnel recognition first, and ID check if necessary.
Before you can issued an AF Form 75 to individual, they must show proof of what items?
Valid Driver’s License, proof of Insurance, and Current registration and cross reference their names against the base barment letter.
How long of a period can an entry controller issue an AF Form 75 for?
For a period no longer than 48 hours
Personnel attending Defense Reutilization and Marking Office (DRMO) sales are required to present, what?
A sales notice and must be listed on the DRMO entry authority list.
What the Pizza Delivery drivers’ entry procedures?
Must be operating a vehicle with a company logo and in uniform will have a badge issued from pass and ID allowing them entry to the installation. Gate sentry will check the address label attached to the pizza box to confirm delivery to Patrick AFB. Any delivery driver not meeting the above requirements will be verified by phone and issued a pass.
What the entry procedures for allowing Civilian college students onto PAFB?
Allowed entry on the first day of class after showing a registration form bearing their names. Issue students a one-day pass.
Who are allowed to sponsor personnel onto to PAFB?
Sponsors must be at least 18 years of age and possess a valid active duty, retired, or dependent ID Card. Civilian employees and AAFES employees are authorized to sponsor personnel on the installation in the performance of official duties only.
Who conducts Random Vehicle Inspections RVIs?
Two security forces members (Use MWD team when available)
What is RVI consider, examination or search of the vehicle?
During the examination, contraband, fruits of a crime is found, what must be done?
Immediately stop the examination, terminate the RVI, and obtain consent/authority to search. Apprehend and/or detain the person involved and seize the contraband as evidence. Annotate all action AF Form 3545
Government property (tools and equipment) may not be removed from the installation, unless authorized by whom?
Signed by unit commander via AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt. This AF Form 1297 will be issued by name on an individual basis, will indicate the government property items signed out to them, and be carried by the individual and produced during Security Forces vehicle checks.
If classified being transported, what is the requirement for the carrier?
Only the unit commander can authorize the removal of classified information from official duty areas during off-duty hours or the removal of classified material from the installation. Personnel authorized by the unit commander to carry classified material through entry/exit points are issued a DD Form 2501, Courier Authorization Card, and sign a Hand Carrying Briefing Statement. The security manager maintains these. Keep this card on your person when transporting classified material through entry/exit points.
If a person refuses permission to examine their vehicle during a RVI, what must you advise the person?
Result in loss of base driving privileges, revocation of base registration, or barment from base.
Civilian control of the vehicle refuses:
They cannot enter the base unless the vehicle examined.
Military member controls the vehicle and refuses:
Take same actions as with a civilian refusal, and transport the member to the SFCC for further processing.
Record results of each vehicle inspection on what form?
AF Form 3126 (SF Overprint)
When can privately owned firearms be transported on base?
For the purpose of transportation to and from authorization storage facilities, purchase or sale, collector display events, game hunting, and to and from authorized sporting events requiring their use. Firearms will always be unloaded during such transportation and not readily accessible. This restriction does not apply to law enforcement personnel on official business. Additionally, privately owned vehicles may be used to transport government firearms on Patrick AFB for marksmanship, qualification training and other special events.
Can personnel carry concealed weapons on PAFB
NO, personnel may not carry concealed weapons.
What facility is designated as the authorized storage facility for privately owned firearms for personnel residing in base billeting, family campground, and dormitories?
Bldg 575/Security Forces Armory
What is Seven Bridges?
The nickname assigned to Refugee, Asylum, and Defector matters. Transfer custody to AFOSI as soon as possible.
When a request for political asylum, temporary refuge or a defector request is made at Installation entry Control Point, What are the procedures?
-Do not allow the individual’s vehicle on base. Have them park the vehicle out of traffic and away from any building or structures. Do not transmit sensitive information via radio
-Ensure the individual(s) is moved to an area out of obvious public view but not to any controlled or restricted area.
-Advise the person that a representative of the USAF will contact them. Do not solicit any additional information or make promises.
-Do not release the individual(s) to any person except element leader or AFOSI agents. The individual is free to leave at anytime, do not try hold them against their will. Get a complete description of the individual and vehicle information.
-SF Squadron does not under any circumstance house defector, political asylum, and refugee personnel in SFCC confinement area. It is important to transfer custody to AFOSI as soon as possible
Where is temporary in transit for classified cargo stored?
Base Ops/bldg 820, Security Cage, Room 114
Where is the temporary overnight storage area for classified documents stored?
Patrick AFB Command Post/Bldg 423
How do you check ID cards?
Physically handle the ID card, check for required hologram symbol, expiration date and look at the back of the card to ensure the credential is valid.
What is an Installation Entry Point Check (IEPC)?
The Examination of a vehicle without the foundation for a search.
What is the purpose of IEPC
Protect the security of the installation, Protect government property and to prevent theft.
Can you use random checks as a ploy to check the vehicle of a particular suspect?
No, such action is illegal and may subject the involved SF member to criminal penalties.
If IEPCs are discontinued for unsafe reasons or operational limitations, what are the procedures?
Checks should not be re-started and indicate the reason in the SF Blotter. If the checks do not begin on time, do not begin the checks late.
The cancellation of vehicle checks will be authorized by, whom?
Flight Commander or Flight Chief
During IEPCs you find unregistered weapons or explosives, who is notified?
What is the term “Fishing Expedition” reference to in a search?
When a SF member continues to search after finding the object or they look in illogical areas (the glove box for a TV) They are conducting an illegal search.
How is a simple search conducted on a vehicle?
Use systematic process, checking the Exterior, Interior, Trunk and the under the hood.
How is a complete search conducted on a vehicle?
By AFOSI dismantling the vehicle
When can a search be conducted without obtaining a search authority?
Search incident to apprehension. This includes the immediate area over which the apprehended/detained person exercises control
What are five types of devices commonly used for bombs?
1. Pyrotechnic
2. Electrical
3. Mechanical
4. Time Mechanism
5. Chemical
What is an AF Form 440
Bomb Threat Aid Card, placed under each government telephone.
Radio transmissions are not made within ______ feet of the affected area/device.
50 feet
Will bomb dog handlers be used to confirm suspicious devices/packages?
What code is used over the radio to identify a suspicious package?
Code 14
What is the code for an actual bomb threat
Code 14A
What is the cordon for a package size bomb?
500 Feet
What is the cordon for a vehicle bomb?
1250 Feet
What is the acronym ECP
Entry Control Point
What is a cordon?
A cordon surrounds the accident area where controls are established to preclude unauthorized entry
Who dictates the cordon size?
Fire Department personnel
Where is the ECP located on a cordon?
Established by the fire chief and initially located upwind, on the perimeter of the cordon, within a 90 degree arc on either side of the current surface wind.
What must the ECP be marked with?
A flag and a sign, At night, vehicle flood or similar lights should illuminate the ECP
Where should nonessential personnel be directed to evacuate an accident scene?
Upwind direction
What are the priorities in an evacuation?
1. Injured personnel
2. Endangered personnel
3. Equipment carrying hazardous material
4. High-value or mission essential equipment
5. Fatalities
What are important considerations after an accident?
1. Rescuing the injured
2. Preventing further injury and loss of life
3. Protecting property and investigate data from loss or damage
4. Safeguarding classified information
5. Meeting the needs of public information
What are the four phases of response to a major accident?
1.) Notification – Observer should include the following information:
Site of the accident
Nature of the accident
Estimated number of casualties
Name and location of the reporter
2.) Response – An individual who is first aware of the accident situation is responsible for the following:
Reporting the accident
Initiating Rescue and care of the injured
Suppressing hazards (within their capabilities)
3.) Withdrawal – Who is responsible for initiating withdrawal? Fire Chief
Withdrawal should be accomplished in an upwind or crosswind direction
4.) Recovery – What information obtained during reconnaissance or recovery operations? Casualties, Contamination, Classified Material, High Explosive Hazards, Hazardous Atmosphere or Environments, Condition of weapons
Nuclear Weapons Mishaps:
Broken Arrow – Nuclear Weapon Accident
Bent Spear – Nuclear Weapon Incident
Dull Sword – Nuclear Weapon Deficiency
Nucflash – Accidental or Unauthorized launching of a Nuclear Weapon which could create the risk of war
What is a Safe Haven?
Emergency assistance provided by an installation to a carriers vehicle transporting Division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 ammunition and explosives due to circumstances beyond a carrier’s control (Such as severe weather or vehicle breakdown).
What is a refuge?
Emergency assistance provided by an installation to a carrier’s vehicle transporting military arms, classified materials, or Division 1.4 ammunition.
Where is the primary parking for a DOE Safe Haven?
Hot Cargo Pad
Where the alternate parking for a DOE Safe Haven?
Nonnuclear Munitions Storage Area
What does the Entry Controller do if a Safe Haven approaches the Gate?
-Notifies the SFCC of the Safe Haven
-Have the vehicle move inside the base for protection
-Initiates a Stop/Check/Pass
What is DD Form 2708
Receipt for inmate/detained person
What is the Element Leaders Responsible for concerning inmates?
Initial in processing of inmates, includes health, morale, and welfare during non-duty hours, meal/hygiene formations and issuing medications.
The length of stay in the confinement facility limited to how many days or hours?
5 days/120 hours, Extension must be approved by the 45 SW/CC
Do not confine personnel for the sole reason of______________.
What is a DD Form 2707
Confinement Order This form must be signed by a commissioned officer.
What is a DD Form 807?
Receipt for inmates personal property
During the first 24 hours all prisoners are on suicide watch and will be checked by the on-duty controller every ______ minutes and annotated in the blotter.
15 minutes
What is community custody?
Inmates, who demonstrate a keen sense of responsibility and trust, require very little supervision. Sign out and report unescorted to work details.
What is minimum custody
Inmates who do not present an apparent threat of escape or danger. Inmates may work details inside or outside Bldg 575.
Medium Oust Custody
Poses a minimal escape risk. Work details under escort
Medium In Custody
Requires continual supervision. The inmate poses an escape risk but does not present a significant threat to others or property. Initially assign all inmates to Medium In Custody.
Maximum Custody
Poses a serious threat to themselves or others, is an extreme escape risk. Do not remove from the cell except in emergencies or unusual circumstances.
Minimum Custody
One SF member escort for 10 inmates.
Medium Out Custody
One SF member for four inmates.
Medium In Custody
One SF member escort for two inmates.
Maximum Custody Escort
Two personnel, one of which must be an armed SF member.
When are visiting hours for inmates?
1430 –1630 on weekends/holidays. Inmates’ parent unit commanders or appointee in the grade of E-7 or higher may visit his or her personnel any time. Visits are supervised by one unarmed SF member.
When are contraband checks conducted?
Conducted randomly, at least twice a week during daylight hours.
When do you conduct roll call?
Shift change, during sleeping hours and during duty hours.
Who can release a confined inmate?
CSF or the corrections officer by signing DD Form 2708/Inmate Release Order. The CSF or corrections staff notifies the installation commander prior to release.
What is a DD Form 460?
Provisional Pass Issue due to delay enroute to duty station because of extenuating circumstances.
How many 460 must be prepared
Triplicate (3) Original goes to the military member, duplicate goes to the member’s commander and the last copy goes to the corrections/NCO/Officers and remains on file.
When is Wake-Up and Lights-Out for inmates?
0530 and 2100
What the procedures for Civil Arrest of Military Personnel?
Notify the Wing Command Post, Element Leader, and the individuals 1st Sergeant. This applies to during normal duty hours and non-duty hours. The following information will be given during notification:
- Name/Grade/SSAN
- Date/time/Place of return
- Where the person surrendered or was apprehended/and by whom.
- Complete an AF Fm 3545, Incident Report
Who is responsible for OVERALL WELFARE of inmates
What is DD Form 504 used for?
Request for Health and Comfort Supplies
Who is the Squadron Infection-Control Officer?
Resources and Training Flight Commander
What must you accomplish if you are exposed to a bloodborne pathogen?
Complete a bloodborne pathogen worksheet and report to the hospital emergency room as soon as possible.
What items are in the bloodborne pathogen personal protective equipment kit?
Latex Gloves, Disinfectant Spray, Gown, Mask, Eye Shield, Shoe Covers, Disposable towels, Red plastic sealable biohazard waste bag, Disposable CPR mouth barrier, Fluid Solidifier, Waste-Containment trays and scoops.
How do you handle evidence and found-property with suspected unidentified body fluids?
Items must be placed in a RED BIOHAZARD BAG or PROPERLY LABLED SHARPS CONTAINER, and the AF Form 52 taped to the biohazard bag or sharps container. DO NOT STAPLE THE AF FORM 52
Who will be notified, respond and receipt for evidence or found-property suspected of possessing a bloodborne pathogen?
Where is the BIOHAZARD STORAGE CONTAINER located in the security Forces Squadron?
Security Forces Armory. Note: Evidence or found-property suspected of posing a biohazard threat will be turned over to investigations for safekeeping. The investigation section will retain the item in either a biohazard bag or sharps container until no longer needed, and then discard the item in the biohazard storage container. If the item is inappropriate for disposal in the biohazard storage container, soaking it in bleach for 30 minutes will disinfect the item. Once this is done the item can be disposed of through regular means.
What agency is authorized to carry concealed firearms on Official duties?
AFOSI with AF Form 523, with the words CONCEALED
Can personnel carry concealed weapons on PAFB
NO, personnel may not carry concealed weapons. Military can be charged with Article 92, UCMJ.
What gives commanders authority to provide protection to Air Force property?
Section 21, Internal Security Act of 1950
Defined civil disturbances?
When participants in mass acts of civil disobedience become hostile towards authority and authorities must struggle to take initiative from an unruly crowd. (In any form, are prejudicial to public law and order)
What are causes of civil disturbances?
- Political Grievances
- Social Unrest
- Terrorist Acts/Foreign Influences
With the Air Force who acts as the primary control force for civil disturbances that occur on Air Force Bases?
Security Forces
Crowd behavior escalates through may stages before violence erupts, name the stages?
1.) PERIODS OF INCREASED TENSION – Increased polarization in living, dining and work areas. Graffiti on walls or overheard conversations may indicate periods of increased tension.
2.) SCATTERED MINOR INCIDENTS OF VIOLENCE – Incidents of harassment between individual members of opposing groups.
3.) GROUP ORIENTED VIOLENCE – Roaming, unorganized groups bent on either destruction of property or assaults on people.
4.) FULL RIOT PHASE – Riots include widespread destruction of property, total defiance of authority
What makes a crowd particularly volatile and a threat to the public order?
1.) LEADERSHIP – A skillful manipulator can channel the energy of a crowd toward violence or calmness.
2.) EMOTIONAL CONTAGION – Mob behavior is highly emotional, often unreasonable and always potentially violent.
3.) PANIC –Prompts unreasoning and frantic efforts in seeking safety
Civil disobedience is the most common nonviolent tactic, name nonviolent tactics crowds will use
Trespassing, Passive Resistance, Chaining, handcuffing or tying themselves together.
A violent mob is potentially one of the most dangerous threats to security forces, name violent crowd tactics.
Firebombing, brick throwing, balloons filled with paint, bolt cutters to cut through fences, vehicle assaults.
Name the four basic options available to Installation/Operation commanders to control crowds?
Monitor, Disperse, Contain or Block the crowd
What is the make-up of the riot baton?
36 inches long 1¼ inch in diameter and made of a dense wood. (Rosewood or Walnut)
When using the riot baton, security forces must try to avoid blows, striking fatal impact points, Name the points.
Head, Side of the neck, Throat, Heart Area, and Armpit
Name the different ready positions when using the baton?
Ready Position, Port Position, On-Guard Position
Name the two basic Offensive Techniques when using the baton?
Thrust and Smash
What are the Defensive Techniques when using the baton?
Strike, Radial/Forearm Strike, Leg Strike, Calf Strike
Name the Come Along Techniques?
Two person carry, One Person Carry, Gooseneck come-along, Front Hammerlock, Finger Come-along Groin Lift, Baton Come-Along
What does the crowd control flight consist of?
44 person team, Three (3) Thirteen (13) member squads
What are the Element DUI Responsibilities?
- Element personnel are trained in conducting the field sobriety test (FST) as indicated on the 45 SFS Form 4, Standardized Field Sobriety Test Worksheet
- Trained in detecting possible DUI Suspects and establishing proper probable cause.
- Trained in proper completion of all required paperwork.
- Ensure required forms and reports are completed
What must be checked on all DUI Suspects?
Driver License, vehicle, and wanted persons check via AFLETs.
What are the procedures on civilian DUI suspects in South Housing?
Establish probable cause (Via SFS Form 4); once probable cause is justified notify the BCSO to respond. If BCSO declines to respond proceed with standard DUI procedures for both military and civilian suspects.
Before initiating the FST, What must you ask the subject?
If he/she has any physical disabilities that would prevent them performing the test.
Tell me the steps of performing a FST on an individual?
- Advise the subject he/she is suspected of DUI and have them step out of their vehicle to complete a FST
- Obtain vehicle keys and secure them for positive control.
- If vehicle is at the gate, places cones behind vehicle and open the other lane of traffic.
- Before initiating the FST ask the subject if he/she has a physical disability that would prevent them from performing the test.
- Also, ask if the suspect is wearing contact lenses before performing the Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus Test
- Conduct performance test outlined on the SFS Form 4.
If a suspect refuses to complete the FST, what do you write in the 45 SFS Form 4 Remarks section?
“Subject Refused to Submit to Field Sobriety Test”
If the suspect fails the FST or if other probable cause exists, what must be read?
The implied consent policy
Who can administer a breath test?
FDLE certified security forces member
If the intoxilyzer 5000 is inoperative, Where do you transport the suspect for testing?
Satellite Beach Police Department
During pursuit of a traffic violator, maintain a safe distance of _________ .
Five to Seven car lengths
What are the field sobriety tests used at PAFB?
Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus, Walk & turn, and One Leg Stand
When is a pursuit ended
When the security forces member is positioned behind the violator to begin the stopping procedures.
How do you park your patrol vehicle during a low risk traffic stop?
10 to 12 feet (3 to 4 meters) to the rear of the violator’s vehicle and 3 Feet (1 Meter) to the left
What are the four important things to remember during a High Risk Traffic Stop?
-Never approach an occupied vehicle
-Wait for a back-up regard less of how long it takes
-Use Teamwork
-Keep control at all times.
How many feet should the primary and back-up vehicles be positioned behind the suspect vehicle?
30 to 40 feet
Give 10 DUI visual clues that would indicate a drunk driver?
Turing with wide radius
Driving Slow
Stopping without cause in traffic
Following too closely
Braking Erratically
Turning abruptly or illegally
Straddling center or lane marker
IAW F.S.S. 316.1932, any person who is charged with DUI may not be released
from custody:
(a) Until the person is no longer under the influence of alcoholic beverages, chemical substance or no longer affected to the extent that his/her normal faculties are impaired.
(b) Until the person’s blood-alcohol level or breath-alcohol level is less than 0.05; or
(c) Until 8 hours have elapsed from the time the person was taken into custody.
If pursuit driving is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered?
- The degree of danger to the public
- Experience and training of the pursuit vehicle operator
- Weather and Road conditions
- Pursuit vehicle characteristics
- Present and potential roadway obstacles
- Facilities located along the pursuit route
- Dangerous/Potentially dangerous intersections along the pursuit route.
What DUI forms do you need to fill out?
SF Form 2/Field Interview Worksheet (See 45 SFS Handbook )

Prepare SF Form 4/Field Sobriety Test (See 45 SFS Handbook)

Prepare a DD Form 1805/Violation Notice (AFI 31-204)
What is the normal distribution of DD Form 1805?
- The CSP forwards copy 1 (white) to the US District Court Central Violation Bureau.
- Security police file copy 2 (pink), Officer’s copy.
- Provide copy 3, yellow, (envelope) to the violator.
What information is given to the SFCC by Base Operations any time a priority aircraft is arriving at PAFB?
Type of Aircraft, Time of arrival/Departure, Parking location and protection level of aircraft.
How many crew orders are obtain from the Aircraft Commander?
Two, Annotate the Aircraft Tail Number, Parking Location, Estimated Time/Date of Departure, and Type of Aircraft on the upper right-hand corner of all orders.
When will the external SRT have to establish a restricted area around transit aircraft?
If it will be parked for more than 6 hours. The aircraft most be rope using stanchions and posting restricted area signs around the aircraft. Establish an entry control point (ECP) and post an entry control point sign. The ECP is normally established at the nose of the aircraft.
What is the primary purpose of the light-all units?
To illuminate the boundary, not the aircraft.
Protection level 1-3 aircraft remaining overnight (C-130 and smaller) are parked inside a permanent restricted area (750 Ramp). When this not possible, where will transient priority aircraft park?
Taxiway M, Taxiway J, N Ramp, and/or S Ramp.
Who can authorize flight-line photographs, including the restricted Area?
45th Space Wing Public Affairs Office/45 SW/PA and coordinated through 920 DDS and SFS/SFCC.
How far is your vehicle when traveling behind a taxing aircraft?
200 Ft
How is an IG team member escorted in the restricted area on the ramp?
They have unescorted entry as long as they are on the EAL.
Who is responsible to ensure the aircraft plot is accurate and updated?
The external SRT
What are the post limits for Sierra 1A?
Internal SRT is restricted to the boundaries of the restricted area 750 Ramp, if priority aircraft are within the restricted area. NO Exceptions; Post relief and shift change will take place inside the restricted area.
What are the post limits for Sierra 1
Internal SRT is responsible for all airfield areas west of Runway 02/20.
What are the post limits for Sierra 2?
External SRT is restricted to North Housing, Cantonment area, CATM, and South to hanger 800, unless dispatched by the SFCC or Element Leader.
How is an IG team member escorted in the restricted area on the ramp?
They have unescorted entry as long as they are on the EAL.
What is the single badge system?
Only one badge for each person authorized unescorted entry into a restricted area. The entry controller compares the photograph and identification data on the badge with the bearer’s physical characteristics.
The single badge technique is relatively easy to defeat, Name several supporting techniques that can be used to reinforce its effectiveness?
Personal Recognition, Signature and Credential Check, Entry Authority List (EAL), Telephone or Radio Verification
Name the restricted area badges used by the Air Force?
- AF Form 1199A, Green
- AF Form 1199B, Pink
- AF Form 1199C, yellow
- AF Form 1199D, Blue
- AF Form 1199, Computer Generated
Who can escort personnel onto the restricted area?
Anyone possessing a restricted area badge may escort individuals into the restricted area.
What most you possess to enter the restricted area unescorted on Patrick AFB?
AF Form 1199 for Patrick AFB with area 4 open and personnel in possession of an AF Form 1199 for Cape Canaveral AS with an open area 4.
If the incident is identified as an attempted hijacking, initial action should be to delay and prevent aircraft takeoff. Delaying/blocking action should be taken, unless the aircraft commander states crew/passengers lives are in imminent danger. The aircraft commander will be the final authority except, when?
- When nuclear or chemical weapons are on board.
- When directed by higher headquarters.
For tenant or transient aircraft, the final decision to discontinue delaying/blocking actions will rest with whom?
The senior commander available from the affected flying unit.
When will patrols attempt to block the hijacked aircraft?
If the aircraft has evaded initial blocking forces

Block runways: By placing a vehicle in the middle and at each end of the runway
Block taxiways: By placing a vehicle on taxiways to prevent movement to runway
Block aircraft: Place a vehicle on the front, rear and or sides of the aircraft based on the type of aircraft.
What is a helping hand?
An unclassified message relayed by SFCC to the installation command post of an unusual incident, possibly hostile, affecting priority resources.
What is covered wagon?
An unclassified message to higher headquarters that an unusual incident affecting priority resources probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site.
Who can terminated a helping hand at PAFB?
Element Leader
Who can terminated a covered wagon at PAFB?
45 SW/CC or CV during his absence
What is a TCAM?
Threat condition-alerting message down channel reports from higher headquarters, setting in motion an increased readiness posture.
What is a National Defense Area (NDA)?
Areas off base, when necessary to secure Protection level 1, 2, 3 resources not under the jurisdiction or administration of, or in custody of, DoD or a military department of the DOD, Examples:
- Aircraft are sent to civilian Airports
- An aircraft crashes
- other unplanned emergencies occur
What is a Controlled Area?
Areas legally defined areas containing PL 4
What is a Restricted Area?
Protection Level 1, 2, 3, resources into defined area and control them using a single security control system.
What are four tactical factors to consider that would affect armed response force deployment?
- The nature of the incident
- Location of incident
- Visibility
- Availability of additional personnel
What is the response time for Sierra-2 to the restricted area of all incidents?
5 minutes
What is the EAL used for?
Provides a list of personnel authorized entry into the area. The entry controller compares information on the EAL to information on the restricted area badge.
What are the escort entry procedures for priority resources?
- Visitors must be kept under continuous escort
- The ratio of escorts to visitors must be based on the known trustworthiness of the visitors
- The escort official accompanies the escorted person until they have finished their business and then accompanies the person back to the entry point.
Entry Authority List must identify whether or not an individual is authorized unescorted entry or requires an escort. What type of information must the EAL contain?
Name, Rank, Last 6 numbers of the SSN, Organization, Badge Number, Clearance Status, Dates of Visit, Expiration Date
Crew orders being used for EALs on Transit Aircraft must contain as a minimum, what type of information?
Name, Rank, Last 6 numbers of the SSN, Organization, Clearance Status and Inclusive Dates of Travel
What are the Control Tower Lights Signals?
Steady Green Lights – Cleared to Cross
Steady Red Light - Stop
Flashing Red Light – Clear Active Runway Immediately
Flashing White – Return to Starting Point
Red and Green Light – General Warning, Exercise Extreme Caution
What are the Speed Limits on the Flight Line?
Ramps – 15 MPH
Taxiways – 15 MPH
Runways – 25 MPH
Around Parked Aircraft – 5 MPH
Are Privately owned Vehicles authorized on the Flight Line
Yes, Chief, Airfield Management or a designated representative is the approving authority for use of POVs on the flight line. Flight line passes will only be authorized for conducting mission essential operations and when a government owned vehicle is not available. Rentals are considered POVs
Who can issue Temporary Passes for the flightline?.
Temporary passes are issued by 45 OSS/OSAB for 30 days or less.
- Permits will be displayed on the dashboard in the lower left corner
- Magnetic cones issued by 45 OSS/OSAB will be placed on top of the vehicle.
What is the distance between your patrol vehicle and a Taxing Aircraft?
At least 25 feet from the wing tip of the aircraft
What is distance of your patrol vehicle next to a parked aircraft?
25 Feet to front and 200 feet to the rear
What is the policy concerning vehicle lights on a taxing aircraft at night
Headlights turned off until the aircraft has passed, so that the aircrew will not be blinded or their night vision impaired. Parking lights will be left on to show the position of the vehicle.
Vehicles will not operate or park a vehicle within ____ feet of any fuel spill or any refueling operations.
50 Feet
What are the emergency access procedures for the restricted area?
Responding agencies must notify the SFCC with number of vehicles and personnel responding. They may enter the restricted area at any point (even cross the red line), if needed. Lights and sirens are not enough to gain entry. The internal SRT will count the number of vehicles and personnel entering the area. Upon termination of the emergency ensure all responding personnel depart the area. Purge the area to ensure no personnel or equipment is in the area.
What are the procedures for Temporary Duty (TDY) personnel entering the restricted area?
The commander of the unit sponsoring the TDY personnel will provide written notification to the Physical Security section (SFOS), validating the need for the TDY personnel to enter PAFB restricted area, It will list each individual’s name (last, first, MI.) SSN, home station, restricted area badge number, and restricted areas the individual will be granted unescorted entry into.
What are the hurricane categories?
Category 1 – Winds 74-95 MPH/Storm Surge 4-5 Feet
Category 2 – Winds 96-110 MPH/Storm Surge 6-8 Feet
Category 3 – Winds 111-130 MPH/Storm Surge 9-12 Feet
Category 4 – Winds 131-155 MPH/Storm Surge 13-18 Feet
Category 5 - Winds more than 155/Storm Surge more 18 Feet
What are the Hurricane conditions (HURCONs)?
HURCON IV – 72 hrs/50 Knots (58 MPH)
HURCON III – 48 hrs/50 Knots (58 MPH)
HURCON II – 24 hrs/50 Knots (58 MPH)
HURCON I – 12 HRS/50 Knots (58 MPH)
Where is the Hurricane Evacuation Site for Patrick AFB?
Space Coast Middle School in the city of port St. John, Florida
What are the phases for a major accident/disaster?
Notification – Disaster Response Force
- Response
- Withdrawal – Fire Chief sounds the alarm to withdraw personal should take cover behind vehicles outside the cordon and face away from the accident area. All personnel in the affected area in an up or cross wind direction. Vehicles in the area must remain at least 300ft within the cordon.
- Recovery
What is a Peacetime Emergency Warning Signal?
A three to five-minute steady tone on base sirens
What is an attack warning signal?
3 to 5 minute wavering tone on base sirens
What do patrols/post do if winds exceed 40 MPH?
Patrols will park in strategic locations and Static Post will stay within their facility. In case of a tornado, advise patrols to take immediate shelter in the nearest available facility, if any
What are the primary concerns in emergency and pursuit driving situations?
Protection of lives, the safety of all citizens and Security forces personnel
The decision to drive under emergency conditions rests with each individual, based on what conditions?
Driving abilities, traffic volume, time of day, potential hazard or liability to themselves and the public
What is a code 3?
Emergency lights and siren
What is pursuit driving?
An active attempt by security forces operating an emergency vehicle and using lights and sirens to apprehend one or more occupants of another moving vehicle, when the driver of the fleeing vehicle is aware of that attempt and is resisting apprehension by maintaining or increasing his speed, disobeying traffic laws, ignoring the security forces or attempting to elude the officer.
What is AF Form 1800
Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report
What is the time period of suspension for refusing to consent to commander direct random vehicle inspection?
For 1 year
What is the Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) of .08 considered?
Driving Under the Influence
What is the BAC of .05 - 08 considered?
Driving While Impaired (FS316.193)
What is the suspension period for driving under the influence alcohol?
1 year or 12 months
What is the suspension period of a seatbelt violation?
First Offense: 1 Month Second Offense: 1 year
What is the suspension period of a seatbelt violation?
First Offense: 1 Month Second Offense: 1 year
The notification system consists of two parts, what are they?
The Wing Notification Plan and Unit Pyramid Notification Plan
Element leaders within the operations flight will provide a current recall roster to SFO and CCA no later than ______ day of each month.
Upon the initiation of recall, what is the element leader require to do
Assign a posting NCO, Recall on-duty armorer, contact operations flight commander/ superintendent for instructions on posting requirements. Assign a patrol to recall dormitory residents, review information that generated the recall, and pass on information to the posting NCO
Who is the posting NCO?
The first 3P0xxx, E-6 or above who responds to the recall.
When do you report status information to the command post?
55 minutes; plus 1:55 minutes; plus 2:55 minutes; plus 3:55 minutes
What is a Script 1 Recall?
Battle Staff Recall
What is a Script 2 Recall?
Pyramid Recall
What is a Script 3 Recall?
Test Pyramid Alert Recall
What is a Script 4 Recall?
What is a Script 5 Recall?
Release from Recall. Release from Recall will be initiated by the commander or designated Representative.
What are the primary and alternate locations for Recall?
- Primary: Bldg 575 (SF)
- Alternate: Bldg 1657 (CATM)
What are the Five Force Protection Threat Conditions:
NORMAL: Applies to everyday activity.

ALPHA: Applies when there is a general threat of terrorist activity against installations and personnel. The nature and extent of this threat are unpredictable.

BRAVO: Applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Units must be capable of sustaining FPCON Bravo for weeks without causing undue hardship, without affecting operation capability, and without aggravating relations with local authorities.

CHARLIE: applies when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against installations and personnel is imminent. Used for more that a short period of time, hardship will probably occur and peacetime activities of the unit and its personnel will be affected.

DELTA: Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely FPCON Delta is normally issued as a localized warning.
What is a Force Protection Condition Alerting Message (FPCAM)?
FP condition-alerting message is a down channel report from higher headquarters, setting in motion an increased readiness posture.
What is a Controlled Area?
Areas legally defined areas containing Protection Level
What is a Restricted Area?
Protection Level 1, 2, 3, resources into defined area and control them using a single security control system.
What are Protection Level 1 Resources?
Nuclear Weapons, Command, Control, Communications, and Computer (C4) Systems critical to the success of active nuclear missions, Designated critical space and launch resources, Aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States and Senior Executive Mission aircraft.
What are Protection Level 2 Resources?
USAF resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the U.S. Nonnuclear alert forces, Expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems, Vital computer facilities and equipment, Designated space and launch systems, Intelligence-gathering systems critical to US operational capability
What are Protection Level 3 Resources?
USAF resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage US war-fighting capability. Weapons systems not on alert but that can be programmed for alert status, Selected C# facilities, systems and equipment, Non-launch-critical or non-unique space launch systems and equipment
What are Protection Level 4 Resources?
Contained in controlled areas with owner/user being primarily responsible for security. Fuels areas, Warehouses, Finance vault area, Pharmacies and medical logistics vault
What are the four possible types of jurisdiction to be found on US Government installations?
1) Exclusive – The federal government has complete legal authority.
2) Concurrent – Both the state and Federal government have complete legal authority
3) Partial – Both the state and Federal government have some legal authority
4) Proprietary – The Federal government has acquired some right or tile, but the state has retained sole authority to legislate over the area.
What are the three sources of military jurisdiction?
US Constitution, Federal Statutes, International Law
What is reciprocal jurisdiction
Each branch of service of the armed forces has court-martial jurisdiction over all persons subject to the code
What gives security forces the authority to apprehend any person subject to trial by courts-martial if the security forces member is executing police duties?
Rule 302 of the Manual for Courts-Martial and Article 7b of the UMCJ
What is the Assimilative Crimes Act?
Any offense not covered by Federal Law/UMCJ can be simulated using state law which is punishable if it had occurred within the jurisdiction of the state.
Name several ways you can establish reasonable belief?
- You actually see a person commit the crime
- You get the description of a person or vehicle from another security forces member
- You receive a statement by a reliable person
- A superior in your chain of command orders you to apprehend
- Complainant or victim identifies the alleged perpetrator
What is Title 18 U.S.C. 1382?
Prohibits individuals in the US from entering any military installation for a purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation.
What are characteristics of a closed base?
- Routinely houses or supports protection level 1, 2, or 3 resources
- Has excessive or serious of theft problems
- Has a highly significant and unique protection consideration (threats)
- Can’t confine features and activities posing significant public safety hazards to controlled areas
What is a search?
An examination of a person, property or premises to uncover evidence of a crime.
What is a Stop and Frisk Search?
An examination of a person to uncover items which may be used to harm security forces members or others in the area.
What is a seizure?
Is the taking of items by authorities, for evidence at a courts-martial or other Judicial or administrative proceeding.
Concerning AF Form 1176/Authority to Search and Seize, What is the best practice to get authorization for a search?
Is to read the Probable Cause statement/affidavit to the SJA and military magistrate or authorizing commander in person or through a conference call. Complete the affidavit within 24 hrs.
What are Three ways you can search without a search authorization?
- Incident to lawful apprehension (his/her immediate area)
- When immediate action is required to prevent the disposal of evidence
- Consent to search/AF Form 1364
Note: The law does not require the advisement of Article 31 or 5th Amendment rights to persons who voluntarily give permission for a search.
What does rules for courts-martial 302 and article 7b give security forces authority to do?
Apprehend any persons subject to the UCMJ, regardless of rank.
What is Spontaneous Utterances?
A voluntary statement made by the subject prior to the Administration of any rights advisement
What is AFVA 31-231?
Advisement of rights, for verbal advisement
What are two ways you can consider for apprehension?
By Observation
By Report
Who can security forces interview or interrogate?
Victims – to develop facts in an investigation
Witnesses – A person who has information pertinent to the investigation being conducted
Complainants – A person who reports an incident
Suspects – Who is suspected of being involved in committing an offense
What is SF Form 2/AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data use for?
To record routine contact between Security Forces members and members of the public for suspicious activity.
Who assume investigations in South Housing of child abuse cases involving civilians’ suspects?
Brevard County Sheriff’s Office
Who assume investigations in South Housing, PAFB and CCAS of child abuse cases involving military suspects?
Document all visible injuries on what worksheet?
Domestic Violence Worksheet, contact alert photo
SFCC will notify____ _________ ___________ _______ in all incidents involving child abuse or neglect after normal duty hours call on-call mental health provider
the family advocacy (FA) office
If the child has any visible injuries, who do contact to take photographs?
Alert Photo
If there are no visible injuries to the child, who will determine the necessity of photographing the child’s living conditions?
What is child neglect?
Failure to provide a child with basic necessities of life. The lack of medical care, inadequate nourishment, insufficient clothing, lack of supervision and unsafe living conditions.
What is the Child Advocacy Program?
Deals with child abuse or neglect
What are the three types of spouse abuse?
- PHYSICAL BATTERING – Punching, Kicking, Beating, Stabbing, Shooting
- SEXUAL BATTERING – Physical attacks on the victim’s breasts or genitals
- PSYSCHOLOGICAL BATTERING – Harassment, Threats and Deprivation of food and sleep
TRUE or FALSE: Children under the age of three are most likely to be severely injured by the abuse.
What are the types of child abuse?
- PHYSICAL ABUSE – Burns, Spiral Fractures of the arms or legs, bruises
- SEXUAL ABUSE - Sexual Intercourse, Sexual Contact, Child Pornography
- EMOTIONAL MALTREATMENT – Ignoring, Threatening, Terrorizing or Blatantly rejecting the child.
- CHILD NEGLECT – This type Often occurs in combination of the other abuses
What is the primary role of the Security Forces during Domestic Violence situations?
Take immediate action to restore order and protect lives
Who must be notified of Domestic Violence?
The sponsor’s unit commander, First Sergeant and the base Family Advocacy Officer
Who is responsible for investigating major offenses of child abuse and spouse abuse involving aggravated assault?
The SFCC must take down what type of information, when receiving a call from a Domestic Violence situation?
What happened, occurred, where, weapons involved, medical aid, call back number
Note: Check AF Form 1314, Firearms Registration roster or local firearms roster
How should patrols response to Domestic Violence Situation?
- Drive to the scene as quickly and safety as possible
- Patrols formulate a general plan before arrival. Who will be charge, Approach first, Back-Up
- Park Security Forces vehicles at least one house away from the address
- When responding ensure flashing lights and sirens are off before arrival and no loud noises like slamming car doors or blaring radios.
How should approaching patrols approach the scene?
- Stop and listen
- Approach with two members, stand to one side of the door, never in front of the door. The second SF member stands behind and to one side of the first member.
- Before knocking, Listen at the door for 15-30 seconds.
- Check screen doors before knocking
- Knock on the door in a reasonable manner, or use doorbell
- When someone answers the door, SF member should introduce and identify themselves and state the reason for their presence.
- If not invited into the dwelling, SF members should request to move the discussion inside.
Once inside the house, what should you check for?
- Check for injuries
- Location and number of the disputants
- Visible weapons
- Living conditions
- Emotional Condition of disputants
- Impairment
- Children at risk
- Physical damage to property
- Separate the disputants as necessary and maintain visual contact with other Security Forces member
Disputants should never be left alone in another room and should not be removed to the _________because of the availability of potential weapons.
What is the difference between Violent Dispute and Verbal Dispute?
A verbal dispute, a physical assault has not occurred.
The Security Forces member’s approach to a Domestic Dispute should be?
Calm, Controlled and Concerned. The best approach is a calm and positive one
What is the purpose of the interview during a Domestic Dispute?
- Assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody
- Determine the appropriate response to the situation
- Identify the perpetrator
- Protect the legal rights of suspects and identify victims and give them proper assistance
What are the three actions that may occur in family violence?
What form will security forces member issue to victims/witnesses involved in Domestic Violence?
DD Form 2701, Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of crime, to ensure victims/witnesses are aware of their rights the victim and witness assistance program.
When responding to a shoplifting, what entrances do you respond to at each facility?
Commissary – outside the cashier’s office door
Main exchange – The rear door
Shoppette and Gas Station – Main Entrances
What actions are taken on retired military Personnel suspected of shoplifting?
-Advised of their rights IAW the 5th Amendment
-Confiscate the evidence and release back to the AAFES Security personnel via AF Form 52. Do not confiscate the EVSS tape unless extenuating circumstances exist
-Issue a DD Form 1805, violation Notice
-Confiscate Retired Military Personnel’s ID Card via AF Form 52
-For Dependents of Active Duty/Retired Military personnel confiscate their DD Form 1173 via AF Form 52
-Issue Revocation of Base Exchange/Commissary Privileges letter
What actions are taken on active duty personnel suspected of shoplifting?
- Advised Military personnel of their rights IAW Article 31 of the UMCJ, Via AF Form 1168
- Confiscate the evidence and Electronic Video Surveillance System (EVSS) tape
via AF Form 52
- If the evidence has not been released to the store detective by the suspect, establish probable cause for search and seizure by appropriate form AF Fm 1364/AF Form 1176
- Apprehend and transport the individual to the SFCC for processing
- Active duty identification cards will not be confiscated
- Issue Revocation of Base Exchange/Commissary Privileges Letter
What actions are taken on minors under age 18 suspected of shoplifting?
- Parent or legal guardian will need to respond
- Confiscate ID card
- Release to parents via DD Form 2708
- Issue a Revocation of Base/Commissary privileges letter.
- Minors under age 16 will be released to a parent or legal guardian via DD Form 2708. The parents are to be notified as soon as they can be located
- For juvenile offenders under the age of 18 a DD Form 1805 will not be issued for retail theft under any circumstances

Note: AAFES personnel may issue a Demand for Civil Restitution to the suspect.
What is an AF Form 52?
Evidence Tag
Items of evidence seized, obtained, or received will be marked with __________.
Patrolman’s Initials, Time, Date
How are firearms tagged as evidence?
Firearms are taken using an AF Form 52 and released to SFOI. During non-duty hours, it is released to the on-duty armorer. The Armorer will maintain custody of the firearm until the next duty day, then release it to SFOI. The AF Form 52 must indicate each SFCC controller/armorer who is responsible for the custody of the firearms until turned over to SFOI.
Where are found bicycles secured?
Cell two of Bldg 575 until turned over to SFOI
What information is recorded on the AF Form 52 for drugs?
Results of the test, test lot number, date, time, and witnesses, and weight.
For Drugs, the SFCC controller makes an entry in the SF blotter and list
Describing the property, location found, test results and witness, date, time lot number, weight, and witness.
SF personnel will not field test cocaine, who do you contact if you suspect control substance to be cocaine?
On-call OSI Agent or SFOI
Where is the vehicle impoundment lot located?
The Seaplane Ramp, Northwest of Bldg 310
What is a DD Form 2504?
Abandoned Vehicle Notice. Place one copy on the vehicle, the original copy of the DD Form 2504 to SFOI. Always attempt to make contact with the owner during their shift. If no contact can be made annotate any police activity made to identify the owner on the back of the DD Form 2504.
How many days does the owner have to remove once the vehicle is tagged?
3 days from the date the vehicle is tagged.
If a vehicle is to be impounded as evidence, what must be accomplished?
The element leader will ensure an AF Form 52, Evidence Tag is accomplished prior to calling the on-call investigator.
Prior to vehicles being stored in the impoundment lot, What must be accomplished?
- Blotter Entry
- AF Form 52, Evidence Tag (For vehicle seized as evidence only)
- AF Form 3545, Incident Report (If Needed)
- DD Form 2505, Abandoned Vehicle Removal Authorization (For abandoned vehicles only)
- DD Form 2506, Vehicle Impoundment Report. Provide one copy to the towing company.
- DD Form 2507, Notice of Vehicle Impoundment. Provide one copy to the owner/operator of the vehicle.
As a condition to accepting base driving privileges, drivers must give their consent for the removal and temporary impoundment of their POV, What would cause their POV to be impounded?
- Illegally parked for unreasonable periods
- Interferes with traffic operations
- Creates a safety hazard
- Disabled by accident or incident
- Left unattended, in or adjacent to a restricted, controlled, or off limits area
- Abandoned
Code Green: Funds Escort
$1,000 - $10,000, Requires no escort, Funds handler is unaccompanied.
Code Yellow: Funds Escort
$10,001 - $24,999, Requires funds handler be escorted by one unarmed person from the facility.
Code Red: Funds Escort
$25,000 or more, requires funds handler to be escorted by one armed contract guard/security forces member or armored car service contracted out by the owner user.
What information must be obtained for a code green and yellow funds escort and annotated on AFSFC Form 29, Funds escort log?
- Estimated completion time of escort
- From what facility to what facility
- Who is conducting the escort
- Type and route of travel
The funds handler must telephone the SFCC within ________ minutes after the estimated completion time.
5 minutes
The SFCC references the pre-developed security forces funds escort card and dispatches the patrol using the assigned members for the two facilities.
Example: Lima 2 Patrick we have a code 9 from 2 to 5.
What are the procedures transporting funds by foot?
- The funds handler will be positioned in front of the security forces escort
- Remain vigilant during the escort and not allow anyone to approach
- Never walk on unlit pathways
- Report any safety deficiencies
What are the procedures transporting funds by vehicle?
- Position the funds handler’s vehicle in front of the security forces vehicle
- Remind the funds handler that, if separated, the handler must pull his/her vehicle off to the side of the road until the security forces can position their vehicle behind the funds handler’s vehicle.
- Upon the arrival at their final destination, the security forces member will exit his/her vehicle first and conduct a visual assessment of the area. If no threat appears in the area the security forces patrol will signal the funds handler, who, in turn, will exit the vehicle and complete the funds movement.
What actions will be taken in the event of an attempted robbery during escort?
- SF escort attempts to neutralize the situation IAW AFI 31-207
- Direct handler to report to the nearest security forces post and stay in the vehicle until security forces direct otherwise.
What are the SF prohibited from doing?
- Handling funds or containers
- Allowing the funds handler or funds to ride in the SF vehicles
- Transmitting dollar amounts and building number over the radio net.
When doing a code red funds escort, where do you meet the funds handler?
Inside the facility
What is AF Form 429?
Robbery Checklist, Use by funds custodian to identify suspect.
When will security forces personnel escort government funds?
When contractor services are not available.
Note: Security Forces personnel will occupy a trail vehicle during all funds escorts
What are the phases for a major accident/disaster?
Notification – Disaster Response Force
Attack Warning – 3 to 5 minute wavering tone
Peacetime Emergency – 3 to 5 minute steady tone
Withdrawal – Fire Chief sounds the alarm to withdraw personal should take cover behind vehicles outside the cordon and face away from the accident area. All personnel in the affected area in an up or cross wind direction. Vehicles in the area must remain at least 300ft within the cordon.
After accident actions, what are of major importance?
- Rescue the injured
- Prevent further injury and loss of life
- Protect property and investigative data from loss or damage
- Safe guard classified information
On a traffic stop, what information is relay to the SFCC?
Location, Vehicle description, license number, and number of occupants.
Where do you position your patrol vehicle on a normal traffic stop?
2 car lengths to the rear of the violator’s vehicle and 3 feet to the left
What are four important things to remember during a High Risk Stop?
- Never approach an occupied vehicle
- Wait for a back-up regardless of how it takes
- Use teamwork
- Maintain Control at all times
How many feet should the primary and back-up vehicles be positioned behind the suspect vehicle?
30 to 40 feet
What is Fresh Pursuit?
When the operator is aware of Security Forces Pursuit, but refuses to stop for Security Forces vehicle using emergency lights and siren.
Who can authorize Fresh Pursuit?
The Element Leader or higher authority in the chain of command when other means are not feasible.
Security Forces will not purse suspects past the base boundary unless?
A Felony, theft of classified material, theft of weapons, or items that pose a serious threat to the public.
What two things would exempt you from following the rules for pursuit driving procedures?
Nuclear and Chemical Resource Recovery Operations
What would justify Security Forces to pursuit at high speed?
The violator has committed or attempted to commit a major offense (Aggravated Assault, Armed Robbery, Burglary or Arson of an occupied building)
What are factors to be considered when pursuit driving?
The degree of danger to the public

Experience and Training

Weather and Road Conditions

Pursuit vehicle characteristics

Present and potential roadway obstacles

Facilities located along the pursuit route

Dangerous or potentially dangers intersection along the route
What is the Air Force policy on the use of Roadblocks?
Setting up roadblocks for the purpose of apprehending wanted suspects must not be used when it is apparent that innocent persons would be endangered.
What is Pursuit Driving?
An active attempt by Security Forces personnel operating an emergency vehicle and using simultaneously all emergency equipment to apprehend one or more occupants of another moving vehicles, when the driver of the fleeing vehicle is aware of that attempt and is resisting apprehension by maintaining or increasing his speed disobeying, traffic laws, ignoring the SF officer, or attempting to elude the officer.
What is the policies on pursuit driving?
Use only SF vehicles equipped with emergency lights and siren
Use no more than two marked emergency vehicles in the immediate pursuit
What must be accomplished before transporting apprehended or detained person?
Search or frisk all persons in custody for weapons before placing them in Security Forces vehicle and transporting them. Always use installed seatbelts
What information is given to the respective control center when transporting?
Departure time, Destination arrival time, Odometer Readings
What is AF Form 1315?
Accident Report
What defines a major accident?
- All accidents involving a fatality or personnel injury
- Immobilization of the vehicle
- Estimated amount of damage is in excess of $10.000 for POV/GOV
What are your responsibilities at on-base major vehicle accident?
Render first aid and arrange for medical assistance
Protect personal property
Normalize traffic
Identify witnesses and personnel involved
Conduct a formal investigation
Report minor accidents not involving Security Forces response within ______ hrs.
72 Hours
Who can assume the SFCC, if the controllers need to depart?
Another desk sergeant or element leader must assume the post.
When do controllers report for duty?
30 minutes prior to guardmount, Review all pass-ons, vehicle status, special instructions and ensure flight line plotting chart is updated.
For off-base incidents, what does the controller do?
Directs the complaint to the appropriate civil authorities to the appropriate civil authorities, calls the appropriate agency and ask them to dispatch a patrol to the SFCC, gives complainant the telephone number and name of the agency contacted, provides proper customer service until the customer has contacted the appropriate agency.
When obscene or sensitive material is contained in a report, what must be done?
A cover sheet identifying the material as obscene or sensitive will be used
All had-held radios transmit a________ digit number and the mobile radios transmit a ______ digit number.
Four, Three
How is the paperwork distributed?
Hand carry one copy of the SF blotter to 45 SFS/CC. Fax one copy of all AF Forms 3545 to the 45 SPW/SJA and AFOSI. SFCC posts one copy of the SF blotter and AF Form 3545.
How are Jail Checks conducted?
Conducted with all local police agencies using the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal
When are jail checks conducted?
Once a shift, an AF Form 3545 will be completed any time military members are incarcerated, issued a summons for DUI or other criminal offenses.
What is AF Form 2432?
Key Issue Log
When is the ADT Duress alarm for the SFCC tested?
By Day Shift controllers every Monday and annotated in the SF blotter.
What is AF Form 1109?
Visitor Register Log
What is the maximum personnel limit of the SFCC?
No more than six personnel (counting the controller) are present in the SFCC at one time.
Processing Civil warrants on base, what must be accomplished?
- Complete two copies of the Release on Bail or Recognizance Letter. One copy is given to the subject; the second copy is attached to the report
- Have arresting official read and sign two copies of agreement letter. Give one copy of the letter to the arresting official. The second copy is attached to the report.
- Ensure a copy of the warrant/writ is provided to the SFCC
Processing summons or subpoenas, what is done?
- During duty hours, the SFCC controller contacts the military member’s first sergeant or commander and request the member be escorted to the SFCC.
- After duty hours, or for civilians, the SFCC controller dispatches a patrolman to escort the civil processor to the residence or work center.
- The SFCC controller records the information in the SF blotter
- Security forces personnel will never accept/serve summons or subpoenas for other persons
Who can authorize the implementation of baker act procedures?
Brevard County Sheriffs office
What situations would implement the Baker Act?
- Person has mental illness
- Person is unable to determine for himself/herself
- Without care or treatment the person is likely to suffer from neglect and such neglect poses a real and present threat to his/her well-being.
- Without care or treatment the person will cause serious bodily harm to himself/herself or another person, in the near future, as evidence by recent behavior.
Baker Act subject will be transported to what location?
Circles of Care Treatment Center, Melbourne.
Who does the SFCC notify, when a civilian agency requests an Explosive Detector Dog team from PAFB?
CSF or designated representative, on-duty/on-call EDD handler, and the NCOIC, Military Working Dogs.
Note: The EDD teams will not depart the installation without the approval of the CSF or designated representative
EDD teams will not be used for ___________.
Search Persons
Who has operational control of assigned MWD teams?
Element Leader, makes sure effective use of assigned MWD teams, Supports on-duty-training of MWD teams to the maximum extent possible, afford sufficient time to handler to accomplished assigned details, ensures MWD teams are not dispatched to incidents involving other animals, and no stray animals are placed in the vehicle a MWD team uses.
How long will MWD teams be posted at an Installation Entry Control Point?
Excess of 4 hours under normal conditions.
What type of incidents will MWD teams not be dispatched to?
Traffic Control, Accident Investigations, Stay Animals or Animal Incidents. MWD teams can be dispatched to Domestic Disturbances as back-up units.
If a dog bite’s an individual, what information must be obtained?
Whether or not they have a spleen and advise medical personnel.
What are the procedures for a loose/escaped MWD?
Notify SFCC; give a description of the canine, location, direction of travel. SFCC will initiate a Recall of all MWD personnel for capture.
What are armory duress procedures?
- Notify Element leader and post/patrols have all posts and patrols switch frequency to tac 2 maintain radio silence
- Contact Golf-1 and Golf-2 via direct landline, stop outbound traffic initiate stop check pass inbound.
- Once 360-degree cordon established attempt telephonic contact
- If all secure conduct interior check of armory
- If armorer miss authenticates initiate checklist 323/Hostage Situation
What are the Command Post/Wing Commander Duress procedures?
- Notify Element Leader and Post/Patrols (Code 12-23)
- Close outbound lanes of traffic and initiate stop, Check, and Pass at installation gates
- If alarm is the Command Post notify #) SW?CP Vandenberg AFB DSN: 276-9961
- Dispatch patrols to establish 360 degree security on the facility. Remind patrols to not cross in front of commander’s window and to stay out of view
- Attempt telephonic contact and ascertain status of the facility
- If Successful: Have SW/CC or alarm custodian, which ever for the appropriate alarm, step out for status verification. Patrol will conduct a joint inspection
- If unsuccessful: Implement QRC #23, Hostage Situation, as directed by SFS/CC
- If alarm is the 45 SW/CC notify the 45 SW/CP
What is Standard form 702?
Security Container Check Sheet
What is the DCG rally points?
Primary: Bldg 710, DP Training Room
Alternate: Bldg 912
Where is the primary and alternate CP/Battle Staff?
Primary: Bldg 423, 45th SW/CP
Alternate: Bldg 1356, RAPCON
Toxic Chemical/Hazardous Material Spill-Class I
Spill less than 2 feet in plane dimension
Toxic Chemical/Hazardous Material Spill-Class II
Spill not over 10 feet or not over 50 square feet in area, and not of a continuing nature
Toxic Chemical/Hazardous Material Spill-Class III
Spill over 10 feet or 50 feet in area of a continuing nature

Hydrazine: 75 feet up and crosswind by 300 feet downwind
What is the cordon for Radioactive Release?
1 mile in radius upwind/crosswind, and 2 miles downwind
What is the cordon for Chemical Weapons?
2000 feet cordon in all directions
What is the cordon for Biological/toxic agents?
2000 feet upwind/crosswind; downwind determined by on-scene commander
What is the cordon for Nuclear?
2000 Ft
What is the cordon for a Box Van or Tractor Trailer with explosives?
4000 Ft
What is the cordon for a small box van with explosives?
2500 Ft
What is the cordon for improvised explosive lager than a brief case?
1000 Ft
What is DD Form 2702?
Confinement Order must be signed by an officer or designated NCO
What is AF Form 444?
Advisement of Rights Upon Pretrial Confinement
What is AF Form 807?
Receipt for Prisoner’s Personal Property, Give the carbon copy (Yellow) to the inmate for a receipt. Annotate only the last four digits when identifying credit cards. The inmate and inmates First Sgt will coordinate disposition of unauthorized items.
When should a report be generated
A. Apprehension of an active duty member or reservist on active duty orders by civilian or military police.

B. Damage to personnel or government property in excess of $500.00. Damage less than $500.00 requires only a detailed blotter entry unless the damage was a result of criminal mischief i.e. vandalism or forced entry

C. Theft of personnel/government property when there is a suspect or forced entry or when property is valued in excess of $500.00
D. Non-Criminal matters (Example: verbal altercations that involve no physical contact)
Require only a detailed blotter entry.
How do you read a topographical map?
Left to right and bottom to top
What are the Element leader requirements?
- Report for duty 30 minutes prior to guardmount
- Conduct an inspection of building 575. Looking for cleanliness or other discrepancies.
- Reviews and initials the Pass-ON book for duty orders, Instructions, Events, Be on the look outs, AFLETS additions, Distribution in element box, and E-Mail.
- Ensures personnel update the aircraft plot board and post status information.
What is covered during guardmount?
Inspecting personnel, conducting roll call, and briefing personnel on the use of force, use of deadly force, weapon, ground, and vehicle safety, appointments, and other pertinent information.
How many times is formal guardmount conducted?
At least once a cycle
Post are inspected how many times per shift?
At least once a shift and recorded in the Security Forces blotter
How many exercises are conducted per cycle?
As minimum, at least one Anti-Robbery, and one Helping Hand/Covered Wagon exercise.
What monthly paperwork will be submitted to the Superintendent, Operations Flight, Unit Personnel Office (UPO), and 45 SFS/SFTT No later than the 5th of each month?
Reporting Official Roster, Element Pyramid Recall Roster and TDYs.