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224 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The Oral Cavity is divided into 3 parts. The part that lies between the teeth (or alveolar processes in an edentulous patient) and the inner cheeks is called the ______.

Vestibule

The opening of the parotid gland forms a small elevation of soft tissue on the cheek adjacent to the permanent maxillary first molar and is called:

Stensen's Papilla or Duct

A small, rounded extension of bone lacated distal to the last maxillary tooth is called the:

Maxillary Tuberosity

The Transverse folds of soft tissue found in the ANTERIOR portion of the hard palate are called:

Palatine Rugae

A patient has a bony protuberance on the hard palate. This structure is likely:

Palatal tori

To view the lingual tonsil, the tongue is ______.

Pulled out and to the side.

Which of the following statements concerning Fordyce's spots (granules) is correct?


A. They are composed of salivary gland tissue


B. they are located on the attached gingiva


C. They are composed of sebum from sebaceous tissue


D. They indicate a disease state in the tissue

C. They are composed of sebum from Sebaceous tissue

Which of the following structures divides the tongue into the body and the base?


A. Circumvallate lingual papilla


B. Sulcus terminalis


C. Foramen Cecum


D. Median lingual sulcus


E. Lingual tonsils

B. Sulcus Terminalis

Which region of the face is the intertragic notch located?

Temporal

Which of the following opposite pairs does NOT belong?


A. Anterior/posterior


B. Ventral/dorsal


C. Ipsilateral/contralateral


D. Distal/lateral

D. Distal Lateral

Which of the following facial features is located laterally to each naris?


A. Orbit


B. Nasal ala


C. Nasal septum


D. Philtrum


E. Trubercle

B. Nasal ala

PICTURE LABEL: nasolabial sulcus, labio marginal sulcus, labio mental groove, vermillion border, philtrum, medial canthus, glabella, helix, auricle

DO IT!!!

Which embryologic layer do the somites come from?

Mesoderm

which cranial nerve innervates the fungiform papilla and is responsible for taste sensation?

Facial Nerve 7

The primitive streak is oriented in which direction?

Midsaggital or midline

Which of the following is true of meiosis?


A. It's a type of cell division that produces 2 identical daughter cells


B. It results in a diploid # of chromosomes


C. It occurs in reproductive organs


D. It results in cells with 46 chromosomes

C. It occurs in reproductive organs

Which of the following is the correct order from superior to inferior of the developing embryo in the bilaminar embryonic disk formation?


A. Amniotic cavity, epiblast, hypoblast, yolk sac


B. Yolk sac, epiblast, hypoblast, amniotic cavity


C. Amniotic cavity, hypoblast, yolk sac, epiblast


D. Amniotic cavity, epiblast, yolk sac, hypoblast

A. Amniotic cavity, epiblast, hypoblast, yolk sac

T/F The mandible forms in the 1st branchial arch.

True

From which embryonic layer is mesoderm derived?

Epiblast layer

The first branchial groove will eventually form which structure?

The external auditory meatus

Which nerve controls the movement of the intrinsic (internal) muscles of the tongue?

Hypoglossal

Of the following events, which comes first?


A. beginning of tooth formation


B. primary palate formation


C. beginning of tongue formation


D. secondary palate formation

C. Beginning of tongue formation

The tubercle of the upper lip is formed from which embryologic process?

Medial nasal processes

During which week of prenatal development is the palate completed?

12th Week

The primitive streak forms in the embryonic disk, causing:

Bilateral symmetry

Neural Crest Cells formed from the neuroectoderm break off from the neural folds and are dispersed in the ______.

Mesenchyme

After the embryonic disk folds into itself, it is shaped like a hollow tube. The inner part of the developing embryo will form the:

Digestive Tract

The stomodeum or "primitive mouth" of the embryo forms the:

Nasal and oral cavities

Which of the following do the medial nasal processes NOT form?


A. Intermaxillary segment


B. Philtrum


C. Tubercle


D. Alae


E. None of the above

D. Alae

Cheeks are formed:


A. From the hypobranchial eminence


B. By fusion of the maxillary and mandibular processes


C. From the copula


D. From the tuberculum impar

B. By fusion of the maxillary and mandibular processes

A common type of cleft lip can result from the lack of fusion between:

Medial nasal and maxillary processes

The mandible and most of the maxilla are formed by the :

First Branchial Arch

Neural Crest cells migrate from which embryonic structure(s):

Neural folds

The body of the tongue is formed by the:

Lateral Lingual swellings (lateral tubercles) of the 1st branchial arch

Which of the following phrases concerning the second branchial arch is correct?


A. It's called the mandibular arch


B. It contains Reichert's Cartilage


C. It forms into the muscles of mastication


D. It is associated with the trigeminal nerve

B. it contains Reichert's cartilage

The Thyroid Gland has a common origin with the tongue, forming initally at the center of the 1st and 2nd Branchial Arches and then moving to its final position in the pharynx (thoat). The depression left in the posterior part of mature tongue where the Thyroid Gland formed is called:

Foramen Cecum

T/F: The intermaxillary segment gives rise to the secondary palate.

FALSE

T/F: The triangular median swelling, the tuberculum impar, is formed from the fusion of mesenchyme from mainly the 3rd and parts of the 4th branchial arches.

FALSE

The premaxilla contains tooth buds of the :

Incisors

Which of the following structures separates the stomodeum from the foregut?

Buccopharyngeal membrane

The first indication of tongue development is seen as a medial elevation known as the:

Tuberculum impar

T/F: A cleft lip is more common and more severe in males, more commonly unilateral, and on the left side.

TRUE

The dental sac will form the :

Periodontal Ligament

Which of the following embryonic structures becomes the detinoenamel junction?

Disintegrating basement membrane

Cementoblasts undergo cementogenesis laying down _______?

Cementoid

A patient has supernumerary molars distal to her third molars. These additional molars are the product of excessive inductions of the ______.

Primary dental Lamina

The developmental disturbances that result in dens in dente, gemination and fusion are created during which stage of tooth development?

Cap Stage

Which of the following is formed by the cells of the enamel organ at its most cervical point?

Hertwig's Epithelial Root Sheath

The Reduced Enamel Epithelium (REE) will form the primordium of which structure(s)?

Junctional Epithelium

Dentinogenesis begins after which of the following occur?


A. Preameloblasts differentiate into ameloblasts


B. Basement membrane disintegrates


C. IEE cells repolarize


E. All of the above

C. IEE cells repolarize

During which stage is the primordium of the tooth (aka"tooth germ") first manifest?

CAP

Which of the following is NOT a componenet of the tooth germ?

DENTAL LAMINA


Tooth germ = Dental Papilla, Dental Sac, Enamel organ

During the process of tooth eruption the REE performs which of the following functions?

ALL OF THESE:


It fuses with the oral epithelium


It releases enzymes to help disintegrate the oral epithelium


It peels off coronally allowing the tooth to "erupt"


It remains attached at the CEJ (cervix) maintaining a temporary seal

The embryonic oral epithelium (ectoderm) develops the:

Enamel Organ

Of the 3 Primary Embryonic Layers, the one that will form the dentin and pulp is the :

Mesoderm

Teeth are formed from which of the following embryonic tissues?

Ectoderm and Mesenchyme

Herwig's epithelial root sheath is entirely composed of:

Inner and outer enamel epithelium

Which of the following Permanent teeth are formed by the secondary dental lamina?

E. A, B, and C. (Incisors, Canines, Premolars)

The extensions of the Primary Dental Lamina into the mesenchyme form cap-like structures (Cap stage). At this stage of development, the epithelial (Ectoderm) extension is called the:

Enamel Organ

The outer cells of the dental papilla are induced to differentiate into:

Odontoblasts

The Enamel organ is composed of 4 layers of cells. The cells that will eventually differentiate into Ameloblasts are the cells of the:

INNER Enamel Epithelium

The cellular extensions of the Odontoblasts that remain attached to the Basement Membrane as dentin forms, are called?

Odontoblastic Processes

What is a developmental disturbance of dentin?

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

Cells found in the periodontal ligament that can undergo proliferation under certain pathologic conditions to produce cysts and tumors of the jaw are:

Epithelial rests of Malassez

List the order of the stages of tooth formation:

Initiation, bud, cap, bell, apposition/maturation

The 4th lobe on the lingual aspect of anterior teeth is referred to as:

Cingulum

Using the Universal or ADA tooth #ing system, which of the following would represent the permanent mandibular left second premolar?
#20

Which of the following teeth is Succedaneous?


A. #13


B. #14


C. #18


D. #30

A. #13

Which of the following is the correct order of terms used when naming teeth?

Dentition, arch, quadrant, tooth

Using the Universal or ADA tooth #ing system, which of the following would represent the deciduous mandibular left second molar?

K

Using the Palmer Notation L2 would represent the:

Permanent Maxillary Left Lateral incisor

Which of the following are succedaneous teeth?


A. Those that replace deciduous teeth


B. Those that do not replace deciduous teeth


C. the deciduous molars


D. The permanent premolars


E. Both A and D


E. Both A and D

Of the following teeth, which are designed for biting into (cutting) food?

Incisors

The degree of mineralization of normal cementum is approximately that of:

BONE

The bulk (largest amount) of tooth structure is made of us the:

Dentin

The place where the anatomical crown and the anatomical root meet is the:

CERVIX

When a tooth is just erupting into the oral cavity, only a small portion of the enamel is visible. The part visible is called:

Clinical Crown

When 2 surfaces of a tooth come together, it's called:

Line angle

An incomplete closure of 2 or more developmental lobes is called a:

Fissure

The mixed dentition period usually begins with what?

Eruption of a permanent mandibular first molar

The rounded, elevated fold of enamel found on the mesial and distal surfaces of anterior teeth (visible from the lingual) are called?

Marginal Ridges

When comparing the arches of the 2 dentitions (primary vs. permanent), one arch of the primary dentition usually contains:

Six fewer total teeth

Permanent mandibular canines erupt between ages?

9-10

Mixed dentition stage usually begins around what age?

6

Which is true of enamel?


A. It is translucent


B. It contains no living cells


C. It is the hardest tissue in the body


D. All of the above


D. all of the above

Which of the following cementum-enamel relationship is the most common?

OVERLAP (60%)




Butte joint (30%)


Gap (10%)

Which anterior tooth is most likely to have a lingual pit at the junction of the cingulum and fossae?

Maxillary Lateral Incisors

Which of the following anomalies is NOT characteristically associated with maxillary central incisors?

Supernumerary


MICRODONTIA (laterals!)


Avulsion


Diastema

One of the disturbances that can occur during root formation is:

Enamel pearls, Dilacerated root, Accessory roots (All of the above)

LABEL THESE ON A TOOTH: Enamel, Pulp, Dentin, CEJ, Cementum

GREAT WORK!!!

A transverse ridge is:


A. Made from the joining of 2 triangular ridges separated by a groove


B. Called an oblique ridge if it's positioned diagonally


C. Is only found in permanent molars


D. All of the Above


E. A and B only

E. A and B only

Which molar usually has 5 functional cusps?

Mandibular First Molar

The teeth that have 5 developmental lobes and 5 cusps usually are:

Maxillary first molars and mandibular 1 molars

Which of the following permanent teeth is most likely to have 2 pulp canals (root canals)?

Maxillary First Premolars

Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a buccal pit that is susceptible to caries?

Mandibular first molar

From which view is the distal cusp of the mandibular first molar most visible?

Buccal

T/F The mandibular 2nd premolar is larger than the mandibular 1st premolar.

TRUE

The occlusal table is MOST visible from the lingual view on which of the following permanent teeth?


A. Mandibular 2nd premolar


B. Mandibular 1st molar


C. Mandibular 1st premolar


D. Maxillary 2nd premolar


E. Maxillary 1st premolar

C. Mandibular 1st premolar

Which group/type of teeth are generally an exception to the rule which states "the mandibular counterparts typically erupt prior to the maxillary counterparts"?

Premolars

Which tooth is periodontally the most disadvantaged BECAUSE of its short root trunk?

Mandibular 1st Molar

Which tooth and cusp is the cusp of Carabelli sometimes located on?

Permanent Maxillary 1st molar; Mesial lingual cusp

All of the following are characteristics of distal convergence EXCEPT?


A. The tendency for the distal marginal ridges to be located more cervically than the mesial marginal ridges


B. More of the occlusal table is visible from the distal view than the mesial view


C. Found only in the mandibular teeth


D. None of the above

C. Found only in the mandibular teeth

Which are the following characteristics of the Maxillary 1st premolar:


A. have 2 roots that bifurcate at the apical 3rd


B. are smaller than the maxillary 2nd premolars


C. have a mesial cusp ridge that is shorter than the distal cusp ridge


D. All of the above

A. Have 2 roots that bifurcate at the apical 3rd

Which tooth can have an occlusal pattern resembling an, H, U, or Y?

Mandibular 2nd premolar

The 1st premolar in each quadrant replaces the:

Primary 1st molar

Of the following permanent teeth, which will most likely be the last to erupt into the oral cavity?


A. mandibular canine


B. maxillary 1st molar


C. maxillary 1st premolar


D. maxillary canine

D. maxillary canine

The oblique ridge of the maxillary 1st molar connects the:

ML cusp with the DB cusp

Infection of the soft tissue around a partially impacted tooth (usually mandibular 3rd molar) is called:

Periocoronitis

???? The triangular ridge on each cusp of tooth #31 is inclined toward the:

Central Groove

T/F: The crown shape of the maxillary 3rd molar is usually hear shaped.

False

Which of the following features are located on the lingual surfaces of all permanent anterior teeth in some level of development?


A. incisal edge, mamelons, marginal ridges


B. incisal edge, marginal ridges, cingulum


C. imbrication lines, height of contour, cingulum

B. Incisal edge, marginal ridges, cingulum

Permanent anterior teeth have ___ (#) developmental loves and are ____ (shape) when viewed from either proximal surfaces.

4, triangular

The function of permanent incisors is:

Biting and cutting

The longest tooth in the mandibular arch of the permanent dentition is:

Mandibular canine

Which tooth is "peg" and smaller than normal?

Laterals

Which of the following anterior permanent tooth is usually the smallest and has the simplest form?

Mandibular central incisor

The # of cusps present on a permanent canine is:

ONE

# of mamelons seen on a newly erupted permanent maxillary central incisor:

THREE

One of the funtions of the permanent canines is:

TEARING

The tooth surface that is toward the anterior midline of the oral cavity is the:

Mesial

The canines have ____ (cusps) and _______ developemental lobe(s).

ONE, FOUR

T/F: The maxillary canines are larger than the mandibular canine.

TRUE

PICTURES: Occlusal surface of #30, #3, and K

Know the occlusal surfaces!

Becasue of the primary posterior tooth's roots branch directly from the base of the crown, these teeth lack an identifiable:

ROOT TRUNK

Which of the following would be considered a normal molar relationship in the primary dentition?


A. Distil Step


B. Mesial Step


C. Flush Terminal plane


D. Both B and C

D. both B and C

Which tooth has the widest variety of occlusal shape in the deciduous dentition?

First mandibular molars

Which is NOT true?


A. The loss of deciduous incisor after age 3 does not require a space maintainer.


B. The deciduous molars save the space for and are replaced by the permanent molars.


C. The deciduous mandibular icisors are shed around 6 years of age


D. None of the above

B. Deciduous molars save the space for and are replaced by the permanent molars.

Which Universal Tooth Number corresponds to the primary maxillary left molar?

I (like, I see)

The deciduous maxillary canines:


A. Have a primate space to the mesial of them


B. Have a rounded cusp upon eruption


C. Have a short root


D. All of the above

A. Have a primate space to the mesial of them

How many erupted primary teeth does a 3 year old usually have?

20

When comparing the arches of the 2 dentitions, one arch of the primary dentition usually contains:

6 fewer total teeth

Which is noted in a patient's primary dentition compared to their permanent dentition?

Lighter enamel color

Which is considered succedaneous?


A. #13


B. #14


C. #18


D. #19

A. #13

Which incisors don't have mamelons, but does have a crown wider mesiodistally than incisocervically?

Primary Maxillary Central

The general rule for permanent teeth eruption is lingual to the primary teeth except in the _____.

Maxillary anterior

When a primary molar is lost early and the space not maintained, what can occur?

Mesial Drift

T/F: #4 is not considered a succedaneous tooth.

False

What is considered the smallest tooth in both dentitions?

Primary mandibular central

The period of time, approx. from 6-12 years, is the _______ period.

Mixed dentition

An older dental term for primary teeth:

Deciduous dentition

What is the purpose of flared roots on primary teeth?

Allows for development of succedaneous teeth

T/F: Primary pulp horns are usually smaller than permanent tooth pulp horns.

FALSE

How many permolars are in the primary dentition?

0

A functional cusp:


A. Fits into the fossa of an antagonistic tooth


B. On mandibular premolars is the buccal/facial cusp


C. On mandibular premolars is the lingual cusp


D. A and B


E. A and C

D. A and B

A child has a maxillary incisor protrusion, anterior open bite, crowded lower anteriors, and high-palatal vault. What's the cause?

Thumb sucking

The profile in a Class I malocclusion is:

Mesognathic

Which will be found in a Class II division I malocclusion?

Mandibular permanent 1st molar is distil to the maxillary permanent 1st molar

Which is usually found in a Class III malocclusion?

Crossbite of the lower anteriors

Which can be reproduced consistently even in a completely edentulous patient and is used as a baseline because of its objective nature?

Centric relation

Which has an average space of 2-3 mm between the occlusal surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth?

Interocclusal clearance/freeway space

Centric stops are normally located on all of the following EXCEPT?

Height of contour

T/F: Centric occlusion is where the teeth meet to chew.

TRUE

An edge to edge bite in the anterior will usually have a posterior alignment called Class _____.

Class III

The basal layer of oral mucosa generally has:

Cells undergoing mitosis

The opening in epithelium that contacts the taste bud is termed:

Taste pore

Which is NOT a feature that differentiates lining mucosa from masticatory mucosa?


A. Interface between epithelium and lamina propria is smoother


B. Less pronounced rete ridges


C. Rarely contains a submucosa


D. Elastic fibers in lamina propria

C. Rarely contains a submucosa

The cellular organelle that contains digestive enzymes is the:

Lysosome

Epithelium originates from which embryologic layer(s)?

Ecto, Meso, and Endoderm

Lining mucosa general microscopic appearance is?

Nonkeratinized epithelium with smooth surface, few rete ridges, CT with elastic fibers in lamina propria, and has submucosa.

The buccal mucosa may contain Fordyce's granules/spots, which are:

Deposits of sebum from misplaced sebaceous gland tissue

Immature connective tissue with few fibers and increased amount of blood vessels is called:
Granulation tissue

Which is NOT true concerning the connective tissue proper of the oral cavity?


A. It's separated from the epithelium by a basement membrane.


B. It's called the lamina dura


C. It consists of at least 2 layers: papillary and dense


D. It provides the nutrient source for the avascular epithelium

B. It's called the lamina dura

T/F: The correct layers of the keratinized epithelium from basement membrane are: Stratum basal, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum.

TRUE

Which is NOT an example of Connective Tissue?


Bone, cartilage, blood, muscle, none of the above.

Muslce

Function of ribosomes:

Produce protiens

Which area does NOT contain a submucosa?

Attatched gingiva

What gives the filliform papilla their whiteish color?

Keratinization

What CT serves as a transport medium for cellular nutrients?

Blood

Which tissue has the faster turnover time?


Cementum, hard palate, taste buds, junctional epithelium

Junctional epithelium

2 parts of the internal basal lamina
Lamina Densa and lamina lucida

T/F: The sulcular epithelium is of a keratinized type, with its cells tightly packed.

FALSE

T/F: Nuclei are still present in Parakeratinized mucosa.

TRUE

LABEL: Tonofilaments, basal lamina, collagen fibers, basement membrane, raticular lamina, epithelium, heidesmosomes with attachment plaque, CT, lamina lucida, and lamina densa

YAY Layers!

An attached plaque between cell and cellular surface/structure is called a:

Desmosome

Which is FALSE about the parotid salivary gland:


A. It's the largest


B. It produces 60-65% of saliva


C. It's encapsulated by fibrous CT


D. It mainly secretes serous saliva

B. It produces 60-65% of saliva

The stippling texture of the gingiva may be attributed to:

Rete pegs

Which duct is associated closest to acini in salivary gland?

Intercalated duct

The MOST permeable section of the gingiva is considered:

Junctional epithelium

The epithelial attachment consists of the hemidesmosomes that attache to the:

Tooth

Which is NOT true concerning the histology of Salivary Glands?


A. The capsule and septa are made up of CT


B. the secretory cells are derived from the epithelial tissue


C. Myoepithial cells are influenced by neural crest cells


D. Serous cells have a cloudier-looking cytoplasm

D. Serous cells have a cloudier-looking cytoplasm

Which is true concerning the submandibular salivary gland?


A. Provides 60-65% saliva


B. Secretes a mixed saliva


C. It's duct opens into the oral cavity through the sublingual cruncle


D. All of the above

D. all of the above

Which is INNCORRECT about the thyroid gland?


A. it secretes thyroxine from its duct


B. It regulates metabolic rate


C. It's located in the anterior and lateral regions of the neck


D. All are true

A. It secretes thyroxine from its duct

Which of the following is a correct statement?


A. Endocrine glands have a duct associated with them.


B. An exocrine gland secretes its products directly into the blood


C. Both motor and sensory nerves are present in the glands


D. All salivary gland are endocrine

C. Both motor and sensory nerves are present in the glands

Attached gingiva is made up of:

Masticatory mucosa

What is the size of the parotid salivary gland?

Largest encapsulated

Saliva contains?

Immunoglobulin, minerals, enzymes, and protiens

Mumps involve which lymph nodes?

Deep parotid lymph nodes and parotid gland

Characteristics of attached gingiva:

No submucosa, tightly adheres to bone, and has numerous rete pegs.

Gingiva that forms a cuff surrounding the tooth (not attached) is called:

Free gingiva

T/F: Swelling will increase the size of the free gingiva and creates a pseudopocket.

True

Apical migration of the junctional epithelium can start to form a _____.

Pocket

T/F: The submandbular gland is the 3rd largest salivary gland.

FALSE

Minor salivary glands are: (amount, type, location...)

Large in number and secrete mainly mucous and are found in palate and floor on mouth.

Cells that surround the acini that cause contraction.

Myoepithelial cells

Globlet cells secrete:

Mucin

LABEL: Nasopharynx, external naris, inferior nasal concha, sphenoid sinus, frontal sinus, middle nasal concha, superior nasal concha, internal naris.

I NOSE it!

Cellular cementum is likely found:


A. Closest to the dentin


B. Closest to the periodontal ligament


C. Equally throughout the root surface


D. None of the above

D. none of the above

Which is NOT true of the sclerotic dentin?


A. Caries progress more rapidly through it than in normal dentin


B. Is usally found in older teeth


C. Is laid down where odontoblastic processes have degenerated


D. is where calcium salts have filled dentinal tubules

A. Caries progress more rapidly through it than in normal dentin

The body of the mandible/maxilla is considered the:

Basal bone

The relationship between enamel and cementum that CANNOT occure:

Enamel overlaping cementum

Short dentinal tubules that extend just past the DEJ are called:

Enamel spindles

Caries in the dentin of the tooth progress quickest through the:

Dentinal tubule

First dentin that forms and matures within the tooth?

Mantle dentin

The ends of periodontal ligament fibers that are embedded in the cementum and bone are called:

Sharpey's fibers

Rmenants of Herwig's epithelial root sheath found in the periodontal ligament are called:

Rests of Malassez

T/F: Bone deposition increases when tension is applied; the periodontal ligament increases in width as functional activity decreases.

True then False

The maxilla and the bulk of the mandible are formed through _______ bone formation.

Intramembranous

Bone and cementum are similar in all of the following EXCEPT:

Volkmann's canals (they both have canaliculi, lacuna, and about the same amount of inorganic conponents)

Which is NOT true about mantle dentin?


A. It forms the outer layer of coronal dentin.


B. It's the first dentin formed


C. it's the least mineralized dentin


D. it has more peritubular dentin than circumpulpal dentin

C. it's the least mineralized dentin

Which term is used correctly to describe the alveolar bone proper?


A. Lamina propria


B. Cancellous bone


C. Mucoperiosteum


D. Cribriform plate

D. Cribriform plate

The fibers of the periodontal ligament:


A. Are collagen fibers


B. Are formed by fibroblasts within the PDL


C. Atrophy and become relaxed and wavy on a non-functional tooth


D. All of the above

D. all of the above

Most numerous fiber group of the PDL are found in the:

Oblique group

Which fibers are NOT attached to the tooth?

Circular fibers

When a tooth is being moved by Ortho, the PDL forms cells that destroy bone and others that form bone. On the bony surface that the tooth is being moved TOWARDS, which is active?

Osteoclasts

Which dental tissue provides the vascular nutrition for the tooth's cementum?

PDL

Which term associated with dentin can be used to correctly describe the largest portion of the tooth's dentin?

Circumpulpal

Which is CORRECT concerning the oblique group of the PL?


A. It's part of the gingival fiber group


B. It's found only in multi-rooted teeth


C. It resists intrusive forces to the tooth


D. It resists tiliting forces to the tooth

C. It resists intrusive forces to the tooth

3 functions of pulp

Nutritive, defensive, sensory

What layer do odontoblasts lay down first?

Pre-dentin

Senses in the tooth felt when biting or chewing come from :

Periodontal ligament

With age, the pulp chamber and canals____.

Decreases

All are characteristics of enamel EXCEPT:


A. Hardest tissue in the body


B. Lies next to the pulp


C. Consists of mainly calcium hydroxyapatite


D. Is more radiopaque than the rest of the tooth

B. Lies next to the pulp

What is the loss of hard tissue through tooth-to-tooth contact?

Attrition

T/F: Enamel is avascular, acellular, has no nerve endings, is nonvital and nonrenewable.

TRUE