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113 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Which blood products do not carry the risk of HIV and hepatitis because they are heat treated?
albumin and serum globulins
Who gets CMV-negative blood?
low birth-weight infants, bone marrow transplant pts and other transplant pts
What is the number one cause of death from transfusion reaction?
Clerical error leading to ABO incompatibility
Stored blood is low in ____ causing a left-shift
2,3 DPG
Back pain, chills, tachycardia, fever, hemoglobinuria in pt that has been transfused. May present as diffuse bleeding in anesthetized patient.
acute hemolysis (ABO incompatibility, antibody mediated)
What is the treatment for acute hemolysis (ABO incompatibility)
fluids, diruetics, HCO3-, pressors, histamine blockers
What is the most common transfusion reaction and what is the pathophys?
febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. recipient antibody reaction against WBCs in donor blood
What is the treatment for febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?
stop transfusion and use WBC filters for subsequent transfusions
Anaphylaxis after transfusion. What is usually the pathophys?a and was is the tx?
Usually IgG against IgA in IgA-deficient patient. Tx: fluids, Lasix, pressors, steroids, epi, histamin blockers
What is the pathophys of transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)?
antibodies to recipient's WBCs, clot in pulmonary capillaries
Dilutional thrombocytopenia occurs after transfusion of ___ units of PRBCs.
10
What electrolyte abnormality can occur with massive transfusion?
hypocalcemia
Antiplatelet antibodies develop in ___% of pts after 10-20 platelet transfusions
20
Hetastarch (Hespan) can be used up to ___ L without the risk of bleeding complications.
1
Most common bacterial contaminate of transfused blood?
GNRs usually e. coli
Most common blood product source of contamination?
platelets (not refrigerated)
What parasitic disease can be transmitted with blood transfusion?
chagas disease
What is the most common blood type?
O+
Predominant release of proinflammatory cytokines (IL-2, INF-gamma). Involved in cell-mediated responses
Th1 helper T cells (CD4)
Predominant release of anti-inflammatory cytokines (IL-4 -> inhibits macrophages). Involved in atopy and allergic responses.
Th2 helper T cells (CD4)
IL-___ causes B-cell maturation into plasma cells (antibody secreting).
4
IL-___ causes maturation of cytotoxic T cells
2
Recognize and attack non-self antigens attached to MHC class I receptors (e.g. viral gene products)
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8)
Infections associated with defects in ___ immunity - intracellular pathogens (TB, viruses)
cell-mediated
Can increase T-cell mediated immunity.
Nucleotides
What are the types of MHC class I
A, B and C
What are the types of MHC class II
DR, DP and DQ
CD8 cell activation. Present on all nucleated cells. Single chain with 5 domains. Target for cytotoxic T cells.
MHC class I
CD4-cell activation. Present on B cells, dendrites, monocytes, and antigen-presenting cells. 2 chains with 4 domains each. Activator for helper T cells. Stimulate antibody formation.
MHC class II
___ infection - endogenous viral proteins produce, are bound to class I MHC, go to cell surface, and are recognized by CD8 cytotoxic T cells
Viral
___ infection - endocytosis, proteins get bound to MHC class II molecules, go to cell surface, recognized by CD4 helper T cells -> B cells which have already bound to the antigen are then activated by the CD4 helper T cells; they then produce the antibody to that antigen and are transformed to plasma cells and memory B cells.
Bacterial
Not restricted by MHC, do not require previous exposure. Not considered T or B cells. Recognize cells that lack self-MHC. Part of the body's natural immunosurveillance for cancer.
Natural killer cells
Initial antibody made after exposure to antigen. Is the largest antibody, having 5 domains (10 binding sites).
IgM
Most abundant antibody in body. Responsible for secondary immune response. Can cross the placenta and provides protection in newborn period.
IgG
Found in secretions, in Peyer's patches in gut, and in breast milk; helps prevent microbial adherence and invasion in gut.
IgA
Membrane-bound receptor on B-cells (serves as an antigen receptor). Which Ab?
IgD
Allergic reactions, parasite infections. Which Ab?
IgE
Which antibodies fix complement?
IgM and IgG (requires 2 IgGs or 1 IgM)
Immediate hypersensitivity-reaction. IgE mediated; mast and basophils release histamine, serotonin and bradykinin. Example include bee stings, peanuts, hay fever.
Type I
Hypersensitivity reaction where IgG or IgM reacts with cell-bound antigen. Examples include ABO blood type incompatibility, Graves disease, MG, ITP.
Type II
Hypersensitivity reaction that involves immune complex deposition. Examples include: serum sickness, rheumatoid arthritis and SLE
Type III
Delayed-type hypersensitivity. Antigen stimulation of perviously sensitized T-cells. Examples include: TB skin test, contact dermatitis.
Type IV
Converts lymphocytes to lymphokine-activated killer cells by enhancing their immune response to tumor. Also converts lymphocytes into tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes. Has been shown to be successful for melanoma.
IL-2
What is a tetanus-prone wound?
>6 hrs old; obvious contamination and devitalized tissue; crush; burn; frostbite, or missile injury
When to give tetanus toxoid or tetanus immune globulin
Non-tetanus prone wound - give toxoid only if pt has received <3 doses or tetanus status unknown.

Tetanus prone wound - always give toxoid unless pt has had >3 doses and it has been <5 years

Tetanus immune globulin is for tetanus prone wounds in non-immunized pt or immunization status unknown.
What is the most common immune deficiency?
malnutrition
Which part of the GI tract is virtually sterile; some GPCs, some yeast?
stomach
Which part of the GI tract has 10^5 bacteria, mostly GPCs?
proximal small bowel
Which part of the GI tract has 10^7 bacteria, mostly GPCs, GPRs, GNRs?
distal small bowel
Which part of the GI tract has 10^11 bacteria, almost all anaerobes, some GNRs, GPCs?
colon
What are the most common organisms in the GI tract?
anaerobes
What is the most common anaerobe in the colon?
bacteroides fragilis
What is the most common aerobic bacteria in the colon?
E. coli
How does e coli trigger the release of TNF-a from macrophages and activate complement and coagulation cascade?
endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide lipid A) is released
What is the optimal glucose level in a septic patient?
100-120
How is c diff colitis diagnosed?
fecal leukocytes in stool, C. difficile toxin
What is tx for c diff?
oral vancomycin or flagyl; IV - flagyl; lactobacillus can also help; stop other abx or change them
___% of abdominal abscesses have anaerobes; ___% of abdominal abscesses have both anaerobic and aerobic bacteria
90, 80
Tx for abdominal abscess?
drainage
Abscesses usually occur how many days after an operation?
7-10
When do you start abx for an abscess?
pts with DM, cellulitis, clinical signs of sepsis, fever, elevated WBC or with bioprosthetic hardware
Wound infection percentage for a clean operation (ie hernia)?
2%
Wound infection percentage for a clean contaminated procedure (ie elective colon resection with prepped bowel)
3%-5%
Wound infection percentage for a contaminated procedure such as a GSW to colon with repair?
5%-10%
Most common organism overall in surgical wound infections?
s. aureus
How to tell the difference between staphlococcus aureus and staphlococcus epidermidis?
s aureus is coagulase positive
What is the most common GNR in surgical wound infections?
E. coli
What is the most common anaerobe in surgical wound infections?
B. fragilus
>___ bacteria needed for wound infection; less bacteria needed if foreign body present.
10^5
Which bacteria in infection?

Recovery from tissue indicates necrosis or abscess (only grows in low redox state). Also implies translocation from gut.
B. fragilis
Which two types of bacteria can produce an invasive soft tissue infection that can be present within hours postoperatively (produce exotoxins)
Clostridium perfringens and beta hemolytic strep
Most common nonsurgical infection?
UTI (most commonly E. coli)
Leading cause of infectious death after surgery?
nosocomial pneumonia
2 most common organisms in ICU pneumonia?
#1 s. aureus, #2 pseudomonas
#1 class of organismis in ICU pneumonia?
GNRs
Top three organisms in line infections
S. epi, S aureus, yeast
Top three causes of necrotizing soft tissue infections
Beta-hemolytic streptococcus (group A), C. perfringens and mixed organisms
What are the following signs and symptoms of:
White blood cell count 20K
Thin, gray drainage
Edema of entire limb
Hyponatremia
Skin blistering/sloughing
crepitus
pain out of proportion to skin findings
sepsis
Necrotizing Soft Tissue Infection
Tx for necrotizing soft tissue infections?
early debridement, high dose PCN
Myonecrosis, gas gangrene and gram stain showing GPRs without WBCs.
C. perfringens
Pulmonary sx most common; can cause tortuous abscess in cervical, thoracic and abdominal areas. What type of infection and what is the tx?
Actinomyces. Tx: drainage and penicillin G
Pulmonary and CNS sx most common. Tx is drainage and Bactrim. What is the organism?
Nocardia
Pulmonary sx most common. Mississippi and Ohio river valleys. What is the organism and what is the tx?
Histoplasmosis. Amphotericin for severe infections
Pulmonary sx in the Southwest. What is the diagnosis and what is the tx?
Coccidioidomycosis. Amphotericin for severe infections
What fungal infection has CNS symptoms most common and what is the tx?
Cryptococcus. Amphotericin for severe infections
What is the tx for candida infections?
fluconazole (some Candida resistant), amphotericin for severe infections
What is diagnostic of SBP?
PMNs > 500 cells/cc (fluid cultures negative in many cases)
SBP is monobacterial, what are the top 3?
50% e coli, 30% streptococcus, 10% Klebsiella
Tx for SBP?
ceftriaxone or other 3rd generation cephalosporin
If pt with SBP is not getting better on abx or if cultures are polymicrobial?
need to rule out intra-abdominal source (diverticular abscess, perforation)
Which abx for short term prophylaxis against SBP?
Fluoroquinolone
What is the cause of SBP?
decreased host defenses (intrahepatic shunting, impaired bactericidal activity in ascites); not due to transmucosal migration
What is the cause of secondary bacterial peritonitis?
intra-abdominal source (transmucosal migration, perforated viscus)
What are the most common organisms in secondary bacterial peritonitis?
B. fragilis, E. coli, Enterococcus
What is the tx for secondary bacterial peritonitis?
Usually need laparotomy to find source
Seroconversion after HIV exposure occurs in ___ weeks
6-12
What 2 drugs can help decrease seroconversion of HIV after exposure? Should be given within 1-2 hours of exposure.
AZT and lamivudine
2 most common reasons for laparotomy in HIV patients?
opportunistic infections (CMV most common), neoplastic disease (respectively)
Most common intestinal manifestation of AIDS. Can present with pain, bleeding or perforation.
CMV colitis
Lymphoma in HIV patients occurs most commonly which two locations?
stomach, rectum
Name two causes of upper GI bleeding in HIV patients?
Kaposi's sarcoma, lymphoma
Name three causes of lower GI bleeding in HIV patients?
CMV, bacterial, HSV
Tx of brown recluse spider bite?
dapsone initially, may need resection of area and skin graft for large ulcers later
Tx for acute septic arthritis?
drainage, 3rd-generation cephalosporin and vancomycin until cultures show organism
Tx for diabetic foot infection?
broad-sprectrum abx (Unasyn, Zosyn)
What bacteria is found only in human bites; can cause permanent joint injury?
Eikenella
What bacteria is found in cat and dog bites?
Paseurella multocida
What is the tx for cat/dog/human bites?
broad-spectrum abx (Augmentin)
What are the 2 bacteria usually found in furuncles (boil)?
S. epidermidis or S. aureus
What is a carbuncle?
A multiloculated furuncle
What are the two most common bacteria in peritoneal dialysis catheter infections?
s. aureus and s. epidermidis
Tx for peritoneal dialysis catheter infection?
intraperitoneal vancomycin and gentamicin; increased dwell time and intraperitoneal heparin
Need removal of peritoneal dialysis catheter for which type of infections?
all fungal, TB and pseudomonas infections