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212 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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4 Signs of Lung Disease
Which one is the hallmark? |
dyspena
cough hemaptysis wheezing WHEEZING IS HALLMARK |
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Causes of hemoptysis
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#1 BRONCHITIS
TB, CHF, pneymonia, coacaine, cancer, autoimmune (SLE #1) |
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T/F Asthma is reversible
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FALSE
reversible |
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T/F There is no cure for asthma
|
T
TREAT: B2 agonist, steriods, cromlyn Na, leukotreine inhibtors MEASURE PEAK FLOW AT HOME to know if attack is coming |
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How do you diagnosis someone with asthma?
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Diagnose with bronchodilator response
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You can detect possibilty of attack of asthma using what?
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Peak Flow
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What is the number one cause of COPD?
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SMOKING --> 80%
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What are the 2 categories of COPD?
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pink puffers --> emphysema
blue bloaters --> bronchitis |
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What is emphysema?
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destruction of aveolar wall
treat: home 02 therapy |
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What is bronchitis?
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MUCUS in the bronchial treat
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An infection of AIRWAYS is known as what?
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bronchitis
USUALLY viral - Chest x ray |
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T/F Bronchitis is usually bacterial
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FALSE
viral |
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T/F Chest x-ray for bronchitis is normal
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T
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What is an infection of alveoli known as?
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PNEUMONIA
have an ABNORMAL chest x-ray #1 cause is Streptoccous pneumonia |
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#1 Cause of pneumonia?
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streptococcus pneumonia
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What is aspiration pneumonia associated with?
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poor oral hygiene
lungs filled with puss |
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What drugs must you take if you have active TB?
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Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinomide, Ethambutol
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What side effect does Ethambutol have?
What is the drug used for? |
OPTIC NEURITIS
Tx for Active TB |
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What does a positive test for active TB look like in a high risk pt?
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swelling > 5mm
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What does a positive test for active TB look like in a intermediate risk pt?
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swelling >10 mm
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What does a positive test for active TB look like in a low risk pt?
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swelling >15 mm
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#1 cause of death related to cancer?
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Lung!!
Both in M and F!! |
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2 types of lung cancer are?
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small cell carcinoma (20%)
non-small cell carcinoma (80%) |
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What should you know about the treatment of small cell carcinoma?
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can be treated with radiation for 2 years, but after that, nothing works
low cure rate |
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What % of sarcoid pts have anterior uvietis?
What % have posterior? |
75% anterior
25% posterior |
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T/F Sarcoids can cause nodules located on conj.
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T
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How do you detect a pulmonary emoblism?
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use CT angiogram!! GOLD STANDARD
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What do you treat a pulmonary embolism with?
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Heparin/Coumadin
if neither can be used: IVC filter |
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What are the ABCDs of dermatology?
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asymmetry
borders color diameter (>6 mm) |
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Most common BENIGN lesion of eyelid?
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Squamous cell papilloma
Tx: LOCAL surgical excision |
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Treatment of Squamous cell papilloma?
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local surgical excision
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What is the cause of Verucca?
What is the most common type? |
Viral (seen in younger pts)
Verruca Plana MOST common (cauliflower shaped) |
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Most common cause of Hordeolums?
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Staph Aureus
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An infection of the moll/zeis gland leads to what?
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EXTERNAL hordeolum
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Meibomian gland infection is known as?
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INTERNAL hordeolum --> CAN lead to preseptal cellulitis
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How do you remove a chalazion?
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with surgical excision
A gramulomatous lesion |
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Most common skin cancer AND epithelial tumor?
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Basal cell carcinoma (80-90%)
Most often effects lower lid |
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Where does Basal cell carcinoma most likely form?
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LOWER lid
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Treatment for both basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma?
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MOHS!!!!
HIGHEST 5 yr cure rate |
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T/F Squamous cell carcinoma is malignant
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T!!!
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T/F Squamous cell carcinoma is usually found on lower lid
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FALSE
UPPER lid |
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This carcinoma is LETHAL, often found on the upper lid, and therapies include Mohs or enuclation?
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Sebaceous gland carcinoma
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Where is pingecula normally found?
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nasal > temporal
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What type of carcinoma mimics pinguela?
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Squamous cell carcinoma of the conjunctiva!
DDx --> CLOUDY cyst in carcinoma |
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Definition of a macule
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<1 cm flat lesion
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Definition of a plaque?
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> 1 cm raised, flat top lesion
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Definition of a papule?
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< 1 cm raised lesion with distinct borders
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Defintion of a nodule?
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> 1 cm raised lesion with distinct bordres
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Definition of a vesicle?
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< 1 cm fluid filled lesion
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Definition of a bullae?
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> 1 cm fluid filled lesion
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Definition of a pustule?
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puss filled lesion
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T/F When it comes to dermatology, when in doubt UNDER-treat
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T!
avoid steroids always excise suspicious lesions |
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Which is more potent: ointment or creams?
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ointment
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Which is longer lasting: ointment or creams?
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ointment
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#1 dermatological cause of death?
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malignant melanoma
However, death can be prevented! |
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What scaly lesion is associated with a type of arthritis?
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Psoriasis
associated with psoriatic arthritis |
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What is tinea veriscolor and what causes the infection?
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FUNGAL infection
malassezia furfur TX: 10% KOH |
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What are PREmalignant and can lead to squamous cancer (1:1000 per yr)?
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Acitinic Keratitis
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Impetigo is what kind of lesion?
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weepy
contagious often seen in children |
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Examples of pustular lesions include:
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acne, folliculitis, candidiasis
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What rash is pathogonomic of lyme disease?
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erthyema migrans
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Bactrim, Dilatin/Phenytoin are drugs that can lead to what kind of lesion?
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bullous
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Main cause of erthyema nodosum?
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SLE
(also seen in TB and sarcoid) |
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What are decubiti?
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BED sores
are ulcerated |
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Esophagus issues-
most common symptom? |
HEARTBURN
30-60 minutes after a meal WORSE when lying down |
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What is Dysphagia?
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Difficulty swallowing
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What are the two types of dysphagia?
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orthopharyneal- worse with liquids
esophageal- worse with solids |
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What do people with orthopharygneal dysphagia worse at swallowing?
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liquids
swallow followed by cough or regurgitation |
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What do people with esophageal dysphagia worse at swallowing?
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SOLIDS
2 types: mechanical (narrowing) or motility (incomplete sphincter closing) |
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What is dyspepsia?
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pain, nausea after a meal
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Wat is Odynophagia?
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PAIN on swallowing
due to erosion/inflammation of esophageal mucus |
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What is a DIRECT visualization/ biopsy the upper endoscopy known as?
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EGD
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If you suspect a motility problem in a pt with esophageal dysphagia what is the test of choice?
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BARIUM ESOPHAGOGRAPHY
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Will a pt with GERD have a normal or abnormal EGD?
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NORMAL
but will have lower pH |
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What complication of GERD is premalignant and can increase risk of adenocarcinoma by 30x?
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Barret's Esophagus
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What is Barret's Esophagus?
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premalignant complication of GERD
increases risk of adenocarcinoma by 30x |
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Most common esophageal cancer?
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adenocarcinoma
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What age group tends to get duodenal ulcers?
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30-55 yr olds
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What age group tends to get gastic ulcers?
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55-70 yr olds
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#1 cause of ulcers?
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HELIOBACTERIA pylori
NSAIDs can also lead to ulcers |
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T/F HELIOBACTERIA pylori is associated with ulcers as well as adenocarcinoma
|
T
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How do you diagnose an ulcer?
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Rapid colometric test
urea breath test |
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_% of peptic ulcers present without symptoms
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10!
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What type of cancer is associated with Japan, dry, smoked, salted foods and those that contain nitrates?
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Gastic cancer
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2 Types of IBD:
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Crohn's disease
Ulcerated colitis |
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Skip lesions, transmural bowel wall, fissures, and right lower quadrant pain are akk associated with what?
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Crohn's disease!!
less severe type of IBD |
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1/2 of pts with ulcerated colitis have what?
1/3 have what? 1/5 have what? |
1/2 proctostigmoiditis
1/3 left sided colitis 1/5 pancolitis |
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What is the hallmark sign of ulcerated colitis?
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bloody diarrhea
also see psuedopolps |
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T/F Ulcerated collitis is MORE severe than Crohn's disease
|
T
can lead to toxic megacolon --> fatal |
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What eye related issue is associated with IBD?
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Uveitis
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Most common GASTROintestinal cancer?
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COLON
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FAP and HNPCC will always lead to what?
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colon cancer
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If no one in your family has colon cancer when should be screened?
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> 50 yrs of age
every 10 years |
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If first degree relative or 2 second degree relative have colon cancer and are >60 yrs of age, when should you be screened?
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> 40 yrs of age
every 10 years |
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If first degree relative has colon cancer and is younger than 60 when do you get screened?
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> 40 years of age
every 5 years |
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Acute pancreatitis is caused by what 2 things?
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gallstones
alcohol |
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Chronic pancreatitis Triad:
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PAIN
EXOCRINE insufficiency ENDOCRINE insufficiency |
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Wilson's disease characterstics:
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excretion of COPPER into bile
DECREASED ceruloplasmin level INCREASE in urinary cooper ASSOCIATED with Kyser-Fleisher ring in DESCEMENTS membrane Tx: pencilamine |
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Hemochromatosis is an increase in the absorption of what
' |
IRON
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What amount of Chlorpromazine will cause retinal toxicity?
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1-2 grams/day
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What amount of Mellaril ( Thioridazine) will lead to retinal toxicity?
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800 mgs/ day
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These 2 drugs used to treat psychiatric disorders lead to pigment deposition in anterior segment (cornea and lens)
What does retinal toxcity from these drugs lead to? |
Chlorpromazine and Mellaril (Thioridazine)
Can cause: nyctalopia, dychromatopsia, geographic atrophy, SALT and PEPPER fundus |
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What part of the body does talc in the eye come from?
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The lung!
travels from lung to heart to retina MUST do amsler |
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What can Talc retinopathy lead to?
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artery occlusiosn and or neo
MUST get Chest X-ray to see if its in lungs |
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T/F Talc does not go away even after pt discontinues drug, but tamoxifen retinopathy WILL go away
|
T
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Treatment of malaria includes ________ and ___________ and the clinical side effects to these drugs includes:
|
Chloroquine and Planquenil
Lead to loss of VA, nyctalopia, BULL'S EYE maculopathy, VORTEX KERATOPATHY |
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What 3 drugs can lead to VORTEX KERATOPATHY?
|
Chloroquine
Indomathicin Amiodarone MUST DO AMSLER |
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What group of drugs can lead to CME?
|
Prostaglandins
Xalatan will see cystic appearance in fovea, petallod on FA |
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What is iron toxicity known as?
ocular symptoms? |
Siderosis
RPE hyPOpigmentation PALE optic nerve Iris heterochromia Hudson-Stahli line |
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Aminoglycoside toxcity can cause what?
|
CRAO
keratopathy |
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Allergy meds such as Zyrtec and Claritin cause wat?
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anisocoria, decreased accomodation, blurred VA, DRY eye, intolerance to CLs, blepharospasm
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Affects of Amiodarone?
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VORTEX keratopathy (deposition into limbal stem cells of cornea) and also
ANTERIOR ISCHEMIC OPTIC NEUROPATHY!!! |
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What must you ask pt on Coumadin?
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For their INR number
should be btwn 2-3 |
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What can antidepressants like Zoloft and Prozac cause?
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KERATITIS SICCA
blurred vision, mydriasis, photophobia, ptosis |
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Anti TB drugs ll can cuse
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optic neuritis!!
Ethambutol (uni or bilateral) Isoniazid (drug of choice) |
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What is Indomethacin used to treat and what 2 ocular conditions can occur while pt is on it?
What do ODs prescribe it for? |
Arthritis
Can cause: optic neuritis AND psuedotumor cerebri ODs use it for scleritis |
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What is Fosamax and what occurs in the first 24-48 hrs of use?
what occurs within 1 week of use? |
Used for bone disorders
causes anterior uveitis within 2 days causes episcleritis and scleritis in 1 week |
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Which has worse ocular side effects: Interferon alpha or beta?
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ALHPA! (Avonex)
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What ocular symptoms occur with pts on Interferon?
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Cotton wool spots
hemes blocked capillaries retinal edema oclusion LOOKS JUST LIKE DM RETINOPATHY |
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Radiation therapy can occur up to ___ years after therapy
ocular signs? |
7
LOOKS JUST LIKE INTERFERON/DM RETINOPATHY can get neo treat just like proliferative/nnonproliferative DR |
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Cytoxan causes what?
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SEVERE DRY EYE
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Premarin and Prempro are hormone replacement therapies that can lead to what?
|
dry eye and
PSUEDOTUMOR cerebri ALL BC pills can as well |
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T/F BC pills can lead to carotid arterial dissection
|
T
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Affects of Viagra?
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bluish tinge
AION!! |
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What antibacterial agents ca cause optic neuritis or AION?
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TB drugs
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BC pills, tetracycline, Vitamin A, and lithium can all lead to what?
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psuedotumor cerebri
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Positive symptoms of schizoprenia include:
|
delusions,hallucination
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Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include?
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FLAT or inappropriate outward expression
LAck of drive or motivation social withdrawl |
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if parent has schizophrenia, what % chance child will have it?
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10%
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How do you treat schizophrenia?
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D2 receptor antagonists
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Post traumatic stress disorder symptoms occur approximately how long after the event?
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1 month
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Initial treamtneot of Anxiety is what? and why do we not keep pts on it?
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Benzodiazepines (valium, Xanax)
HABIT-forming |
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T/F Meds and therapy toether work best than either alone in treatment of anxiety
|
T
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How long must you have the symptoms of depression in order to be diagnosed?
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2 weeks
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COMET study
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correction of myopia evaluation trial
-plus lenses to stop progression of myopia results: NOT EFFECTIVE |
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CEOS Study
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congenital esoptropia study
Results: If <20 pd or intermittent, ET often spontaneously resulve in first years of life. If >40 pd, or constant, need early treatment Patching=Atropine. 2 hours of patching + 1 hour near work |
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ATS 1 study
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Amblyopia treatment study 1
ResultsAtropine is effective and increases complience. No loss of VA if you wait to Tx |
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ATS 2 study
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Ambylpia treamtnet study 2
Results: 2 hours of patching=atropine |
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CLAMP study
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contact lens and myopia study
results: RGP lenses do not decrease progression of myopia |
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CLEK 1 study
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collaborative longitudinal eval of keratoconus
- First Diameter Apical Clearance Contact Lens -Established parameters for keratoconus tx and prognosis - |
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Herpetic ;Eye Disease Study 3 branches
ISS |
1. SKN branch: If Stromal Keratitis present and you do not use steriods will using steriods make it resolve faster? YES
2. SKS branchL If you have stromal inflammation and pt is on steriods, will ORAL antivirals help resolve faster? NO 3. IRT branch: Will oral meds hasten recovery in pts will cells and flare? Maybe |
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HEDS 2 study
3 branches: ARE |
1.APT: If pt is on low dose antivirals without keratopathic changes, can this prevent recurrence? YES
2. RFS: What causes recurrence? Dunlight, heat, stress, illness, poor diet, and fever 3. EKT: If you had topical keratitis, coupld you prevent it from going stromal with oral acyclovir? NO |
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OHTS STUDY
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- CONTROLLING PRESURE WITH MEDS OR SURGERY WILL PREVENT PROGRESSION!
- CORNEAL THICKNESS HAS A RELATIONSHIP TO GLAUCOMA CONVERSION --> thin corneas means more likely to convert >25 mm Hg, 50% change that you wll progress to glaucoma |
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GLT
|
Glaucoma Laser Trial
- ALT and SLT work well, if not better than topical meds to decrease IOP ALT cannot be repeated SLT can be repeated |
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CIGTS study
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Collaborative Initial Glaucoma Treatment Study
Results: lowering IOP with filtering works better once cataracts or any inflammation is taken care of. Filtering works as well as drops but no porint in being so aggressive --> risks outweigh benefits. |
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AGIS study
|
People of color should get ALT/SLT first
Lighter-skinned people should get trabeculectomy first, then ALT WHEN PRESSURE IS BELOW 12-15 MM HG, NO ONE PROGRESSED. PX WITH POAG WITH <17 HAVE MINMAL RISK OF PROGRESION |
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EMGT study
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Increased IOP DOES lead to the progression of glaucoma: lowering IOP works
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DRS
|
FIRST NEI study
PRP works, but we don't know when |
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ETDRS
|
focal laser works to Tx CSME
Apirin does not help Defined CSME |
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DRVS study
|
Diabetic Retinopathy Vitrectomy Study
EARLY vitrectomy works and is perferred over waiting, will get better VA |
|
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Laser Photocoagulation for Diabetic Macula Edema
|
Tx CSME FIRST because PRP can worsen CSME/ Get more VA loss from CSME than from neo
|
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CVOS
|
Central Vein Occlusion Study
grid laser will reduce angiographic evidence of macular edema, but does not improve VA |
|
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BVOS
|
Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion study
Does macular argon laser photocoagulation improve VA with macual edema reducing vision to 2-/40 or worse? YES |
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MPS study conclusion
|
MPS concluded that only subfoveal membranes can be treated in AMD
|
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AREDS study I
|
age related eye disease study
will vitamins prevent cataracts? NO will vitamins prevent wet AMD in the fellow eye if it is already in one eye? YES |
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AREDS II study
|
test to see if smokers a vitamin with lutein instead of beat-carotene
|
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Endophthalmitis Vitrectomy Study
|
results: if px is seeing hand motion or better, a vitrectomy will NOT help. But if pt has light perception, its a GO!!!
Oral and IV antibiotics do not help endophthalmitis |
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Optiv Neuritis Treatment Trial and Longitdunal Optioc Neuritis Study
|
oral steriods SHOULD be avoided --> led to exacerbations down the road.
IV may be considered in pts with MS/ |
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T/F Aqueous solutions are absorbed more rapidly than those that are an oily solution, suspension, or solid form
|
T
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T/F Cold compresses will help enhance absprtion at the injection site
|
FALSE
increased blood flow via HOT copmresses or massage will icnrease absorption |
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what do non-synthetic biotransomraiton of drugs use?
|
oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis of drug to activate it KIDNEY
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what do synthetic biotransformation of drugs use?
|
coupling drug to endogenous substrate to inactive it
LIVER |
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THE BET SITES FOR DIAGNOSTIC DERMAL/SUBCUTANEOUS INjECTION ARE ON ___________________
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forearms or outer aspects of the uper arms.
example; lidocaine |
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Systemic reactions to local anesthetic drugs can result in what?
|
stimulation or depression of the CNS, and cardiovascular collapse
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technique for giving intra/para/translesion injections involves depressing the pungler as the needle end is being withdrawn so that ________
|
a linear ribbion of medication in the distal, and within the proximal side of the lesion is applied.
DO NOT apply pressure to the site of the medication placement |
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What is the injection responsible for producing akinesia of the obicularis, complete anesthesia and immobilzation of the eye
|
Retrobulbar injection
complications include: CRVO and CRAO most complications are transient in nature and depen on the agents administerd and techniques employed |
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how are subconjctival injections absorbed into the eye?
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leech out of the stab site and into the tear film and is then transported in or through the cornea. used routinely to give antibiotics and steriods
DO NOT use on pts with active scleritis |
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prefered sitre of intramuscular injection for adults, children and infants
|
vastus lateralis
absence of major nerves and blood vessels in this area |
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Where should you not give an intramuscular injection even though it is the most accessible site?
|
DELTOID
not very developed risk striking the radial and ulnar nerves as well as the brachial artery |
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Intramuscular Injection is quickly inserted at what degree angle into the muscle?
|
90
|
|
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What is Botox used to treat?
|
Blepharospasm, CN3,4, and 6 palsies and nystagmus
|
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What is a safe alternative to retrobulbar injectiosn for the treatment of posterior inflammation and macular disorders?
|
sub-tenon's injection
absorption is slow and prolonged due to the anatomical capsular separation contraindication: active scleritis |
|
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this method of injection allows for a direct administration of meds into circulatory system
|
intravenous injection
MOST DANGEROUS METHOD FOR DRUG ADMINISSTRATION |
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MOST DANGEROUS METHOD FOR DRUG ADMINISSTRATION
|
INTRAVENOUS INJECTION
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Can you induce a CRAO by injection into upper eyelid?
|
yes (supraorbital artery --> superior ophthalmic artery --> CRA)
|
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T/F In order to be diagnosed with depression, symptoms must be present ffor 2 months
|
FALSE
2 weeks |
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Insomnia is more common in pts with _______, as opposed to pts with anxiety disorder who __________
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depression
wake up in the middle of night and cant fall back to sleep |
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How long does it take SSRIs to start working?
|
2-5 weeks
|
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_______ depression medicatsion have more side effects and taken even longer to take effect than SSRIs
|
Tricyclics
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_________= depressed more often than not over 2 year period, tend to be very responsive to SSRIs
|
Dystimia
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pts with ________ tend to have elevated, expansive, or irritable modd
|
mania
|
|
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Features of Mania
DIGFAST |
distractability
insomnia grandiose flight of idea activity speech pressured thoughtlessness |
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what is the difference btwn abuse and dependence?
|
abuse= effort or desire to cut down, lots of time devoted to it, intoxication or withdrawal at times of esponsibility, continue to use it even thought it has adverse consequences
dependence= abuse + tolerance and withdrawal |
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3 substances that can be FATAL in withdrawal=
|
alcohol
benzodiazepines barbiturates (HEROIN is NOT fatal, just uncomfortable, same deal with cocaine) |
|
|
___% of population have addiction problems
|
10
MORE COMMON IN MEN |
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____% of pts that are depressed commit suicide
|
15
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T/F domestic violence often escalates during pregnancy
|
T
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AMAUROSIS FUGAX signs
|
MONOCULAR
SUDDEN PAINLESS UNPROVOKED UNPREDICTABLE VISUAL LOSS |
|
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In pts with Amaurosis Fugax > 45 YEARS, THINK _____________
|
VASCULOPATHIC
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In pts with Amaurosis Fugax < 45 YEARS, think ___________
|
Migrane
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Amaurosis Fugax USUALLY LASTS how long
|
5 minutes
|
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Retinal emboli is what made of what things ____________
|
cholesterol, platelet-fibrin, or calcific
|
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2 Stroke types
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Ischemic=80%
Hemorrhagic=20% |
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88% of retinal emboli lodge in the _____________ circulation
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temporal retinal
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Takayasu’s arteritis (“Pulseless Disease”)
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INFLAMMATORY DISEASE OF AORTA, its branches and pulmonary arteries
CAUSES LACK OF PULSE IN THE ARTERIES OF THE EYE |
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Moya-Moya Syndrome (“Puff of Smoke”)
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frequently experience transient ischemic attacks (TIA), cerebral hemorrhage or no symptoms. They have a higher risk of recurrent stroke
The condition leads to irreversible blockage of the carotid arteries to the brain as they enter into the skull. Cerebrovascular disease in kids under 10 and adults 30-50 |
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Patent Foramen Ovale Valsalva provoked direclty connects what?
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right and left side of heart
consider this if young pt with a stroke |
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Classic triad of Carotid dissection
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pain on side face, head or neck
oculosympathetic paresis without anhydrosis, delayed retinal or cerebral ischemia |
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AMAUROSIS FUGAX pts need to be FU by PCP --> what do you order?
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MRI/MRA OF HEAD & NECK
CAROTID & TRANSCRANIAL DOPPLER EKG TT or TE ECHO BUBBLE STUDY HOLTER MONITOR |
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What must you order in pts with carotid artery dissection
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HORNER’S SYNDROME EVALUATION
MRI/MRA OF NECK CAROTID ARTERIOGRAM CAROTID ULTRASOUND |
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What is ANOSAGNOSIA ?
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– no knowledge of the loss
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A stroke of the POSTERIOR CIRCULATION (Vertebral-basilar) can lead to what?
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HOMONYMOUS HEMIANOPIC DEFECTS
DISORDERS OF HIGHER VISUAL FUNCTION GENICULATE BLINDNESS ICTAL BLINDNESS VISUAL AGNOSIA ALEXIAS PROSOPAGNOSIA, SIMULTANAGNOSIA, BALINT’S |
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___________PATHWAY is the “What it is” pathway
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VENTROMESIAL
ASSOCIATION CORTICES BENEATH CALCARINE FISSURE & ADJACENT TEMPORAL REGIONS VISUAL OBJECT RECOGNITION, READING, COLOR VISION |
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_________ PATHWAY IS THE “Where it is” PATHWAY
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DORSOLATERAL
ASSOCIATION CORTICES ABOVE CALCARINE FISSURES AND IN ADJACENT PARIETAL, TEMPORO-PARIETO-OCCIPITAL REGIONS BALINT’S SYNDROME; AKINETOPSIA |
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BILATERAL VISUAL LOSS DUE TO BILATERAL LESIONS IN __________ PATHWAY
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GENICULOCALCARINE
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__________- BLINDNESS: FOLLOWS SEIZURES
MAY LAST FOR LONG PERIOD OF TIME LATE EFFECT OF HEAD INJURY OCCIPITAL FRACTURE |
ICTAL
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APERCEPTIVE AGNOSIA –
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IMAGE OF THE OBJECT IS IN SOME WAY DISTORTED AND CANNOT BE RECOGNIZED
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________-- AGNOSIA – IMAGE IS CLEAR, BUT CONNECTIONS TO ASSOCIATION VISUAL CORTEX ARE IMPAIRED NOT ALLOWING RECOGNITION
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ASSOCIATIVE
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BILATERAL OCCIPITAL TEMPORAL LESIONS -->
DAMAGE TO INFERIOR LONGITUDINAL FASCICULUS NEAR ITS OCCIPITAL TEMPORAL ORIGIN Lead to what disorder |
PROSOPAGNOSIA
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ACQUIRED DISORDER OF COLOR PERCEPTION INVOLVING ALL OR PART OF THE VISUAL FIELD
VISUAL ASSOCIATION CORTICES IN THE MIDDLE THIRD OF THE FUSIFORM AND LINGUAL GYRUS |
CENTRAL ACHROMOTOPSIA
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BALINT’S SYNDROME is caused by
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BILATERAL POSTERIOR PARIETAL OCCIPITAL INFARCTIONS
"optic ataxia" (incoordination of hand and eye movement, those with Balint syndrome grasp for them as if blind), "optic apraxia" (the inability to voluntarily guide eye movements/ change to a new location of visual fixation) |
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MOTION BLINDNESS is known as
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AKINETOPSIA
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