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342 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is heart failure?
Inadequate cardiac output; inability of the heart to pump blood throughout the body
What is the first and quickest compensatory mechanism when the heart begins to fail?
Sympathetic nervous response
What happens when the sympathetic nervous system responds to compensate for heart failure?
Catecholemines are released (epinephrine & norepinephrine)
What effect do the catecholemines epinephrine and norepinephrine have on the cardiac system?
*Increase heart rate
*Increase blood pressure
What is the formula for cardiac output?
Heart rate x stroke volume = cardiac output
What is one of the last compensatory mechanisms of the heart, which is indicative of an extremely oxygen-deprived heart?
Describe hypertrophy of the heart:
The heart walls become very thick and muscular, compressing the chambers of the heart
Describe dilation of the heart:
A compensitory mechanism in which the heart becomes very large in mass (not muscular)
What do the kidneys release when they sense a "low-flow" state?
Rennin is converted to angiotensin 1, which is then converted to what?
Angiotensin 2
What effect does angiotensin 2 have on the body?
It is a potent vasoconstrictor
What kind of medication counteracts the rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
ACE inhibitors
How do ACE inhibitors work?
They counteract the rennin-angiotensin system by preventing angiotensin 1 from converting to angiotensin 2
ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2; what specific effect does this have on the body?
What is "preload?"
Volume returning to the heart, or volume at end diastole
What is "afterload?"
The resistance the heart pumps against
What is the most common reason for a preload problem?
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped out with each contraction
What is cardiac output?
The amount of blood ejected per minute
What is ejection fraction?
The percentage of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each beat
What determines stroke volume?
Stretch (amount of elasticity)
The effects of right-sided heart failure are seen where?
The effects of left-sided heart failure are usually seen where?
The lungs/pulmonary system
List some major signs/symptoms of right-sided heart failure?
*Weight gain
List some of the major signs/symptoms of left-sided heart failure:
*Pulmonary edema
Why is morphine a good drug to treat pulmonary edema?
It helps to keep the majority of the circulation in the peripheral blood vessels (away from the heart and lungs)
In which drug class is digoxin?
What effect does digoxin have on the heart?
It increases contractility
What is a toxic blood level for digoxin?
Greater than 2
List some signs/symptoms of digoxin toxicity:
*bluured vision
*seeing halos around lights
*heart block
What pre-disposes an elderly person to digoxin toxicity?
Low potassium
What should the nurse do routinely if a patient is on digoxin
*check potassium levels
*check dig levels
*check apical pulse
*educate patient not to take antacids
What should the nurse watch for when a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor?
*Orthostatic blood pressure
*Watch carefully for signs/symptoms of decreased blood pressure
What do beta blockers do?
Block the adrenaline affect on the heart
What is the therapeutic effect of beta-blockers?
Slow the heart rate
Why do people usually NOT want to take a beta-blocker?
It makes them feel tired/weak/dizzy
What is nitroglycerin?
a vasodilator
What is important to know about Lasix?
*Take with potassium
*Always check potassium level before administering
*Can be extremely ototoxic
What should a nurse check to evaluate the effectiveness of lasix?
lung sounds
What is Nipride?
A potent vasodilator
What is Nipride often used for?
Hypertensive crisis
What is significantly important about Nipride?
It is very quick-acting
What is a major concern about Nipride?
It can turn to cyanide in the body
What lab value should be closely monitored to avoid nipride toxicity?
thyocyanate level
What should a nurse monitor closely in a patient who is on morphine?
Respiratory status
What is the antidote for morphine?
What does a BNP level of over 100 indicate?
heart failure
What does Natracore mimic within the body
What effect does Natracore have on the heart?
*decreases preload
*decreases afterload
*mimics the endogenous process of BNP (vasodilation)
What is the biggest side effect of Natracore?
Among others, Natracore is incompatible with what major drug?
Besides dysrhythmia, list some other side effects of Natracore:
*Back pain
What is a cardiomyopathy?
Heart disease that is caused by a change in either the structure or function of the heart
Describe a heart that has a dilated cardiomyopathy
Big and weak
What is the treatment for dilated cardiomyopathy?
heart transplant
What is the major problem with a dilated cardiomyopathy?
Systolic function problem
Which cardiomyopathy is commonly found among athletes?
Hypertrophied cardiomyopathy
What is the major problem in a hypertrophied cardiomyopathy?
Diastolic function problem
What EKG changes will be seen in a patient who has had a heart transplant?
*2 p-waves
What should a nurse monitor for a heart transplant patient postoperatively?
*Bleeding (cardiac tamponade)
What are the signs/symptoms of cardiac tamponade?
*Muffled heart sounds
*decreased blood pressure
*decreased cardiac output
What is significant regarding innervation of a transplanted heart?
it is a de-nervated heart (no response to vagal stimulation)
Because the transplanted heart is de-nervated, what drug will not affect it?
What is the hallmark sign of Mitral Valve Prolapse?
mid-systolic click
What is the hallmark sign of aortic stenosis?
Fixed cardiac output
What are the three cardinal signs/symptoms of a fixed cardiac output
Which kind of replacement valves always require anti-coagulant therapy?
Mechanical valves
Which valve replacement MUST be mechanical?
Aortic valve
What is very important for a patient who has had a valve replacement?
Always use antibiotic prophylaxis before procedures
What is a normal blood pH?
What is a normal PaCo2 level?
What is a normal HcO3?
Which system compensates very quickly for a metabolic problem?
Respiratory system
What is the hallmark sign of tension pneumothorax?
*trachial deviation
Which patients commonly have respiratory acidosis?
What is the immediate treatment for a tension pneumothorax?
Decompress the chest
What are the signs/symptoms of a spontaneous pneumothorax?
*chest pain
*shortness of breath
With what suffix do the beta-blockers end?
What should a nurse monitor closely in a patient who has just had a heart catheterization?
What is the purpose of Heparin?
Prevents further clotting
What is the purpose of a thrombolytic?
To dissolve existing clots
What is the function of platelets?
They promote blood clotting after injury
What are reticulocytes?
Immature red blood cells
How much fluid intake is encouraged for patients who have sickle cell disease?
4-6 quarts per day
How much fluid intake is encouraged for patients who are in sickle cell CRISIS?
6-8 quarts per day
List some drugs that are used to manage pain in sickle cell patients:
*Fentanyl patch
What lab levels should be monitored in a patient who is undergoing chronic transfusions?
What should be avoided in patients with sickle cell disease?
*Cold liquids
What is a critical intervention for a patient in sickle cell crisis?
What kind of gene is affected in hemophilia A?
Sex-linked recessive gene
What clotting factor is deficient in hemophilia A?
Factor VIII
What is the preventive treatment for children with sickle cell disease?
*Penicillin at age 3 mo.
*Pneumococcal vaccine @ 2, 4 & 6 mo.
*Flu shot @ 6 mo.
What should be taught to parents of sickle cell patients?
*Recognizing s/sx
*Charting growth/development
*Give folic acid early
*Give protein supplements
*Get eyes tested early
What is the difference between hemophilia and DIC?
Hemophilia: involves only intrinsic clotting factors

DIC: involves both intrinsic and extrinsic clotting factors
What is a good physical activity to suggest for a patient with hemophilia?
When is hemophilia usually diagnosed?
In early childhood (when the child begins to walk)
What is the usual treatment for hemophilia?
Replacement of coagulation factor that is missing
What type of deformities are a complication of hemophilia?
Joint deformities
What are the signs/symptoms of hemophilia?
*Prolonged bleeding anywhere in the body
What laboratory finding will be abnormal in a patient with hemophilia?
Will the PT lab value be normal or abnormal in a patient with hemophilia?
What is DIC?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
How will the PT / INR reflect in lab reports of a patient with DIC?
How will the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) reflect in lab reports of a patient with DIC?
How will the platelet count reflect in lab reports of a patient with DIC?
How will the fibrinogen levels reflect in lab reports of a patient with DIC?
How will the fibrinogen degradation product levels reflect in lab reports of a patient with DIC?
How will the D-Dimer test reflect in lab reports of a patient with DIC?
What is the cure for DIC?
Treat the cause
What are some nursing priorities in patients with DIC?
*Maintain fluid balance
*Control bleeding
*Restore normal clotting factors
What are some important things to remember when caring for a DIC patient?
*No blood pressure cuffs
*Turn carefully
*Be careful with catheters, ET tubes, etc.
What level of D-Dimer proteins indicate DIC?
Greater than 250 per ml
Explain erythropoesis:
Kidneys respond to low O2 and release erythropoetin, which travels to the bone marrow to stimulate RBC production
What is the normal range for platelets?
What are the hard (positive) symptoms of schizophrenia?
Associative looseness
Flight of ideas
Ideas of reference
What are the soft (negative) symptoms of schizophrenia?
Alogia (poverty of content)
Blunted affect
Flat affect
Lack of volition
Conventional (typical) anti-psychotic medications target which symptoms?
Only the positive symptoms
Give some examples of "conventional" anti-psychotic medications:
Atypical anti-psychotic medications target which symptoms?
Both the positive and negative symptoms
List some of the atypical antipsychotics:
Which anti-psychotics are available in a depot injection?
Fluphenazine (Prolixin) and
Haloperidol (Haldol)
List the extrapyramidal side effects caused by antipsychotics:
Are the extrapyramidal side effects reversible? How are they treated?
Yes; Benadryl or Cogentin
What are the characteristics of tardive dyskinesia?
*Abnormal, involuntary movements (lip-smacking, tongue protrusion, chewing, blinking, grimacing, and choreiform movements of the limbs and feet).
Is tardive dyskinesia reversible?
No; only further progression can be stopped
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
A frequently fatal side effect characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, elevated creatine phosphokinase (CPK), elevated WBC's
What should the nurse do if neuroleptic malignant syndrome occurs?
Stop drug immediately
Which anti-psychotic commonly causes agranulocytosis?
Clozapine (Clozaril)
What is agranulocytosis?
Failure of bone marrow to produce enough WBC's
What are the signs/symptoms of agranulocytosis?
*Sore Throat
*Decreased WBCs
What should the nurse do if agranulocytosis occurs?
Stop drug immediately
What is required in order for the pharmacy to dispense Clozaril?
WBC count (weekly)
What are the signs/symptoms of dystonia?
*Muscle spasms
*Tongue protrusion
*Laryngeal/pharyngeal spasms
What are the signs/symptoms of psuedoparkinsonism?
*Shuffling gait
What characterizes akethisia?
Inability to remain still
Why does a person with OCD feel it necessary to complete his or her rituals?
They help to decrease anxiety
What is bipolar disorder?
Mood cycles of mania and/or depression and normalcy
What should the nurse be aware of if a bipolar patient begins rapid cycling between mania and depression?
Increased risk of suicide
List the atypical antidepressants:
venlafaxine (Effexor)
bupropion (Wellbutrin)
nefazodone (Serzone)
What are the common side effects for the atypical antidepressants?
What are the manifestations of pseudoparkinsonism?
*Shuffling gait
*Mask-like face
*Continuous muscle stiffness
*Ratchet-like joint movements
*Akinesia (slow/difficult movements)
What are the hallmark symptoms of schizophrenia?
*Concrete or literal thinking
What are the major symptoms of mania?
*Grandiose mood
*Exaggerated self-esteem
*Pressured speech
*Flight of ideas
*Easily distracted
*Intrusive behavior
*High-risk activities
*Poor judgment
What are common side effects of lithium?
*Mild nausea/diarrhea
*Fine hand tremor
*Metallic taste in mouth
What are the signs of lithium toxicity?
*Severe nausea/vomiting/diar.
*Severe mental confusion
When is the onset of action for lithium?
2-3 weeks
Which drugs are used for their mood-stabilizing effects in patients with bipolar disorder?
Anticonvulsant drugs (Tegretol, Depakote, Lamictal, Topamax, Trileptal, Neurontin)
Which benzodiazepine is used for its mood-stabilizing effect in patients with bipolar disorder?
How should the nurse communicate with a bipolar patient?
Use very short sentences
What types of foods should be offered to the bipolar patient to ensure good nutrition?
Finger foods (can be carried from place to place)
What should the nurse do to promote sleep in a bipolar patient?
Decrease environmental stimuli
Where should the nurse channel a bipolar patient's energy?
Into an activity that is socially acceptable
What should be assessed in regards to safety with bipolar patients?
Suicide risk
What is a toxic level of lithium?
1.5 mEq or greater
What symptoms of lithium toxicity are exhibited in patients with a lithium level of 1.5-2 mEq/L?
*Reduced coordination
*Slurred speech
*Muscle weakness
What should the nurse do if the patient has a lithium level of 1.5 - 2 mEq/L?
Withhold next dose; call physician. Serum lithium levels are ordered and doses of lithium are usually suspended for a few days or the dose is reduced.
What symptoms of lithium toxicity are exhibited in patients with a lithium level of 2 - 3 mEq/L?
*Blurred vision
*Choreoathetoid movements
*Muscle fasciculation
*Hypertonic muscles
*Myoclonic twitches
*Maculopapular rash
*Movement of limbs
*Slurred speech
*Large output of dilute urine
*Incontinence (bladder/bowel)
What is the nurses action if a patients serum lithium level is 2 - 3 mEq/L?
Withhold future doses, call physician, stat serum lithium level. Gastric lavage may be used to remove oral lithium; IV containing saline and electrolytes used to ensure fluid and electrolyte function and maintain renal function.
What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity in a patient whose serum lithium level is 3.0 mEq/L and above?
*Cardiac arrhythmia
*Peripheral vascular collapse
*Focal or generalized seizure
*Reduced LOC (stupor to coma)
*Myoclonic jerks of muscle groups
*Spasticity of muscles
What is the nurses action if a patients serum lithium level is 3 mEq/L or above?
All of preceding interventions plus lithium excretion is augmented with use of aminophylline, mannitol or urea. Hemodialysis may also be used to remove lithium from the body. Respiratory, circulatory, thyroid and immune systems are monitored and assisted as needed.
The condition known as anti-social personality disorder in adults is diagnosed as _____________ in children
Conduct disorder
Discribe anti-social personality disorder:
*Pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of rights of others
*Poor judgment
*Poor work history
Describe the general appearance/motor behavior of a client with anti-social personality disorder:
*Appears "normal"
*May be charming/engaging
*Tries to manipulate
Describe the mood/affect of a client with anti-social personality disorder:
*Shallow emotions
*Chooses emotions to work to their advantage
*No genuine feelings of empathy
*No guilt
*Only remorseful if caught
List some nursing diagnoses for clients with anti-social personality disorder:
*Ineffective coping
*Ineffective role performance
*Risk for other-directed violence
List some nursing interventions for clients with anti-social personality disorder:
*Forming a therapeutic relationship (includes limit-setting & confrontations)
*Promoting responsible behavior
*Helping client solve problems and control emotions
*Enhancing role performance
List some nursing care measures during status epilepticus:
*Maintain ABC's
*O2 via nasal cannula
*Inform physician (intubation may be needed)
*Access vein/start IV NS
*Medications: ativan or diazepam followed by dilantin
*Never leave person alone
*Fosphenytoin (cerebyx) IM
What are care measures during a seizure?
*May just be observe & document
*O2 via nasal cannula, if indicated (cyanosis, etc.)
*Remain calm
*Never leave person alone
*Lower to floor or bed
*Allow seizure to end without interference; note postictal events
What is status epilepticus?
*Continuous or recurrent generalized seizures, in rapid succession
What is significant of status epilepticus?
*Does not regain full consciousness between seizures
*Repeated seizures lasting over 30 minutes, or one seizure lasting over 10 minutes
*More intense then regular seizures
*A potential complication for all types of epilepsy
What can cause death or brain damage in status epilepticus?
*cardiac dysrhythmia
*lactic acidosis
What are the usual causes for status epilepticus?
*Sudden withdrawal from anticonvulsants
*Head trauma
*Cerebral edema
During status epilepticus, what is important to know regarding the administration of ativan or diazepam?
No more than 50 mg/minute via IV push
What is meningitis?
inflammation of teh meninges of the brain & spinal cord
What can cause meningitis?
*Chemical inflammation
Which type of meningitis is usually not life-threatening?
How is meningitis transmitted?
List some predisposing conditions for meningitis:
*Otitis media
*Acute sinusitis
*Fractured base of skull w/CSF leak
*Procedures like LP or surgery
*Anatomic abnormalities like spina bifida
*Foreign objects like ventricular shunts
*Can occur from a focal infection via blood
What is the difference between viral and bacterial meningitis?
*Viral is usually self-limiting; follows viral infection

*Bacterial is more serious; abrupt onset; leaves sequellae
What is Kernig's sign?
Pain in hamstring when hip & knee are flexed by examiner (positive meningitis test)
What is Brudzinski's sign?
examiner elevates head of patient; knees bend involuntarily (positive meningitis test)
What is opisthotonus?
severe spasm of back muscles (bends backward); positive meningitis test
When does IICP occur?
When the brain cannot accomodate the increase in volume of one of the components (failure to compensate)
What areas of the brain are in danger with uncal herniation?

What is the pupil response when uncal herniation is present?
fixed and dilated
True or False: the damage caused by uncal herniation is temporary if treated quickly
false; the damage is irreversible
What respiratory pattern is sometimes seen with increased ICP?
What pupillary response is an EARLY sign of increased ICP?
Unequal pupils

Sluggish response
What pupillary response is a LATE sign of increased ICP?
fixed and dilated
List the late signs and symptoms of increased ICP:
*Fixed dilated pupils
*Decorticate/decerebrate posturing
*Loss of gag reflex
*Cushings Triad
What is Cushing's triad?
*Severe HTN
*Wide pulse pressure
List interventions for IICP:
*Administer diuretics
*Administer sedation as ordered
*Establish euvolemia
*Avoid valsalva (inc. suctioning)
*Establish eucapnia
*Elevate head of bed to 45 degrees
*Maintain the patient's head in a midline position
*Maintain normal body temperature
*Decrease environmental stimuli
What type of fluids are mostly used in patients with IICP?
Regarding traumatic brain injuries, the extent of the injury depends on what?
the amount of force
What is the GCS in a mild head injury?
What is the GCS in a moderate head injury?
What is the GCS in a severe head injury?
80% of all skull fractures are what type of fracture?
Linear skull fracture
What is a common nursing assessment to determine whether fluid leaking from the ear or nose is CSF?
the "Halo" test: fluid forms a yellow ring when blotted with a tissue
What severe damage can result from a basilar skull fracture?
Severe cranial nerve damage
What are the signs/symptoms of a concussion?
*Possible loss of consciousness (usually brief)
What is vasogenic edema?
abnormal permeability of the cerebral vessel wall; plasma filters to ECS causing an increase in brain tissue volume
What is cytotoxic edema?
cellular edema; a result of hypoxic insult to the brain cells
Of what is the brain depleted in cytotoxic edema?
What can cause vasogenic edema, resulting in further IICP?
cytotoxic edema
What is low when cytotoxic edema is present?
serum Na
When does interstitial brain edema occur?
in the presence of acute brain swelling
Interstitial brain edema is associated with an increase in what?
*Blood Pressure


*CSF pressure
How is Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) calculated?
Subtract CSF pressure from the mean arterial pressure
What are hematomas?
Space occupying lesions
What is involved in an epidural hematoma?
Middle meningeal artery
Where does an epidural hematoma occur?
around the temporal lobe
With an epidural hematoma, how soon do signs & symptoms occur?
Very rapidly
What is the treatment for an artery that is injured by an epidural hematoma?
suture the artery
What is the treatment for a subdural hematoma?
remove the hematoma
What causes a subdural hematoma?
ruptured veins
When do signs/symptoms occur with a subdural hematoma?
days to weeks
Is there more or less bleeding with a subdural hematoma?
True or false: clot formation is slower with subdural hematomas
What is an intracerebral hemorrhage?
Accumulation of blood within the brain tissue
Which type of brain herniation causes compression of the medulla?
What are the long-term effects of head injuries?
*Motor deficits
*Perceptual deficits
*Speech/language deficits
*Cognitive deficits
*Difficulty with bowel/bladder function
*Traumatic epilepsy
If your client has CSF drainage from the ear, what should the nurse assess?
nuchal rigidity
What does nuchal rigidity indicate in head injury patients?
infection or blood in CSF
What should the nurse rule out BEFORE assessing for nuchal rigidity
spinal cord injury
What should ALWAYS be assessed in head injury patients?
*Systemic hypotension
*Hypoxia or hypercapnea
What are some nursing measures to decrease ICP?
*Elevate HOB 15-30 degrees
*Avoid flexion of hips, waist & knees
*Logroll patient to transfer
*Avoid rotation/extreme flexion/extension of the head
*Space out nursing activities
*Avoid Valsalva type of activities: cough/vomit/strain
*Suction ONLY as necessary
*Provide O2 before & after suctioning
*O2 via mask or nasal cannula
*Possible ET tube to control pO2 & pCO2
*Prophylactic hyperventilation (only if on ventilator)
What is significant about prophylactic hyperventilation?
It has a mild vasoconstricting effect when done properly.
When is prophylactic hyperventilation contraindicated?
In the first 20 hours after injury
When is prophylactic hyperventilation indicated?
*Acute neurologic deterioration (for brief periods)
*Intracranial HTN that does not respond to standard treatment
What is involved in a craniotomy?
Removal of hematoma or parts of brain to reduce pressure
What is normal ICP?
10-15 mmHg
What should you remember when preparing your patient for cranial surgery?
*NO enemas
*Shampoo hair
Into what position should a craniotomy patient be placed immediately after surgery?
What is supratentorial positioning?
*HOB 30-45 degrees
*large pillow under head & shoulders
What is infratentorial positioning?
*HOB flat with small pillow
*log roll with draw sheet
*NO neck flexion
Regarding positioning, what is important to remember when a patient has had a craniectomy?
Do not place on affected side
What is significant about an ISCHEMIC stroke?
caused by a thrombus or emboli (occluding the cerebral artery)
What are the two types of ischemic stroke?
What causes a thrombotic stroke?
atherosclerosis of arteries
What is an embolic stroke?
Embolus or emboli break off from other parts of the body and enter cerebral circulation via the carotid artery
What are the warning signs of ischemic stroke?
*Reversible ischemic neurological deficit (RIND
What is a hemorrhagic stroke?
Vessel breaks down; occurence of bleeding into brain tissue, subarachnoid space, or ventricles
What are the causes of hemorrhagic stroke?
*AV malformation
Cocaine use causes what two side effects which increase the risk of stroke?
What is dysarthria?
nerve dysfunction
What are the classic symptoms of CVA?
*Contralateral weakness
*Aphasia (expressive/receptive/global)
*Facial weakness/paralysis
*Transient loss of bowel/bladder control
*Diminished or loss of consciousness
Which abnormal heart rhythm results in an increased risk for stroke?
atrial fibrillation
When is the risk for IICP highest in stroke patients?
first 72 hours following injury
When are anticoagulants contraindicated?
*Hepatic failure
What is very important to monitor after a patient has had a carotid endarterectomy?
swelling of the neck or complaints of dysphagia
What is the cause of aneurysm?
What are the symptoms of an aneurysm rupture?
*Sudden explosive headache
*neck rigidity (due to blood in CSF)
*loss of consciousness
*brain ischemia
*increased ICP
*respiratory distress
What are the major side effects of dexamethasone?
*unusual fatigue or weakness
*blurred vision
*abdominal pain
*bloody or black stools
*painful hips or shoulders
What is the most common cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?
*Abortion (miscarriage)
What is an inevitable abortion?
Termination of pregnancy is in progress
What is a complete abortion?
Products of conception have been expelled
What is an incomplete abortion?
Partial expulsion of products of conception
What is a missed abortion?
fetus/embryo dies, but nothing is expelled
What is a septic abortion?
Products of conception become infected
What is a recurrent or habitual abortion?
2 or more pregnancies end in spontaneous abortion
What is the "age of viability" of a fetus?
20 weeks gestation
What term is used if a pregnancy is terminated before 20 weeks?
What term is used if a pregnancy is terminated after 20 weeks?
What is a threatened abortion?
Pregnancy in doubt
What are some measures to treat a threatened abortion?
*Abstinence (including sex, douche and vag exams
What is Placenta Previa?
Placenta attached to lower segment of the uterus; near or over the internal os.
How is placenta previa classified?
By degree of os coverage
What is "low implantation" in regards to placenta previa?
No coverage of cervical os
What is partial placenta previa?
Partial coverage of cervical os
What is total placenta previa?
Complete coverage of cervical os
What are some care measures for a patient with placenta previa?
*Bed rest
*No straining
*Monitor VS
*Monitor blood loss
*Monitor FHT
*IV fluid
What is the goal for a patient with placenta previa?
Attempt to keep pregnancy til 36 weeks
What drug is administered to a pregnant mother in order to help fetal lung maturity?
What is often inevitable with placenta previa?
C-section delivery
What are the signs/symptoms of placenta previa?
*Painless bleeding (most common)
*Premature contractions
*Uterus measures larger than it should according to gestational age
What is Abruptio Placentae?
Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
What would indicate an apparent abruptio placentae?
vaginal bleeding
What is significant about a concealed abruptio placentae?
No bleeding
What conditions are commonly associated with abruptio placentae?
*Increased maternal age/parity
What is the most significant symptom of abruptio placentae?
Intense pain
What should be included in assessment for abruptio placentae patients?
*Monitor vs
*Monitor fluid status
*Monitor uterine tonicity
*Monitor for abd. pain/rigidity
*Monitor FHTs
*Monitor Urine output
*Girth measurement
*Fundal height measurement
What are some common nursing diagnoses for patients with abruptio placentae?
*Fluid volume deficit
*Risk for altered tissue perfusion
*Impaired gas exchange
*anxiety for self & baby
List some supportive treatment measures to reduce the risk of DIC in abruptio placentae patients:
Type / cross match 3 L of blood
What is the safest delivery method if abruptio placentae?
What is the treatment for hypofibrinogen?
Fresh frozen plasma
What is important to monitor if an abruptio placentae patient is cardiovascularly compromised?
*CVP line; hemodynamic monitoring
*Rapid infusion of LR
*Foley catheter/ hourly urine measurement
What is the treatment for abruptio placentae patients who have signs of Pulmonary Edema?
*Give packed cells
*Keep Hct @ 30% or more (needs more blood if less than 30%)
What can indicate abruptio placentae?
Increased uterine tone (too high)
To recognize uterine atony early, the nurse should check the fundus for what?
What is preeclampsia?
Increase in BP after 20 wks gestation, together with proteinuria
In order for a diagnosis of preeclampsia to be made, what is significant about blood pressure elevation?
Must be present in at least 2 occasions, 4-6 hrs. apart
What is eclampsia?
Occurs when preeclampsia progresses to convulsion/coma
What are the risk factors for preeclampsia/PIH?
*Grand multigravidity (6+)
*Multi-fetal pregnancy
*Large fetus
*Morbid obesity
*Conditions like chronic HTN
*Renal disease
*Pregnant adolescent (<17)
What is classified as SEVERE preeclampsia?
*BP 180/110 or higher on 2 occasions, 6 hrs. apart
*Proteinuria > 5g/L
What is HELLP Syndrome?
*Elevated Liver enzymes
*Low Platelet count (less than 100,000)
What symptom of hyperreflexia is associated with severe preeclampsia?
Clonus/severe deep tendon reflexes
What is a normal Glomerular Filtration Rate?
150-200 mL/hr.
What test is used to assess the GFR?
Creatinine clearance
Why should a pregnant woman lie in the lateral position?
To prevent vena cava compression, low BP and poor placental perfusion
What kinds of medications are used to treat severe preeclampsia?
*Mag sulfate
What is the bolus dosage of Mag. sulfate when given IV?
4-6 grams, administered at a speed of 2 grams per hour
What is a therapeutic mag. sulfate level?
4.8 - 9.6 mg/dL
Which medication is given for mag. sulfate toxicity?
Calcium gluconate 10%
Why is mag sulfate given to severe preeclampsia patients?
To prevent seizures
What type of drug is magnesium sulfate?
CNS depressant / smooth muscle relaxant
Why should the diastolic BP be kept at not lower than 90-100 when treating PIH?
To maintain placental perfusion
What is the major symptom of mag sulfate toxicity?
Lack of deep tendon reflex
What is the definition of "preterm?"
Born at less than 37 completed weeks gestation
What is the major problem in preterm infants?
Variable immaturity of all organs
What conditions are common in the infant when the mother has hypertension?
*speeded maturity
Describe the appearance of a newborn with RDS:
*froglike posture
Describe ear cartilage of a preemie:
*Shapeless & flat @ 34 weeks
*no recoil
Describe the skull of a preemie:
Soft, sutures displaceable
What is a characteristic respiratory /cardiovascular problem in preterm infants?
Poor blood flow to the lungs
What causes a problem of heat production in preterm infants?
*low brown fat
*no glycogen reserve
*low muscle mass
*unable to shiver
What causes a problem of INCREASED HEAT LOSS in preterm infants?
*high ration of body surface to body weight
*little insulation (or subcutaneous fat)
*blood vessels close to skin
*thinner, more permeable skin
*posture: extension increases surface area for heat loss
*poor ability to vasoconstrict superficial blood vessels
What is a serious GI complication in preterm infants?
Necrotizing enterocolitis
What causes necrotizing enterocolitis?
Poor perfusion of the GI system
What is given for the management of acidosis in a neonate?
Sodium bicarbonate
What is a normal pH for a neonate?
above 7.25
What pH level is considered severe acidosis in a neonate?
What is the calorie requirement for preterm newborns?
95-130 calories/kg/day
What is the fluid requirement for preterm infants?
10-40 ml/kg/day
What is the ideal weight gain for a preterm infant?
20-30 g/day
What glucose level is considered hypoglycemia in a neonate?
Less than 30
What is the problem that causes asphyxia in the newborn?
Persistant fetal circulation: inability to transition to extrauterine life
In the newborn with asphyxia, what usually reopens?
foramen ovale
What is RDS?
Inappropriate respiratory adaptation to extrauterine life
What is Hypovolemic Shock?
Not enough volume in the intravascular space
What is cardiogenic shock?
Failure of the heart as a pump; blood is not pushed forward effectively
Which drugs are used to enhance cardiac output in patients with cardiogenic shock
*Inotropic agents
*Vasodilators (decrease afterload)
*Diuretics (decrease preload)
In anaphylactic shock, the antigen triggers what?
Immunologic response
Which type of shock has no compensatory tachycardia?
Neurogenic shock
Which type of shock has impaired thermoregulation?
Neurogenic shock
In septic shock, what is eventually overwhelmed?
The immune system
The following is true in what type of shock: the process designed to protect the body, harms it
Septic shock
What is a major symptom of septic shock?
Tachycardia/bounding pulse
What initiates secondary MODS?
Systemic inflammatory response
What types of IV fluids are given to patients with hypovolemic shock?
Crystalloids & colloids
Why should a septic shock patient eat a high protein diet?
To promote wound healing
Who is at risk of MODS?
*Trauma victims
*Pts with acute pancreatitis
*Sepsis patients
*Pts with surgical complications
*The elderly