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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1A3 – What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A Joules.
2A2 – What will produce a magnetic field?
C. A current flowing through a conductor
3A1 – What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control Purposes?
C. Zinc Bar
4A4 – what is the purpose of a bypass capacitor
C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground.
5A1 – What are the most commonly used specifications for a junction Diode
D. Maximum forward current and (Peak inverse Voltage)PIV.
6A3 – What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
D. 117-V AC
7A6 – What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster that the fall time(or Vice Versa)
C. Sawtooth Wave

8A1 – What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of a DC Voltage?

C. Root Means Square(RMS)

9B5 - If a current of 3 Amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 Volts, What is the resistance?
B. 30 Ohms
10B6 – What is the maximum rated current carrying capacity of a resistor marked “200ohms, 200Watts”?
A. 0.316 Amps
11B5 – What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-10PPM?
B. 1565.20 hz
12B2 – At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?
C. +2.5 Volts
13B1 – What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
C 0.5
14B4 – What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RL circuit”? The time required for the
C. current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value.
15B3 – What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series?
C. 47 Seconds
16B6 – in rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.0001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?
D. 400-j318
17B2 – in polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
141 ohms, /45 degrees
18B4 – What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms?
A. 7.1 to 1.
19C6 – What is a description of an optocoupler?
C. An LED and a photosensitive device.
20C6 – What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?
A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current.
21C1 – A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to?
A. improve the power factor.
22C3 – What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A. Zener Diode.
23C5 – What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2
24C2 – What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors.
25C6 – What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?
A. The collector current is at its maximum value.
26C4 – What condition exists when a transistor is operating in saturation?
A The base emitter junction and collector base junction are forward biased.
27C2 – What determines the visible light emitted by and LED junction?
D The materials used to construct the device.
28C6 – In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal?
B Pierce
29D3 – How could voltage be greater across reactance in series than the applied voltage?
D Resonance
30D1 – What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter?
D Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss.
31D6 – What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?
D A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, and voltage-controlled oscillator.
32D4 – In figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply.
There is no problem.
33E6 – What do the initials TTL stand for?
B Transistor-transistor logic
34E5 – What is the characteristic of a NOT gate?
B Produces a logic “0” at its output when the input is logic “1” and vice versa.
35E1 – In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?
D High level
36E2 – What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with stable states.
C 2
37E3 – What is a monostable multivibrator?
A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set period of time to its original state.
38E5 – How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus?
D 64
39E6 – What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and the input/output system?
C Data bus line
40E2 – What does the term BCD mean?
C Binary coded decimal
41F6 – What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernable signal?
D Dynamic Range
42F4 – Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this
D Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters.
43F5 – What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
D Have sufficient positive feedback.
44F1 – What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11,000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz?
B 129.000 MHz
45F3 – A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals?
C SSB Voice
46F2 – What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?
C Image rejection and selectivity.
47F1 – A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be?
B 2.1 KHz
48F6 – What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver?
B The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal.
49F2 – What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage?
B When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received.
50F4 – What is cross-modulation interference?
C Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal.
51G6 – Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?
D. Class AB
52G4 – What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?
D. 1000 watts
53G5 – How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?
D. By using a balanced modulator followed be a filter.
54G3 – What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit?
A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance.
55G1 – What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
D. Distortion
56G2 – How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier?
C. By neutralization.
57H6 – In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?
C. Deviation ratio.
58H2 – In figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted?
B. 2
59H4 – Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system?
A. The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power.
60I1 – When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to human is:
D. Emission of hydrogen gas.
61I1 – When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units?
A. 1.8 hours
62I5 – A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current?
C. 26.300 amps.
63J4 – What I san advantage of using a trap antenna?
A. It may be used for multiband operation.

64J2 – The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is:

D. Always proportional to the received field strength.

65J3 – An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces:
C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields.
66J6 – If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed be a 100 watt transmitter?
D. 6 watts.
67J1 – What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
B. 39.7 watts.
68K5 – What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station?
D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME).
69K6 – What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system?
C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station.
70K2 – What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft’s position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airports runway?
C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner).
71K3 – What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft’s mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?
A. Transmit at 1090 MHz and receive at 1030 MHz
72K1 – What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitted the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft’s Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? – D. 1030 MHz directional pattern.
D. 1030 MHz directional pattern.
73K5 – What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Very high Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installation?
B. Horizontally polarized omni-directional reception antenna.
74L2 – A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection? – D. 0.05 volts.
D. 0.05 volts.

75L4

On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale. A only at full scale

76L5 – An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except?
C. measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode.
77L6 – What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones?
C. Service Monitor
78L2 – Which of the following answers is true?
B. The RF power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter.
79L4 – the Ideal method of removing insulation from the wire is?
A. The thermal stripper
80L1 – What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100 pair cable?
D. green
81L3 – A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a?
A. Laptop

82M5 – Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmission is correct?

C They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier.

83M2 – The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications?
A. Regular-Pulse Excited
84M4 – Which is the code used for SITOR-A and –B transmissions?
C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 “zeros” and 3 “ones”.
85N3 – What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement?
C. 70
86N1 – What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat?
B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable.
87N4 – Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHZ.
88N2- What is the standard scan rate for High-frequency 3 MHZ-23MHZ weather facsimile reception from shore stations?
B. 120 lines per minute.
89N5 An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method.
End-Powered Network
90O3 – What is the normal range of pulse widths?
B .05 micro to 1.0 micro
91O6 – The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the?
D Magnetron
92O5 – What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges?
C Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates.
93O2 – What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the waveguide?
A J-Hook
94O4 – Which of the following is not a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened?
C Keep the TR properly tuned
95P1 – What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system?
D 485 miles
96P6 – Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT–B communications impossible?
D all of these.
97P5 – When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared
A INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional
98P3 – How many GPS satellites are normally in operation?
C 24
99Q4 – At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required?
A 1,000 Watts ERP
100Q6 – What is a GFI electrical socket used for?
A To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path circuit and shutting the circuit down.