Flight Review 1

Front 1

What publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for material management?

Back 1

AFI 36-2101

Front 2

List the seven general duties and responsibilities of a materiel management specialist as they are outlined in Enlisted Classification.

Back 2

1. Perform administrative and management functions.

2. Inspect and evaluate inventory management activities.

3. Inspect and identify property.

4.Provide support to maintenance activities.

5. Perform technical materiel functions.

6. Issue, ship, and transfer property.

7. Plan and schedule materiel storage activities.

Front 3

Which program was created to promote a better understanding of the whole supply system?

Back 3

Wholesale Logistics Program.

Front 4

What rank is required to qualify for the logistics career broadening program?

Back 4

TSgt or MSgt.

Front 5

Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field?

Back 5

MAJOCOM functional manager (MFM)

Front 6

Who chairs the Air Force Supply Cheifs Advisory Board and is key to the education and training path of our enlisted force?

Back 6

Career field manager (CFM)

Front 7

What is eLog21?

Back 7

The eLog21 is the Air Force transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both the current and future threat environment.

Front 8

What is the goal of Integrated Processes?

Back 8

To create unified, enterprise-wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time.

Front 9

Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system

Back 9

AFMC

Front 10

Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD?

Back 10

DLA

Front 11

What is a GPC?

Back 11

The official government credit card for making authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, and non-personal services costing up to $2,500.

Front 12

Define local manufacture.

Back 12

Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

Front 13

How many categories are supplies grouped in?

Back 13

10

Front 14

What is Class IV's major classification

Back 14

Construction

Front 15

What is the AFGLSC?

Back 15

The AFGLSC is the central process-driven initiative designed to ensure the success of eLog21 campaign.

Front 16

What are the three primary functions of the AFGLSC?

Back 16

SC Planning and Execution, SC Operations, and SC Strategy and Integration.

Front 17

How many organizations make up the AFGLSC?

Back 17

3

Front 18

List the four supply major processes.

Back 18

Item accounting, file maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance.

Front 19

Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeables and substitutes?

Back 19

Due-out process

Front 20

What four types of transactions activate the due-out release process?

Back 20

Receipt, a turn-in, an inclusion of new items in an interchangeable family of items, or an inventory adjustment.

Front 21

List the 11 major processes in the file maintenance funtion.

Back 21

1. Status

2. Follow-up

3. Inventory

4. Special level

5. Equipment in-use

6. New item record load

7. Mission change special level

8. Miscellaneous file maintenance

9. SNUD

10. ISG

11. MRSP and MSK

Front 22

What are the five differenet types of reports?

Back 22

1. Daily

2. Monthly

3. Quarterly

4. As-required

5. Utility

Front 23

What is the purpose of AFMAN 23-110?

Back 23

To establish a unified system of stock control throughout the Air Force.

Front 24

How often is the USAF Supply Manual published?

Back 24

Quarterly.

Front 25

Which volume and part of AFMAN 23-110 is used most be materiel management personnel?

Back 25

Vol 2, Part 2

Front 26

What are three ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-110?

Back 26

Table of Contents, Hyperlinks, Search/find tools.

Front 27

How are changes in AFMAN 23-110 identified?

Back 27

"A SUMMARY OF CHANGES" located at the top of the main table of contents. It provides a list of significant updates.

Front 28

What is an NSN?

Back 28

A 13-position alpha numeric identification number associated with a specific item.

Front 29

What two entities make up the National Stock Number?

Back 29

Federal Supply Class (4 digits), and National Item Identification Number (9 digits)

Front 30

What are the four major types of computer inquiries?

Back 30

Item record, detail record, part number record, other records.

Front 31

What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for specific document number?

Back 31

Part number record.

Front 32

What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?

Back 32

M32, Monthly Base Supply Management Report.

Front 33

What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?

Back 33

Record Retrieval Codes.

Front 34

What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output?

Back 34

Stock Number.

Front 35

In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed?

Back 35

Narrative Format.

Front 36

What information is provided from a part number inquiry?

Back 36

NSN, cage code, and technical order (TO).

Front 37

What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?

Back 37

5

Front 38

What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given stock number?

Back 38

Releveling Flag "R".

Front 39

How far back can users query CTH records?

Back 39

One year or more at a time.

Front 40

What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?

Back 40

Stock number, transaction serial number, or batch miscellaneous.

Front 41

What is the basic difference between a short and long CTH inquiry output?

Back 41

Short CTH provides the item record indicitive data. The long CTH provides the complete transaction history.

Front 42

What three elements make up a reject phrase?

Back 42

Reject code, a descriptive phrase, an action flag.

Front 43

When you receive a reject, what should you do first?

Back 43

Ensure that you input the data correctly.

Front 44

What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject?

Back 44

AFMAN 23-110, Chapter 7, Vol 2, Part 2

Front 45

Within what time frame should all rejects be processed?

Back 45

As fast as possible. Normally within one workday.

Front 46

What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

Back 46

D818 (Cumulative Reject Suspense Listing)

Front 47

Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force-delete a reject image?

Back 47

Option 3 in the reject processor.

Front 48

Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced-deletions of rejects are processed for only valid reasons?

Back 48

Each flight chief.

Front 49

Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing, and volume and reasons for forced-deletion processing?

Back 49

To determine the effectiveness of transaction processing.

Front 50

What is the difference between a reject and management notice?

Back 50

Management notices do not stop computer processing. Instead, the transaction is processed and data-base records are updated.

Front 51

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs?

Back 51

Controlled TRICS require authorization for an individual to process. Uncontrolled TRICs require no special authorization.

Front 52

Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights?

Back 52

Flight Cheifs

Front 53

What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?

Back 53

301 Reject Notice

Front 54

What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC processing?

Back 54

D20 Part 8

Front 55

What documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings?

Back 55

1. Specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110

2. An approved supplement

3. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request

Front 56

Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler?

Back 56

15th workday of the month of the same month.

Front 57

What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?

Back 57

AF Form 2011

Front 58

The personnel in what activity ensure that management reports and listings are complete and accurate?

Back 58

Computer Operations.

Front 59

Explain the concept of SMAG.

Back 59

Congress supplies the money, purchases items into the stock fund, sells to the Air Force, and the money is used to make more materials. This is called a revolving fund.

Front 60

Under what operating principle is the SMAG designed to operate?

Back 60

No profit/No-loss basis.

Front 61

How many SMAGs are there within the DOD?

Back 61

5

Front 62

How many divisions make up the Air Force SMAG?

Back 62

6

Front 63

How often does the procedures element conduct surveillance visits?

Back 63

Annually..

Front 64

As a minimum, what information must be included on all checklists used to conduct a surveillance visit?

Back 64

Discrepancies within the past 2 years.

Front 65

Why is the review of management products coordinated with the analysis element?

Back 65

To be sure they are not preparing reports on the same problems and training requirements.

Front 66

What is the purpose of a customer support visit?

Back 66

Determine if customers are recieving quality support and find where they are lacking in.

Front 67

What section is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring DIREPs?

Back 67

The Procedures Element.

Front 68

List the four DIREP categories.

Back 68

Major impact, Severe Problem, Chronic Problem, and Cosmetic Error.

Front 69

What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately?

Back 69

Major Impact.

Front 70

What three members are usually required to submit a thoroughly researched and documented DIREP?

Back 70

The user, the Management and System Monitor, and the DIREP Monitor.

Front 71

What purpose does the analysis program serve?

Back 71

Analyzed and interprets management data. Determines effectiveness.

Front 72

What are the three types of analysis?

Back 72

Trend analysis, problem analysis, and special studies.

Front 73

What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement, or to solve a specific problem?

Back 73

Special Studies.

Front 74

Define the term management indicator.

Back 74

Performance measures that represent a key result.

Front 75

After gathering your data, what is the next step in performing an analysis?

Back 75

Identify unfavorable deviations or deficiencies that may exist in the material management account.

Front 76

What is one important cause of unfavorable deficiencies that should be identified, when applicable? Who must be notified to get them resolved?

Back 76

Training deficiencies. Training element and procedures element must be called on to resolve those discrepancies.

Front 77

What does the term degraded operation mean?

Back 77

Procedures used when material management computer is down.

Front 78

Who is responsible for ensuring that customer support does not end when the computer is down?

Back 78

Each individual.

Front 79

Which text code is used on issue request when assets are available during degraded operations?

Back 79

TEX code 6.

Front 80

Which text code is used to create memo due-outs during special requisitioning?

Back 80

TEX code 7.

Front 81

When does recovery take place and what does it involve?

Back 81

When the computer is back online. It involves processing all the degraded operations input documents. They must be input prior to processing an new transactions online.

Front 82

How do you perform a QC check?

Back 82

Comparing source documents with the document control record (DCR).

Front 83

What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC?

Back 83

Stock number, document number, quantity, unit of issue, system designator.

Front 84

What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed? Destroyed?

Back 84

F = File, D = Destroyable

Front 85

When justified, what method, other than filing, may be used to store cource documents?

Back 85

Microfilm.

Front 86

What are the two forms of the Consolidated Transaction Register?

Back 86

Register form or Microfiche.

Front 87

How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?

Back 87

Two years.

Front 88

What product is used as a historical document showing the status of the materiel management system database after establishing a new materiel management account?

Back 88

R22 (Conversion Audit List)

Front 89

How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?

Back 89

Two years.

Front 90

How is the shipment loss analysis (M16) filed?

Back 90

File the original copy of this listing in document control by fiscal year, destroy them after one year.

Front 91

Within what time frame must the M10 be filed?

Back 91

Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.

Front 92

What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?

Back 92

Ensure that an item has been shipped.

Front 93

When is a shipment-suspense detail created?

Back 93

When shipments and transfers process through the LRS.

Front 94

What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?

Back 94

Provides a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.

Front 95

Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?

Back 95

TRIC SSC

Front 96

How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS interface?

Back 96

Electronic interface with the Traffic Management Flight.

Front 97

What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?

Back 97

R40.

Front 98

What elements are responsible for processing RVP inputs?

Back 98

Document Control, Repair Cycle Support, Inventory, Customer Service.

Front 99

Reverse-posting transactions involving price and price-change errors are limited to what two conditions?

Back 99

When amount of unit price change exceeds $99.99 or when the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater and the extended cost is more than $99.99.

Front 100

Once you have determined that RVP action is needed, what is the first step that you normally take?

Back 100

Perform research.

Front 101

What determines the number of transactions that require reverse-posting?

Back 101

Number of transactions associated with the error and those caused by the error.

Front 102

What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a reverse-post?

Back 102

The activity finding the error.

Front 103

How is freeze code Q deleted for all TRICs except DOR?

Back 103

Automatically deleted from the item record by the RVP program.

Front 104

What is annoted on the output DD Form 1348-1A that is produced as a result of RVP processing?

Back 104

Date and transaction serial numbers that were reversed with each input in the RVP control log.

Front 105

What transactions may be reverse-posted using automated RVP procedures?

Back 105

Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records.

Front 106

What information is required to process an automated RVP?

Back 106

TTPC, date and serial number of the transaction you want to reverse-post.

Front 107

What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated RVP screen before input?

Back 107

Review.

Front 108

What methods can be used for submitting supplies?

Back 108

Hand carried, mailed, or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or email.

Front 109

What submission point is used to process expedite issue requests?

Back 109

Customer Service demand processing function.

Front 110

How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for issue requests?

Back 110

Two copies.

Front 111

What methods are available for determining the next available serial number to use on an issue request?

Back 111

Copy two of the AF Form 2005 or preserial numberd AF Forms 2005.

Front 112

What additional information must be provided on a part number request if the part number is not known to be loaded in the system?

Back 112

TO data or other appropriate reference.

Front 113

What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated UNDs and UJCs?

Back 113

Effective reduction of UMMIPS violations and the cost of priority requirements.

Front 114

What management notice reflects the quantity issued, killed, or due out?

Back 114

I004.

Front 115

What management notice reflects due-out requisitioning action taken on an issue request?

Back 115

I005.

Front 116

What management notice is provided for all part number requests that cannot be converted to NSNs under program control?

Back 116

I007.

Front 117

What management notice reflects the total base asset position of a killed request?

Back 117

I0023.

Front 118

What benefit does the CAMS/Materiel Management System interface provide maintenance personnel?

Back 118

Capability to order parts, retrieve current status, cancel their own requirements, and review canceled requirements.

Front 119

What activity code on an issue request identifies a CAMS document?

Back 119

J

Front 120

What management notification does the Materiel Management System output to notify the CAMS system of a change in status to a maintenance due-out?

Back 120

1SH

Front 121

What happens when Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS?

Back 121

The image is returned to the CAMS input terminal along with the appplicable reject notice.

Front 122

Who must ensure that all local resources are exhausted before submitting a MICAP requisition?

Back 122

Both Materiel Management and Maintenance.

Front 123

Define cannibalization.

Back 123

Removal of a part from one end item for installation on another end item.

Front 124

What are three reasons for performing a cannibalization?

Back 124

To prevent, transfer, or terminate a MICAP condition.

Front 125

What product is used to record cannibalizations?

Back 125

MICAP worksheet or a locally developed form/register.

Front 126

What TRIC is used to process a cannibalization?

Back 126

NOR.

Front 127

How is the NOR processed for cannibalization action taken to preclude a MICAP?

Back 127

Delete code 4, advice code Z

Front 128

How is a MICAP due-out established?

Back 128

TRIC ISU with MICAP Flag N and the appropriate MICAP UJC.

Front 129

What UND codes reflect a MICAP requirement?

Back 129

1, J, or /.

Front 130

What code on the MICAP report is used to identify the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made the MICAP request necessary?

Back 130

MICAP Cause Code.

Front 131

How is the MICAP cause code assigned on the MICAP report?

Back 131

Under program control.

Front 132

What information should you always be aware of regarding MICAP requirements?

Back 132

Current Status.

Front 133

What CAMS data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a MICAP requirement?

Back 133

731.

Front 134

What is the purpose of a MICAP delete code?

Back 134

Identify the reason for termination of a MICAP condition.

Front 135

What MICAP delete code indicates a report that was reported in error?

Back 135

9.

Front 136

What purpose do MICAP reports (B9*) serve?

Back 136

To report the initiation, change, or termination of a MICAP condition.

Front 137

How does MICAP reporting take place?

Back 137

Automatically with the output of B9* images during on-line processing.

Front 138

WHen is MICAP reporting initiated?

Back 138

When due-ins is established to satisfy a MICAP condition or when an existing requisition is upgraded to a MICAP condition.

Front 139

When is MICAP reporting terminated?

Back 139

At the time of a due-out release, downgrade to a non-MICAP condition, or cancellation.

Front 140

What ERRCDs identify repair cycle assets?

Back 140

XD or XF.

Front 141

When does the repair cycle of an asset begin and end?

Back 141

Normally begins with the item's removal from the end item and is followed by a replacement request to Base Supply. It normally ends when the original item is turned in as repaired, NRTS, or condemned.

Front 142

When is a DIFM detail established?

Back 142

When a repair cycle asset has been issued or backordered as a replacement.

Front 143

DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM details. What are the flags for each of the following DIFM details?

Back 143

a. Firm = 0

b. Memo = 1

c. Credit = 2

Front 144

What are DFM change inputs used for?

Back 144

To update the status and location fields on the DIFM detail record.

Front 145

In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?

Back 145

One.

Front 146

What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process?

Back 146

Multiple DIFM flag.

Front 147

What listing is used to perform the DIFM reconciliation?

Back 147

D23.

Front 148

What is the purpose of the D23?

Back 148

To monitor status and maintain visibility of DIFM assets.

Front 149

How is the Q04 used?

Back 149

To review the base in-house repair capability program.

Front 150

What purpose does the D19 serve?

Back 150

AWAITING PARTS LIST. Provide a listing of AWP due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records. It also provides financial data for maintenance managers to make repair decisions.

Front 151

What action do you take for items appearing in the D20?

Back 151

Ensure all initial issues are validated with a letter of justification or exception.

Front 152

What paperwork must accompany DIFM items when they are returned to the LRS?

Back 152

An AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, a condition tag, and the Issue (ISU) or due-out release (DOR) document.

Front 153

How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are required for turn-in preparation if Supply Asset Tracking System (SATS) is not used to process the turn-in?

Back 153

3.

Front 154

What happens to ERRCD XF assets when they are turned in condemned?

Back 154

A DIC A5J document is produced to transfer the item to DRMO.

Front 155

What is the two level maintenace concept?

Back 155

Practice of sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair, with out first attempting to repair them at base level.

Front 156

What are the benefits of the two level maintenance concept?

Back 156

Reduces number of places where assets are repaired, which in turn reduced the man power, equipment, and spare parts required for the repair, and the dollars required to support the function.

Front 157

Why is it important to process TRN data?

Back 157

It generates base stock levels and provides info to the HQ AFMC from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made.

Front 158

What data is updated by processing a maintenance turnaround record update?

Back 158

Demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record.

Front 159

What is the source of data for TRN processing?

Back 159

Part II of the AFTo Form 250 from the maintenance activity.

Front 160

How long are unserviceable assets stored?

Back 160

Until disposition instructions are received.

Front 161

What is the benefit if separate storage of assets?

Back 161

Prevent an unserviceable item from being issued as serviceable when it's not.

Front 162

What TRICs are processed once disposition instructions are received?

Back 162

TRIC SHP, TRM, or MSI.

Front 163

Establishing a supply point is a coordinated effort between Maintenance and the LRS. What are the functions of the Maintenance in this operation?

Back 163

Provide sufficient space and facilities for accommodating the supply point.

Front 164

When can EOQ items be stocked in a supply point?

Back 164

When authorized by the Operations Support Officer.

Front 165

What input is used to load, change, or delete a supply point detail?

Back 165

FSP.

Front 166

What organization code identifies a supply point transaction?

Back 166

005.

Front 167

Waht TRIC is used to load the storage location on a supply point detail?

Back 167

FSP.

Front 168

With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted?

Back 168

S;005;N

Front 169

What term describes how items are issued from a supply point?

Back 169

Over-the-counter

Front 170

What TRIC is used to issue an item from a supply point detail?

Back 170

MSI.

Front 171

What do you do to issue an item from a supply point detail with no replenishment action?

Back 171

Use TEX code F in position 54 of the MSi request.

Front 172

What is the purpose of the supply point serial numbered log?

Back 172

Assign sequential serial numbers to the document number date field of each supply point issue. This allows multiple issues of a single DIFM item during one day's processing.

Front 173

How often are supply point assets reconciled?

Back 173

At least semiannually.

Front 174

What listing is used to reconcile supply point assets?

Back 174

Q13 (Supply point listing).

Front 175

When are issues (TRIC ISU) processed during the supply point reconciliation?

Back 175

When the total on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity.

Front 176

How are balance discrepancies reconciled?

Back 176

Using special inventory procedures.

Front 177

List the seven types of basic expeditionary airfield resource systems.

Back 177

1. Shelters

2. Environmental Control

3. Power

4. Waste/water

5. Hygiene

6. Feeding

7. Airfield Support

Front 178

What is the support period of an MRSP?

Back 178

60 days.

Front 179

Which type of RSP is used to support an organization in-place for the first 30 days of wartime operation?

Back 179

IRSP.

Front 180

What record must be loaded prior to processing RSP authorization input records?

Back 180

Serial number/Control record - TRIC 1EB.

Front 181

What program is used to perform a reconciliation between XVF records and base level WRM authorizations?

Back 181

S05.

Front 182

What warehouse function must the storing activity provide in the care of RSP assets?

Back 182

War Readiness Function.

Front 183

Within how many days upon return from a deployment must RSP be inventoried?

Back 183

10.

Front 184

How are issues to an MRSP processed?

Back 184

TRIC ISU, activity code U.

Front 185

What TRIC is used to issue assets from an MRSP?

Back 185

TRIC MSI.

Front 186

What action occurs if you use TEX F on an MSI transaction?

Back 186

Prevents automatic replenishment.

Front 187

What TRIC input assigns the deployment flag on the MRSP detail record?

Back 187

FKD.

Front 188

What type of deployment is in effect when the host computer support base for the forward location assumes accountability?

Back 188

Transfer.

Front 189

WHo must make the decision to transfer MRSP accountability?

Back 189

MAJCOM.

Front 190

What document is output to transfer the responsibility of deployed equipment to the equipment custodian on a short-term deployment?

Back 190

Custody receipt transfer documents.

Front 191

Upon return from a short-term deployment, what input is necessary to delete the deployed flag on equipment detail records?

Back 191

1ED/FME.

Front 192

For a long-term deployment, what input transfers selected equipment items to the gaining base?

Back 192

1ET/FME.

Front 193

What output images are produced with FME processing?

Back 193

FIL, FCI, REC, ISU, FED, FCS.

Front 194

What is the primary function of PC-ASM?

Back 194

Logistics.

Front 195

Who is responsible to ensure quality control of transactions prior to input the Materiel Management System?

Back 195

Team Chief.

Front 196

List the three responsibility the team chief is responsible for?

Back 196

1. Ensure listings are maintained and updated in the respective areas.

2. Select the method of document distribution and creation.

3. Ensure quality control of transactions prior to input into MATMAN System.

Front 197

What TRIC is used to manually issue items from retail materiel management system kit detail records?

Back 197

MSI.

Front 198

Why must degraded operations documents be input prior to processing any new transactions online?

Back 198

Prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed.

Front 199

Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations?

Back 199

Readiness.

Front 200

What is a UTC?

Back 200

A UTC identifies each unit tasked in the OPlan or TPFDD.

Front 201

What is the AEF UTC Reporting Tool?

Back 201

ART is an CSAF-directed system developed to measure AEF Readiness.

Front 202

What is SORTS?

Back 202

A monitoring system of measured units and resources.

Front 203

Why are extra controls necessary for small arms?

Back 203

TO prevent their losses.

Front 204

What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons?

Back 204

The serial number of the weapon involved.

Front 205

What factors determine the type of bag issued to an individual for deplyment?

Back 205

The reason for the deployment and the deployment location.

Front 206

Which bag contains general-support items?

Back 206

A.

Front 207

Which bag contains CWDE?

Back 207

C.

Front 208

What concept may be used to determine the sized required for mobility bags?

Back 208

Tariff-Sizing.

Front 209

What PC program is used to manage mobility bags.

Back 209

MICAS.

Front 210

What is an allowance standard?

Back 210

A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by AF activities and individuals to accomplish the mission.

Front 211

Where can you find allowance standards?

Back 211

Through on-line query screens in AFEMS (COOL)

Front 212

What is a BOI?

Back 212

The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization.

Front 213

What code tells you if an equipment item is an EAID item?

Back 213

EMC.

Front 214

How are non-EAID items identified?

Back 214

By EMC 1 (ERRCD NF1).

Front 215

What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below?

Back 215

AF Form 2005.

Front 216

What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment allowance standards?

Back 216

AF Form 601.

Front 217

When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base level approval?

Back 217

When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the same.

Front 218

What AFEMS (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request?

Back 218

TACR.

Front 219

List the four situations when you would NOT input a 601 request into AFEMS (C001).

Back 219

EOD items, special weapons, miultiple items, or if it contains classified information.

Front 220

What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details?

Back 220

To control and account for EAID equipment.

Front 221

What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete EAID records?

Back 221

FCI.

Front 222

What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?

Back 222

1.

Front 223

What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins?

Back 223

Post-post and prepost.

Front 224

Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property?

Back 224

Post-post.

Front 225

How are non-EAID items turned in?

Back 225

AF Form 2005 in four copies, TRIC TIN, and activity code P.

Front 226

How are EAID turn-ins processed?

Back 226

AF Form 2005 in give copies (for post-post) and three copies (for pre-post), TRIC TIN, and activity code E.

Front 227

What reject is produced when you try to process a turn-in against an NSN that has due-outs?

Back 227

383.

Front 228

What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?

Back 228

FET.

Front 229

What listing provides you with the capability to ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?

Back 229

Q09 (ASC Listing)

Front 230

What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities?

Back 230

Out-of-balance conditions.

Front 231

What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL?

Back 231

Serves as a custodian receipt when signed by the custodian.

Front 232

How often are CA/CRL jacket files verified?

Back 232

Quarterly.

Front 233

Who may sign for equipment items?

Back 233

Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.

Front 234

Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets?

Back 234

XD/XF.

Front 235

Which TRIC is used to laod, change, or delete SPRAM details?

Back 235

1XA.

Front 236

What product is used to inventory SPRAM asets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian?

Back 236

R25.

Front 237

What controlled item codes (CICs) are used to identify weapons?

Back 237

SRC of A, and CICs N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.

Front 238

How are COMSEC items identified on the item record?

Back 238

SRC of C, and MMCs of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR, or CY.

Front 239

Daily change reports for weapons and COMSEC are identified by what document identifier codes?

Back 239

DIC XHA.

Front 240

How often must you reconcile weapons and COMSEC detail records?

Back 240

Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for COMSEC (15 March and 15 September).

Front 241

What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation?

Back 241

R46 (Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation).

Front 242

What are the key responsibilities of Stock Control?

Back 242

Stock policy and managing requisitions.

Front 243

What term defines the average quantity used daily?

Back 243

Daily Demand Rate (DDR).

Front 244

What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?

Back 244

Demand Level.

Front 245

What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?

Back 245

Average percent of base repair (PBR).

Front 246

What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock replenishment requisitions?

Back 246

Order and shipping time (O&ST).

Front 247

What term represents that number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle?

Back 247

Repair Cycle Quantity (RCQ).

Front 248

What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment?

Back 248

Safety level quantity (SLQ).

Front 249

What type of minimum adjusted stock level has a reorder point one-third the adjusted stock level quantity?

Back 249

Type level A.

Front 250

Which minimum adjusted stock levels are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the total minimum level?

Back 250

Type levels A and B.

Front 251

hat type of adjusted stock level restricts stockage?

Back 251

Maximum adjusted level.

Front 252

What type of adjusted stock level maintains an item's stockage position at a constant level?

Back 252

Adjusted fixed level.

Front 253

What form is used to request an adjusted stock level? How many copies are needed?

Back 253

AF Form 1996. Two Copies.

Front 254

What type detail is used to control and manage adjusted stock levels?

Back 254

L type adjusted stock level details.

Front 255

How often are adjusted stock levels validated?

Back 255

At least every 2 years.

Front 256

What product is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

Back 256

R35.

Front 257

What action occurs during the review of an adjusted stock level?

Back 257

The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original justification.

Front 258

What action occurs during the validation of adjusted stock levels?

Back 258

Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for each level is still valid.

Front 259

What type item does the RBL system compute demand levels for?

Back 259

Selected ERRCD XD items.

Front 260

How often are RBLs updated?

Back 260

Quarterly.

Front 261

By what document identifier code are RB:s received at each base?

Back 261

DIC XCA.

Front 262

What are two instances when an RBL may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?

Back 262

1. When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level.

2. When the base's minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system.

Front 263

As a requirements element clerk, are you required to manually review A2*s/A4*s/FTRs before processing?

Back 263

No, they are input without review.

Front 264

On 18 May 09, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the RDO is input?

Back 264

An RDO denial (DIC B7*) is produced.

Front 265

What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?

Back 265

Nondirected, Special.

Front 266

What routing identifier codes (RIC) are used on lateral support shipments?

Back 266

JLS or D**.

Front 267

What is a transfer?

Back 267

A transfer is the movement of material to the DRMS.

Front 268

What are shipment exception codes used for?

Back 268

To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken.

Front 269

What are the two main types of requisitions?

Back 269

Automatic and special.

Front 270

What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?

Back 270

Military Standard Requisitioning Supplies from the Source of Supply.

Front 271

What is the purpose of MILSTRIP?

Back 271

Provides a standard of requisitioning supplies from the source of supply.

Front 272

What agencies are required to used MILSTRIP procedures?

Back 272

All branches of the service.

Front 273

In what format are requisitions submitted to the source of supply?

Back 273

DIC AO*.

Front 274

When does the Materiel Management System identify and requisition stock replenishment requirements?

Back 274

When items have an asset position down to or below its recorder level.

Front 275

What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?

Back 275

Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions.

Front 276

What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

Back 276

9000-9899.

Front 277

What is the purpose of UMMIPS?

Back 277

Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.

Front 278

What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS?

Back 278

FAD and UND.

Front 279

What sequence should status be processed in?

Back 279

Same sequence it is received in.

Front 280

In what format is requisition status received?

Back 280

Supply or Shipment (AE*/AS* or AV*)

Front 281

What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?

Back 281

You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations, and billings.

Front 282

What are the different types of MILSTRIP status?

Back 282

Positive supply status, cancellations, In-transit/shipped, and exception/other.

Front 283

What status type has the worst effect on an account?

Back 283

Cancellation.

Front 284

What REX code is used to indicate that a requisition was cancelled form the source of supply?

Back 284

REX 1.

Front 285

What information does shipment status provide to the requisitioner?

Back 285

Actual shipping date and mode of shipment.

Front 286

What status types are generated by program control at base level?

Back 286

Cancellation requests and follow-up.

Front 287

What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?

Back 287

Either confirm the cancellations or furnish shipment status.

Front 288

What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?

Back 288

ZC, ZD.

Front 289

When is follow-up action initiated?

Back 289

When supply status information is overdue or the estimated delivery date has passed.

Front 290

When will in-line follow-up be performed for a priority 03 requisition when 100 percent status is required?

Back 290

Four days after the requisition date.

Front 291

Within what time frame must ARC images be worked before another is output?

Back 291

Five days.

Front 292

What are supply difficulties?

Back 292

Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that can't be corrected locally and that ultimately affect the operational capability of the base or unit involed.

Front 293

How are supply difficulties reported?

Back 293

AF Form 1667, message, or email.

Front 294

Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calender days?

Back 294

Seven.

Front 295

What is the MILSTAMP tracer reconsiliation program?

Back 295

Used to identify shipments that have been delayed or misplaced between the SOS and the receiving base.

Front 296

How often is the MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program run?

Back 296

At least twice a month - on the first and third weekend.

Front 297

What products are used to trace delinquent shipments?

Back 297

Transportation tracer lists parcel post tracer list, receipt acknowledged error list, consolidated shipment error list, exception action listing.

Front 298

When tracer listing is used to review due-ins remaining in the computer that have been receipted in supply, but no completely cleared?

Back 298

Receipt Acknowledge Error List.

Front 299

Which tracer listing is used to trace consolidated shipments that exceed age requirements and have no due-in detail?

Back 299

Consolidated Shipment Error List.

Front 300

How often are priority due-outs validated?

Back 300

Monthly for UND A and B.

Front 301

What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?

Back 301

Automatically and forced?

Front 302

What three TRICs may be used to force release a due-out?

Back 302

DOR, REC, TIN.

Front 303

What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out?

Back 303

TEX 3.

Front 304

What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation?

Back 304

DOC.

Front 305

What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input?

Back 305

That Stock Control has reviewed the cancellation input.

Front 306

What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?

Back 306

Equipment Management.

Front 307

What CD-ROM research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

Back 307

FedLog

Front 308

What search criteria does FEDLOG provide for making queries?

Back 308

NIIN or NSN, part number, item name, supplier name, CAGE, FSC, INC, SRAN, and base address.

Front 309

Which data screen displays the indicative data needed to load new NSNs into SBLC?

Back 309

Management Data Screen.

Front 310

What is the main advantage of using the D043A over FEDLOG?

Back 310

The D043A is updated in real time.

Front 311

How are IPBs normally idenified and published?

Back 311

Dash four (-4) series of technical orders.

Front 312

IPBs are normally broken down into what three sections?

Back 312

Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numberical index.

Front 313

How are next higher assemblies determined in the TO system?

Back 313

The indent dot system.

Front 314

What is the source code for part numbers 53-39303-99?

Back 314

P2.

Front 315

What is the next higher assembly for figure and index number 2-9-12?

Back 315

Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.

Front 316

What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53-39307-3?

Back 316

1-35-40.

Front 317

What code provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions?

Back 317

SMR code.

Front 318

What TO reference lists SMR codes and provides a complete explanation of each?

Back 318

TO 00-25-195.

Front 319

What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?

Back 319

TRIC FIL.

Front 320

What records are established by processing a FIL input?

Back 320

Item record and repair cycle record.

Front 321

What does the first position of an ERRC designator signify?

Back 321

The expendability of an item of supply.

Front 322

How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?

Back 322

Until they are issued for use.

Front 323

What does the second position of an ERRC designator signify?

Back 323

It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair.

Front 324

Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?

Back 324

TRIC FIL/1AA.

Front 325

What benefit is provided by establishing a part number detail record?

Back 325

It automates the part number to stock number cross reference file and reduces external research action.

Front 326

Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?

Back 326

Because the part number cannot be edited under program control.

Front 327

What is a non-catalogued number?

Back 327

Non-catalogued stock numbers are numbers assigned by an ALC Item Manager pending assignment of a NSN.

Front 328

What does position 7 of a non-catalogued number indicate?

Back 328

Position 7 identifies the ALC assigning the NC number.

Front 329

What input is used to change the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, routing identifier, and budget code?

Back 329

FIC.

Front 330

Stock number changes are made only as a result of what conditions?

Back 330

AF Form 86 action, stock list changes or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.

Front 331

Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.

Back 331

A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the Mat Man sys database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is already in the MMS database.

Front 332

What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and the demilitarization code?

Back 332

FNL.

Front 333

The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?

Back 333

32.

Front 334

What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?

Back 334

FCU.

Front 335

How are the two types of deletes processed?

Back 335

Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing.

Front 336

What is the purpose of SNUD?

Back 336

To provide automatic updates to item records.

Front 337

What reports are output to the D071 system as stock numbers are loaded or deleted at each base?

Back 337

BDFA, BDFD.

Front 338

How often is the Materiel Management System database reconciled with the AFMC SNUD file?

Back 338

Annually.

Front 339

What is ISG?

Back 339

A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional performance.

Front 340

Information on ISGs are provided by what system?

Back 340

D043B.

Front 341

Which of the following subgroups within and ISG is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?

Back 341

AA.

Front 342

How was the order of use system designed?

Back 342

To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used.

Front 343

What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base level ISG?

Back 343

24.

Front 344

What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions?

Back 344

S.

Front 345

Who must sign the justification letter to request a local ISG relationship?

Back 345

Operations or logistics commander (or the designated representative).

Front 346

How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?

Back 346

Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs.

Front 347

What TRIC is used to load, change, or deletes an ISG?

Back 347

FIS.

Front 348

Which file keeps track of the equipment used and supported by the Air Force?

Back 348

AFMANS.

Front 349

When a truck arrives at the receiving section, why should a spotter be available?

Back 349

To help the driver back the vehicle into position for off-loading.

Front 350

What action does the cargo movement representative take when a discrepancy is found during off-loading of a shipment?

Back 350

Reports it to the carrier and annotates it on the bill of lading.

Front 351

How does the receiving representative accept a shipment from the cargo movement representative?

Back 351

by signing cargo movement representatives copy of the bill of lading.

Front 352

Who checks to ensure shipments being off loaded are at the correct destination?

Back 352

The receiving function representative.

Front 353

What does the SRAN identify?

Back 353

The "Ship to Activity".

Front 354

List the four basic temporary receiving holding areas?

Back 354

1. Receiving line

2. Bulk area

3. Outside holding area

4. Specialized holding areas

Front 355

What are the two areas found on the receiving line and how are they identified?

Back 355

Priorities and routines. Priority items are coded 01-08, routines (all others) are 09-15.

Front 356

What type of receipts must be processed before all others?

Back 356

MICAP.

Front 357

How are the bulk area holding bays identified in the receiving area?

Back 357

By a three-digit aplanumeric location.

Front 358

What type of items is placed in the outside holding area in the receiving section?

Back 358

Large, heavy, or awkward-shaped items that can be stored outside without harm from the weather.

Front 359

What is used as the accountable document for items received from a source of supply?

Back 359

DD Form 1348-1A.

Front 360

What is the difference between DD Form 1348-1A and DD Form 250 or other incoming source document?

Back 360

The DD Form 250 can list more than one item and document number while the DD Form 1348-1A lists only one.

Front 361

What checks are made by the in-checker after removing receipt documentation from the packing list envelope?

Back 361

Stock number, unit of issue, and quantity between the documentation and on the property.

Front 362

What documentation entries are made by the in-checker/inspector on a normal receipt document?

Back 362

1. Tote box/holding bay location

2. Quantity verification

3. In-checker's signature and date the item was received

4. Inspector's signature or stamp and date, if the item was sent to an inspector.

Front 363

List the two computer screens used to process receipts in the order in which they appear.

Back 363

1. Receipt inquiry screen

2. Receipt processing screen

Front 364

When processing a receipt, what data does the receipt inquiry screen collect?

Back 364

Data from the stored due-in detail records.

Front 365

What two entries are required on a receipt inquiry screen?

Back 365

1. System designator

2. Due-in document number from the receipt document

Front 366

What happens to the quantity on the due-in detail record when a receipt is processed?

Back 366

Decreases.

Front 367

Where do you find the quantity you should have received on a receipt document?

Back 367

In print position 25-29.

Front 368

What action do you take on overage receipt?

Back 368

Page 1-10.

Front 369

What action do you take on a shortage receipt?

Back 369

Page 1-10-11.

Front 370

What entries are required to process a partial receipt when there is a suffix code at the end of a document number?

Back 370

The document number and suffix, quantity received, tote box/hold bay location, and partial quantity flag P.

Front 371

What action do you take if you suspect an item is misidentified?

Back 371

Send the item and the receipt documentation to an inspector.

Front 372

What TEX code is used to process misidentified property?

Back 372

Q.

Front 373

Explain the difference between a TEX code P and a TEX code Z

Back 373

A TEX code P identifies an item damaged in shipment. TEX code Z identifies an item with hidden defects.

Front 374

What document is prepared to receive a quantity that has been taken or extracted from another receipt document?

Back 374

An extract document.

Front 375

When are XB3 items turned in to the LRS?

Back 375

When serviceable or unserviceable items have potential use or resale value.

Front 376

Whose responsibility is it to establish an implement an effective program for returning serviceable XB3 materiel to the supply system?

Back 376

An accountable officer.

Front 377

Whose responsibility is it to prepare the documentation for an XB3 turn-in?

Back 377

Receiving function.

Front 378

Which form is used to process a turn-in request?

Back 378

AF Form 2005.

Front 379

What does AFI 23-111 say about property found on base?

Back 379

It requires all property found on that installation and not accounted for to be promptly recorded on the appropriate records of accountability.

Front 380

What TEX code is used to process an NF/ND equipment turn-in (FOB) when ownership cannot be determined?

Back 380

Plus sign (+)

Front 381

What three factors regarding received property must be verified by the materiel management inspector?

Back 381

Identity, condition, and status.

Front 382

An item's identity includes what three things?

Back 382

1. Reference number (part number)

2. Stock number

3. Item description (nomenclature)

Front 383

What factor have you defined when you decide that an item can be used for its intended purpose without any alteration or modification?

Back 383

Item status.

Front 384

What series tag is used to ensure that each item is properly identified before issuance or storage?

Back 384

DD Form 1570 series.

Front 385

What condition tag is used to identify unserviceable materiel that is uneconomical to repair (condemned)?

Back 385

DD Form 1577.

Front 386

What condition does a green tag identify?

Back 386

1. Part number

2. Stock number

3. Item description

4. Inspector activity

5. Condition code

6. Unit of Issue,

7. Quantity

8. Inspector's name or stamp and date

Front 387

List the three condition codes that can be used with DD Form 1574.

Back 387

Condition codes A, B, and C.

Front 388

If an item is suspended from issue pending a condition classification, what condition tag and condition code is used to identify the item?

Back 388

DD Form 1575 and condition code J.

Front 389

What is the only condition code that can be used with DD Form 1576?

Back 389

Condition Code D.

Front 390

What circumstance requires processing a condition change input?

Back 390

Whenever property deteriorates or becomes damaged in storage.

Front 391

Which change input (transaction identification code) is used to correct an identification error for serviceable items in storage?

Back 391

FCH.

Front 392

Who is the certifying official that signs the FCH documents?

Back 392

The chief of the function making the change.

Front 393

What is the purpose of the surveillance inspection program?

Back 393

To ensure that property is ready for issue and that deterioration and corrosion are controlled.

Front 394

How often should you inspect storage listings and programs for compliance?

Back 394

Daily.

Front 395

During an inspection surveillance, what general guideline must be checked concerning hazardous materiel?

Back 395

Ensure hazardous materials are properly stored.

Front 396

What form is used to report receiving discrepancies?

Back 396

Standard Form 364.

Front 397

What timeframe does the receiving activity have to submit the SDR?

Back 397

1. Within 24 hours of discovery for controlled items.

2. Within 90 calender days from date of shipment for CONUS destinations.

3. Within 150 calender days from date of shipment for overseas destinations.

Front 398

What happens to the suspense file copy of an SDR when a reply is received?

Back 398

It is destroyed.

Front 399

What materiel management function evaluates and controls the incoming SDR program?

Back 399

The procedures function.

Front 400

Why does the procedures function keep a copy of all incoming SDR's?

Back 400

To determine the reason for the discrepancy and to forward the SDR's to the element responsible for the discrepancy.

Front 401

When are incoming discrepancies involving classified items followed up on?

Back 401

Always, regardless of the cost.

Front 402

Define covered storage.

Back 402

Any storage space within a Roofed structure.

Front 403

What is the most common type of storage facility used throughout the Air Force?

Back 403

General purpose warehouse.

Front 404

What are the two areas usually found in a refrigerated warehouse or stockroom?

Back 404

Chill space and freeze space.

Front 405

How are open storage areas designed?

Back 405

For storing items that do not require protection from the weather.

Front 406

What serves to define and protect an open storage area?

Back 406

A perimeter fence with a main gate serves as protection for the items stored and provides boundary limits that define the storage area.

Front 407

List the two types of open storage areas.

Back 407

Improved and unimproved.

Front 408

What is the basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation?

Back 408

Storage space.

Front 409

Why should the location of structural columns be considered when planning a warehouse layout?

Back 409

Space loss can be minimized by using columns as aisles and bay boundaries.

Front 410

What type of warehouse area should be kept to a minimum to increase storage efficiency and space utilization?

Back 410

Work areas,

Front 411

When items with similar handling requirements are stored together, what storage factor is being observed?

Back 411

Item similarity.

Front 412

What storage factor encourages slower moving items to be placed farther away from active stock processing areas?

Back 412

Item popularity.

Front 413

What are the minimum and maximum numbers of positions that make up the warehouse location code?

Back 413

No fewer than 10 and no more than 11.

Front 414

What two factors should you consider when you identify a stockroom?

Back 414

1. Stockrooms are sequenced from left to right and from front to rear.

2. Never use the letters I or O to identify a stockroom because they are easily mistaken for the numbers 1 and 0.

Front 415

How are storage levels identified and how will they be labeled?

Back 415

By a single capital letter. The letters will be placed at least every six feet along the bin row.

Front 416

What are the reasons for processing an FCS?

Back 416

To load or assign a warehouse location, to change a warehouse location, and to delete a warehouse location.

Front 417

Why are location deletions normally processed?

Back 417

To provide new storage space.

Front 418

Why does the Air Force use bar coded bin labels?

Back 418

To aid in inventory and warehouse validation.

Front 419

When are reserve locations used?

Back 419

When you have an overflow of assets that can't be stocked in the primary location, and only as a last resort.

Front 420

List three reasons for doing a warehouse location Validation.

Back 420

1. To verify that the asset is in fact stored in the warehouse location stated on the item record.

2. To ensure that all items records indicating a serviceable balance are assigned a warehouse location.

3. To identify records with duplicate warehouse locations.

Front 421

Who prepares the warehouse location validation schedule?

Back 421

Storage personnel.

Front 422

How often are warehouse location validation schedules prepared?

Back 422

Each fiscal year.

Front 423

Ideally, when should a warehouse validation be completed?

Back 423

Within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle or sample inventory.

Front 424

When do you prepare the parameter input for your warehouse validation?

Back 424

One day before starting the warehouse validation.

Front 425

What corrective action do you take on a discrepancy when the stock number on the property in location does not match the stock number on the bin label?

Back 425

Process an FCS change or move the item(s) to the correct location based upon your research.

Front 426

What is the Serviceable Balance- No Warehouse Location Listing (R36) used for?

Back 426

To identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a DOLT greater than three days.

Front 427

List two ways you can conserve storage space.

Back 427

Stack as high as practical and as compactly as possible.

Front 428

Explain honeycombing.

Back 428

Storing or removing items in a way that creates unusable areas of storage space in a stack.

Front 429

What system of storage ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?

Back 429

FIFO.

Front 430

What should you do when you discover assets with no markings or identification labels?

Back 430

Turn it over to an inspector for action.

Front 431

What TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an item in storage which as deteriorated or as become damaged in storage?

Back 431

FCC.

Front 432

Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for items misidentified by the manufacturer?

Back 432

FCH.

Front 433

Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for a U/I change to an item?

Back 433

FCU.

Front 434

Which TRIC should be used on a warehouse change document when, due to a change in the controlled item code, an item must be relocated to a more secure area?

Back 434

ISC.

Front 435

What verification checks should you make when selecting an item for issue?

Back 435

Ensure the bin label matches the information on the issue document. Ensure the NSN and unit of issue on the property tag/label are correct. Select the oldest dated item in the location. Select the quantity required on the issue document. Sign and date the issue document. Move the property and document for delivery to the customer.

Front 436

How many copies of DD Form 1348-1A are produced for redistributions and transfers?

Back 436

Three warehouse copies and three cargo movement copies.

Front 437

What is a transfer and waht are the two types of transfer?

Back 437

Movement of material to DRMS; directed and nondirected.

Front 438

What TRIC is used to transfer an item to DRMS?

Back 438

TRM.

Front 439

What code printed on the transfer document is used to decide whether or not demilitarization is required and waht method to use?

Back 439

DEMIL code.

Front 440

What is a warehouse refusal?

Back 440

When a needed issue item is not found in the location, or when the quantity needed is not sufficient to fill the request.

Front 441

What information does an MSDS provide?

Back 441

It identifies the hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product.

Front 442

What publication can be used as a guide to identify potentially hazardous items?

Back 442

Federal Standard 313.

Front 443

What must the inspector ensure is assigned to all potential health hazard item records?

Back 443

IEX code 8, 9, M, or HHF.

Front 444

An IEZ 9 is assigned to what type of item?

Back 444

Serious health hazard items.

Front 445

What is the purpose of a HHF?

Back 445

It eliminates repetitive initial reviews of the same item and ensures that all items in the categories identified in the health hazard publications have been screened, identified, and controlled.

Front 446

Who makes the determination of which IEX or flag should be loaded on the item record?

Back 446

Bioenvironmental Engineering Services.

Front 447

How should corrosives be stored?

Back 447

On pallets that are compatible with the material being storaged.

Front 448

Automatic water sprinklers should always be used when what type of acids are stored?

Back 448

Organic.

Front 449

What is the principle hazard of storing closed flammable containers?

Back 449

The purpose of the containers resulting from increased pressure when they are exposed to fire.

Front 450

How should aerosol cans be stored?

Back 450

In a room separate from flammables if space permits. A barrier should separate aerosol cans from other flammables containing aerosol cans capable of becoming self-propelled projectiles and airborne sources of ignition.

Front 451

Why is outside storage of flammable liquid products in metal drums not recommended?

Back 451

Because pressure build up in the drums due to thermal loading from the sun and the likelihood of subsequent rupture or drum failure due to corrosion or handling creates a significant spill containment and environmental hazard.

Front 452

Low-risk acids and pesticides, poisons, petroleum products, and certain batteries are examples of what type of items?

Back 452

Low Hazard.

Front 453

What should storage personnel be alert for when performing a routine surveillance of storage areas?

Back 453

For expired shelf life dates or for inspection/test dates that have passed.

Front 454

How often should inspection personnel monitor the storage conditions of chemical and petroleum products?

Back 454

Monthly.

Front 455

How long must the completed chemical monthly inspection checklist be maintained?

Back 455

Minimum for one year.

Front 456

What governs the testing of aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils?

Back 456

By retest cycle dates instead of shelf life codes.

Front 457

What is the goal of the AF-EMIS?

Back 457

Manage, track, and report hazardous material usage by ensuring only authorized personnel are allowed to order and receive hazardous material.

Front 458

What supply classes does inspection personnel visually inspect or retest?

Back 458

Supply classes 6810, 6820, and 6850.

Front 459

What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

Back 459

QSL.

Front 460

What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to
laboratory?

Back 460

Form 475.

Front 461

Aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils are governed by retest cycle dates as specified in what TO?

Back 461

TO 42B-1-1.

Front 462

What is the responsibility of all organizations that have excess serviceable materiels?

Back 462

To turn in the unused quantity to the HAZMAT pharmacy.

Front 463

Why does the HAZMAT pharmacy review residual materiel upon receiving a new requirement for hazardous materiel?

Back 463

For possible free issue instead of placing a demand on supply.

Front 464

What are the storage requirements for Top Secret materiel?

Back 464

Class A vault is required under the control of the designated primary or subordinate Top Secret control officer. The area must be controlled and alarmed.

Front 465

What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel?

Back 465

Must be stored in a Class B vault or secure storage area. Storage areas must meet the supplement safeguards outlined by local authorities.

Front 466

How are precious metals storaged?

Back 466

In a security cage.

Front 467

How often will the keys and locks be audited when key-operated high security padlocks are used to store classified materiel?

Back 467

Each month.

Front 468

How often will combinations be changed when combination padlocks are used to store classfied materiel?

Back 468

When a combination is placed in use when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access, when the combination has been subject to possible compromise, at least annually, and when taken out of use.

Front 469

What is the purpose of SF 702?

Back 469

To show the location of the container and the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of the individuals having knowledge of the combination.

Front 470

How are unit packs marked for ESD items?

Back 470

With a sensitive electronic device unit pack label on the identification marking side of the unit pack.

Front 471

How many yellow caution labels must be placed on each exterior container for an ESD item when the container exceeds one half cubic foot?

Back 471

Two 4x4 inch labels.

Front 472

What type cargo codes stored on the item record identifies an ESD item?

Back 472

Three.

Front 473

If asset is on a detail record, what action is taken to process an ESD item to maintenance function for testing?

Back 473

The inspector processes the item to a maintenance function using TRIC MSI and activity code C.

Front 474

Where can an inspector open the unit pack of an ESD item if it is required?

Back 474

In an ESD protective area.

Front 475

What are the two categories of functional check assets?

Back 475

1. Assets other than buildup items, that required extensive functional check after issue for installation and

2. assets identified by an inspector whose serviceability may be doubtful, due to apparent mishandling while in stock or being dropped.

Front 476

Who is designated to act as the maintenance contact point for functional check items?

Back 476

An individual jointly agreed on by the accountable officer and the cheif of maintenance.

Front 477

Adequate proof of a functional check of an item is provided by the stamp or signature of what person?

Back 477

The base maintenance inspector.

Front 478

How does a supply inspector process an item to an organization for functional check?

Back 478

By processing a C activity code ISU to the organization and ship.

Front 479

How often must a functional check listing be run?

Back 479

Atleast semi annually.

Front 480

What is a type I shelf life code? Type II?

Back 480

Type I alpha codes are for items with definite nonextendables shelflife. Type II numeric codes are for items with a shelf life that can be extended after completion of inspection, test, or restorative action.

Front 481

How many days before their expiration date are type II shelf life items scheduled for serviceability testing?

Back 481

15 to 45 days.

Front 482

When an item is destroyed as a result of testing, what action do you take?

Back 482

Process a turn-in with supply condition code H and action taken code 9.

Front 483

Define an item that is suspect or unsuitable.

Back 483

Items that, if used before inspection for verification or serviceability, could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment.

Front 484

How is a suspect item flagged on the item record?

Back 484

By processing an FCD input with suspect materiel flag S.

Front 485

How are customers notified of possible suspect items?

Back 485

By daily bulletins, newletters, or phone calls.

Front 486

What management notice is output when a receipt or turn-in is processed against a stock number that is coded as a suspect item?

Back 486

I302 management notice.

Front 487

TCTO items are modified to the extent that their form, fit, or function is changed. How is this TCTO item identified on the item record?

Back 487

With NPPC 4.

Front 488

How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require reidentification to a new NSN, identified on the item record?

Back 488

By assignment of a TCTO flag.

Front 489

Why does the inspector prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listed stock numbers on a TCTO?

Back 489

To find out the total number of assets to bemodified.

Front 490

What information must be annotated on the cover letter to Maintenance Quality Control?

Back 490

List by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require modification.

Front 491

How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelft TCTO items assigned either NPPC 4 or the TCTO flag?

Back 491

Monthly.

Front 492

What action must the inspector take when an item is received and they cannot determine if TCTO actions have been done?

Back 492

Issue the item to the maintenance function for the necessary inspection or test.

Front 493

How are warranty and guaranty items identified?

Back 493

On the container and in the purchase contract.

Front 494

What information must be annotated on the receiving document for warranty and guaranty items?

Back 494

Model, serial number, manufacture's name and address, and any other data required locally.

Front 495

What code is assigned to the item record of any warranty or guaranty item received?

Back 495

IEX B.

Front 496

How are aircraft tires stored?

Back 496

In a cool, dry warehouse that is protected from sunlight.

Front 497

How will unserviceable items be stored?

Back 497

In a totally separate area from serviceable items. They will be tagged with the appropriate unserviceable tag and have a handwritten bin label identifying the location.

Front 498

How are WCDO items stored?

Back 498

Using normal considerations for shelf life, hazardous materials, and flammable materials.

Front 499

What are the four types of inventories?

Back 499

Complete, Sample, Special, In-Use/In-place equipment.

Front 500

What is the purpose of the inventory schedule?

Back 500

To ensure that all assigned locations and details are inventoried at the correct frequency.

Front 501

What is the inventory deadline date?

Back 501

Julian date on which the inventory count begins.

Front 502

Within what time frame should all transactions applicable to locations scheduled for inventory be processed?

Back 502

At least one day before the inventory deadline date.

Front 503

As a minimum, what data should be included on the recap sheet?

Back 503

TRIC, Stock number, warehouse location, quantity, document number, and system designator.

Front 504

What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code C to all item records within the input parameter?

Back 504

R12.

Front 505

Count records are written for waht type of item records?

Back 505

Those with a serviceable balance and a warehouse location within the parameters of the request.

Front 506

What is compared internally upon the input of the count images?

Back 506

Physical count quantity and record balance.

Front 507

What is produced when the CIC input count quantity is unequal to the item record balance?

Back 507

An inventory recount image (IRC).

Front 508

What product do you use to reconcile recap sheets after the completion of the inventory?

Back 508

D04.

Front 509

What is the purpose of the 365-day inventory request?

Back 509

To identify items not inventoried during the regularly scheduled inventories.

Front 510

What freeze code is assigned to the item record for special inventories?

Back 510

Freeze code I.

Front 511

How is a freeze code assigned when an insufficient balance for a degraded issue transaction is deted?

Back 511

Automatically by in-line programs.

Front 512

To request a special inventory, what document does the requesting activity prepare?

Back 512

Special inventory request (1GP).

Front 513

What input removes freeze code I?

Back 513

Special inventory count (IRC).

Front 514

When is a physical recount performed on an inventory discrepancy?

Back 514

Always.

Front 515

What action must be performed before automatic adjustments to inventory discrepancies occur?

Back 515

Physical inventory recount.

Front 516

Specify the criteria for automatic adjustment.

Back 516

Type account code B, controlled item code U, and total adjusted dollar value is less than $100 for pilferable items and $1,000 for unclassified items.

Front 517

What are the four categories of inventory discrepancies?

Back 517

1. Resolved discrepancies

2. Unresolved discrepancies that do not meet criteria for further research.

3. Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates no personal responsibility.

4. Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates evidence of personal responsibility.

Front 518

When performing inventory research, why do you review the Serviceable Balance - No WHSE Location Listing?

Back 518

To see if a different warehouse location was assigned.

Front 519

When researching an inventory shortage discrepancy, how far back do you go from the current date?

Back 519

Go back to the last item record zero balance. IF the error is not detected at this point and it is determined that more research is needed, continued back one year, or to the last inventory adjustment, or to the previous numeric DOLI.

Front 520

What transaction adjusts the record balance and updates the applicable inventory accuracy records for a complete inventory?

Back 520

An IRC>

Front 521

What type of items requires support ducumentation?

Back 521

Inventory adjustments that don't meet the automatic adjustment criteria.

Front 522

When automatic adjustments occur, what management products do they appear on?

Back 522

Transaction/Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

Front 523

What does the last page of the M10 reflect?

Back 523

Number of sample inventories in progress over 30 days.

Front 524

Where is the original copy of the M10 filed?

Back 524

Document Control.

Front 525

What reflects inventory trends and problem areas?

Back 525

Trend charts.

Front 526

What activity analayze the causes of unresolved discrepancies?

Back 526

Inventory and analysis functions.

Front 527

What must the ERCD be for items assigned to a bench stock?

Back 527

XB3.

Front 528

What does the master bench stock detail record identify?

Back 528

Each item on a bench stock.

Front 529

What TRIC is used to process requests for bench stock issues through customer service?

Back 529

1BS.

Front 530

What TRIC code is used to change the authorization or delete a bench stock item?

Back 530

2BS.

Front 531

When should a bench stock have an MRA or an MAQ?

Back 531

When items are placed on bench stock that are not supported by past demands.

Front 532

What code can be used to protect a temporary large quantity of bench stock items from disposition?

Back 532

An excess exception code.

Front 533

When are quantity changes recommended during a review?

Back 533

Only when there are substantial changes in consumption patterns.

Front 534

Who has the final say as to whether an item is deleted or not?

Back 534

The using activity.

Front 535

What action is taken when an item doesn't have an MRA but the organization representative feels it should not be deleted?

Back 535

The item is extended until the next review.

Front 536

How many phases of bench stock review are there?

Back 536

Three.W

Front 537

What listing is used to accomplish the monthly recommended additions, changes, and deletions in the phase I review?

Back 537

The M04.

Front 538

When a phase II semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what time frame must the review be accomplished?

Back 538

Within one work week.How

Front 539

How often must SRD data and MRA levels be validated?

Back 539

Annually by a phase II review.

Front 540

Which materiel handling principle provides the greatest economy in the movement of materiel?

Back 540

The least handling is the best handling.

Front 541

Which principle seeks to reduce the time required to travel a given distance?

Back 541

Straight line flow.

Front 542

Which materiel handling principle results in reducing the costs of operation?

Back 542

Standardized equipment.

Front 543

What problems can occur if you overload equipment capacity?

Back 543

Excessive wear and tear on the equipment and increased accident potential.

Front 544

What type of warehouse system includes all types of conveyors and AS?RS?

Back 544

MMHS.

Front 545

What type of warehouse storage system includes all of the types of general purpose racks shelves, and bins?

Back 545

SAS.

Front 546

Whose responsibility is it to ensure that a repair cycle item is returned in a reusable container?

Back 546

Maintenance activity.

Front 547

What category of reusable containers has an exterior container usually made up of metal, plastic, or synthetic materiel?

Back 547

Long life.

Front 548

What category of reusable containers should survive at least 10 round trips, and are usually made up of plywood, wood, or figerboard?

Back 548

Short life.

Front 549

Define NWRM?

Back 549

Any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately.

Front 550

What is the primary reference used for NWRM?

Back 550

CJCSI 3150.04.D

Front 551

Define classified property.

Back 551

Material which requires protection in the interest of national security.

Front 552

In order to achieve positive inventory control of NWRM, what must be ensured?

Back 552

A management environment must ensure each item is identified, account for, secured, segregated, and/or handled in a manner to ensure its safeguarding and integrity at all times.

Front 553

What AFI is used by AF organizations that will formally designate in writing; personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel?

Back 553

AFI 31-401.

Front 554

Who is responsible to properly train all personnel requird to handle controlled materiel?

Back 554

LRS chief Inspector.

Front 555

How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance?

Back 555

At 15, 30, and/or 90 days intervals.

Front 556

How are copies of source documents for classified items stamped or handwritten?

Back 556

Stamped in red ink with the words "Classified Item".

Front 557

For controlled, sensitive, classified and pilferable items, where are shipping documentation placed?

Back 557

Inside all containers rather than on the outside.

Front 558

What does materiel management activities sign to maintain custodial accountability?

Back 558

DD Form 1907 or carrier furnished document.

Front 559

Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the life cycle of these assets?

Back 559

Item manager.

Front 560

Who accounts for assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?

Back 560

AFMC item management team.

Front 561

In what two modes are the SATS HHTs programmed to operate?

Back 561

RF or Batch.

Front 562

Who is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification numbers and privileges and also for maintaining the database, restoring files, initializing the RF network, and the Materiel Management System/SATS interface?

Back 562

System administrator.

Front 563

What type of HHT uses an 'Open Air' configuration?

Back 563

Janus 2020 HHT.

Front 564

What will be displayed if the login is successful?

Back 564

The SATS MAIN MENU.

Front 565

name the two different ways to boot an HHT.

Back 565

Warm boot to preserve the current settings, or cold boot to reset to factory settings.

Front 566

During what procedure will the current configuration settings be retained?

Back 566

Warm.

Front 567

What is not retained on a cold boot?

Back 567

SATS application.

Front 568

At minimum, what operating system must be loaded in order to flash an HHT?

Back 568

Windows 95.

Front 569

What software must be loaded prior to flashing the 2010 or 2020 HHT??

Back 569

WinLoader Flashing Software.

Front 570

As a prerequisite, should the 5023 HHT be in the Comm dock?

Back 570

No.

Front 571

What does the Receipt process allow the user to perform on an HHT?

Back 571

Receipt transactions.

Front 572

What type of movements does SATS allow users to perform?

Back 572

Individual or bulk.

Front 573

What is the purpose of the 'Put Away' process sending an FCS message to the Materiel Management System? What is the message sent?

Back 573

To let the user know there is no warehouse location for the item in question. Either "Blank", or "No WHSE LOC's".

Front 574

What type of "Pulls" may the user perform when using an HHT?

Back 574

Regular, High Priority, Pull by Label.

Front 575

When do shipments and DRMS items require a smart card?

Back 575

Only if it's a base requirement or for classified items.What

Front 576

What allows the user to process rejects that resulted from Receipts?

Back 576

Reject process.

Front 577

Why is receiving the primary area of input to SATS?

Back 577

Because it utilizes the scanning incoming receipts (TRIC REC) from depots and other bases.

Front 578

Under the 'Reject and Movement' function, when does SATS track an interim location for an item?

Back 578

Prior to putting an item on the shelf or prior to its delivery.

Front 579

What two steps need to be taken when assets are ready to be moved into the warehouse location?

Back 579

First scan SATS ID, and then the warehouse location.

Front 580

What does the 'Identity Pull' screen allow the user to identify?

Back 580

Identify location for which they are responsible.

Front 581

When will the ' Delivery' dunction allow the user to create a new delivery document?

Back 581

When the document was created in the Material Management System, but for some reason did reach SATS.

Front 582

When using the Report process, what are the three report Selection Types that are common to almost every report?

Back 582

User-ID, Date, or User-ID and Date.

Front 583

What report allows users to review items not put away in history, by generating a report that displays all Notice to Stock records not put away in history?

Back 583

Items not Put Away History.

Front 584

What does the User List report list?

Back 584

SATS users by active users and all users.W

Front 585

What report lists any errors that have occurred in SATS?

Back 585

Errors Report.

Front 586

What function of the 'Maintenance' menu can be used to review, update, or create a new maintenance area or ship?Or

Back 586

Organization/Shop Code.How d

Front 587

o you edit an existing squadron code?

Back 587

Enter either the squadron code in the code field, or the codes in the Description field, and then press enter on the computer keyboard.

Front 588

What sub-process allows users to log into the HHT in batch mode using the workstation?

Back 588

Batch HHT Logging process.

Front 589

What does the Materiel Management System Interface replace?

Back 589

Processing of transactions by individual users from their own Material Management System sessions and the printing of documents.

Front 590

What does the fileserver house?

Back 590

SATS database.

Front 591

What is a business area?L

Back 591

A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to your specific data requirements.

Front 592

What are workbooks and worksheets?

Back 592

A workbook is like a three-ring-binder filled with specific data for reports. The workbook has pages, or "worksheets", that contain data for different options of the report.

Front 593

What is the relationship called that must exist between different data elements before a user can select data from different folders?

Back 593

Joins.

Front 594

What are your initial options for workbooks in Discoverer?

Back 594

Create a new workbook or Open an existing workbook.

Front 595

What are the four workbook display options?

Back 595

Table, Crosstab, Page-Detail Table, and Page-Detail Crosstab.Wha

Front 596

t data item has been designated as a Page Item in figure 2-7?

Back 596

Stock Record Account Number.

Front 597

What two Conditions were created in figure 2-9?

Back 597

ERRCD and SRAN.

Front 598

What are parameters used for?

Back 598

To filter out unnecessary data and find the specific info you want when opening a workbook.H

Front 599

ow are Parameters different from Conditions?

Back 599

Parameters offer you a choice and help you open a workbook quickly to see just the data that you want to see. Conditions are specific, fixed statements. Conditions are designed more for analysis so you can apply Condition statements while you are involved with data analysis to find very specific sets of data.

Front 600

What is the difference between Discoverer Plus and Discoverer Viewer?

Back 600

Plus is a live interaction with the database. Info received with Viewer is taken from the most current snapshot of the database.

Front 601

What report types are listed in Discoverer Viewer?

Back 601

Pre-defined reports.

Front 602

What does Export allow you to do?

Back 602

Transfer data to other application formats.

Front 603

What component allows the capability to review assets across the logistics chain community?

Back 603

Enterprise Asset Visibility (EAV).

Front 604

How many DODACCs can be searched when using the Filter by DODAAC?

Back 604

One or many.

Front 605

How many sections is the Common Issue tab divided into?

Back 605

Two.

Front 606

The Order Page defaults to what tab?

Back 606

Maintenance Issue Tab.

Front 607

Upon completion of processing, what will the Materiel Management System pass back to the ES-S application?

Back 607

Management or reject notice.

Front 608

What transaction allows the customer of the Depot Retail system to input the issues?

Back 608

Depot Retail Issue (D7K).

Front 609

What transaction allows the authorized user to input a requisition directly to th SCS wholesale system?

Back 609

Requisition (A0_).

Front 610

In what three legacy systems does ES-S provide the capability to query and view orders?

Back 610

Material Management System; D035K; D035A.

Front 611

What three sections is the Order Selection Page is divided into?

Back 611

Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, Display Criteria.

Front 612

When using the Display Criteria to submit orders queries, how many separate sort orders for the return data may be selected?

Back 612

Three.

Front 613

When viewing the Order List Page, what are the order details based on?

Back 613

Primary and Secondary Selection Criteria.

Front 614

What function enhances your ability to efficiently query transaction information for internal and external audits?A

Back 614

Audit Data Query.

Front 615

How does entering multiple key fields affect your results?

Back 615

The more key fields entered, the narrower the search results will be.

Front 616

What type of items foes the D035E compute user stock levels for?

Back 616

ERRCD XD.W

Front 617

What process or system provides stock number transaction history and an interrogation capability to display the history?

Back 617

Recoverable Assembly Process (RAMP).

Front 618

What provides a single, on-line interface to multiple logistics information systems managed by the DOD and GSA?

Back 618

Logistics Information Network (LINK).

Front 619

What system is DLA's materiel management system?

Back 619

Standard Automated Material Management System (SAMMS).

Front 620

What system provides transactional information to VLIPS?

Back 620

Defense Automated Addressing System (DAAS).

Front 621

Which gang is used to process reports?S

Back 621

Secondary.

Front 622

If your primary gang is 3; what is your secondary gang number?

Back 622

7Wha

Front 623

What terminal emulation program provides the 'look' of the green screens common in the days prior to PCs>

Back 623

INFOConnect.Wh

Front 624

at are two very important entries required for the session profile and to complete the INFOConnect configuration?

Back 624

Position identifier (PID); site identifier (SID).

Front 625

What are the five components of IPF?

Back 625

Command language; User Assistance )UA) 1100; Edit 1100; Distributed Data Processing (DDP); Procedures.

Front 626

What location is an area in memory where users enter data or make changes to existing information?

Back 626

Workspace.W

Front 627

hat type of features are easy-to-learn and easy-to-remember keywords in a consistent format?

Back 627

Command Language.

Front 628

What type of assistance provides online help to the user of the interactive processing facility (IPF)?

Back 628

User Assistance (UA) 1100.

Front 629

When in full screen move, where must the general editing commands be entered?

Back 629

Command Line at the top of the display.

Front 630

What is the primary role of SIFS?

Back 630

To dispatch incoming and outgoing data images for each supply account.

Front 631

What type of files provide users with the capability to re-direct specified TRICSs or program images to another file?

Back 631

SIFS user files.

Front 632

What is the purpose of SIFS residue files?

Back 632

SIFS residue files are designed to ensure that any inbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner.