Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
48 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What type of organisms would an asplenic patient be susceptible to?
|
Encapsulated organisms (S. pneumo, H. flu, salmonella, N. Meningitidis)
|
|
|
What cells are found in asplenics?
|
Howell-Jolly bodies
Target cells |
|
|
Where is the thymus derived from?
|
Epithelium of the third branchial pouches.
|
|
|
What do Th1 cells secrete?
|
IL-2
IFN-gamma -These activate macs and CD8+ cells. Th1 cells are cell-mediated responders and are inhibited by IL-10 |
|
|
What do Th2 cells secrete?
|
IL-4
IL-5 IL-10 Help B cells make antibodies. Humoral response and inhibited by IFN-gamma |
|
|
What diseases are associated with the HLA subtype B27?
|
Psoriasis
Ankylosing Spondylitis Inflammatory bowel disease Reiter's Syndrome P.A.I.R. |
|
|
What secretes IL-1?
|
Macrophages. Its an endogenous pyogen (FEVER)
|
|
|
What secretes IL-2?
|
Th1 cells. Stimulates more cytotoxic T cells.
|
|
|
What does IL-3 do?
|
Stimulates bone marrow stem cells.
|
|
|
What secretes IL-4?
|
Th2 cells. Promotes growth of B cells and enhances class switching to IgE and IgG.
|
|
|
What secretes IL-5?
|
Th2 cells. Promotes differentiation of B cells. Enhances class switching to IgA. Production and activation of eosinophils.
|
|
|
What are the acute phase reactant cytokines?
|
IL-1
IL-6 IL-8 TNF alpha |
|
|
What are the three main neutrophilic chemotactic factors?
|
IL-8
C5a complement LKT4 |
|
|
What is IL-10?
|
Secreted by Tregs. Inhibits Th1 cells and activates Th2.
|
|
|
What cytokine activates NK and Th1 cells?
|
IL-12
|
|
|
What secretes IFN-gamma?
|
Th1 cells. Stimulates macrophages. Inhibits Th2 cells.
|
|
|
What secretes TNF?
|
Macrophages
Mediates septic shock, vascular leak. |
|
|
CD4
CD28 CD40L |
Helper T cells
|
|
|
CD8
|
Cytotoxic T cells
|
|
|
CD19
CD20 CD21 |
B cells
|
|
|
CD14
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
CD16
|
NK cells
|
|
|
What do CD55 and CD59 do?
|
Block complement
|
|
|
What does a deficiency in C1 esterase cause?
|
Hereditary angioedema.
|
|
|
What does a deficiency in DAF cause?
|
Complement-mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
|
|
|
After exposure to which toxins is passive immunity required?
|
Tetanus
Botulinum HBV Rabies To Be Healed Rapidly |
|
|
How do you test for Type II hypersensitivity?
|
Direct or Indirect Coombs test.
|
|
|
Antihistones
|
Drug induced Lupus
|
|
|
Antithyroglobulin
|
Hashimoto's
|
|
|
Anti-Jo-1
|
Polymyositis, dermatomyositis
|
|
|
Anti-SS-A (anti-Ro)
Anti-SS-B (anti-La) |
Sjogren's syndrome
|
|
|
Anti-U1 RNP
|
Mixed connective tissue disease
|
|
|
c-ANCA
|
Wegener's granulomatosis
|
|
|
p-ANCA
|
Other vasulitides
|
|
|
Inability for neutrophils to respond to chemotactic stimuli?
|
Job's Syndrome
Hyper-IgE |
|
|
What is the deficiency in SCID?
|
Adenosine deaminase
|
|
|
What is the problem in Ataxia-Telangiectasia
|
Defect in DNA repair enzymes.
|
|
|
How does Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome present?
|
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Infections Eczema |
|
|
Which phagocyte dysfunction presents with delayed separation of umbilicus?
|
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (type I).
Defect in LFA-1 integrin protein on phags |
|
|
Why are people with CGD more susceptible to catalase-positive organisms like Staph. a, aspergillus, and E.coli?
|
The lack of NADPH oxidase does not allow for reactive oxygen species and respiratory burst.
Catalase positive organisms neutralize their own peroxide leaving WBCs without ROIs for fighting infections. H2O2 is needed to make ROIs. |
|
|
What test is used for CGD?
|
Nitroblue tetrazolium dye test. (the test is negative in CGD)
|
|
|
What is the MOA of cyclosporine adn what are the main toxic effects?
|
Inhibits calcineurin, thus preventing IL-2 and its receptor.
Toxicity: predisposition to lymphoma, NEPHROTOXIC...can be prevented with mannitol. |
|
|
What are the side effects of Tacrolimus?
|
Nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy.
|
|
|
Which antimetabolites' toxic effects are potentiated by allopurinol?
|
Mercaptopurine and Azathioprine.
Both are metabolized by XO and allopurinol inhibits XO. |
|
|
What is the MOA of Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)?
|
Binds to CD3 on the surface of T-cells. Blocks signal transduction.
Toxicity: cytokine release syndrome |
|
|
Which drug binds mTOR and inhibits T-cell proliferation in response to IL-2?
|
Rapamycin or Sirolimus.
|
|
|
Which drug inhibits de novo guanine synthesis and blocks lymphocyte production?
|
Mycophenolate mofetil
|
|
|
Which drug has a high affinity for the IL-2 receptor on activated T-cells?
|
Daclizumab
|
