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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1A3 – What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
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A Joules.
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2A2 – What will produce a magnetic field?
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C. A current flowing through a conductor
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3A1 – What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control Purposes?
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C. Zinc Bar
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4A4 – what is the purpose of a bypass capacitor
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C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground.
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5A1 – What are the most commonly used specifications for a junction Diode
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D. Maximum forward current and (Peak inverse Voltage)PIV.
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6A3 – What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
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D. 117-V AC
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7A6 – What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster that the fall time(or Vice Versa)
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C. Sawtooth Wave
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8A1 – What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of a DC Voltage? |
C. Root Means Square(RMS) |
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9B5 - If a current of 3 Amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 Volts, What is the resistance?
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B. 30 Ohms
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10B6 – What is the maximum rated current carrying capacity of a resistor marked “200ohms, 200Watts”?
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A. 0.316 Amps
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11B5 – What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-10PPM?
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B. 1565.20 hz
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12B2 – At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?
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C. +2.5 Volts
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13B1 – What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
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C 0.5
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14B4 – What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RL circuit”? The time required for the
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C. current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value.
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15B3 – What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series?
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C. 47 Seconds
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16B6 – in rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.0001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?
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D. 400-j318
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17B2 – in polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
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141 ohms, /45 degrees
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18B4 – What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms?
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A. 7.1 to 1.
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19C6 – What is a description of an optocoupler?
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C. An LED and a photosensitive device.
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20C6 – What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?
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A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current.
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21C1 – A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to?
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A. improve the power factor.
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22C3 – What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
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A. Zener Diode.
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23C5 – What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
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D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2
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24C2 – What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
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D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors.
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25C6 – What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?
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A. The collector current is at its maximum value.
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26C4 – What condition exists when a transistor is operating in saturation?
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A The base emitter junction and collector base junction are forward biased.
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27C2 – What determines the visible light emitted by and LED junction?
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D The materials used to construct the device.
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28C6 – In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal?
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B Pierce
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29D3 – How could voltage be greater across reactance in series than the applied voltage?
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D Resonance
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30D1 – What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter?
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D Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss.
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31D6 – What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?
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D A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, and voltage-controlled oscillator.
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32D4 – In figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply.
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There is no problem.
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33E6 – What do the initials TTL stand for?
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B Transistor-transistor logic
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34E5 – What is the characteristic of a NOT gate?
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B Produces a logic “0” at its output when the input is logic “1” and vice versa.
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35E1 – In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?
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D High level
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36E2 – What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with stable states.
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C 2
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37E3 – What is a monostable multivibrator?
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A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set period of time to its original state.
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38E5 – How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus?
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D 64
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39E6 – What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and the input/output system?
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C Data bus line
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40E2 – What does the term BCD mean?
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C Binary coded decimal
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41F6 – What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernable signal?
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D Dynamic Range
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42F4 – Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this
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D Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters.
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43F5 – What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
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D Have sufficient positive feedback.
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44F1 – What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11,000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz?
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B 129.000 MHz
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45F3 – A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals?
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C SSB Voice
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46F2 – What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?
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C Image rejection and selectivity.
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47F1 – A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be?
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B 2.1 KHz
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48F6 – What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver?
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B The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal.
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49F2 – What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage?
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B When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received.
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50F4 – What is cross-modulation interference?
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C Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal.
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51G6 – Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?
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D. Class AB
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52G4 – What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?
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D. 1000 watts
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53G5 – How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?
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D. By using a balanced modulator followed be a filter.
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54G3 – What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit?
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A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance.
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55G1 – What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
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D. Distortion
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56G2 – How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier?
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C. By neutralization.
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57H6 – In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?
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C. Deviation ratio.
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58H2 – In figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted?
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B. 2
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59H4 – Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system?
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A. The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power.
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60I1 – When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to human is:
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D. Emission of hydrogen gas.
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61I1 – When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units?
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A. 1.8 hours
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62I5 – A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current?
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C. 26.300 amps.
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63J4 – What I san advantage of using a trap antenna?
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A. It may be used for multiband operation.
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64J2 – The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is: |
D. Always proportional to the received field strength. |
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65J3 – An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces:
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C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields.
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66J6 – If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed be a 100 watt transmitter?
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D. 6 watts.
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67J1 – What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
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B. 39.7 watts.
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68K5 – What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station?
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D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME).
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69K6 – What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system?
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C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station.
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70K2 – What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft’s position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airports runway?
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C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner).
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71K3 – What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft’s mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?
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A. Transmit at 1090 MHz and receive at 1030 MHz
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72K1 – What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitted the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft’s Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? – D. 1030 MHz directional pattern.
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D. 1030 MHz directional pattern.
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73K5 – What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Very high Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installation?
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B. Horizontally polarized omni-directional reception antenna.
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74L2 – A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection? – D. 0.05 volts.
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D. 0.05 volts.
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75L4 |
On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale. A only at full scale |
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76L5 – An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except?
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C. measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode.
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77L6 – What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones?
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C. Service Monitor
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78L2 – Which of the following answers is true?
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B. The RF power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter.
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79L4 – the Ideal method of removing insulation from the wire is?
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A. The thermal stripper
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80L1 – What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100 pair cable?
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D. green
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81L3 – A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a?
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A. Laptop
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82M5 – Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmission is correct? |
C They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier. |
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83M2 – The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications?
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A. Regular-Pulse Excited
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84M4 – Which is the code used for SITOR-A and –B transmissions?
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C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 “zeros” and 3 “ones”.
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85N3 – What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement?
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C. 70
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86N1 – What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat?
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B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable.
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87N4 – Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
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D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHZ.
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88N2- What is the standard scan rate for High-frequency 3 MHZ-23MHZ weather facsimile reception from shore stations?
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B. 120 lines per minute.
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89N5 An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method.
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End-Powered Network
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90O3 – What is the normal range of pulse widths?
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B .05 micro to 1.0 micro
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91O6 – The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the?
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D Magnetron
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92O5 – What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges?
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C Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates.
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93O2 – What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the waveguide?
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A J-Hook
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94O4 – Which of the following is not a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened?
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C Keep the TR properly tuned
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95P1 – What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system?
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D 485 miles
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96P6 – Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT–B communications impossible?
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D all of these.
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97P5 – When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared
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A INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional
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98P3 – How many GPS satellites are normally in operation?
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C 24
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99Q4 – At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required?
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A 1,000 Watts ERP
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100Q6 – What is a GFI electrical socket used for?
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A To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path circuit and shutting the circuit down.
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