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36 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Describe determination of ECG axis.
normal (-30 to +105): positive QRS in leads I, II

left-axis deviation (<-30): positive QRS in I, negative QRS in II

right-axis deviation (>+105): negative QRS in I, positive QRS in II
Distinguish ECG characteristics of AV block, LBBB, RBBB.
AV block: PR >200 msec, or P with no QRS

LBBB: QRS >120 msec, no R wave in V1, wide and tall R waves in I, V5, V6

RBBB: QRS >120 msec, RSR' complex (rabbit ears), wide S in I, V5, V6
ECG changes with ischemia

ECG changes with infarction (transmural)
ischemia: inverted T waves, poor pre-cordial R-wave progression, ST-segment elev/depr

infarction (transmural): Q wave higher/longer, ST elevation, T-wave inversion
What is an elevated JVD?

What leads to elevated JVD?
>7 cm above sternal angle

R heart failure
pulmonary HTN
volume overload
tricuspid regurgitation
pericardial disease
What is Kussmaul's sign?
increased JVP with inspiration

signifies RV infarction, postoperative cardiac tamponade, tricuspid regurg, constrictive pericarditis
What is signified by hepatojugular reflux?
fluid overload
impaire RV compliance
Describe the following systolic murmurs:

1. aortic stenosis
2. mitral regurgitation
3. mitral valve prolapse
4. flow murmur
1. harsh systolic ejection murmur, radiation to carotids
2. holosystolic murmur, radiation to axillae or carotids
3. midsystolic or late-systolic click
4. does not imply cardiac disease
Describe the following diastolic murmurs:

1. aortic regurgitation
2. mitral stenosis
1. early decrescendo
2. mid to late, low-pitched murmur
causes of peripheral edema (10)
R heart failure
bi-ventricular failure
peripheral venous disease
constrictive pericarditis
tricuspid regurgitation
hepatic disease
lymphedema
nephrotic syndrome
hypoalbuminemia
drugs
increased peripheral pulses in what conditions?
compensated aortic regurg
coarcation (arms > legs)
PDA
Define pulsus paradoxus.

What is the DDx for pulsus paradoxus?
decreased systolic BP with inspiration

pericardial tamponade
asthma or COPD
tension pneumothorax
foreign body in airway
What is the DDx for pulsus alternans (alternating weak and strong pulse)?
cardiac tamponade
impaired LV systolic function

(poor prognosis)
What condition is implied by pulsus parvus et tardus (weak and late)?
aortic stenosis
What is the management of atrial fibrillation?
"A, B, C, D"

Anticoagulate
Beta-blockers to control rate
Cardiovert/Ca2+-channel blockers
Digoxin
Give the ECG findings for each type of bradyarrythmia/conduction abnormality:

1. sinus brady
2. 1st degree AV block
3. 2nd degree, Mobitz I
4. 2nd degree, Mobitz II
5. 3rd degree (complete)
6. sick sinus syndrome/tachy-brady
1. rate <60, normal P before every QRS
2. PR >200 msec
3. progressive PR lengthening until dropped beat
4. unexpected dropped beats without change in interval
5. no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes
6. intermittent SV tachy and brady
Give the Tx for each type of bradyarrythmia/conduction abnormality:

1. sinus brady
2. 1st degree AV block
3. 2nd degree, Mobitz I
4. 2nd degree, Mobitz II
5. 3rd degree (complete)
6. sick sinus syndrome/tachy-brady
1. none if no Sx (atropine or pacemaker if Sx)
2. none
3. stop drug (atropine or pacemaker as indicated)
4. pacemaker
5. pacemaker
6. pacemaker (most common indication)
Give the ECG findings for each type of atrial tachyarrhythmia:

1. sinus tachy
2. atrial fib
3. atrial flutter
4. multifocal atrial tachycardia
1. >100, normal P waves before every QRS
2. no discernible P waves, variable QRS response
3. sawtooth P waves
4. three or more P wave morphologies; rate >100
Give the Tx for each type of atrial tachyarrhythmia:

1. sinus tachy
2. atrial fib
3. atrial flutter
4. multifocal atrial tachycardia
1. treat underlying cause
2. anticoagulate if old, cardiovert if new i.e. <48 hours (use CHAD2 to estimate stroke score)
3. anticoagulation and rate control, cardiovert accordingly
4. treat underlying disorder; verapamil or beta-blockers for rate
Give the ECG findings for each type of AV junction tachyarrhythmia:

1. AV nodal re-entry tachycardia
2. AV reciprocating tachy (WPW syndrome)
3. Paroxysmal atrial tachy
4. PVC
5. V tach
6. V fib
7. torsades de pointes
1. 150-250; P waves buried in QRS
2. retrograde P wave after QRS
3. rate >100; P wave with unusual axis before each normal QRS
4. early, wide QRS not preceded by P wave
5. three or more consecutive PVS, wide, regular, rapid QRS
6. totally erratic, wide complex
7. polymorphous QRS; VT @ 150-250
Give the Tx for each type of AV junction tachyarrhythmia:

1. AV nodal re-entry tachycardia
2. AV reciprocating tachy (WPW syndrome)
3. Paroxysmal atrial tachy
4. PVC
5. V tach
6. V fib
7. torsades de pointes
1. carotid massage, Valsalva, adenosine (cardiovert if unstable)
2. same as #1
3. adenosine for temporary AV block helps unmask underlying atrial activity
4. treat underlying cause; beta-blockers for Sx
5. cardioversion + amiodarone, lidocaine, or procainamide
6. immediate cardioversion and ACLS protocol
7. correct hypokalemia/withdraw offending drug; give Mg initially and cardiovert if unstable
features of L-sided heart failure
Left-sided CHF: dyspnea predominates!

L S3/S4
bilateral basilar rales
pleural effusions
pulmonary edema
orthopnea
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnear
features of R-sided heart failure
Right-sided CHF: fluid retention predominates!

R S3/S4
JVD
hepatojugular reflex
peripheral edema
hepatomegaly, ascites
What is the treatment for different stages of heart failure?
Stage A. manage risk factors (HTN, smoking, lipids, obesity, exercise, alcohol); ACE-Is for vascular disease, DM, or HTN

Stage B: ACE-Is, beta-blockers

Stage C: diuretics, ACE-Is, beta-blockers, digitalis, dietary Na+ restriction

Stage D: assist devices, xplant, continuous IV inotropes, hospice
What is the Tx for acute pulmonary congestion due to CHF?
"LMNOP"

Lasix
Morphine
Nitrates
Oxygen
Position (upright)
For each class of diuretic, give mechanism of action:
1. loop
2. thiazide
3. K+-sparing
4. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
5. osmotic agents
1. decrease Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in loop of Henle; decrease urine concentration; increase Ca2+ excretion

2. decrease NaCl absorption in early distal tubule leading to decreased dilution

3. spironolactone: aldosterone antagonist; triamterene and amiloride block Na channels

4. bicarbonate diuresis decreases total body bicarb

5. increases tubular osmolarity, leading to increased urine flow
For each class of diuretic, give side effects:

1. loop
2. thiazide
3. K+-sparing
4. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
5. osmotic agents
1. ototoxicity, hypo-K+, hypo-Ca2+, dehydration, gout

2. hypo-K+ metabol acidosis, hypo-Na+, hyper-(glucose, lipids, urea, Ca2+)

3. hyper-K+, gynecomastia, hirsutism, sexual dysfunction

4. hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, neuropathy, NH3 toxicity, sulfa allergy

5. pulmonary edema, dehydration (contraindicated in anuria and CHF)
dilated cardiomyopathy: causes
idiopathic
ischemia
long-standing HTN
alcohol
myocarditis
postpartum status
drugs (doxorubicin, AZT, cocaine)
endocrinopathies
infection
wet beriberi
dilated cardiomyopathy: Dx
echo

CXR shows enlarged heart and pulmonary congestion
dilated cardiomyopathy: Tx
treat underlying cause
ACE-Is, beta-blockers, aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone)
consider ICD if EF <35%

treat CHF Sx with diuretics
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: causes
50% AD inheritance in congenital form
HTN
aortic stenosis
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: Dx
echo shows asymmetrically thickened LV wall and dynamic blood flow obstruction
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: Tx
beta-blockers initially

then CCBs
restrictive cardiomyopathy: causes
decreased elasticity of myocardium due to:

infiltrative diseases (amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis)

scarring/fibrosis (secondary to radiation or doxorubicin)
restrictive cardiomyopathy: Dx
echo shows rapid early filling with normal or near-normal EF
restrictive cardiomyopathy: Tx
limited, palliatve (vasodilators and anticoagulation if not contraindicated)
Describe Prinzmetal's (variant) angina
mimics angina pectoris, but caused by vasospasm of coronary vessels

clasically affects young women at rest in the early morning; associated with ST-elevation with NO cardiac enzyme elevation