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114 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
dorsal motor nucleus
vagus nerve parasympathetics
solitary nucleus
visceral sensation (inc taste) 7, 9, 10
nucleus ambiguous
branchial motor for 9, 10, 11
cribiform plate. which cn
1
middle cranial foss. which cn, which bones, which foramen
2-6. sphenoid bone. optic canal, superior oblique fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum
optic canal
2, opthalmic artery, central retinal vein
superior oblique fissure
3, 4, 5-1, 6
foramen rotundum
V2
Formane ovale
V3
Foramen spinosum
middle meningeal artery
Posterior cranial fossa. which cn, which bones, which foramen
temporal or occipital bones. 7-12. internal acoustic meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, foramen magnum
internal acoustic meatus
7,8
jugular foramen
9,10,11
hypoglossal canal
12
foramen magnum
spinal roots 11, brain stem, vertebral arteries
canvernous sinus is… contains…
venous sinus, drains to internal jugular vein. CN 3, 4, V1, V2, 6. not V3. Internal carotid. 6 is free floating
which CN in the cavernous sinus is free floating
6
what is cavernous sinus syndrome
mass effect. opthalmoplegia, sensory loss with ophthalmic, maxillary distribution. maybe 6 first b/c free floating.
None
pretectal nucleus
CN2 => pretectal =>edinger-westphal => CN3 => ciliary ganglion
"kuh" tests
palate elevation: CN10
"la" tests
tongue: CN12
"mi" tests
lips: CN7
stages of sleep and their wave forms
awake beta, close eyes alpha, stage 1 theta, stage 2 sleep spindles and K complexes, stage 3-4 delta, REM beta
what NT initiates sleep, from where
raphe nucleus: seratonin
extraocular eye movements during REM are caused by
PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation/conjugate gaze center)
night terrors and sleep walking. when? tx?
stage 4. benzos shortern
enuresis. when? tx?
stage 4. imipramine shrotens
which NT during REM?
ACh
how often does REM occur? change with age?
90 mins. down with age.
what is the emrbyological cause of neural tube defects
failure of neuropore to close. if cephalic: anencephale or encephalocele
poor verbal repitition. lesion?
arcuate fasciculus
Kluver Bucy syndrome. lesion? sx?
bilateral amygdala. hyperorality/sexuality, disinhibited
reemergance of primitive reflexes. where's the lesion
frontal lobe
lesion to the reticular activating system
coma
bilateral lesion to the mamallary bodies
Wernicke-Korsakoff
intention tremor. leison?
cerebellar hemispheres
cerebellar vermis lesion
truncal ataxia, dysarthria
basal ganglia lesion
resting tremor (eg PD), chorea (eg huntingtons/caudate), athetosis
athetosis vs. chorea
slow writhing movements esp fingers. chroea = sudden jerky movements
senile plaques. what where
AD. extracellular, beta amyloid
neurofibrillary tangles. what where.
AD. intracellular, abnormally posphorylated tau protein
amyloid angiopathy =>
intracranial hemorrhage
Pick's disease. histo? location?
pick bodies (intracellular tau protein) in forntal and temporal lobes. dementia, aphasia, parkinsonian aspects.
inheritance of huntington's disease
AD
NT and anatomical defect in HD
GABA (and ACh. caudate
Lewy Bodies
PD.
what drugs can cause parkinsomism
MPTP
what chromosome and genetic defect in Huntington's
4. CAG repeats. (Caudate, ACh loss, Gaba loss)
degeneration of spinocerebellar tracks
olivopontocerebellar atrophy. friedreich's ataxia
which neurons degenerate in ALS
UMN + LMN
which mutation in ALS. Chromo/
21. SOD1
treatment for ALS
riluzole (NMDA antag)
Werdnig-Hoffman
degeneration of LMN/anterior horn => floppy baby, tongue fasciculations, death < 1yo. AR. same lesion as polio!
my baby's floppy
werdnig-hoffman
Polio
anterior horn cells. Picorna/enterovirus
how is polio spread
fecal/oral. Picorna/enterovirus
polio sx
1) non specific sx (h/a, fever s/t, ab pain, nausea 2) LMN: weakness, hyporeflexia, fasciculations, atrophy
polio CSF
leukocytosis, (protein)
MS who
women 20-30. inc risk further from equator.
MS histo
oligodentrocyte loss => reactive gliosis w/ axons remaining => paraventricular plaques
MS labs
CSF: inc protein (IgG)
MS Sx
1) Scanning speech 2) intention tremor 3) nystagmus. Also: optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia (MLF syndrome, hemiparalysis/sensory loss, incontinence. Relapsing/remitting.
MS Tx
beta interferon. or immunosuppression
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy
demyelination. reactivation of JC virus in im comp (AIDS) or leukemia/lymphoma
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
altered measles virus (lack M component) CSF: Ig vs virus but no anti-M component
None
Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
postinfectious demyelination. delayed hypersensitivity to MMR, VZV
Name the demyelinating diseases
MS, Progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy, acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, metachromic leukodystrophy (lysosomal storage dz), guillain-barre
defect in metachromic leukodystrophy
sulfatide sulfatase (arylsulfatase) or it's activating proten
guillain barre. happens after…
CMV, EBV, Campylobacter, inoculation, stress
guillain barre. pathophys? sx?
demyelination of ventral roots => ascending muscle weakness. albumino-cytologic dissociation = papilledema (edema of optic disk)
albumino-cytologic dissociation
CSF: inc protein but no inc in cells. Guillain barre. => papilledma.
define partial seizure. what types
localized. simple, complex
None
define complex seizure
includes dec consciousness
define simple seizure
no dec consciousness
define generalized seizure. types?
not focal (both hemispheres). absence, tonic, myoclonic, tonic-clonic (grand mal), atonic
define tonic-clonic seizure
alternates myoclonic (repetitive jerks) and tonic (stiff)
what fracture leads to epidural hematoma
temporal bone => middle meningeal artery
what does CT show in epidural
biconvex disk. does not cross suture lines
what does CT show in subdural hematoma
crescent. crosses suture lines
lucid interval with
epidural
ruptured AVM
subarachnoid hemorrhage
xanthochromic spinal tap
subarachnoid hemorrhage
mc site berry aneurysm
anterior communicating artery
berry aneurysm a/w
APKD, ehlers-danlos, marfans. (also: age, hypertension, smoking, black)
name common adult brain tumors in ~ order of frequency
glioblastoma multiforme (astrocytoma), meningioma, schwannoma, oligodendroglioma, pituitary adenoma
common childhood brain tumors
Pilocytic astrocytoma, medulloblastoma, ependymoma, hemangioblastoma, craniopharyngioma
glioblastoma multiforme: cell? location? stain? histo? prognosis?
most common. astrocytes (GFAP), hemispheres (butterly glioma = crosses corpus collosum), pseudopalisades around necrosis. bad
meningioma: cell? histo?
second most common. aracnoid cell. whorled pattern + psammoma bodies. good.
schwannoma: where, a/w
3rd most common. acoustic schwannoma, a/w NF2 (bilateral)
oligodentroglioma: where? histo? prognosis
frontal lobes. fried egg (round nuc w/ clear cyto), often calcified. slow growing, rare.
anterior pituitary is derived from
rathke's pouch
pilocytoic astrocytoma. where? stain? histo? prognosis?
posterior fossa. gfap. rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic corckscrews). good (but diffusely infiltrating?)
medulloblastoma. where? what happens? histo? prog? tx?
cerebellum => compress 4th ventricle => hydrocephalus. pseudorosette. poor but radiosensitive
ependymoma. where? histo? prog?
4th ventricle => hydrocephalus. pseduorosette w/ blepharoplasts (intracellular rod shaped basal bodies).
hemangioma. where? a/w? produce? histo?
cerebellar. VHL if w/ retinal angiomas. EPO. foamy cells w/ high vascularity.
Craniopharyngeoma. where? p/w? from? prog?
supratentorial. bitemporal hemianopia (mitaken for pit ad). rathke's pouche remnant. benign. calcification is common.
UMN vs. LMN. weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, reflexes, tone, babinski
UMN: weak, no atrophy (disuse), no fascic, hyperreflex, inc tone, upgoing babinski. LMN: weak, atrophy (neurotrophic), fasciculations, hyporeflexia, no babinski (downgoing)
ventral artery occulsion. result?
lose everything except dorsal colums and tracts of lissauer
tabes dorsalis. lesion?
dorsal columns + dorsal roots => ataxia, poor proprioception
b12 neuropathy. what's damaged, similar distribution to…?
dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, spinocerebellar. Friedreich's ataxia.
Syringomyelia what is it and a/w
enlarged central canal. crossing fibers of 2° spinothalamics damaged => bilateral loss of pain/T, usu uper extremities (C8-T1). touch ok. often in pt w/ Arnld-Chiari malformation. us
brown-sequard syndrome. what causes it? describe the findings? what happens if it's above T1?
hemisection of the spinal cord. 1) below: isplateral lose of pressure/vibration/touch/proprio 2) below: contralateral loss of pain and temp 3) at the level: ipsilateral level of all sensation. 4) motor: ipsilateral UMN at the level, LMN below. Horner's syndrome if above T1.
location of lesions causing horner's syndrome
above T1
sympathetics/horner's syndrome. where in spinal cord
interomedial cell column
common peroneal nerves splits into what? what do they do?
deep peroneal nerve: anterior compartment (dorsiflexion) + sensation anterior medial foot. superficieal peroneal nerve: lateral compartment (eversion) + sensation lateral foot, dorsum foot, ant lower leg. PED = Peroneal everts and dorsiflects, lesion => foot dropPED.
tibial nerve does what?
TIP = stand on tip toes, Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes. sensation on medial posterior dorsum foot.
draw out the superinnervation of the dorsum of the foot
hurry up
what's thoracic outlet syndrome
embryological defect => compress 1) lower trunk of brachial plexus (C8, T1 = Klumpke's palsy) 2) compress subclavian esp when turn away from lesion
CN12 LMN lesion tongue to the
same side as lesion
CN12 UMN lesion tongue to the
oppoiste side from lesion
CN5 lesion, when you open your jaw, it deviates…
toward the lesion. you push your jaw out when you open it
unilateral lesion of cerebellum. pt falls to which side
toward lesion
CN10 lesion. uvula deivates
away from lesion
CN11 lesion. what happens
ipsilateral shoulder drop. can't turn head to contralateral side.