Flashcards From Emt-B National Standards- Dot Module One: Preparatory

Front 1

Roles and responsibilities of an EMT include patient assessment, patient care based on assessment findings, lifting and moving patients, patient transportation or transfer of patient care, patient advocacy and
(a)Personal safety,
(b)safety of the crew and the patient
(c)safety of bystanders
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) Answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 1

E

Front 2

Professional attributes of an EMT include a neat appearance, knowledge of local, state and national EMS issues and
(a) a pleasant personality and a positive attitude,
(b) the ability to place the patients needs before personal safety
(c) attending continuing education and refersher courses
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (b) and (c)

Back 2

D

Front 3

The definition of____________is a system of internal/external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system so as to identify those aspects that need improvement to assure that the public receives the highest quality of prehospital care.
(a) Quality Improvement
(b) Medical Direction
(c) Patient Advocacy
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above

Back 3

A

Front 4

The definition of_________is a physician responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system. This is a requirement for every ambulance service.
(a) Quality Improvement Director
(b) Medical Director
(c) Patient Advocate
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above

Back 4

B

Front 5

Quality improvement requires that an EMT attends continuing education and skills maintenance refersher courses, gathers feedback from patients and hospital staff, attends run reviews and audits, and
(a) documents patient contacts completely and legibly
(b) conducts basic maintenance on equipment to assure proper functioning
(c) performs patient care without deviating from care protocols without permission
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 5

E

Front 6

"On-line" medical direction is when care is preformed according to
(a) telephone contact instructions from the medical director or receving facility during a specific call
(b) radio contact instructions from the medical director or receving facility during a specific call
(c) "Standing orders" or care protocols perviously written by the medical director
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) Answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 6

D

Front 7

"Off-line" medical direction is when care is performed according to
(a) telephone contact instructions from the medical director or receving facility during a specific call
(b) radio contact instructions from the medical director or receving facility during a specific call
(c) "Standing orders" or care protocols perviously written by the medical director
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) None of the above

Back 7

C

Front 8

Which of the following statements regarding EMS stress is false?
(a) Multiple-casuality incidents (MCIs) are the only stressful events any EMT may ever have to face
(b) Incidents of pediatric or elderly abuse/neglect are often causes of great distress to the EMT
(c) Severe injuries (distortion of the human face from crushing, limb amputations, hangings and the like) are stressful for any prehospital provider
(d) Any single event may affect any EMT with profound stress, depending upon his private history or personal responses
(e) Presonal life problems combined with stressful EMS incidents may result in a serious stress level for any EMT

Back 8

A

Front 9

Signs and symptoms of stress include irritability, inability to concentrate, indecisiveness, difficulty sleeping, and
(a) feelings of guilt
(b) loss of appetite
(c) loss of interest in sexual activities
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) Answers (a), (b) and (c)

Back 9

E

Front 10

All of the following lifestyle or work environment changes can be helpful in dealing with EMS stress, except
(a) dietary changes, reducing intake of sugar, caffeine, alcohol, and fatty foods
(b) avoiding the embarrassment of seeking "professional" help
(c) requesting a duty assignment to a less busy area
(d) requesting work shift changes to allow extra relaxation time with family or friends
(e) safely increasing physical exercise and also learning relaxation techinques

Back 10

B

Front 11

Which of the following statements regarding Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) is true?
(a) A CISD team is composed of only mental health professionals
(b) CISD is designed to accelerate the normal recovery process after experiencing a critically stressful incident
(c) CISD team activation is reserved for MCIs of 20 or more causalties
(d) CISD is only helpful if it occurs within 12 to 24 hours of thwe incident
(e) As all information shared during a CISD meeting is considered "public record" CISD is also a helpful method of incident investigation

Back 11

B

Front 12

Dealing with death and dying produces different specific stages of reactions that are experienced by terminally ill or injured patients. Which of the following statements regarding death and dying stages are false?
(a) These stages may occur in any order
(b) Some stages may be experienced simultaneously
(c) Some people display emotions and attitudes that do not seem to fit any of the "stages" of death and dying
(d) The dying individuals family members will experience these stages
(e) All patients with foreknowledge of their death experience each stage at least once

Back 12

E

Front 13

Death and dying response stages include all of the following, except the
(a) Bargaining stage ("If I can live, I'll never do such-and -such again.") an attempt to postone death.
(b) healing stage ('I'm feeling much better! Really!"): a sudden remission of all signs and symptoms of the patient's illness, often occruing immediatelyefore death.
(c) anger stage(Why me?!"): the patient focuses anger about his impending death upon those around him.
(d) Denial stage ('Not me!"): a defense mechanism creating a buffer between the shock of dying and dealing with the illness/injury
(e) acceptance stage("Well, I need to get everything in order now") when the patinet accepts the fact of impending death.

Back 13

B

Front 14

When dealing with the death of a patient, the EMT
(a) may go through the same grief stages as the family
(b) may need to express feelings of guilt or helplessness
(c) should recognize that it is inappropriate for a professional to express personal emotions felt for the death of a stranger
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) Answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 14

D

Front 15

Diseases are caused by_________, such as viruses and bacteria
(a) halogens
(b) carcinogens
(c) pathogens
(d) biogens
(e) chromogens

Back 15

C

Front 16

Infectious diseases may be spread by
(a) direct contact with infected blood or other body fluids
(b) droplet infection from airborne organisms (coughing, sneezing, or breathing)
(c) indirect contact via handling objects or materials contaminated with infectious secretions
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (a), (b) and (c)

Back 16

E

Front 17

Which of the following statements regarding personal protective equipment is false?
(a) Hand washing before and after every patient contact is required only if protective gloves are not worn through out the entire patient contact
(b) Protective gloves must be worn for every patient contact, and a seperate pair used for each patient
(c) Eye protection should be worn whenever airborne droplet(or fluid splashing) is anticipated
(d) Masks should be worn whenever airborne droplet(or fluid splashing) is anticipated
(e) A gown should be worn whenever splashing or spilling of infectious fluid is anticipated

Back 17

A

Front 18

Immunizations are available for EMS personnal against all of the following diseases
except
(a) tetanus
(b) hepatitus-c
(c) hepatitus-b
(d) chickenpox
(e) measles

Back 18

B

Front 19

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material incidents is false?
(a) Every ambulance should be equiped with a pair of binoculars and the North American Emergency Response Handbook (RSPA P 5800.7), published by the U.S Department of Transportation, so that hazardous material may be identified from a safe distance.
(b) if a patient is in immediate life threat, untrained EMT''s may borrow hazardous-material suits and enter the contaminated area to provide emergency patient care
(c) A self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is required for entering any scene where poisonous gases, dust, or fumes are present or are suspected be present
(d) EMTs should provide emergency care only after the patient is decontaminated
(e) Placards with symbols, colors, and indentification numbers of hazardous material must be displayed on all vehicles (or cotainers) carrying harzardous materials

Back 19

B

Front 20

Rescue operations often involve potential life threats from hazards such as electricity, fire, explosion, hazardous materials, cave-ins and the like. Which of the following statements regarding hazardous rescue operations is true?
(a) Appropriate protective clothing (such as turn out gear, puncture-proof gloves, or helmets) must be worn by any responder before engaging in rescue operations
(b) An EMT's first responsibilities are to ensure personal and public safeety, identify potential dangers or rescue needs, and to call for appropriate rescue teams to be dispatched
(c) Untrained persons must never attempt rescues
(d) Answers (a) and (b) are true
(e) Answers (a), (b), and (c) are true

Back 20

E

Front 21

Scenes involving violence are not uncommon. Crime perpetrators, bystanders, family members, and even patients may present a threat to the responding EMT. Which of the following statements regarding violent scenes is true?
(a) A potentially violent scene should be controlled by law enforcement before an EMT provides care
(b) EMS crews should have preplanned procedures for dealing with violence that erupts after entering the scene and should never be without radio contact
(c) when wearing body armor (such as bulletprof vest) the EMT is safe, and his first responsibility is to shield the patient from further harm
(d) answers (a) and (b) are true
(e) Answers (a), (b) and (c) are true

Back 21

D

Front 22

The EMT has legal,medical and ethical duties to his patient,public, and Medical Director. which of the following statements regarding the EMTs scope of practice is false?
(a) The scope of practice defines the extent and limits of an EMTs job responsibilities.
(b) The medical skills and the interventions that an EMT is allowed to perform are defined by state legislation
(c) Within the limits set by state legislation, the medical skills and the interventions that an EMT is allowed to perform are drfined by local protocols (as set forth by the EMTs medical director) and may vary from region to region within a state
(d) All regions within a state must share the same definition of an EMTs scope of practice, as set forth by state legislation
(e) Legislation about an EMTs scope of practice,skills and intervention may vary from state to state

Back 22

D

Front 23

When considered in the context of EMS, the term battery may be defined as
(a) unlawfully touching a competent patient without his consent
(b) providing emergency care to a competent patient who does not consent to the treatment
(c) providing emergency care to an unconscious patient
(d) answers (a) and (b)
(e) answers (a),(b) and (c)

Back 23

D

Front 24

Which of the following requirements for expressed consent is false?
(a) to be effective, the patient expressing consent must be of legal age and be able to make rational decisions
(b) the patient must be informed of the steps of any procedure and all related risks before expressed consent will be effective
(c) expressed consent must be obtained from every conscious,mentally competent adult before rendering treatment or transportation
(d) Explanations of treatment must be provided in terms the patient can understand before expressed consent will be effective
(e) expressed consent is only required when someone other than the patient is the person who called for help

Back 24

E

Front 25

Which of the following statements regarding implied consent is false?
(a) if a parent or legal guardian is not present, any injured child maybe treated on the basis of implied consent
(b) any unconscious adult patient maybe treated on the basis of implied consent
(c) treatment may be provided to an unconscious patient on the basis of implied consent, even if the patient was competent and refusing treatment before becoming unconscious
(d) any disoriented or confused adult who is refusing care may be treated againt his will on the basis of implied consent
(e) to be effective, implied consent must be informed consent

Back 25

E

Front 26

Which of the following statements regarding minors and mentally incompetent adult is true?
(a) if the patient's parent or legal guardian is present,consent for treatment must be obtained from him prior to beginning care
(b) some states consider a married minor to be "emancipated" and to have the same rights of consent or refusal of treatment as adults
(c) some states consider a minor who is also a parent to be "emancipated" and to have the same rights of consent and refusal of treatment as adults
(d) all of the above is true
(e) none of the above is true

Back 26

D

Front 27

Which of the following statements reguarding refusal of care is false?
(a) In the United States, every patient has a right to refuse treatment, or transport, reguardless of age, color, sex, or mental capacity.
(b) Treatment and transport fefusals are honored only when made by mentally competent adults following the rules of expressed consent.
(c) Every patient refusing treatment or transport must be informed of all the risks and consequences assoicated with such refusal ,and should be able to demonstrate understanding of those risks and consquences.
(d) Any unconscious patient who regains consicousness and demonstrates mental comtetency has a right to refuse further treatment and transportation
(e) Even if a patient signs a "release from liability" form, the EMT is not guaranteed freedom from liability for failing to provide treatment or transportation

Back 27

A

Front 28

An EMT's best protection from liability when a patient fefuses treatment or transportation is
(a) a good EMS lawyer
(b) an accurate, detailed written report, describing all atempts made to obtain the patient's consent to treatment and transporation
(c) a more exprienced partner
(d) to have the ploice arrest the patient so that he can be treated againt his will
(e) a "release from liability" form, signed by the patient and witnesses

Back 28

B

Front 29

Which of the following staements reguarding Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) orders is false?
(a) Every mentally competent patient has the right to refuse resuscitative efforts in advance of his acually need.
(b) Some forms of DNR orders do not require a physician's signature to be effective; the notarized or witnessed signature of the patient, or the patient's legal guardian, is sufficient
(c) some forms of DNR orders only stipulate that only that intubation, CPR, and chemical resuscitation be withheld.
(d) when in doubt, or when written orders are not present, the EMT should perform all possible resuscitation efforts.
(e) If the patient is unconscious and no written orders are present, any competent immediate family member (a parent, spouse, or adult child) has the legal right to act as the patient's "health care proxy" and refuse treatment for the patient.

Back 29

E

Front 30

Another term for a DNR order is
(a) a death wish directive
(b) a dying will
(c) an advanced directive
(d) a Hold Treatment Driective (HTD)
(e) a hospice directive

Back 30

C

Front 31

For an EMT to be convicted of negligence, which of the following must be proven to have occuredhe EMT had to act and provide care for the patient, but failed to do so
(b) The EMT performed care in a manner that deviated rom his allowed scope of practice, or failed to preform care in a maner stipulated by his scope of practice
(c) The EMT's actions or inactions caused the patient to suffer physical or psychological injury
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) Answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 31

E

Front 32

You have transfered a nursing home resident to the emergency department for evaluation and treatment for an urinary problem. As you arrive, your dispatcher notifies you that a 911 emergency call is waiting for you. All of the ED nurses are busy, but the ED clerk (who is not a medical professional) listens to your report and assures you that she will inform the nurse. You leave the patient in the care of the clerk. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) In every state of the United States, this action is viewed as abandonment
(b) Only some states view this action as abandonment
(c) Emergency calls take precedence over simple patient transfers; therefore this is not abandonment
(d) Because the patient was received by the ED clerk, your transfer to the ED was legally completed; therefore this is not abandonment
(e) None of the above is true

Back 32

A

Front 33

Many states have "Good Samaritan Laws" These laws grant immunity form medical negligence prosecution to
(a) all EMTs who are licensed or certified within that state
(b) all EMTs who are licensed, or certified within any U.S state
(c) all individuals who, in good faith, volunteer to help an injured person at the scene of an accident, even if untrained to provide medical care
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above

Back 33

C

Front 34

Patient confidentiality rules stipulate that information obtained through the interview or examination of a patient maybe shared with other persons
(a) only when a written release is signed by the patient or an established legal guardian
(b) only when a verbal release is made by the patient or an established legal guardian
(c) under no circumstances
(d) when the patient or estab lished legal guardian gives permission either in writing or over the telephone
(e) only after the patient's physicians signs a "Release of Information" form

Back 34

A

Front 35

Exceptions to patient confidentiality rules regarding information disclosure include provision of information
(a) to the health care providers who receive the patient from you and need the information to continue patient care
(b) regarding incidents that the state requires reporting of, such as sexual assault, child or elderly abuse or neglect
(c) after receiving a legal subpoena, and the court orders you to disclose the information
(d) Answers (a) and (b)
(e) Answers (a), (b) and (c)

Back 35

E

Front 36

A medical identification evice is designed to provide emergency medical informatiom about a patient. It may list allergies,diabetic conditions, epilepsy, or other pertinent medical information about the patient. Types of medical identification devices include information tubes kept in the refrigerator, or
(a) a bracelet on the patient
(b) a necklace on the patient
(c) a card in the patient's wallet, pocket, or purse
(d) answers (a) and (b)
(e) answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 36

E

Front 37

Which of the following statements regarding crime scenes and preservation of evidence is true
(a) if a crime has been committed, the EMT has a duty to perserve evidence , even if that means delay in providing care to a seriously injured or ill patient
(b) An EMT should not touch or disturb any item at the scene unless emergency care requires it
(c) when cutting off clothing, the EMT should avoid cutting through holes made by gun shot wounds or stabbings
(d) if the police order the EMT to leave the patient in place until after photos are taken or evidence is collected, but the patient appears to be seriously injured or ill, the EMT has a duty to act against the wishes of the police by providing the patient with rapid treatment and transport
(e) An EMT should neve enter a potential crime scene until after the police have secured it

Back 37

A

Front 38

State legislation requires the reporting of special situations, which may vary from state to state. Situations that commonly require reporting include medical emergencies suspected to have resulted from all of the following except
(a) child or elderly abuse
(b) acts of prostitution
(c) sexual assult
(d) gunshot or stabbing wounds
(e) spousal (domestic) abuse

Back 38

B

Front 39

In addition to giving the body shape, the musculoskeletal system functions to
(a) provide for body movement
(b) protect vital internal organs
(c) produce red blood cells within bone marrow
(d) answers (a) and (b)
(e) answers (a), (b) and (c)

Back 39

E

Front 40

The skull consists of
(a) the cranium which contains the brain
(b) the cranium and the face
(c) the cranium, the face and the first two vertebrae of the spine
(d) none of the above

Back 40

B

Front 41

The bony facial structure that surounds each eye is called the
(a) mandible
(b) orbit
(c) nasal bone
(d) maxillae
(e) zygomatic bone

Back 41

B

Front 42

The bony facial structure that provides shape to the nose is called the
a) mandible
(b) orbit
(c) nasal bone
(d) maxillae
(e) zygomatic bone

Back 42

C

Front 43

The bony structure that is the upper jaw is called the
a) mandible
(b) orbit
(c) nasal bone
(d) maxillae
(e) zygomatic bone

Back 43

D

Front 44

The bony facial structure that is also called the cheekbone is the
a) mandible
(b) orbit
(c) nasal bone
(d) maxillae
(e) zygomatic bone

Back 44

E

Front 45

The bony structure that is the lower jaw is called the
a) mandible
(b) orbit
(c) nasal bone
(d) maxillae
(e) zygomatic bone

Back 45

A

Front 46

Which of the following statements regarding the spinal column is false?
(a) the spinal column encloses the spinal cord
(b) the spinal cord connects with the brain through an opening at the base of the skull
(c) the spinal column consists of 33 bones known as vertebrae
(d) the spine is divided into five sections
(e) the coccyx does not enclose any portion of the spinal cord, and therefore is not considered a part of the spine

Back 46

E

Front 47

The sacral section of the spine (the sacrum) is located
a) in the upper back, having ribs attached to it
(b) immediately inferior to the lower back, forming the posterior wall of the pelvis
(c) in the lower back and does not have attached ribs to it
(d) In the neck
(e) at the very end of the spine

Back 47

B

Front 48

The thoracic section of the spine is located
a) in the upper back, having ribs attached to it
(b) immediately inferior to the lower back, forming the back wall of the pelvis
(c) In the lower back and does not have attached ribs
(d) in the neck
(e) at the every end of the spine

Back 48

A

Front 49

The cervical section of the spine is located
a) in the upper back, having attached ribs
(b) immediately inferior to the lower back,forming the back wall of the pelvis
(c) in the lower back, and does not have attached ribs
(d) in the neck
(e) at the very end of the spine

Back 49

D

Front 50

The lumbar section of the spine is located
a) in the upper back, having ribs attached to it
(b) immediately inferior to the lower back, forming the back wall of the pelvis
(c) In the lower back and does not have attached ribs
(d) in the neck
(e) at the every end of the spine

Back 50

C

Front 51

The occyx is located
a) in the upper back, having ribs attached to it
(b) immediately inferior to the lower back, forming the back wall of the pelvis
(c) In the lower back and does not have attached ribs
(d) in the neck
(e) at the every end of the spine

Back 51

E

Front 52

The chest is also sometimes called the
(a)cervical cavity (cervix)
(b) lumbar cavity
(c) thoracic cavity (thorax)
(d) sacral cavity (sacrum)
(e) coccygeal cavity (coccyx)

Back 52

C

Front 53

The cervical spine consists of ___vertebrae
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) 4

Back 53

C

Front 54

The thoracic spine consists of ___vertebrae
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) 4

Back 54

A

Front 55

The lumbar spine consists of ___vertebrae
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) 4

Back 55

D

Front 56

The sacral spine(sacrum) consists of____fused vertebrae
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) 4

Back 56

D

Front 57

The coccyx consists of____fused vertebrae
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) 4

Back 57

E

Front 58

The chest consists of____pairs of ribs
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 7
(e) 14

Back 58

B

Front 59

Almost all of the pairs of ribs are attached posteriorly to vertbrae and anteriorly to the brest bone. ____pair(s) is/are attached only to the vertebrae and are called "floating ribs"
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
(e) five

Back 59

B

Front 60

Another term for the brest bone is the
(a) Xiphoid process
(b) ilium
(c) sternum
(d) manubrium
(e) acetabular process

Back 60

C

Front 61

Another name for the superior section of the brest bone is the
(a) xiphiod process
(b) ilium
(c) sternum
(d) manubrium
(e) acetabular process

Back 61

D

Front 62

Another term for the inferior tip of the brest bone (lying over a portion of the liver) is the
sternum
(a) xiphoid process
(b) ilium
(c) sternum
(d) manubrium
(e) acetabular process

Back 62

A

Front 63

The hip is defined as
(a) the pelvis
(b) the joint between the pelvis and the thighbone
(c) the thighbone
(d) the joint between the spine and the thighbone
(e) the joint between the spine and the pelvis

Back 63

B

Front 64

The pelvis consists of several bones fused together. two large,wide bones that form each lateral and superior portion of the pelvis are often called the "wings" of the pelvis. Each of these bones is called the____, and its top is called the ___
(a) illium/iliac crest
(b) ischium/ischiac crest
(c) pubis/pubis crest
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above

Back 64

A

Front 65

The anterior pelvis is formed by the joining of bones that are collectively called the
(a) illium
(b) ischium
(c) pubis
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above

Back 65

C

Front 66

The socket portion of the hip is the
(a) tibia
(b) fibula
(c) femur
(d) acetabulum
(e) patella

Back 66

D

Front 67

The anatomical term for the thighbone is
(a) tibia
(b) fibula
(c) femur
(d) acetabulum
(e) patella

Back 67

C

Front 68

The anatomical term for knee cap is
(a) tibia
(b) fibula
(c) femur
(d) acetabulum
(e) patella

Back 68

E

Front 69

The anatomical term for the anterior bone in the lower leg is
(a) tibia
(b) fibula
(c) femur
(d) acetabulum
(e) patella

Back 69

A

Front 70

The anatomical term for the posterior bone in the lower leg is the
(a) tibia
(b) fibula
(c) femur
(d) acetabulum
(e) patella

Back 70

B

Front 71

The anatomical term for the ankle bone on the great-toe side of the foot is the
(a) medial malleolus
(b) lateral malleolus
(c) medial tuberosity
(d) lateral tuberosity
(e) dorsal tuberosity

Back 71

A

Front 72

The anatomical term for the ankle bone on the small-toe side of the foot is the
(a) medial malleolus
(b) lateral malleolus
(c) medial tuberosity
(d) lateral tuberosity
(e) dorsal tuberosity

Back 72

B

Front 73

The anatomical term(s) for the bones of the toes is (are) the
(a) tarsals and metatarsals
(b) carpals and metacarpals
(c)phalanges
(d) calcaneus
(e) sacrals and metasacrals

Back 73

C

Front 74

The anatomical term(s) for the bones of the foot is (are) the
(a) tarsals and metatarsals
(b) carpals and metacarpals
(c) phalanges
(d) calcaneus
(e) sacrals and metasacrals

Back 74

A

Front 75

The anatomical term for the heel bone is the
(a) megatarsal
(b) megacarpal
(c) phalanges
(d) calcaneus
(e) posterior tuberosity

Back 75

D

Front 76

The anatomical term(s) for the bones of the finger is (are) the
(a) tarsals and metatarsals
(b) carpals and metacarpals
(c) phalanges
(d) calcaneus
(e) sacrals and metasacrals

Back 76

C

Front 77

The anatomical term(s) for the bones of the hand is (are) the
(a) tarsals and metatarsals
(b) carpals and metacarpals
(c)phalanges
(d) calcaneus
(e) sacrals and metasacrals

Back 77

B

Front 78

The shoulder is composed of several bones. The anatomical term for the collarbone is the
(a) ulna
(b) acromion
(c) scapula
(d) clavicle
(e) olecranon

Back 78

D

Front 79

The anatomical term for the shoulder blade (in the back) is the
(a) ulna
(b) acromion
(c) scapula
(d) clavicle
(e) olecranon

Back 79

C

Front 80

The very end of the collarbone, at the shoulder joint, is called the
(a) ulna
(b) acromion
(c) scapula
(d) clavicle
(e) olecranon

Back 80

B

Front 81

The bone of the upper arm is the
(a) ulna
(b) acromion
(c) scapula
(d) clavicle
(e) olecranon

Back 81

B

Front 82

The lateral bone of the lower is the
(a) ulna
(b) acromion
(c) scapula
(d) clavicle
(e) olecranon

Back 82

C

Front 83

The medial bone of the lower arm is the
(a) ulna
(b) acromion
(c) scapula
(d) clavicle
(e) olecranon

Back 83

A

Front 84

The __ is an example of a ball-and -socket joint
(a) elbow
(b) hip
(c) neck
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (a) and (b)

Back 84

B

Front 85

The __ is an example of a hinge joint
(a) elbow
(b) hip
(c) neck
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (a) and (b)

Back 85

A

Front 86

Muscles come in three different types. Voluntary muscle is best described as the type of muscle that
(a) requires no conscious control
(b) is consciously controlled
(c) has properties of automaticity (is able to generate and conduct its own electrical impulses)
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (b and (c)

Back 86

B

Front 87

Muscles come in three different types. Involuntary muscle is best described as the type of muscle that
(a) requires no conscious control
(b) is consciously controlled
(c) has properties of automaticity (is able to generate and conduct its own electrical impulses)
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (b and (c)

Back 87

A

Front 88

Muscles come in three different types. Cardiac muscle is best described as the type of muscle that
(a) requires no conscious control
(b) is consciously controlled
(c) has properties of automaticity (is able to generate and conduct its own electrical impulses)
(d) Answers (a) and (c)
(e) Answers (b and (c)

Back 88

D

Front 89

____ attaches to the bones of the skeleton, forms the major muscle mass of the body, and is controlled by the nervous system and the brain. It also can be contracted and relaxed by the individual's will and is responsible for body movement.
(a) Involuntary muscle
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) voluntary muscle
(d ) any of the above
(e) none of the above

Back 89

C

Front 90

____ is found in the walls of the gastrointestinal tract and urinary system as well as the blood vessels and bronchi. It controls the flow of materials through these structures, carries out the automatic muscular functions of the body, is under no direct control by the individual, and responds to stimuli such as stretching, heat and cold.
(a) Involuntary muscle
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) voluntary muscle
(d ) any of the above
(e) none of the above

Back 90

A

Front 91

_____is found only in the heart and has its own rich supply of blood. It can tolerate only a very short interuption of blood supply
(a) involuntary muscle
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) voluntary muscle
(d) any of the above
(e) none of the above

Back 91

B

Front 92

The respiratory system is responsible for
(a) provision of carbon diixide to the blood stream and excretion of oxygen
(b) provision of oxygen to the blood stream and excretion of carbon dioxide
(c) muscular function of inhalation and exhalation
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 92

E

Front 93

When breathing through the mouth, the first area that air enters is the
(a) pharynx
(b) oropharynx
(c) larynx
(d) endopharynx
(e) nasopharynx

Back 93

B

Front 94

When breathing through the nose, the first area that air enters is the
(a) pharynx
(b) oropharynx
(c) larynx
(d) endopharynx
(e) nasopharynx

Back 94

E

Front 95

A leaf-shaped valve that prevents food and liquid from entering the wind pipe is called the
(a) circoid cartilage
(b) larynx
(c) valecula
(d) epiglottis
(e) trachea

Back 95

D

Front 96

The medical term for the "wind pipe" is the
(a) circoid cartilage
(b) larynx
(c) valecula
(d) epiglottis
(e) trachea

Back 96

E

Front 97

The firm ring that forms the lower portion of the voice box is the
(a) circoid cartilage
(b) larynx
(c) valecula
(d) epiglottis
(e) trachea

Back 97

A

Front 98

The medical term for the "voice box" is the
(a) circoid cartilage
(b) larynx
(c) valecula
(d) epiglottis
(e) trachea

Back 98

B

Front 99

The wind pipe divides into two large air tubes at a junction commonly called "the cough center." The medical term for these two large air tubes is the
(a) right and left rhonchi
(b) right and left bronchi
(c) right and left alveoli
(d) anterior and posterior rhonchi
(e) anterior and posterior bronchi

Back 99

B

Front 100

At the end of the respiratory "tree" are ting groups of sacs. These sacs are called the
(a)rhonchi
(b)bronchi
(c) alveoli
(d) petechia
(e) cilia

Back 100

C

Front 101

The respiratory rate considered normal for an adult at rest is____breaths per minute
(a) 10 to 12
(b) 12 to 20
(c) 15 to 30
(d) 25 to 35
(e) 25 to 50

Back 101

B

Front 102

The respiratory rate considered normal for an infant (not a newborn) at rest is____breaths per minute
(a) 10 to 12
(b) 12 to 20
(c) 15 to 30
(d) 25 to 35
(e) 25 to 50

Back 102

E

Front 103

The respiratory rate considered normal for a child at rest is____breaths per minute
(a) 10 to 12
(b) 12 to 20
(c) 15 to 30
(d) 25 to 35
(e) 25 to 50

Back 103

C

Front 104

The complete assessment of respiration includes assessing the rate of breathing, the rhythm of breathing(regular or irregular), and the
The respiratory rate considered normal for an adult at rest is____breaths per minute
(a) clarity and equality of breath sounds
(b) equality and fullness of chest expansion
(c) the use of accessory muscles
(d) answers (a) and (b)
(e) answers (a), (b), and (c)

Back 104

E

Front 105

Which of the following statements regarding pediatric airway considerations is false?
(a) in general, all pediatric airway structures are smaller and more easily obstructed then adult airway structures
(b) a child's trachea is harder and less flexible then an adult's, providing greater protection from direct injury
(c) children's tongues take up proportionally more space in the mouth than adults
(d) all the above are false
(e) none of the above is false

Back 105

B

Front 106

Which of the following statements regarding pediatric airway anatomy considerations is true
(a) children have narrower tracheas that can be obstructed more easily by swelling
(b) like other cartilage in the child, the cricoid cartilage is less developed ans less rigid than in the adult
(c) The pediatric chest wall is softer, and children tend to depend more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing
(d) all the above is true
(e) none of the above is true

Back 106

D

Front 107

The heart is the circulatory pump of the body. The right side of the heart pumps ________blood through the _________
(a) oxygen-rich/systemic
(b) oxygen-poor/systemic
(c) oxygen-rich/pulmonary
(d) oxygen-poor/pulmonay
(e) either oxygenated or dexoygenated/systemic or plumonary

Back 107

D

Front 108

The____receives blood from the veins of the body and the heart
(a) left ventricle
(b) right ventricle
(c) ventricular septum
(d) right atrium
(e) left atrium

Back 108

D

Front 109

The____receives blood from the lungs
(a) left ventricle
(b) right ventricle
(c) ventricular septum
(d) right atrium
(e) left atrium

Back 109

E

Front 110

The___pumps blood from the lungs
(a) left ventricle
(b) right ventricle
(c) ventricular septum
(d) right atrium
(e) left atrium

Back 110

B

Front 111

The ____pumps blood to the body.
(a) left ventricle
(b) right ventricle
(c) ventricular septum
(d) right atrium
(e) left atrium

Back 111

A

Front 112

The cardiac valves
(a) propel blood from one chamber of the heart to another
(b) propel blood from the heart chambers into the blood vessels
(c) pervent the back flow of blood
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers(b) and (c)

Back 112

C

Front 113

All arteries
(a) carry blood away from the heart
(b) carry blood back ot the heart
(c) carry only oxygenated blood
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 113

A

Front 114

All veins
(a) carry blood away from the heart
(b) carry blood back ot the heart
(c) carry only deoxygenated blood
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 114

B

Front 115

pulmonary arteries
(a) carry blood away from the heart
(b) carry blood back ot the heart
(c) carry only deoxygenated blood
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 115

D

Front 116

pulmonary veins
(a) carry blood away from the heart
(b) carry blood back ot the heart
(c) carry only oxygenated blood
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 116

E

Front 117

A major blood vessel that orginates from the heart, then descends through the thoracic and abdominal cavities, is the
(a) superior vena cava
(b) inferior vena cava
(c) aorta
(d) answers (a) and (b
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 117

C

Front 118

A major blood vessel that returns blood to the heart is the
(a) superior vena cava
(b) inferior vena cava
(c) aorta
(d) answers (a) and (b
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 118

D

Front 119

The heart muscle is supplied with blood by the _____, which branches off from the aorta
(a) femoral arteries
(b) radial arteries
(c) carotid arteries
(d) coronary arteries
(e) brachial arteries

Back 119

D

Front 120

The head is supplied with blood by the_____, which have a pulse that can be palpated on either side of the neck
(a) femoral arteries
(b) radial arteries
(c) carotid arteries
(d) coronary arteries
(e) brachial arteries

Back 120

C

Front 121

As the major arteries in each thigh, the _____supply the groin and both lower extremities with blood and can be palpated in the groin area
(a) femoral arteries
(b) radial arteries
(c) carotid arteries
(d) coronary arteries
(e) brachial arteries

Back 121

A

Front 122

The ____produce a pulse that can be palpated between the elbow and the shoulder on the inside of the arm
(a) femoral arteries
(b) radial arteries
(c) carotid arteries
(d) coronary arteries
(e) brachial arteries

Back 122

E

Front 123

The _____produce a pulse that can be palpated on the _____side of either wrist
(a) radial arteries/small finger (medial)
(b) radial arteries/thumb (lateral)
(c) pulstile arteries/small finger (lateral)
(d) brachial arteries/thumb (lateral)
(e) brachial arteries/small finger (medial)

Back 123

B

Front 124

The pulse produced by the ______is ausculated when using a syhygmomanometer and a stethoscope to determine the blood pressure
(a) femoral artery
(b) radial artery
(c) carotid artery
(d) coronary artery
(e) brachial artery

Back 124

E

Front 125

An artery on the posterior surface of the medial malleolus that can be palpated for a pulse is the
(a) anterior tibial artery
(b) posterior tibial artery
(c) dorsalis pedis artery
(d) superior pedal artery
(e) posterior pedal artery

Back 125

B

Front 126

An artery on the top of the foot that can be palpated for a pulse is the
(a) anterior tibial artery
(b) posterior tibial artery
(c) dorsalis pedis artery
(d) superior pedal artery
(e) posterior pedal artery

Back 126

E

Front 127

Capillaries are found in all parts of the body. They are tiny blood vessels that
(a) Receive blood from the smallest arteries and send it to the smallest veins
(b) receive blood from the smallest veins and send it to the smallest arteeries
(c) are responsible for the exchange of nutrients and waste, oxygen and carbon dioxide, at the cellular level of the body
(d) answers (a) and (c)
(e) answers (b) and (c)

Back 127

D

Front 128

The smallest branch of an artery is called
(a) a capillary
(b) an arteriette
(c) an arteriole
(d ) answers (b) or (c)
(e) none of the above

Back 128

C

Front 129

The smallest branch of a vein is called a/an
(a) capillary
(b) veinette
(c) venule
(d) answers (b) or (c)
(e) none of the above

Back 129

C

Front 130

Blood is made up of several components. Red blood cells (RBCs or red corpuscles) carry oxygen to the tissues and carbon dioxide away from the tissues. Another medical term for RBCs is
(a) leukocytes
(b) platelets
(c) erythrocytes
(d) plasma
(e) packed cells

Back 130

C

Front 131

White blood cells (WBCs or white corpuscles) are the body's immune defense against infections. Another medical term for WBCs is
(a) leukocytes
(b) platelets
(c) erythrocytes
(d) plasma
(e) packed cells

Back 131

A

Front 132

The formation of blood clots is largely dependant upon the _______found in the blood
(a) leukocytes
(b) platelets
(c) erythroliquid
(d) plasma
(e) packed cells

Back 132

B

Front 133

The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients from place to place within the circulatory system is called
(a) leukocytes
(b) platelets
(c) erythrocytes
(d) plasma
(e) packed cells

Back 133

B

Front 134

A palpable pulse is formed when the____contracts sending a wave of blood
(a) left atrium
(b) right atrium
(c) left ventricle
(d) right ventricle
(e) ventricular septum

Back 134

C

Front 135

A pulse can be palpated
(a) only at the neck. inner arm, wrist, groin, and foot
(b) anywhere an artery simultaneously passes near the skin suface and over a bone
(c) anywhere a vein simultaneously passes near the skin suface and over a bone
(d) anywhere a vein or an artery simultaneously passes near the skin suface and over a bone
(e) only at the neck, inner arm, wrist, groin, ankle, and foot

Back 135

B

Front 136

Peripheral pulses inculde all of the following except the______ pulse
(a) femoral
(b) brachial
(c) radial
(d) dorsalis pedis
(e) posterior tibial

Back 136

A

Front 137

Central pulses consist of the carotid pulse and the ____pulse
(a) femoral
(b) brachial
(c) radial
(d) dorsalis pedis
(e) posterior tibial

Back 137

A