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227 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Name the three thenar muscles.
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Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis
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Name the three hypothenar muscles.
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Opponens digiti minimi, Abductor digiti minimi, Flexor digiti minimi
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What functions do the thenar and hypothenar muscles perform?
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Oppose, Abduct, and Flex (OAF)
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Action of the Dorsal interosseous muscles?
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ABduct the fingers (DAB)
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Action of the Palmar interosseous muscles?
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ADduct the fingers (PAD)
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Action of the lumbrical muscles of the hand?
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Flex at the MP joint
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An anterior hip dislocation may injure what nerve, and what would be the motor and sensory deficits?
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Obturator nn, thigh adduction (motor), medial thigh (sensory)
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A pelvic fracture may injure what nerve, and what would be the motor and sensory deficits?
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Femoral nn, thigh flexion and leg extension (motor), anterior thigh and medial leg (sensory)
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Trauma to the lateral aspect of leg or a fibula neck fracture may injure what nerve, and what would be the motor and sensory deficits?
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Common peroneal nn, foot eversion and dorsiflexion, toe extension (motor), anterolateral leg and dorsal aspect of foot (sensory)
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Trauma to the knee may injure what nerve, and what would be the motor and sensory deficits?
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Tibial nn, foot inversion and plantarflexion, toe flexion (motor), sole of foot (sensory)
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Posterior hip dislocation or polio may injure what nerve, and what would be the motor deficit?
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Superior gluteal nn, Thigh ABduction (positive Trendelenburg sign)
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Posterior hip dislocation may injure what nerve, and what would be the motor deficit?
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Inferior gluteal nn, Can't jump, climb stairs, or rise from seated position
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Useful mnemonic for peroneal nn PED
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Peroneal Everts and Dorsiflexes, if injured, foot dropPED
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Useful mnemonic for tibial nn TIP
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Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes, if injured, can't stand on TIPtoes
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What type of channel is opened following action potential depolarization in muscle contraction leading to neurotransmitter release
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voltage-gated Ca 2+ channel
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What structure in the skeletal muscle cell carries the depolarization from the cell membrane into the cell interior?
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T-tubule (extensive tubular network)
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Ca 2+ released from sarcoplasmic reticulum in a skeletal muscle cell binds to this compound, causing a conformational change that moves tropomyosin out of the myosin-binding groove on actin filaments:
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troponin C
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What happens to myosin during the power stroke of skeletal mm contraction?
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Myosinattaches to a new site on the actin filament and releases bound ADP.
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Which bands in a myofiber shorten during contraction, and which remain the same length?
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H and I bands shorten, A band remains the same length. A is Always the same length
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What are the characteristics of type 1 muscle fibers?
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slow twitch, red fibers (due to mitochondria and myoglobin), high oxidative phosphorylation
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What are the characteristics of type 2 muscle fibers?
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fast twitch, white fibers, high capacity for anaerobic glycolysis
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On a molecular level, what causes rigor mortis?
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A lack of ATP
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How does smooth mm contraction differ than skeletal mm contraction?
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There is no troponin C, myosin light chain kinase is activated by Ca2+-calmodulin complex and it phosphorylates myosin, allowing it to bind to actin and for contraction to occur.
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Endochondral ossification is responsible for which type of bone growth?
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Longitudinal, cartilaginous model later replaced by bone.
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What is the origin of osteoblasts?
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mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum
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Membranous ossification is responsible for which type of bone growth?
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Flat bones (skull, face, axial skeleton), woven bone formed directly, later remodeled to lamellar
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What is the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia?
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Auto-dominant, associated with advanced paternal age, FGFR3 mutation leads to impaired cartilage maturation.
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Which type of bone growth is affected in achondroplasia?
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Longitudinal, short limbs result
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What is the cause of Type I osteoporosis?
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increased bone resorption d/t decreased estrogen levels in postmenopausal women
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What types of fractures are characteristic of osteoporosis?
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Distal radius (Colle's), and vertebral wedge fractures
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What are some pharmacologic treatments for osteoporosis?
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Estrogen, calcitonin, bisphosphonates, pulsatile PTH for severe cases
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What is the etiology of osteopetrosis?
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Abnormal fxn of osteoclasts leading to railure of normal bone resorption and thickened dense bones. Genetic deficiency of carbonic anhydrase II.
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What are the diagnostic findings in osteopetrosis?
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Normal levels of serum Ca2+, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP), X-ray Erlenmeyer flask bones that flare out.
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What are some complications of osteopetrosis?
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Cranial nn impingement and palsies d/t narrowed foramina.
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What diseases result from Vitamin D deficiency?
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Osteomalacia in adults, Rickets in children.
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What would the serum values for Ca2+, PTH, and phosphate be in a patient with severe Vitamin D deficiency?
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Low Ca2+, high PTH, low phosphate
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What is the cause of osteitis fibrosa cystica, and what are the characteristic findings?
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Hyperparathyroidism. Brown tumors (cystic spaces lined by osteoclasts). High serum Ca2+, low serum phosphate, high ALP and high PTH.
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What is the defect in Paget's disease?
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Abnormal bone remodeling caused by increased in both osteoclastic and -blastic activity. Mosaic bone pattern.
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What are serum values for Ca2+, phosphorus, PTH, and ALP in Paget's disease?
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normal: Ca2+, phosphorus, PTH High: ALP
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What are some complications of Paget's disease?
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A-V shunts may lead to CHF, osteosarcoma, hearing loss d/t foramen narrowing
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What two bone disorders have normal lab values for serum Ca2+, Phosphate, ALP, and PTH?
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Osteoporosis and osteopetrosis
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What disease is characterized by the replacement of bone with fibroblasts, collage, and irregular bony trabeculae?
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Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
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What syndrome is characterized by multiple unilateral bone lesions associated with endocrine abnormalities (precisious puberty) and unilateral pigmented skin lesions?
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Mc-Cune-Albright syndrome (a form of Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia)
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what is Polymyalgia Rheumatica associated with?
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Temporal (giant cell) Arteritis
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what is Polymyositis? What Ab is involved?
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muscle weakness from CD8+ T-cell induced injury. Anti-Jo-1
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Myathenia Gravis
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symptoms worsen with muscle use; reversed with AChE inhibitors
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Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
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symptoms improve with muscle use; no reversal with AChE inhibitors
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what is the syndrome for Scleroderma?
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CREST: Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia (anticentromere Ab)
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what is the most common soft tissue tumor of childhood?
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Rhabdomyosarcoma
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flat discoloration < 1 cm?
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Macule
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Macule > 1 cm?
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Patch
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Elevated skin lesion < 1cm?
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Papule
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papule >1cm?
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Plaque
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small fluid containing blister?
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Vesicle
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Large fluid containing blister?
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Bulla
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Transient vesicle?
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Wheal
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Blister containing pus?
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Pustule
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what is Acantholysis?
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Seperation of epidermal cells?
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Skin disorder with warts?
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Verruae
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Skin disorder with hives?
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Urticaria
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what is Psoriasis?
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Papules and plaques with silver scaling, esp on knees and elbows
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what is Auspitz sign?
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Bleeding spots when scales are scraped off (Psoriasis)
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What skin disorder has squamous epithelial proliferation eith keratin-filled cysts and pasted on appearance?
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Seborrheic Keratosis
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what is Albinism?
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Normal melanocytes with dec. melanin production
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what is Vitiligo?
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Irregular areas of depigmentation from dec. melanocytes
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what skin disorder has honey-colored crusting?
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Impetigo
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what skin dosorder is caused by flesh-eating bacteria?
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Necrotizing Faciitis
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what is Bullous Pemphigoid?
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Autoimmune disorder w/ IgG against BM; non-fatal, no oral involvment
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what is Pemphigus Vulgaris?
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Autoimmune disorder w/ IgG against desmosomes; fatal; acantholysis; oral involvment
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what is Dermatitis Herpetiformis associated with?
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Celiac Dz
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what usually causes Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
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Adverse drug reactions
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what is Lichen Planus? (4 p's)
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Pruitic, Purple, Polygonal Papules
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what does Squamous Cell Carcinoma look like on histology?
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Keratin pearls
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what does Basal Cell Carcinoma look like grossly?
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Pearly papules
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what determines the risk of Melenoma metastasis?
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Depth of tumor
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what does the Lipoxygenase pathway yield?
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Leukotrienes
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what drug inhibits 5-LOX and the synthesis of Leukotrienes?
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Zileuton
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what drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist?
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Zarfirlukast
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what is the effect of PGI2 on platlet aggregation and vasodilation?
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inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation
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what is the mechanism of Aspirin?
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Irreversible acetylation of COX-1 and COX-2
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what is the mechansim of NSAIDs?
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reversibly inhibit COX-1 and COX-2; block prostaglandin synthesis
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what is Indomethicin used for?
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To close a PDA.
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what is the mechanism of Celecoxib?
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Reversibly inhibit specifically COX-2 (mediates inflammation and pain); spare COX-1 (maintains gastric mucosa)
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what is the mechanism of Acetaminophen?
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Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, mostly in CNS (inactivated peripherally)
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what is the antidote for Acetaminophen overdose?
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N-acetylcysteine-regenerated glutathione
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Drug used for acute gout attacks that acts by depolymerizing leukocyte microtubules.
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Colchicine
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Action of Prebenicid in treating chronic gout
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Blocks the OAT transporter in the PCT inhibiting reabsorption of uric acid
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Action of Allopurinol in treating chronic gout
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Inhibits xanthine oxidase, blocking uric acid production
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How do salicylates affect gout excretion?
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Low doses compete for secretion (decreasing uric acid excretion), High doses compete for secretion and reabsorption (increasing uric acid excretion)
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Mechanism and use of etanercept?
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Soluble TNF-a receptor used for rhematoid arthritis and psoriasis
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Mechanism and use of Infliximab?
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anti-TNF antibody used for Crohn's disease and rheumatoid arthritis
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What syndrome are osteomas associated with?
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Gardner's syndrome (FAP)
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What is the definition of an osteoma?
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new piece of bone grows on another piece of bone, often in the skull
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Where and in what demographic group are osteoid osteomas found?
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proximal tibia and femur. Most common in men <25 years
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How is an osteoblastoma different than a osteoid osteoma?
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an osteoblastoma is morphologically similar, but is larger and found in the vertebral column
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Where and in what demographic group are giant cell tumors (osteoclastoma) found?
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at the epiphyseal of long bones, usually a aggressive benign tumor at the distal femur and proximal tibia. Most commen in people 20-40 years
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What is seen on x-ray with giant cell tumors (osteoclastoma)?
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double bubble or soap bubble appearance
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What is the most common benign bone tumor?
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osteochondroma
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Where does the most common benign bone tumor originate?
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Osteochondromas originate in long bone metaphysis, usually in men <25 years
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What is the most common malignant tumor of the bone?
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multiple myeloma
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What is the 2nd most common malignant tumor of the bone?
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osteosarcoma
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What is seen on x-ray in the 2nd most common malignant tumor of the bone?
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Codman's Triangle/sunburst appearance from elevation of the periosteum
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What is the peak demographic for osteosarcoma?
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men 10-20 years
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Where is osteosarcoma located?
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Metaphysis of long bones, often around distal femur, proximal tibia
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What are 4 predisposing factors for osteosarcoma?
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Paget's disease of bone, bone infarcts, radiation, familial retinoblastoma
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What is the characteristic appearance of the bone in Ewing's Sarcoma?
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Onion-skin
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What is Ewing's sarcoma?
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small blue cell malignant tumor
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Where does Ewing's commonly appear?
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long bones, pelvis, scapula, and ribs
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Name the translocation in Ewing's sarcoma
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11:22:00
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What demographic and where is chondrosarcoma located?
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men 30-60 and located in pelvis, spine, scapula, humerus, tibia, femur
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What primary bone tumor is located in the epiphysis?
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Giant cell tumor
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What primary benign bone tumor is located in the metaphysis? Malignant one?
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benign=osteochondroma, malignant=osteosarcoma
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What primary benign bone tumor is located in the diaphysis? Malignant one?
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benign=osteoid osteoma, malignant=Ewing's Sarcoma
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What primary benign bone tumor is located in the intramedullary region of the bone? Malignant?
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benign=enchondroma, malignant=chondrosarcoma
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Mechanical destruction of what leads to osteoarthritis?
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articular cartilage
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Bouchard's nodes are located at what joint?
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PIP
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Heberden's nodes are located at what joint?
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DIP
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What is the classical presentation of osteoarthritis?
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Pain in weight bearing joints after use, improves with rest
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What joints does rheumatoid arthritis usually effect?
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MCP and PIP, with ulnar deviation
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What HLA type is strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
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HLA-DR4
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What is rheumatoid factor?
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Anti-IgG Ab
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What is the classical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?
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morning stiffness that improves after use, symmetric joint involvement, and systemic symptoms (fever, fatigue, pleuritis, pericarditis)
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What is the clinical triad for Sjogren's Syndrome?
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xerophthalmia (dry eyes/conjunctivitis, xerostomia (dry mouth), and arthritis
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What autoantibodies are seen in sjogren's?
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SS-A and SS-B
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What demographic gets sjogren's?
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women between 40-60
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What lymphoma are you at an increased risk for with sjogren's?
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B-cell lymphoma
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What forms in your joints in rheumatoid arthritis?
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pannus
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What are the symptoms of gout?
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painful MTP joint of big toe (podagra) with a tophus formation
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When do acute gout attacks occur after?
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large alcohol consumption or large meals
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Why are some patients receiving chemotherapy prophilactically treated for gout?
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d/t the increased release and breakdown of purines
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What is found in joints of patient's with gout?
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monosodium urate crystals-->NEGATIVELY birefringent (yellow when parallel (ll) to the light)
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What are 4 drugs used in the treatment of gout?
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allopurinol, probenecid, colchicine, and NSAIDS
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What is found in the joints of patients with pseudogout?
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calcium pyrophosphate crystals-->POSITIVELY birefringent and rhomboid crystals
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What sex does pseudogout preferentially effect?
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neither, pseudogout effects both sexes equally
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What are 3 common causes of infectious arthritis?
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S. aureus, Streptococcus, and N. gonorrhoeae
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What would be seen on a gram stain of joint with N. gonorrhoeae infectious arthritis?
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Gram negative diplococci
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What are 2 causes of chronic infectious arthritis?
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TB and Lyme disease
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Name 3 seronegative spondyloarthropathies that are associated with HLA-B27
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ankylosing spondylitis, reiter's syndrome, and psoriatic arthritis
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What is ankylosing spondylitis?
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chronic inflammation of the SI joint, worse in the morning, leads to bamboo spine
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What heart problem is ankylosing spondylitis associated with?
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Aortic regurgitation
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What is the reiter's syndrome triad?
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conjunctivitis and anterior uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis (commonly in the achilles tendon)
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What is the characteristic finger abnormality in psoriatic arthritis?
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Dactylitis/sausage fingers
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When thinking about SLE, you can use I'M DAMN SHARP to remember everything associated with the disease, that stands for…
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I=immunoglobulins (anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm, antiphospholipit), M=malar rash, D=discoid rash, A=antinuclear antibodies, M=mucositis (oropharyngeal ulcers), N=Neurologic disorders, S=serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis, H=hematologic disorders, A=arthritis, R=renal disorders, P=photosensitivity
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What antibody is associated with drug induced lupus?
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antihistone Ab
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What demographic is SLE diagnosed in?
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90% are females between 14-45
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What is seen in the kidney of a SLE patient with kidney damage?
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wire-loop lesions with imuune complex deposition
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What STD test do SLE patients test positive for?
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syphilis test (RPR/VDRL) because of antiphospholipid antibodies
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You can use the word GRAIN to remember everything associated with sarcoidosis, what does this stand for?
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G-gammaglobulinemia, R-rheumatoid arthritis, A-ACE increases, I-interstitial fibrosis, N-noncaseating granulomas
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What demographic is sarcoidosis most common in?
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black females
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What is the general function of the Thalamus?
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Relay ascending sensory info to cortex
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What do the anterior and posterior parts of the thalamus do?
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Ant- Motor Post- Sensory
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What senses are the lateral and medial geniculate nucleus assoicated with?
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LGN-visual MGN-auditory (Lateral for light, Medial for Music)
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What to the VPL and VPM relay?
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VPL-Body Sensation VPM-facial sensation
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What is the blood supply of the thalamus?
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Posterior communicating artery, posterior cerebral, and anterior choroidal
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What are the 4 parts of the limbic system?
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Cingulate gyrus, hippocampus, fornix, mammilary bodies
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What are the five F's that describe the function of the limbic system?
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Feeding, fleeing, fighting, feeling, sex
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What are the input and output pathways of the cerebellum?
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Input-climbing and mossy fibers Output-Purkinje fibers
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What is the purpose of the basal ganglia?
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Plays a part in voluntary movements and making postural adjustments
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Where are Dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia?
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Striatum (Caudate and Putamen)
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What is the purpose of the D1 receptor pathway?
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Stimulate the excitatory pathway,disinhibiting the thalamus to increase movement
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What is the purpose of the D2 receptor pathway?
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Inhibit the inhibitory pathway, increasing movement
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What happens to the D1 and D2 pathways in Parkinson's?
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Lack of stimulation to D1, no inhibition of D2 causing decreased movement
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What are the symptoms of a frontal lobe lesion?
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Lack of social judgment
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What do Broca's and Wernicke's areas control?
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Broca's anterior (motor speech) Wernicke's posterior (associative auditory)
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What is the homunculus?
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Representation of sensory and motor areas of cerebral cortex. Leg is medial face is lateral
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What artery supplies the medial brain surface? What is the clinical manifestion of a lesion here?
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ACA supplies leg/foot motor and sensory
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What artery supplies the lateral aspect of the brain? Signs of lesions?
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MCA trunk/arm/face motor and sensory
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What artery supplies Broca's and Wernicke's speech areas?
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MCA trunk/arm/face motor and sensory
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Where is the most common site of aneurysm in the circle of Willis and what is its clinical manifestation?
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Anterior communicating artery, visual field defect
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Aneurysm of what artery causes CNIII palsy?
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PCA
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What arteries supply the internal capsule, caudate, and putamen?
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Lateral striate (divisions of MCA), arteries of stroke
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What are the general signs of a stroke in the anterior Circle of Willis?
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General sensory and motor dysfunction, aphasia
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What are the general signs of a stroke in the posterior Circle of Willis?
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CN deficits (visual defects), coma, cerebellar deficits (ataxia)
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What is the organization of the structures contained within the Femoral Triangle
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From Lateral to Medial: Nerve-Artery-Vein-Empty space-Lymphatics (NAVEL)
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What are the contents of the femoral triangle?
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Femoral vein, artery, nerve
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Where is the femoral sheath located?
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3-4 cm below the inguinal ligament
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What does the femoral sheath consist of?
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A fascial tube containing femoral vein, artery and canal (deep inguinal lymph nodes) Does NOT contain femoral nerve
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Site of protrusion of indirect hernia
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Pathological defect of internal (deep) inginal ring
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Site of protrusion of direct hernia
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Pathological defect of abdominal wall
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Hernia
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Protrusion of peritoneum through an opening, usually sites of weakness
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Most common diaphragmatic hernia
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Sliding Hiatal hernia-GE junction is displaced
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Paraesophageal hernia
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GE junction is normal. Cardia moves into the thorax
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Hiatal hernia
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Type of diaphragmatic hernia-where abdominal structures enter the thorax. Stomach herniates upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
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Result of defective development of pleuroperitoneal membrane
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Diaphragmatic hernia
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Indirect inguinal hernia
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Goes through the internal (deep) inguinal ring, external (superficial inguinal ring, and into the scrotum. Enters internal inguinal ring LATERAL to the inferior epigastric artery. Follows the path of the descent of the testes. Covered by all 3 layers of the spermatic fascia. More common in males.
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Failure of processus vaginalis to close
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Indirect inguinal hernia-infants
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Direct inguinal hernia
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Protrudes through the inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle. Bulges directly through abdominal wall MEDIAL to inferior epigastric artery. Goes through the external (superficial) inguinal ring only. Covered by Transversalis fascia. Old guys.
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What is a major difference between a direct and an indirect inguinal hernia?
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Location in relation to inferior epigastric artery: Medial to inferior epigastric artery = Direct hernia. Lateral to inferior epigastric artery = Inderect hernia (MD's don't LIe)
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What is the leading cause of bowel incarceration?
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Femoral hernia
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What hernia is more common in women?
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Femoral hernia
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Femoral hernia
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Protrudes below inguinal ligament through femoral canal below and lateral to pubic tubercle.
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What are the contents of Hasselbach’s triangle?
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Inferior epigastric artery. Lateral border of rectus abdominis. Inguinal ligament
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Location of Peyer’s Patches
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Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine
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Contents of Peyer’s Patches
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Unencapuslated lymphoid tissue. Contain specialized M cells that take up antigen
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Function of Peyer’s Patches
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Stumulated B cells leave P.P. Travel through lymph and blood to lamina propria of intestine. Differentiate into IgA secreting plasmic cells in mesenteric lymph nodes. IgA receives protective secretory component and is transported across the epithelium to deal with intraluminal antigen. IgA=Intra Gut Antibody
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Source of Saliva
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Parotid glands (serous), Submandibular, Submaxillary, Sublingual (most mucinous). Serous on the Sides (parotids). Mucinous in the Middle (sublinguals)
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Stimulation of Salivary gland secretion
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Sympathetic (T1-T3 superior cervical ganglion) and Parasympathetic (CN 7 and 9). CN 7 runs through the parotid gland--can be ingured during surgery.
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Difference between high and low flow rate in salivary secretion
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High flow-hypotonic. Low flow-nearly isotonic.
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Function of Saliva
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Initiation of starch digestion (alpha amylase-inactivated by low pH on reaching stomach). Neutralizes oral bacterial acids- bicarbonate- maintains dental health. Lubricates food- mucins (glycoproteins).
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Function of Brunner’s glands
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Secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize acid contents entering the duodenum from the stomach. Hypertrophied in Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Location of Brunner’s glands
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Duodenal submucosa. The ONLY GI submucosal glands
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Secreted by Parietal cells in stomach
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Intrinsic factor. Gastric Acid.
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Secreted by Chief cells in stomach
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Pepsin
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Secreted by Mucosal cells in stomach and duodenum
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HCO3-
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Intrinsic factor function
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Vitamin B12 binding protein (required for B12 uptake in the terminal ileum). Pathology- autoimmune destruction of parietal cellsà chronic gastritis and pernicious anemia.
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Gastric acid function
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Decreases stomach pH. Increased by histamine, Ach, and gastrin. Decreased by somatostatin, GIP, prostaglandin, secretin.
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Gastrinoma
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Gastrin-secreting tumor that causes continuous high levels of acid secretion and ulcers
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Pepsin function
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Protein digestion. Increased by vagal stimulation, local acid. Activated by H+
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HCO3- function
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Neutralizes acid. Prevents autodigestion. Increased by secretin. Trapped in the mucus that covers the gastric epithelium.
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Secreted by G cells in antrum of stomach
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Gastrin
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Function of Gastrin
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Increases gastric H+ secretion. Increases growth of gastric mucosa. Increases gastric mobility. Secretion is increased by stomach distention, amino acids, peptides, and vagal stimulation. Secretion is decreased by stomach pH less than 1.5
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Pathology of Gastrin secretion
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Very increased in Zollinger Ellison syndrome. Phenylalanine and Tryptophan are potent stimulators.
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Secreted by I cells (Duodenum, and Jejunum)
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Cholecystokinin
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Function of Cholecystokinin
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Increases pancreatic secretions. Increases gallbladder contractions. Decreased gastric emptying. Stimulated by fatty acids and amino acids. In cholelithiasis, pain worsens after fatty food ingestion due to increased CCK.
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Secreted by S cells (duodenum)
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Secretin
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Function of Secretin
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Increases pancreatic HCO3- secretion. Decreases gastric acid secretion. Increases bile secretion. Secretion is increased by acid, fatty acids in lumen of duodenum. Increased HCO3- neutralizes gastric acid in duodenum, allowing pancreatic enzymes to function.
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Secreted by D cells (Pancreatic islets and GI mucosa)
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Somatostatin
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Function of Somatostatin
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Decreases: Gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion, Pancreatic and small intestine fluid secretion, Gallbladder contraction, Insulin and glucagon release. Secretion is increased by acid and decresed by vagal stimulation.
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Clinical uses for Somatostain
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Inhibitory hormone. Has antigrowth hormone effects (digestion and absorption of substances are needed for growth). Used to treat VIPoma and carcinoid tumors.
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Secreted by K cells (Duodenum and Jejunum)
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Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
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Function of GIP
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Exocrine: Decreases gastric H+ secretion. Endocrine: Increases insulin release. Secretion is increased by fatty acids, amino acids, and oral glucose. An oral glucose load is used more rapidly than the equivalent given IV.
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Secreted by Parasympathetic ganglia in sphincters, gallbladders, and small intestine
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Vasoactive Intestinal Polypeptide (VIP)
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Function of VIP
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Increases intestinal water and electrolyte secretion. Increases relazation of intestinal smooth muscle and sphincters. Secretion is increased by distention and vagal stimulation. Secretion is decreased by adrenergic input.
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Pathology of VIP
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VIPoma- non-alpha and non-Beta islet cell pancreatic tumor that secretes VIP to COPIOUS diarrhea.
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Nitric oxide and digestion
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Increases smooth muscle relaxation, including the lower esophageal sphincter. Loss of NO secretion is implicated in increased lower esophageal ton of achalasia.
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Secreted by small intestine
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Motilin
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Function of Motilin
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Produces migrating motor complexes (MMCs). Increased in fasting state.
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