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187 Cards in this Set

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What is the composition of histone octamer?

Where does H1 histone protein belong?
4 pairs to form a nucleosome, which bind to negatively charged DNA

H1 is not part of the octamer; it binds nucleosome octomers in a string.
Euchromatin vs heterochromatin
Heterochromatin: not accessible for transcription ("Highly Condensed)

Euchromatin: accesible for transcription
Acetylation vs hypermethylation of histone.
acetylation: weakens DNA-Histone bond --> more transcription

hypermethylation: prevent transcription
Required components for:

1. Purine

2. Pyridmidine
1. Purine: glycine, aspartate, glutamate ("GAG")

2. pyrimidine: Carbamoyl phosphate and Aspartate
Carbamoyl phosphate

What 2 metabolic pathways is this involved in?
Urea cycle

De novo pyrimidine synthesis
Increased orotic acid, Megaloblastic anemia (does not improve with vit B12 or folate).

disease?
inheritance pattern?
Orotic aciduria: defect in either ortic acid phosphoribosyl transferase or orotidine 5-phosphate decarboxylase

Autosomal recessive
Orotic acid + hyperammonemia.

Disease?
inheritance pattern?
OTC (ornithin transcarbamoylase) deficiency

X-linked recessive
Hydroxyurea

MOA?
indication?
inhibits ribonucleotide reductase --> inhibits de novo pyrimidine synthesis

for sickle cell anemia (increase HbF)
Methotrexate and Trimethprime

MOA?
difference?
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

MTX: eukaryotic cells
TMP: prokaryotic cells
Adenosine deaminase deficiency

defective pathway?
pathogenesis?
associated disorder?
Purine salvage pathway

Excess ATP and dATP imbalances nucleotide pool via feedback inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase -> prevents DNA synthesis and thus lower lymphocyte count. One of the major causes of SCID (severe combined immunodefieciency disease)
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

defect?
inheritance pattern?
sxs?
deficiency in HGPRT (used in purine salvage pathway) --> increased uric acid

X-linked recessive

retardation, self-mutilation, aggression, hyperuricemia, gout, choreoathetosis
DNA topoisomerase

fxn?
what antimicrobial blocks this enzyme?
uncoils DNA

flouroquinolone
DNA polymerase I vs DNA polymerase III
DNA pol I: 5 --> 3 DNA exonuclease activity; degrades RNA primers

DNA pol III: 3 --> 5 DNA exonuclease activity; elongates both leading and lagging strands

both are only in prokaryotes
Xeroderma pigmentosum

defect?
defective endonuclease that removed damaged base (or thymidine dimers in this case)
Lynch syndrome

defect?
HNPCC (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer)

defective mismatch repair gene
How does radiation damage DNA?
breaks DNA double strands and forms O2 free radicals, which further damages it
3 main types of RNA and feature of each
RMT (Rampant, Massive, Tiny)
rRNA: most abundant
mRNA: longest
tRNA: smallest
What is added at the 3 end of mRNA post trascriptionally? its fxns?
poly A tails

prevent degradation
signal to exit nucleus
TATA or CAAT box

what is it?
promoter region on DNA
RNA polymerase I, II, III

fxn?
I: rRNA
II: mRNA
III: tRNA

in order of products produced
alpha-amanitin
found in death cap mushrooms

inhibit RNA polymerase II
causes liver failure
hnRNA

what is it?
fxn?
hetergenous nuclear RNA

mRNA before post-transcription
snRNP

what is it?
fxn?
related diseases?
snRNPs and other proteins form spicesome, which splice out intron and spice in exons.

mixed connective disorder and lupus pts make antibodies aginst snRNPs.
Mischarged tRNA

defect?
reads the usual codon but carries a wrong AA
enzyme responsible for adding amino acid to tRNA?

where on tRNA?
what is the common code at the site?
aminoacy-tRNA synthase

AA added on the 3 end and has CCA code on it
3 sites of ribosome complex and their fxns?
A site: incoming Aminoacyl tRNA
P site: accomodates growing Peptide
E site: holds Empty tRNA as it exits
energy requirement for translation of each amino acid.
tRNA aminoacylation: ATP --> AMP
Loading tRNA onto ribosome: GTP --> GDP
translocation: GTP --> GDP

total 4 high energy Pi
ubiquitin

what is it?
fxn?
attached to defective protein for degradation
telomerase

what is it?
fxn?
reverse transcriptase that adds TTAGGG repeats to the 3 end of DNA

a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
cyclin-CDK complex

fxn?
both must be activated or inactivated for the cell cycle to progress
Rb or P53

what are they?
tumor suppressor genes

inhibits G1 to S progression
Permanent, stable or labile?

Lymphocyte
stable
Permanent, stable or labile?

RBC
permanent
Nissl bodies

what are they?
fxn?
RER in neurons

produces peptide neurotransmitters
Give 2 examples of cells that are rich in RER.

rich in smooth ER?
rich in RER: mucous-secreting goblet cells, plasma cells

rich in smooth ER: hepatocytes and adrenal cortical cells
I cell disease

defect?
sxs?
failure of addition of mannose-6-phsphate to lysosome protein

lysosomal proteins are secreted

coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement, and high plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes
Clathrin protein

fxn?
trafficking protein:
trans-golgi --> lysosomes
plasma membrane --> endosomes (receptor-mediated endocytosis)
List 2 drugs that inhibit microtubule polymerization.

List 1 drug that hyperstabilize microtubule.
inhibit polymerization: vincristine/vinblastine, colchicine

hyperstabilization; Paclitaxel/taxols
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

defect?
sxs?
microtubule polymerization defect --> decreased phagocytosis

recurrent pyogenic infections (staph, strep)
partial albinism
peripheral neuropathy
Cilia structure
what protein is incorporated?
9+2 microtubule arrangement

dynein
Kartagener's syndrome

defect?
sxs?
immotile cilia due to a dynein arm defect

male/female infertility
bronchietasis
recurrent sinusitis
situs inversus
What tissue is associated following IHC markers?

Vimetin
Desmin
Vimetin: connective tissue
Desmin: muscle
2 drugs that disrupt Na/K pump.
Ouabain

Cardiac glycosides (digoxin, and digitoxin): blocks Na/K --> increase Ca/Na antiport action --> increase intracellular Ca
List 4 types of collagen and associated tissues.
Be (So Totally) Cool, Read Books

Type I: bone, skin, tendon
type II: cartilage
type III: reticullin (skin, blood vessels, uterus, fetal tissue, granulation tissue)
type IV: Basement membrnae
What disease(s) is associated following deficiency?

type I collagen
type III collagen
type IV collagen
fibrillin
type I collagen: Osteogenesis imperfecta
type III collagen: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
type IV collagen: Goodpasture's, Alport's
fibrillin-1: Marfan's
What 3 AAs are most abundant in collagen chains?

What vitamin is needed for collagen synthesis? if deficient?
Glycine-proline-lysine

Vitamin C; Scurvy if deficient
What enzyme cross-links tropocollagen to make collage fibrils? What does it link?
links lysine and hydroxylysine by lysyl oxidase
What accounts for elastin's ability to recoil?

What enzyme is responsible for making this property?
due to desmosine cross-linking b/t lysyl residues with elastin chains

lysyl hydroxylase cross-links the elastin
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

defect?
sxs?
type III collagen deficiency

hyperextensible skin, easy bruising, hypermobile joint, berry aneurysm
Osteogenesis imperfecta

defect?
sxs?
genetic pattern?
type I collagen deficiency

Multiple fractures with minimal trauma
blue sclerae
hearing loss
dental imperfection

autosomal dominant (most common)
Alport's syndrome

defect?
sxs?
genetic pattern?
type IV collagen

deafness, nephritis

X-linked recessive
Microarrays

What is this used for?
used to detect single nucleotide polymorphism or to profile gene expression levels
RNAi

What is it?
used for?
dsRNA complementary to mRNA.

when transfected into human cells, dsRNA separates and promotes degradation of target mRNA, knocking down gene expression
Pleiotropy
one gene, multiple phenotypes
Imprinting
differences in phenotype depend on whether the mutation is maternal or paternal origin
loss of heterozygosity
If a pt inherits or develops a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene, the complementary allele must be deleted/mutated before cancer develops.

not true of oncogenes
Heteroplasmy
presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA, resulting in variable expression of mitochondria inherited disease
Hardy-Weinberg equation

how do you calculate prevalence of X-linked recessive diseases?
p^2 +2pq + q^2 = 1
p + q =1

in X-linked recessive disease
p = disease prevalence in male
q^2 = disease prevalence in female
Prader-Willi syndrome

defect?
sxs?
delection of normally active Paternal allele on chrom 15

MR, hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, hypotonia
Angelman's syndrome

defect?
sxs?
deletion of normally active maternal allele on chrom 15

MR, seizures, ataxia, inappropriate laughter
List 3 examples of mitochondral inheritance pattern diseases.
Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF)

Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy

Mitochondrial encephalopathy with stroke-like episodes and lactic acidosis (MELAS)
Hypophosphatemic rickets

inhertiance pattern?
presenation?
x-linked dominant
rickets-like presentation due to increased PO4 wasting
What inheritance pattern is associated with the following:

defective structural genes
enzyme deficiencies
defective structural genes: autosomal dominant

enzyme deficiencies: autosomal recessive
Marfan's syndrome

defect?
sxs?
complications?
fibrillin gene mutation

tall with long extremities, pectus excavatum, hyperextensive joints, and long, tapering fingers/toes (arachnodactyly)

dissecting aneurysm (due to cystic medial necrosis of aorta)
floppy mitral valve
subluxation of lenses
Neurofibromatosis 2

genetic defect?
associated diseases?
NF2 gene mutation on chrom 22

bilateral Schwanomma, juvenile cataracts
Cystic fibrosis

genetic defect?
cellular changes in the lung and sweat glands?
how you so dx?
AR, CFTR gene defect on chrom 7 (deletion of Phe) --> defective chlorine channels

Lungs (epithelial tissues): decreased Cl secretion --> increased Na/H20 reabsorption --> dry

Sweat glands: decreased Cl- reabsorption and Na reabsorption

dx via sweat test
Pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, Gower's maneuever

dx?
defective gene?
inheritance?
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy

deletion of dystrophin gene

X-linked recessive
List X-linked recessive disorders.
Be Wise, Fool's GOLD Heeds Silly Hope

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
Wiskott-Aldrich
Fabry's disease
G6PD deficiency
Ocular albinism, ornithine transcarbamolyase deficiency
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Duchenne's (Becker's)
Hunter's Syndrome
Hemophilia A and B

also, Alport's syndrome
Fragile X syndrome

defective gene?
genetic findings?
findings?
defective FMR1 gene
CGG trinucleotide repeat disorder

2nd most common cause of MR (after Down's)
macro-orchidim, long face with a large jaw, large everted ears, autism, mitral valve prolpase
List 4 trinucleotide repeat expansion diseases.

What genetic feature do they all share?
Try hunting for my friend eggs (X)

Huntington's (CAG)
myoTonic dystrophy (CTG)
Fragile X syndome (CGG)
Freidreich ataxia (GAA)

genetic anticipation
Down's syndome

genetic defects?
causes of genetic defects (3)?
findings?
trisomy 21 due to meiotoic nondisjuction (95%), robertosonian translocation (4%), Down mosaicism (1%)

MR (most common cause), epicanthal folds, simian crease, duodenal atresia, congenital heart disease (most commonly septum primum ASD)

Decreased AFP, estriol and increased beta-hCG and inhibin A in amniocentesis
Edward's

genetic defect?
findings?
trisomy 18

severe MR, rocker-bottom feet, micrognathia, clenched hands

usually die within 1 year of birth
Patau's

genetic defect?
findings?
trisomy 13

severe MR, rocker-bottom feet, cleft lip/palate, holoProsecephaly, Polydactyly

usually die within 1 yr of birth
Robertsonian translocation

what is it?
affected chromosomes?
occurs when the long arms of 2 acrocentric chromosomes fuse at the centromere and the 2 short arms are lost

13, 14, 15, 21, and 22
Cri-cu-chat syndrome

genetic defects?
findings?
congenital microdeletion of 5p

microcephaly, MR, high-pitched crying/mewing, epicanthal folds, cardiac abnormalities
Williams syndrome

genetic defects?
findings?
congenital microdeletion of 7q

"elfin" facies, MR, hypercalcemia, well-developed verbal skills, extreme freindliness with strangers, cardiovascular problems
2 syndromes associated with 22q11 deletion?

defects for each?
DiGeorge syndrome: thymic, parathyroid, and cardiac defects (truncus arteroisus, tet of Fallots)

Velocardiofacial syndrome: palate, facial, cardiac defects
List water soluble vitamins.

Which ones stay in the system for a while? (2)
B1 (Thiamine: TPP)
B2 (riboflavin: FAD, FMN)
B3 (niacin: NAD+)
B5 (panthothenic acid: CoA)
B6 (pyridoxine: PLP)
B7 (biotin)
B12 (cobalamin)
C (ascorbic acid)
folate

B12 and folate stay in the system b/c they are stored in the liver
List common sxs of vitamin B complex deficiency.
dermatitis, glossitis, and diarrhea
Isoretinoin

indication?
requirement before using it? why?
indicated for acne

pregnancy test before using it b/c it is a form of Vit A, which is teratogenic
TPP

what vitamin?
cofactor what enzymes? (4)
B1 (thiamine)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase (glycolysis)
alpha-ketoglutarate (TCA cycle)
Transketolase (HMP shunt)
branched-chain AA dehydrogenase
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

what causes it?
sxs?
irreversible sxs?
due to thiamine (B1) deficiency; usually associated with chronic alcoholism and malnutrition

Wernicke: confusion, opthalmoplegia, ataxia
Korsakoff: memory loss, confabulation, personality change

Korsakoff sxs are irreversible b/c the damage to medial dorsal nucleus of thalamus is permanent
Niacin

what vitamin?
what AA is it made from?
cofactor for what type of reaction?
vitamin B3
made from tryptophan

constituent of NAD+, NADP+, which are used in redox rxns
vitamin B3 deficiency

List 3 causes.
sxs?
1. Hartup disease (decreased tryptophan reabsorption in the proximal tubule)
2. carcinoid syndrome (increased tryptophan metabolism; used as serotonin)
3. INH (decrease vit B6, which is required to make B3)

sxs: Pellagra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis) and glossitis
Pyridoxine

what vitamin?
fxns? (6)
vitamin B6

used as a cofactor for:
1. transmination
2. decarboxylation
3. glycongen phosphorylase
4. cystathione synthesis
5. heme synthesis
6. synthesis of niacin from tryptophan
Drugs that decrease pyridoxine (2)
INH
oral contraceptives
Which one has a larger reserve pool: cobalamin or folate?

clinical significance of having a small or large reserve pool?
cobalamin: very large reserve pool in the liver

folate: small reserve pool in the liver; most common vitamin deficiency in US (remember, small reserve pool)
What parasite can cause vitamin B12 deficiency?

What are 2 elevated serum markers for B12 deficiency?
Diphyllobothrium latum --> Vit B12 deficiency

Elevated homocysteine, and methymalonylic acid
increased anion gap acidosis, hypoglycemia, ketosis, increased methymalonylic acid.

suspect?
Methylmalnonylic acidemia due to deficiency in Isomerase

Isomerase: methylmalony-Coa --> succinyl-CoA
S-adenosyl-methinoine (SAM)

fxn?
regeneration of SAM requires?
SAM transfers methylunit; required for NE --> E nad methionine to homocysteine

regeneration requires Vit B12 and folate
What general reaction uses biotin as a cofactor?

What 3 pathways utilize biotin?
cofactor carboxylation enzymes (add 1 carbon goup)

1. generation of oxaloacetate (for TCA or gluconeogenesis)
2. synthesis of FA chain
3. odd # FA beta oxidation
List 4 functions of ascorbic acid.
ascorbic acid = vitamin C

1. antioxidant
2. facilitate Fe absorption by keeping it at reduced state (Fe2+)
3. for hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis
4. for dopamine Beta-hydroxylase, which converts dopamine to NE
Vitamin K

Biochemical action?
necessary for synthesis of what substances?
catalyzes gamma-carboxylation of glutamine acid residues on various proteins concerned with blood clotting

coagulation factors II, VII, XI, X, proteins C and S
What is the pathogenesis of hepatocellular steatosis seen in chronic alcoholics?
ethanol metabolism --> increased NADH/NAD+ in liver

not enough NAD+ to drive TCA cycle and beta oxidation -> TG accumulation
Kwashiorkor

cause?
sxs?
protein malnutrtion

MEAL
Malnutrition (protien)
Edema (swollen belly)
Anemia
Liver (fatty) due to decreased apolipoprotein synthesis
Marasmus

cause?
sxs?
overall energy malnutrtion

tissue and muscle wastign
loss of subQ fat
variable edema
List 3 metabolic pathways that take place in both mitochondria and cytoplasm
HUG

Heme synthesis
Urea cycle
Gluconeogenesis
Metabolism of one glucose molecule results in how many ATPs?
30 ATPs in muscle (via glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle)

32 ATPs in heart and liver (via malate-aspartate shuttle)
List 4 processes that utilize NADPH.
1. anabolic process
2. respiratory burst
3. P450
4. glutatione reductase
Hexokinase vs Glucokinase in terms of:

1. fxn
2. location
3. Km, Vmax
4. action of insulin
1. both add Pi to glucose

2. Hexokinase is ubiquitous, glucokinase is in liver and beta cells of pancreas

3. Hexokinase: low Km, low Vmax
Glucokinase: high Km, High Vmax

4. only glucokinase is induced by insulin
What is the fxn of:

1. Hexokinase
2. glucokinase
Hexokinase: trap glucose in the tissue

glucokinase: to sequester excess glucose in the liver (glucose "buffer"); induced by insulin
List 5 cofactors for pyruvate dehydrogenase.

What 2 other enzyme complexes use the same set cofactors?
1. pyrophosphate (B1, thiamine; TPP)
2. FAD (B2)
3. NAD (B3)
4. CoA (B5)
5. Lipoic acid

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase
What is the rate-limiting enzyme for glycolysis?

list 2 inducers and 2 inhibitors
Phosphofructokinase-1

Inducers: F-2,6-P, AMP
Inhibitors: ATP, citrate
Describe how F-2,6-BP is regulated.
F-2,6-BP induces PFK-1, which is the rate-limiting enzyme for glycolysis.

Fed state: insulin -> high PFK-2 activity, low FBP-2 activity -> more F-2,6-P -> glycolysis

fasting state: glucagon -> high FBpase-2 activity, low PFK-2 activity --> less F-2,6-P --> gluconeogenesis
Pyruvate kinase deficiency

sxs?
Pyruvate kinase is used for making pyruvate

hemolytic anemia due to inability to maintain Na/K pump
What inhibits lipoic acid, presents with vomiting, rice water stools, garlic breath?
Arsenic poisoning
Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

what is increased in the serum?
findings?
tx?
increased lactic acid
neurologic defects

tx with high ketogenic nutrients (Lys, Leu, high fat diet)
Cori cycle

fxn?
energy cost?
Transfers Lactate from muscle, RBC to the liver for gluconeogenesis. Glucose produced is moved back the tissue for glycolysis.

costs 4 ATPs
TCA cycle

how many ATPs are generated per cycle?
list 2 irreversible enzymes
3 NADH, 1 FADH, 1 GTP = 12 ATPs per cycle

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Isocictrate dehydrogenase
How is the NADH made from glycolysis is transferred for electron transport chain?
Muscle: glycerol-3p shuttle

Heart, liver: malate-aspartate shuttle
Oligomycin

what is it?
what metabolic process is halted?
mitochondrial ATPase inhibitor

halts oxidative phosphorylation; increased proton gradient but no ATP is produced
CN-, CO poisoning

How do they affect oxidative phosphorylation?
direct electron transport inhibitors

a decrease in proton gradient and block ATP synthesis
2,4 DNP

how does it affect oxidative phosphorylation?
what endogenous substance has a similar property?
uncoupling agent

increased permeability of membrane --> decreased proton gradient but increased O2 consumption.
ATP synthesis stops but electron transport chain continues --> generates heat

thermogenin in brown fat
List 3 potential substrates for gluconeogenesis.
Propyl-CoA (from odd-chain FA)
Oxaloacetate
Alanine
List 4 Irreversible enzymes for gluconeogenesis.
Pathway Produces Fresh Glucose

Pyruvate carboxylase (biotin)
PEP carboxylase
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
What type of FA can enter gluconeogenesis? why
Odd-chain FA b/c it produces propyl-CoA, which can enter TCA and converted to oxaloacetate.

even-chain FA produces acetyl-CoA, which can't enter gluconeogenesis
What is the purpose of HMP shunt

Energy cost?
aka Pentose phosphate pathway

to generate NADPH for various reactions and F6P, G3P for glycolysis

zero ATP used
List 2 main enzymes for HMP shunt?

Rate limiting step?
cofactor used?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD): rate-limiting

transketolase: requires B1
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is used for what 2 processes?
pentose phosphate pathway (HMP shunt)

detoxification of oxidative free radicals (esp in macrophages)
NADPH deficiency

what disease?
findings?
chronic granulomatous disease

recurrent infection with catalase + organisms (Staph aureus, E coli, aspergeillus etc)
G6PD defiency

findings?
inheritance pattern?
Intrinsic hemolytic anemia (normocytic), bite cells, Heinz bodies

due to inability to detoxify free radicals

X-linked recessive
Aldolase B deficiency

accumulated substance?
sxs?
milder form?
Fructose-1-p
hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, vomiting

Milder form: defect in fructokinase; frutose in urine and blood
Infantile cataracts, jaundice, hepatomegaly, Mental retardation

dx?
defect?
milder form?
Galatosemia due to galactose-1p uridyl transferase defiency

galatokinase deficiency: milder form
solbitol dehydrogenase

accumulated substance?
affected tissues?
unaffected tissues?
affected group?
Sorbitol accumulation (glucose -> sorbitol by aldolase reductase)

affected tissues: kidney, peripheral nerves, retina, lens
unaffected tissue: liver, ovaries, seminal vesicles

common in chronic DM pts
why are liver, ovaries, and seminal vesicles unaffected by sorbitol accumulation?
due to sorbitol dehydrogenase, which converts sorbitol to fructose
lactase deficiency

sxs?
where is the enzyme located?
lactase is a brush-border enzyme in the small intestine

bloating, cramps, osmotic diarrhea
List 4 glucogenic amino acids.
MAV H
Met
Arg
Val
His
List 4 amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic.
PITT
Phe
Ile
Thr
Trp
List 2 amino acids that are ketogenic
Lysine, Leucine
What 2 amino acids are needed for growth?
Arg and His
List 2 amino acids that are major components of histone.
Arg and Lys (+ molecules)
List 2 sources of nitrogen groups on urea.
Ammonium (NH4+)
Aspartate
NAG synthase defiency.

What metabolic pathway is affected? how?
urea cycle

NAG activates carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I, which is the rate-limiting enzyme for the urea cycle
what 2 urea cycle enzymes are in the mitochondria?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

Ornithine transcarbamoylase
What transports NH3 from peripheral tissue to liver for eventual metabolism and excretion?
alanine
what amino acid acts as an NH3 carrier inside the cell?
glutamate
Hyperammonemia

What metabolic pathway is inhibited as a result of increased NH3? why?
TCA cycle is inhibited b/c excess NH4+ depletes alpha-ketoglutarate
2 drugs used to tx hyperammonemia.
Benzoate
Phenybutyrate

both bind to AA and lead to excretion
Increased orotic acid

list 2 ddx.
defect in orotic acid -> IMP in de novo pyrimidine synthesis

ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency (OTC)
Ornithing transcarbamoylase deficiency (OTC)

inhibited metabolic process?
findings?
urea cycle is inhibited

increased orotic acid, hyperammonemia, decreased BUN
4 amino acid derivatives that require B6 as a cofactor?
Niacin
Histamine
Porphyrin --> heme
GABA
What AA is the precursor to following AA derivatives?

1. Heme
2. melatonin
3. GABA
4. NO
1. Heme: glycine
2. melatonin: tryptophan
3. GABA: glutamate
4. NO: arginine
What are the enzyme and cofactor used for the following synthesis?

1. Dopamine -> NE
2. NE -> epinephrine
1. Dopamine -> NE: dopamine beta hydroxylase; requires vit C

2. NE -> epinephrine: PNMT, requires SAM
Mental retardation, growth retardation, fair skin, eczema, musty body odor

dx?
tx?
Phenyketouria

decreased phenylalanine and increased tyrosine in the diet
List 2 causes of phenylketouria.
decreased phenylalanine hydroxylase

decreased BH4 (a cofactor for Phe hydroxylase)
Alkaptouria

deficiency?
what pathway is affected?
congenital deficiency in homogenistic acid oxidase in the degradative pathway of tyrosine
List 3 causes of albinism.

associated complication?
1. tyrosinase deficiency
2. defective tyrosine transporter
3. lack of migration of neural crest cells

associated with increased risk of skin cancer due to no melanin
what special genetic feature does albinism have?
variable inheritance due to locus heterogeneity
Congenital disease with MR, increased homocystine in urine, osteoporosis, tall stature, kyphosis, lens subluxation, and atherosclerosis

dx?
defects?
Homocytinuria due to:

Cystathionine synthase deficiency
decreased affinity cystathione synthase for B6 OR
homocysteine methylase transferase deficiency
Cystic kidney stone

common cause?
tx?
hereditary defect of renal tubular AA transporters for cysteine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine in the PCT

tx: acetazolamide to alkaline the urine
Maple syrup disease

defect?
findings?
blocked degradation of branched AA (Ile, Leu, Val) due to decreased alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase

Urine smells like maple syrup ("burned sugar" smell)
severe CNS defects, MR and death
Hartnup disease

defect?
findings?
defective neutral AA transporter on renal and intestinal epithelial cells

pellagra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis)
What is the rate-limiting enzyme for glycogenolysis.

List inducers (3) and an inhibitor (1).
Glycogen phophorylase

Inducers: Glucagon (liver), Epi (liver/muscle), Ca++/calmodulin (muscle); all phosphorylate the enzyme

inhibitor: insulin (dephosphorylates the enzyme)
What is the first step of glycogenolysis? main product?

2nd step?
1st step: glycogen phosphorylase to cleave 1,4 bonds until 4 glucose residues are left (limit dextran)

2nd step: debranching enzyme
List 4 important glycogen storage diseases.
Very Poor Carb Metabolism

Von Gierke's (type I)
Pompe's disease (type II)
Cori's disease (type III)
McArdle's disease (type V)
What enzyme is alternatively used to cleaven glycogen to glucose molecules (minor pathway)?

associated disease if deficient?
Lysosomal alpha1,4 glucosidase (acid maltase)

Pompe's disease (type II)
Von Gierke's disease

defect?
findings?
glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
type II

severe fasting hypoglycemia, increased glycogen in liver, high blood lactate, hepatomegaly
congenital, increased glycogen in liver, cardiomegaly

dx?
defect?
Pompe's disease

defective lysosomal alpha 1,4 glucosidase (acid maltase)
congenital, increased, glycogen in muscle, painful muscle cramping and myogloburia with exercise

dx?
defect?
McArdle's disease

skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency
List X-linked recessive lysosomal storage disorders (2)
Fabry's disease

Hunter's syndrome
List 3 lysosomal storage diseases common in Ashkenazi jews.
Niemann-Pick
Tay-Sachs
Gaucher's disease
Peripheral neuropathy of hands/feet, angiokeratomas, CV and renal disease

increased ceramide trihexoside in blood

dx? defect?
Fabry's disease

alpha-galactosidase A deficiency
Hepatosplenomegaly, aspectic necrosis of femur, bone crises, increases glucocerebroside.

dx?
defect?
hallmark cell?
Goucher's disease
defective Beta-glucocerebrosidase
Gaucher's cells (macrophages that look like crumpled tissue paper)
Niemann-Pick disease vs Tay-Sachs disease

common findings?
difference?
defect and accumulated substance?
common findings: progressive neurodegeneration, developmental delay, cherry-red spot on macula

difference: hepatosplenomegaly ONLY IN Niemann-Pick

Niemann-Pick: deficiency in sphongomyelinase and accumulated sphingomyelin

Tay-Sachs("SaX): deficiency in HeXosaminidase A and accumulated GM2 ganglioside
2 diseases with heparin sulfate, dermatan sulfate accumulation?
Mucopolysaccharidoses

Hurler's syndrome
Hunter's syndrome
Hurler's syndrome

defect?
findings?
accumulated substance?
alpha-L-iduronidase deficiency
accmuluated heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate

developmental delay, gargoylism, airway obstruction, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly
What shuttle is used to transport FA for FA synthesis? Where is it transported to?

for beta-oxidation?
FA synthesis: citrate shuttle; out of mitochondria to cytoplasm

Beta oxidation: Carnitine shuttle: into the mitochondria
Carnitine deficiency

What process is halted?
findings?
beta oxidation due to lack of carnitine shuttle, which transport FA into mitochondria

hypoketotic hypoglycemia
weakness, hypotonia
Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

findings?
decreased ability to oxidize fatty acid

increased dicarboxylic acids
hypoglycemia after fasting with decreased ketones
List 2 examples of ketone bodies.

How and where are they formed? where are they used primarily?
acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate
in the liver, fatty acids and amino acids are metabolized
to be used in muscle and brain
List 3 states that causes high ketone levels.

Why do ketones form in each state?
starvation: depletion of oxaloacetate
diabetic keoacidosis: depletion of oxaloacetate
chronic alcoholism: NADH shunts oxaloacetate to malate

all stall TCA cycle --> ketone generation
List 4 sources of hepatic gluconeogenesis when starving for 2 days.
1. glycerol (as glycerol phosphate but has to be delivered to the liver b/c adipocytes cannot convert glycerol to glycerol-p)
2. lactate (via Cori cycle)
3. Amino acids (as oxaloacetate and a-ketoglutarate)
4. propionyl-CoA (from odd # FA)
Apolipoprotein A-I

associated lipoprotein?
fxn?
associated with HDL

activates LCAT, which esterifies the trapped cholesterol in the HDL
Apolipoprotein B-100

associated lipoproteins?
fxn?
VLDL, IDL, LDL

binds to LDL receptor, mediates VLDL secretion
Apolipoprotein E

associated lipoproteins?
fxn?
chylomicron, chylomicon remnant, VLDL, IDL

mediates Extra (remnant) uptake; delivers chylomicron remnant, IDL back to liver after distributing TGs in the peripheral tissue
Apolipoprotein CII

associated lipoproteins?
fxn?
what protein has the opposite fxn?
chylomicron, chylomicron remnant, VLDL

increases lipoprotein lipase activity

apo C-III has the opposite fxn
HDL

fxn and route?
mediates reverse cholesterol transport form periphery to liver.

act as a repository for apoC and apoE, which are needed for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism

secreted from both liver and intestine
LDL

fxn and route?
delivers hepatic cholesterol to peripheral tissues.

formed by lipoprotein lipase modifacation of VLDL in the peripheral tissue

taken up by target cells via receptor-mediated endocytosis
LCAT and CETP

fxn?
LCAT: catalyzes esterification of cholesterol

CETP: mediates transfer of cholesterol esters to other lipoprotein particles (VLDL, LDL, IDL)
Increased chylomicron, TG, and choleterol?

what type of dyslipidemia?
defect?
hyerpchylomicronemia (type I)

lipoprotein lipase deficiency or altered apolipoprotein C-II
Absent or LDL receptor

dx?
findings?
familial hypercholeterolemia (type IIa)

accelerated atherlsclerosis, tendon xanthomas, corneal arcus
type IV dyslipidemia

cause?
findings?
hepatic overproduction of VLDL

causes pancreatitis
increased VLDL and TG
Abetalipoproteinemia

deficiencies?
findings?
inability to synthesize lipoproteins due to deficiencies in apoB-100 and apoB-48

failure to thrive, steatorrhea, acanthocytosis, ataxia, nightblidness
HMG-CoA reductase

3 side effects
hepatotoxicity (increased LFTs)
rhabdomyolysis
teratogenic
Niacin

MOA?
4 side effects?
MOA:
inhibit lipolysis in adipose tissue
reduces hepatic VLDL secretion into circulation

side effects
1. red, flushed face, which is decreased by aspirin or long-term use
2. hyperglycemia (acanthosis nigricans)
3. hyperuricemia (exacerbates gout)
4. hepatitis
2 lipid lowering agents that increase the risk of cholesterol gallstones
bile acid resins (cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam)

Fibrates (gemfibrozil, clofibrate, bezafibrate, fenofibrate)
what lipid lowering agent is best at lowering TG?
Fibrates (gemfibrozil, clofibrate, bezafibrate, fenofibrate)