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142 Cards in this Set

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Give the test for the pneumonia pathogen:

Legionella
Chlamydia pneumo.
Mycoplasma
Strep. pneumo.
viral
Legionella: urine Legionella antigen test, sputum staining with direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)

Chlamydia pneumo.: serologic testing, culture, PCR

Mycoplasma: usually clinical; serum cold agglutinins and serum Mycoplasma antigen

Strep. pneumo.: urine pneumococcal antigen, culture

viral: nasopharyngeal aspirate, rapid tests, DFA, viral culture
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with atypical pneumonia?
Mycoplasma
Legionella
Chlamydia
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with nosocomial pneumonia?
GNRs
Staph
anaerobes
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?
Staph
GPRs
fungi
viruses
Pneumocystis jiroveci
mycobacteria
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with aspiration pneumonia?
anaerobes
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with pneumonia in alcoholic/IV drug user patients?
Strep. pneumo
Klebsiella
Staph
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with pneumonia in CF patients?
Pseudomonas
Burkholderia
Staph. aureus
mycobacteria
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with pneumonia in COPD patients?
H. influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis
S. pneumoniae
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with pneumonia in postviral patients?
Staph
H. influenzae
What pathogen is/are commonly associated with pneumonia in neonates?
GBS
E. coli
What features are commonly associated with recurrent pneumonia?
obstruction
bronchogenic carcinoma
lymphoma
Wegener's
immunodeficiency
unusual organisms (Nocardia, Coxiella, Aspergillus, Pseudomonas)
What pneumonia patients should be admitted and treated with with IV antibiotics?
unstable vital signs/resp. compromise
altered mental status
multilobar disease
>65 years of age
alcoholics
COPD
diabetes
malnutrition
immunosuppression
Give the sputum appearance:

S. aureus
S. pneumoniae
S. aureus: clusters of Gram+ cocci

S. pneumoniae: lancet-shaped Gram+ diplococci
Give the empiric coverage for the following type of pneumonia:

outpatient community-acquired pneumonia
one of:
macrolide (e.g. azithromycin)
doxycycline
fluoroquinolone
Give the empiric coverage for the following type of pneumonia:

patients >65y or with comorbidity
macrolide or fluoroquinolone

consider adding 2nd-gen cephalosporin or beta-lactam to macrolide
Give the empiric coverage for the following type of pneumonia:

CAP requiring hospitalization
one of:
extended-spectrum cephalosporin
beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor
fluoroquinolone

add macrolide if atypical organism suspected
Give the empiric coverage for the following type of pneumonia:

CAP requiring ICU care
one of:
extended-spectrum cephalosporin
beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor + macrolide
fluoroquinolone
Give the empiric coverage for the following type of pneumonia:

HAP or healthcare facility-acquired
one of:
extended-spectrum cephalosporin
beta-lactam with antipseudomonal activity
carbapenem

add aminoglycoside or fluoroquinolone for coverage of resistant organisms (Pseudomonas) until culture/sensitivity returned
Give the empiric coverage for the following type of pneumonia:

patients critically ill or worsening 24-48 hrs after initial therapy
think MRSA

add vancomycin or linezolid
broaden Gram- coverage
what is the stepwise workup for TB?
1. three AM sputum samples for AFB stain

2. bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage if AFB negative but high clinical suspicion (e.g., HIV patients have high negative AFB rate)
what is Tx of active TB?
RIPE x 2 months
continue with additional 4 months INH and rifampin
what is potential toxicity of isoniazid (INH)?

how can it be prevented?
peripheral neuritis

give vitamin B6
what is Tx of latent TB (LTBI); i.e. positive PPD without signs/Sx of active disease?
INH x 9 months

(or INH x 6 months or rifampin x 4 months)
what features are typical of Strep pharyngitis?

what features are atypical of Strep pharyngitis?
typical: fever, sore throat, pharyngeal erythema, tonsillar exudate, scarlatiniform rash

atypical: cough, coryza, hoarseness, rhinorrhea
what size PPD induration should be interpreted as a positive test?
>5mm in HIV, close TB contacts, or with CXR evidence

>10mm in health care workers, homeless, residents of developing nations, IV drug use, chronic illness, healthcare/prison residents

>15 in everyone else
What are Centor criteria?

How many required?
diagnostic criteria for Strep. pharyngitis:

fever
tonsillar exudate
tender anterior lymphadenopathy
lack of cough

3 of 4 required for Dx
what is the management of peritonsillar abscess?
culture abscess fluid
localize via intraoral ultrasound or CT
abx + surgical drainage
what is Lemierre's syndrome?
thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein due to Fusobacterium (oral anaerobe)

a rare complication of suppurative pharyngitis
duration and causes of acute v. chronic sinusitis
acute, Sx <1 month: viruses!; bacteria rare w/ Sx <1 week and include S. pneumo, H. flu, M. catarrhalis

chronic, Sx >3 months: inflammatory process. may be due to obstruction or drainage; consider mucormycosis in diabetics
how is sinusitis diagnosed?
clinically (but "gold standard" is bacterial culture by sinus tap)

CT only indicated if Sx persist after treatment; MRI useful to distinguish soft tissue v. mucus
abx for acute sinusitis?
10 days of one of:
augmentin/clavulanate
TMP/SMX
macrolides
fluoroquinolone
2nd-gen cephalosporin
adjuvant therapy (in addition to abx) for chronic sinusitis?
intranasal steroids
decongestants
antihistamines

surgical intervention may be necessary
what patients at increased risk for coccidioidomycosis?
HIV+
Filipino
African-American
pregnant
(from Southwest US with respiratory infection)
what is Tx of acute coccidioidomycosis?
IV amphotericin B (rarely necessary, indicated for severe or protracted primary pulmonary infxn for disseminated disease)

continue Tx with PO -azole once patient is stable
what is common laboratory finding of influenza viral infection?

how may this disease present in elderly?
leukopenia

with confusion only
when must antivirals be given to be effective in treatment of influenza viral infections?
within 2 days of onset
what medication should be avoided in children with viral infections?
ASA; may lead to Reye's syndrome/fatty liver encephalopathy
What pathogens cause meningitis in neonates?
GBS
E. coli
Listeria
What pathogens cause meningitis in children 6mo-6y?
S. pneumo
Neisseria meningitidis
H. influenza type B
enteroviruses
What pathogens cause meningitis in adults to age 60?
Neisseria meningitidis
enteroviruses
S. pneumo
HSV
What pathogens cause meningitis in the elderly (>60y)?
S. pneumo
GNRs
Listeria
Neisseria meningitidis
What pathogens cause meningitis in HIV+ patients?
Cryptococcus
CMV
HSV
VZV
TB
toxoplasmosis (w/ brain abscess)
JC virus
What are significant CSF findings in bacterial meningitis?
increased WBCs (PMNs), protein, opening pressure

decreased glucose

cloudy!
What are significant CSF findings in viral meningitis?
increased WBCs (monos/lymphs)

possible increased protein and opening pressure

normal glucose

often clear appearance
What are significant CSF findings in aseptic meningitis?
increased WBCs

normal or increased protein

normal glucose

clear appearance
What are significant CSF findings in subarachnoid hemorrhage?
increased RBCs, WBCs, protein

yellow or red appearance
What are significant CSF findings in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
markedly increased protein

clear or yellow appearance (due to high protein)
What are significant CSF findings in multiple sclerosis?
possibly increased RBCs

markedly increased gamma globulins

clear appearance
What are significant CSF findings in pseudotumor cerebri?
markedly increased opening pressure

otherwise normal
give the empiric treatment of bacterial meningitis for the following age groups:

<1 months
1-3 months
3 months-adult
>60 years/alcoholic/chronic illness
<1 months: amp + cefotaxime/gent

1-3 months: IV vanco + ceftriaxone/cefotaxime

3 months-adult: IV vanco + ceftriaxone/cefotaxime

>60 years/alcoholic/chronic illness: amp + vanco + cefotaxime/ceftriaxone
what medication may be useful if given before abx in the treatment of bacterial meningitis?

what medication may be used for prophylaxis for close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis?
dexamethasone (15-20 min before abx)

rifampin
what is the presentation of cerebral edema complicating meningitis?

how is it treated?
loss of vestibulo-ocular reflex

IV mannitol
what is the presentation of subdural effusion complicating meningitis?

how is it treated?
found on CT scan; occurs in 50% of infants with H. flu meningitis

no Tx necessary
what is the presentation of ventriculitis/hydrocephalus complicating meningitis?

how is it treated?
worsening clinical picture with improved CSF findings

ventriculostomy, may require IV abx
what is the treatment of seizures complicating meningitis?
benzos
phenytoin
what intervention for meningitis complicated by seizures not responsive to benzos and phenytoin?
intractable seizures indicate subdural empyema; requires surgical evacuation
what are the most common causes of encephalitis?

what is the clinical presentation?
HSV
arboviruses

altered consciousness
headache
fever
seizures
CSF showing RBCs without evidence of trauma indicates what?
HSV encephalitis
what MRI finding suggests HSV encephalitis?
contrast-enhancing lesion in the temporal lobe
what is the Tx of HSV encephalitis?

what is the Tx of CMV encephalitis?

what is the Tx of Borrelia/Rickettsia encephalitis?
immediate IV acyclovir

gancyclovir +/- foscarnet

doxycycline
how are pathogens resulting in brain abscesses transmitted?
direct spread from paranasal sinusitis (10%), otitis media/mastoiditis (33%), dental infection (2%)

direct inoculation (head trauma, neurosurgery)

hematogenous spread (25%), often showing MCA distribution with multiple abscesses at gray-white junction
what cranial nerves are primarily affected by increased ICP?
CN III
CN VI
what is Dx of brain abscess?
CT showing ring-enhancing lesion

CSF not necessary! may cause herniation syndrome!

labs show peripheral leukocytosis, increased ESR and CRP
what brain abscesses must be treated surgically?

what follow-up is required?
those >2cm

serial imaging to demonstrate resolution
what immune marker initially spikes, then decreases and persists at low levels following HIV infection?
virus p24 antigen

anti-p24 and anti-gp120 antibodies steadily rise 1-2 months following infection and persist at high levels
give the opportunistic infections associated with the CD4 count:

~500
<200
<50
~500: TB, HSV, herpes zoster, vaginal candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, Kaposi sarcoma

<200: PCP, toxo, crypto, coccidio, cryptosporidiosis

<50: disseminated MAC, histo, CMV retinitis, CNS lymphoma
what evaluation should be ordered for suspected acute retroviral syndrome (acute HIV infection)?
HIV RNA PCR

Elisa may be negative
What are the major AIDS pathogens?
"The Major Pathogens Concerning Complete T Cell Collapse"

Toxo
MAC
PCP
Candida
Crypto
TB
CMV
Cryptosporidium
what is the peripartum treatment of HIV+ pregnant women not on antiretroviral therapy?
AZT (avoid efavirenz in pregnant women)

infants should receive AZT for six weeks after birth
Give the microscopic appearance of the following:

Candida
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Candida: pseudohyphae + budding yeasts

Aspergillus: 45 degree angle branching septate hyphae

Cryptococcus: 5-10 micron yeasts with capsular wide halo; narrow-based unequal budding

Mucor: irregular broad, non-septate hyphae; wide-angle branching
what are risk factors for Cryptococcus infection?
AIDS
exposure to pigeon droppings
what are risk factors for histoplasmosis?
AIDS
spelunking
bird or bat droppings

especially in Ohio and Mississippi river valleys
what test is used for Dx, therapeutic monitoring, and relapse Dx in histoplasmosis?
urine and serum polysaccharide antigen test
what are acute and maintenance treatments for severe histoplasmosis?
acute: amphotericin B

maintenance: itraconazole

itraconazole for >1 year in chronic cavitary lesions
what is treatment of PCP in AIDS patients?
high-dose TMP/SMX x 21 days

clindamycin + primaquine if sulfa allergy

prednisone taper in patients with PaO2 <70 mmHg or A-a gradient >35
modes of transmission for CMV

what % of US adults have been infected with CMV?
sexual contact
breast milk
respiratory droplets
blood transfusions

~70%, reactivation generally in immunocompromised patients
what features suggest CMV encephalitis?
CD4 count <50

periventricular calficiations
what patients develop the following Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections:

primary
secondary
disseminated
primary: apparently healthy non-smokers (Lady Windermere syndrome)

secondary: patients with pre-existing pulmonary disease e.g. COPD, TB, CF

disseminated: AIDS patients with CD4 count <50
what are lab findings in MAC infection?
+ blood cultures in 2-3 weeks post-infection

increased serum alk phos and LDH!
anemia
hypoalbuminemia
what does BM, intestine, or liver biopsy reveal in MAC infection?
foamy macrophages with acid-fast bacilli
what is the treatment of MAC infection?
clarithromycin and ethambutol

+/- rifabutin and HAART
risk factors for toxoplasmosis
raw or undercooked meat
changing cat litter

exposure is highest in France
what neural structures are commonly affected in toxoplasmosis?
basal ganglia
how is toxoplasmosis diagnosed?
serology, PCR, histology

if CNS involvement CT scan showing multiple iso-/hypodense ring-enhancing mass lesions

MRI may show basal ganglia involvement
what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?
PO pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, leukovorin
how does sexually transmitted Chlamydia infection present?
often asymptomatic; may present with urethritis, mucopurulent cervicitis, or PID
what is lymhogranuloma venereum?

how does it present?
an emerging cause of proctocolitis and Chlamydia serovar

primary: painless, transient papule or shallow ulcer
secondary: painful swelling of inguinal nodes
tertiary: "anogenital syndrome" of anal pruritus with discharge, rectal strictures, rectovaginal fistula, elephantiasis
what does Gram stain of urethral or genital discharge show in Chlamydia?
PMNs but no bacteria (since Chlamydia is intracellular)
what is Tx of sexually-acquired Chlamydia infection?
doxy x 7 days or azithromycin x 1 day

erythromycin in pregnant patients

treat sexual partners and maintain low threshold to treat for N. gonorrhoeae!
what are potential complications of Chlamydia STI?
PID (with potential ectopic pregnancy/infertility in women)
Reiter's syndrome (urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis)
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (perihepatic inflammation and fibrosis)
epididymitis in men
what is the treatment of gonorrhea?
1 dose of ceftriaxone IM or cefepime PO

disseminated disease requires at least 24 hours of IV ceftriaxone
what is the presentation of syphilis?
primary (up to 3 months post-infection): painless ulcer (chancre)

secondary (1-2 months post-chancre): generalized illness with diffuse, symmetric, non-pruritic maculopapular rash on palms and soles; mucous patches or condylomata lata are highly infectious

serology may become negative in the late latent period, which is beyond the first year of infection

tertiary (1-20 years after infection): gummas, tabes dorsalis (posterior column degeneration), meningitis, Argyll Robertson pupils (constrict with accommodation but don't react to light); aortic pathology including aortic root aneurysms
what can cause a false positive VDRL result?
"VDRL"

Viruses
Drugs (IV drug use)
Rheumatic fever/Rheumatoid arthritis
Lupus/Leprosy
diagnostic tests for syphilis
dark-field microscopy (motile spirochetes in primary and secondary disease)

VDRL/RPR (rapid, inexpensive, ~70% sensitive in primary disease; many false positives)

FTA-ABS (secondary Dx test)

T. pallidum particle agglutination test (TPPA): easier than FTA-ABS; becoming secondary test of choice
what is the time course of syphilis progression in AIDS patients?
may be greatly accelerated; rule out neurosyphilis in any AIDS patient with neurologic Sx and +RPR
which STIs have painful genital lesions?
chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)
herpes (HSV1 or HSV2)

Klebsiella granulomatis, HPV, and syphilis have painless lesions
what is the treatment for uncomplicated UTI?

for complicated UTI?

in pregnancy?
uncomplicated: 3 days of TMP-SMX or fluoroquinolone OR 7 days of nitrofurantoin

complicated: same as above, but longer duration (7-14 days)

pregnancy: avoid fluoroquinolones! use nitrofurantoin or cephalosporin x3-7 days
what UA finding differentiates pyelonephritis from cystitis/lower UTI?
WBC casts
what is first-line therapy for pyelonephritis?
fluoroquinolones
sepsis v. severe sepsis v. septic shock
sepsis: SIRS + documented infection

severe sepsis: sepsis with end-organ dysfxn due to poor perfusion

septic shock: sepsis with HoTN and organ dysfxn from vasodilation
SIRS criteria
1. <36 or >38 degrees C

2. tachypnea >20 bpm or PaCO2 <32 mmHg

3. tachycardia (actually, HR >90)

4. leukocytosis or leukopenia: WBCs <4000/mm3 or >12000/mm3
clinical presentation of malaria
periodic chills, fever, diaphoresis every 2-3 days

asymptomatic between attacks
Dx of malaria
Giemsa- or Wright-stained thick and thin blood films

determines Plasmodium strain and degree of parasitemia
Tx of malaria
chloroquine

quinine with clindamycin or doxycycline for resistant strains

primaquine must be added for P. vivax and P. ovale to eradicate hepatic hypnozoites
potential complications of malaria
cerebral involvement --> coma

severe hemolytic anemia

ATN --> renal failure ("blackwater fever" of massive hemoglobinuria)

noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
dysrhythmias,diarrhea, DIC
presentation of infectious mononucleosis
fever, pharyngitis, fatigue
lymphadenopathy (esp. posterior cervical)
bilateral upper eyelid edema
consequence of ampicillin administration during acute EBV infection
prolonged, pruritic, drug-related maculopapular rash
Dx of infectious mononucleosis
heterophil antibody (Monospot test)

may be negative in first weeks after Sx onset
CBC of infectious mononucleosis
mild thrombocytopenia
lymphocytosis
>10% atypical T lymphocytes
Tx of infectious mononucleosis
supportive

corticosteroids for:
airway obstruction due to tonsillar enlargement
severe thrombocytopenia
severe AIHA
complications of infectious mononucleosis
CNS infection
splenic rupture
upper airway obstruction
bacterial superinfection (Strep. pharyngitis)
fulminant hepatic necrosis (MCC of death in affected males)
AIHA (Coombs+)
fever of unknown origin: major etiologies
infections and cancer (>60%)
autoimmune (15%; rheumatic disease is 1/3 of cases in the elderly)
presentation of neutropenic fever
38.3C or above in patient with ANC <500/mm3

common in cancer patients 7-10 days post-chemotherapy
physical exam maneuver to avoid in neutropenic fever
digital rectal exam (bleeding risk if patient is thrombocytopenic)
DDx of fever and rash
"Tiny GERMS"

Typhoid fever
Gonococcemia
Endocarditis
Rocky mountain spotted fever
Meningococcemia
Sepsis (bacterial)
Tx of Lyme disease
primary (early localized): doxycycline

secondary (Bell's palsy, heart block) and tertiary (arthritis, subacute encephalitis): ceftriaxone
name the vector:

Lyme disease

Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Ixodes (deer, mice)

Dermacentor (dogs)
presentation of Rocky Mountain spotted fever
headache, fever, malaise

peripheral macular rash that becomes petechial, purpuric, and central
Tx of Rocky Mountain spotted fever
doxycycline

chloramphenicol for resistant organisms
common anatomic origin of microbe/infection causing orbital cellulitis
paranasal sinuses
usual microbes of orbital cellulitis

microbes in diabetic and immunocompromised patients
Strep
Staph (including MRSA)
H. influenzae

Mucor
Rhizopus
presentation of orbital cellulitis

what findings suggestive of Mucor or Rhizopus?
Hx of ocular trauma or sinusitis
acute-onset fever
proptosis
decreased EOM

palatal/nasal mucosal ulceration with coexisting maxillary/ethmoid sinusitis
Dx of orbital cellulitis

management of orbital cellulitis
blood/tissue fluid culture
CT to r/o orbital abscess and intracranial involvement

admission --> IV abx
amphotericin B and debridement if Mucor or Rhizopus Dx'd (diabetics, immunocompromised)
potential complication of surgical debridement of orbital cellulitis in diabetic and immunocompromised patients?
cavernous sinus thrombosis
most common pathogen in infectious conjunctivitis

other pathogens
adenovirus

Staph
Strep
Haemophilus
Pseudomonas
Moraxella

N. gonorrhoeae
C. trachomatis
management of infectious conjunctivitis
depends on pathogen

adenovirus: self-limited; topical corticosteroids with ophthalmologist if needed

Staph, Strep, etc.: abx drops/ointment

N. gonorrhoeae: emergency! IM ceftriaxone, PO cipro or ofloxacin (admit if complicated!)

Chlamydia: azithromycin, tetracycline, erythromycin x3-4 weeks
most common agents of otitis externa
Pseudomonas
Enterobacteriaceae
distinguishing exam finding in otitis externa v. otitis media?
otitis externa: pain with movement of tragus/pinna; edematous and erythematous ear canal
Tx of otitis externa
abx and steroid ear drops

systemic abx if severe disease; diabetics at risk for osteomyelitis of skull base (admit --> IV abx)
presentation of endocarditis
"JR = NO FAME"

Janeway lesions
Roth's spots
Nail-bed (splinter) hemorrhage
Osler's nodes
Fever
Anemia
Murmur
Emboli
infective endocarditis: give correlated clinical setting for below pathogens

S. aureus

Viridans strep

coag-neg Staph

Strep bovis

Candida, Aspergillus
S. aureus: acute bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users

Viridans strep: L-sided subacute bacterial endocarditis

coag-neg Staph: prosthetic valve endocarditis

Strep bovis: endocarditis with coexisting GI malignancy

Candida, Aspergillus: AIDS, malignancy, indwelling catheters, organ transplantation, IV drug use
describe each:

Janeway lesions

splinter hemorrhages

Roth's spots

Osler's nodes
small peripheral hemorrhages

subungual petechiae

retinal hemorrhages

small, tender nodules on finger and toe pads
Tx of suspected infective endocarditis
early empiric IV abx: vancomycin or nafcillin+gentamicin
indications for surgery in endocarditis
"PUS RIVER"

Prosthetic valve endocarditis
Uncontrolled Infxn
Suppurative complications w/ conduction abnormalities

Resection of mycotic aneurysm
Ineffective antimicrobial therapy (fungi)
Valvular damage (significant)
Embolization (repeated systemic)
Refractory CHF (or sudden onset)
sources of B. anthracis
hazard for vets and farmers:

animal wool, hair, hides, or bone meal products
forms and presentation of anthrax
cutaneous: pruritic papule enlarging to form ulcer with round, regular, raised edge --> black eschar within 10 days; regional lymphadenopathy

inhalational: pneumonia Sx due to hemorrhagic mediastinitis

GI (poorly cooked, contaminated meat!): dysphagia, n/v, bloody diarrhea, abd pain
Tx of anthrax
inhalational: cipro or doxy + 1-2 additional for 14 days

cutaneous: same, with 60 days of post-exposure cipro prophylaxis to prevent inhalation
anatomic origin of bug in osteomyelitis
direct spread from soft tissue infection (80%)

hematogenous seeding (20%)

hematogenous seeding more common in children at metaphyses of long bones; IV drug users in vertebral bodies
labs in osteomyelitis

imaging in osteomyelitis
increased WBCs, ESR, CRP

X-ray initially negative but shows periosteal elevation within 10-14 days; MRI shows increased signal in BM and associated soft tissue infxn
give causative pathogen for osteomyelitis in following groups:

most people:
IV drug users:
sickle cell dz:
hip replacement:
foot puncture wound:
chronic:
diabetic:
most people: S. aureus

IV drug users: S. aureus, Pseudomonas

sickle cell dz: Salmonella

hip replacement: Staph epidermidis

foot puncture wound: Pseudomonas

chronic: S. aureus, Pseudomonas, Enterobacteriaceae

diabetic: polymicrobial, Pseudomonas, S. aureus, Strep, anaerobes
Tx of osteomyelitis
surgical debridement of necrotic, infected bone followed by 4-6 weeks of IV abx

diabetics should receive abx for Gram+ and anaerobes
complications of osteomyelitis
chronic infection, sepsis, septic arthritis

long-standing dz with draining tract may lead to squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin's ulcer)