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126 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the function of erythrocytes?

Carries O2 to tissues and CO2 to lungs
Carries O2 to tissues and CO2 to lungs
What is the structure of an erythrocyte?
- Anucleate and biconcave
- Large surface area-to-volume ratio for rapid gas exchange
- Anucleate and biconcave
- Large surface area-to-volume ratio for rapid gas exchange
How long does an erythrocyte last?
120 days
What is the source of energy for erythrocytes?
Glucose:
- 90% used in glycolysis
- 10% used in HMP shunt
How does an erythrocyte eliminate CO2?
- Membrane contains Chloride-HCO3- antiporter
- Allows RBCs to export HCO3- and transport CO2 from the periphery to the lungs for elimination
What can erythrocytosis lead to?
Polycythemia / ↑ Hematocrit
What term is used for varying sizes of erythrocytes?
Anisocytosis
What term is used for varying shapes of erythrocytes?
Poikilocytosis
What is Anisocytosis mean?
Varying sizes of RBCs
What is Poikilocytosis mean?
Varying shapes of RBCs
What is an immature RBC called? What does its presence indicate?
Reticulocyte - immature RBC is a marker of erythroid proliferation
What structure is involved in primary hemostasis?
Platelet (Thrombocyte)
How are platelets made?
Small cytoplasmic fragments derived from megakaryocytes
Small cytoplasmic fragments derived from megakaryocytes
What is the life span of a platelet?
8-10 days
What is the function of a platelet?
When activated by endothelial injury, aggregates with other platelets and interacts with fibrinogen to form a platelet plug
What are the contents of platelets?
- Dense granules: ADP and calcium
- α granules: vWF and fibrinogen
What is found in the dense granules of platelets?
ADP and Ca2+
What is found in the α granules of platelets?
vWF and fibrinogen
Where is a large portion of the platelet pool stored? How much?
1/3 of platelet pool is stored in the spleen
What causes petechiae?
Thrombocytopenia or decreased platelet function
What is the receptor for von Willebrand Factor?
GpIb
What is the receptor for fibrinogen?
GpIIb / IIIa
What are the types of leukocytes?
Granulocytes:
- Neutrophils
- Eosinophils
- Basophils

Mononuclear cells:
- Monocytes
- Lymphocytes
What is the function of leukocytes? How many are there normally?
- Responsible for defense against infections
- Normally 4000 - 10,000 cells / mm3
What is the differential of WBC from highest to lowest?
"Neutrophils Like Making Everything Better"
- Neutrophils (54-62%)
- Lymphocytes (25-33%)
- Monocytes (3-7%)
- Eosinophils (1-3%)
- Basophils (0-0.75%)
What is the acute inflammatory response cell?
Neutrophil
What are there increased neutrophils?
Bacterial infections
What is the function and appearance of Neutrophils?
- Multi-lobed nucleus
- Phagocytic cell that acts in the acute inflammatory response, especially for bacterial infections
- Multi-lobed nucleus
- Phagocytic cell that acts in the acute inflammatory response, especially for bacterial infections
What are the contents of neutrophils?
- Specific granules (smaller and more numerous): ALP, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin
- Azurophilic granules (larger and less numerous) / lysosomes: proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and β-glucuronidase
What are the contents of specific granules in neutrophils? How common are they relatively? Size?
- Contains: ALP, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin
- More numerous
- Smaller

What are the contents of azurophilic granules in neutrophils? How common are they relatively? Size?

Aka Lysosomes
- Contain: proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and β-glucuronidase
- Less numerous
- Larger
Under what circumstances might you see hypersegmented neutrophils (5 or more lobes)?
Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency
Under what circumstances might you see increased band cells? What do these represent?
- Band cells are immature neutrophils
- Reflects states of increased myeloid proliferation (bacterial infections and CML)
What is the function and appearance of monocytes?
- Differentiates into macrophages in the tissues
- Large, kidney shaped nucleus with extensive "frosted glass" cytoplasm
- Differentiates into macrophages in the tissues
- Large, kidney shaped nucleus with extensive "frosted glass" cytoplasm
What is the function of macrophages?
- Phagocytose bacteria, cellular debris, and senescent RBCs
- Scavenges damaged cells and tissues
- Can function as an antigen-presenting cell via MHC II
- Phagocytose bacteria, cellular debris, and senescent RBCs
- Scavenges damaged cells and tissues
- Can function as an antigen-presenting cell via MHC II
What is the source of macrophages?
Differentiates from circulating blood monocytes, activated by γ-interferon
What is the function of IFN-γ?
Activates monocytes to macrophages
What is a cell surface marker for macrophages?
CD14
What cells are an important component of granuloma formation (eg, TB and sarcoidosis)?
Macrophage
What are the functions of Eosinophils?
- Defends against helminthic infections via major basic protein
- Highly phagocytic for antigen-antibody complexes
- Produces histaminase and arylsulfatase (limits reaction following mast cell degranulation)
What is the appearance of eosinophils?
- Bilobate nucleus
- Packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size
- Bilobate nucleus
- Packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size
What can cause eosinophilia?
- Neoplasia
- Asthma
- Allergies
- Connective tissue diseases
- Parasites (invasive)
What do eosinophils produce?

- Major basic protein (defends against helminthic infections)
- Large eosinophilic granules
- Histaminase and arylsulfatase (limits reaction following mast cell degranulation)

What type of cell mediates allergic reactions?
Basophilis
What are the contents of basophils?
Dense basophilic granules:
- Heparin (anticoagulant)
- Histamine (vasodilator)
- Leukotrienes
Dense basophilic granules:
- Heparin (anticoagulant)
- Histamine (vasodilator)
- Leukotrienes
What does an isolated basophilia suggest?
Uncommon, but can be seen in myeloproliferative disease, particularly CML
What are the functions of mast cells?
- Mediates allergic reaction in local tissues
- Can bind to the Fc portion of IgE to membrane
- Type I hypersensitivity reactions
What do mast cells look like?
Mast cells resemble basophils structurally and functionally
Mast cells resemble basophils structurally and functionally
What is the effect of mast cells on IgE?
- Mast cells can bind the Fc portion of IgE to membrane
- IgE cross-links upon antigen binding, causing degranulation, which releases histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors
What drug can prevent mast cell degranulation? Function?
Cromolyn sodium - used for asthma prophylaxis
What is the function of dendritic cells?
Highly phagocytic APCs
- Functions as link between innate and adaptive immune system
- Expresses MHC class II and Fc receptor on surface
Highly phagocytic APCs
- Functions as link between innate and adaptive immune system
- Expresses MHC class II and Fc receptor on surface
What do dendritic cells express on their surface?
- MHC Class II
- Fc receptor
What are Langerhans cells?
Dendritic cells in the skin
What are the types of lymphocytes?
- B cells
- T cells
- NK cells
What lymphocytes are involved in the adaptive immunity?
B cells and T cells
What lymphocytes are involved in the innate immunity?
NK cells
What is the appearance of lymphocytes?
- Round, densely staining nucleus
- Small amount of pale cytoplasm
- Round, densely staining nucleus
- Small amount of pale cytoplasm
Which cells is part of the humoral immune response? Source? Where does it mature?
B lymphocytes
- Arises from stem cells in the bone marrow
- Matures in the bone marrow
What happens to B cells after they have matured in the bone marrow?
Migrates to peripheral lymphoid tissue (follicles of lymph nodes, white pulp of spleen, unencapsulated lymphoid tissue)
What happens when a B lymphocyte encounters an antigen?
- B cells differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies and memory cells
- Can function as an APC via MHC II
What are the cell surface markers of B lymphocytes?
CD19 and CD20
CD19 and CD20
Which cells is part of the cellular immune response? Source? Where does it mature?
T lymphocytes
- Originates from stem cells in the bone marrow
- Matures in the thymus
What happens to T cells after they have matured in the thymus?
T cells differentiate into:
- Cytotoxic T cells (express CD8, recognize MHC I)
- Helper T cells (express CD4, recognize MHC II)
- Regulatory T cells
What is necessary for T cell activation?
CD28 (costimulatory molecule)
What are the majority of circulating lymphocytes?
T cells (80%)
What does CD mean?
Cluster of Differentiation
What are the cell surface markers of T lymphocytes?
- Helper cells (Th): CD3 and CD4
- Cytotoxic cells (Tc): CD3 and CD8
- Helper cells (Th): CD3 and CD4
- Cytotoxic cells (Tc): CD3 and CD8
What is the primary target of HIV?
CD4+ Helper T cells
What is the function of plasma cells?
Produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
What is the appearance of plasma cells?
- Eccentric nucleus
- Clock-face chromatin distribution
- Abundant RER
- Well-developed Golgi apparatus
- Eccentric nucleus
- Clock-face chromatin distribution
- Abundant RER
- Well-developed Golgi apparatus
What is the cancer of plasma cells?
Multiple Myeloma
What are the blood group types?
- A
- B
- AB
- O
- Rh
What kind of antigen and antibodies do patients with blood type A have?
- A antigen on RBC surface
- Anti-B antibody in plasma
What kind of antigen and antibodies do patients with blood type B have?
- B antigen on RBC surface
- Anti-A antibody in plasma
What kind of antigen and antibodies do patients with blood type AB have?
- A and B antigens on RBC surface
- No antibodies in plasma
- Universal recipient of RBCs and universal donor of plasma
What kind of antigen and antibodies do patients with blood type O have?
- Neither A nor B antigen on RBC surface
- Both A and B antibodies in plasma
- Universal donor of RBCs and universal recipient of plasma
What blood type if the universal recipient of RBCs?
AB
What blood type if the universal donor of RBCs?
O
What blood type if the universal recipient of plasma?
O
What blood type if the universal donor of plasma?
AB
What are the potential implications of an incompatible blood transfusion?
- Immunologic response
- Hemolysis
- Renal failure
- Shock
- Death
What type of antibodies are the blood group antibodies? Implications for crossing the placenta?
- Anti-A and anti-B are IgM antibodies (do not cross placenta)
- Anti-Rh are IgG antibodies (cross placenta)
What is the significance of an Rh- mother exposed to fetal Rh+ blood? When?
- Often exposure occurs during delivery, mother may make anti-Rh IgG
- If there is a subsequent pregnancy, the anti-Rh IgG can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn in the next fetus that is Rh+
What causes erythroblastosis fetalis?
- If an Rh- mother is exposed to an Rh+ newborn, often occurs during delivery, mother may make anti-Rh IgG
- If there is a subsequent pregnancy, the anti-Rh IgG can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn in the next fetus that is Rh+
How do you treat an Rh- mother?
Rho(D) immune globulin for mother during every pregnancy to prevent initial sensitization of Rh- mother to Rh antigen
What factors are involved in the extrinsic coagulation cascade pathway?
- Factor VII activated by Thromboplastin / Tissue Factor to Factor VIIa
- Factor X activated by Factor VIIa to Factor Xa
- Factor II (Pro-thrombin) activated by Factor Xa and Va to Factor IIa (Thrombin)
- Fibrinogen activated by Thrombin to Fib...
- Factor VII activated by Thromboplastin / Tissue Factor to Factor VIIa
- Factor X activated by Factor VIIa to Factor Xa
- Factor II (Pro-thrombin) activated by Factor Xa and Va to Factor IIa (Thrombin)
- Fibrinogen activated by Thrombin to Fibrin monomers
What factors are involved in the intrinsic coagulation cascade pathway?
- Factor XII activated by collagen, basement membrane, and activated platelets to XIIa
- Factor XI activated by XIIa to XIa
- Factor IX activated by XIa to IXa
- Factor X activated by IXa and VIIIa to Xa
- Factor II (Prothrombin) activated by ...
- Factor XII activated by collagen, basement membrane, and activated platelets to XIIa
- Factor XI activated by XIIa to XIa
- Factor IX activated by XIa to IXa
- Factor X activated by IXa and VIIIa to Xa
- Factor II (Prothrombin) activated by Xa and Va to IIa (Thrombin)
- Fibrinogen activated by Thrombin to Fibrin monomers
What is the effect of Bradykinin?
- ↑ Vasodilation
- ↑ Permeability
- ↑ Pain
- ↑ Vasodilation
- ↑ Permeability
- ↑ Pain
What molecule causes the fibrin / platelet plug to break down to fibrin degradation products?
Plasmin
What is Hemophilia A?
Deficiency of Factor VIII
What is Hemophilia B?
Deficiency of Factor IX
What forms the fibrin clot?
- Fibrin monomers aggregate with Ca2+ and Factor XIIIa to form a fibrin meshwork
- Fibrin mesh acts to stabilize platelet plug
- Fibrin monomers aggregate with Ca2+ and Factor XIIIa to form a fibrin meshwork
- Fibrin mesh acts to stabilize platelet plug
What enzyme converts oxidized vitamin K to reduced vitamin K?
Epoxide Reductase
What is the function of reduced vitamin K?
Acts as a cofactor to activate the coagulation cascade precursors: II, VII, IX, X, and Protein C and S
What is the mechanism of Warfarin?
Warfarin inhibits the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase
Warfarin inhibits the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase
Why do neonates require Vitamin K injections when they are born?
- Neonates lack enteric bacteria, which produce vitamin K
- Vitamin K is necessary for maturing coagulation cascade components
What are the implications of a Vitamin K deficiency?
↓ Synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, and protein S
What carries / protects Factor VIII?
von Willebrand Factor
What is the action of Protein C?
Cleaves and inactivates factors Va and VIIIa
Cleaves and inactivates factors Va and VIIIa
How does Protein C get activated to exert its inactivating effects on Factors Va and VIIIa?
- Protein C converted to Activated Protein C via thrombin-thrombomodulin complex (on endothelial cells)
- Protein S helps allow activated Protein C to exert its effects
- Protein C converted to Activated Protein C via thrombin-thrombomodulin complex (on endothelial cells)
- Protein S helps allow activated Protein C to exert its effects
What happens in fibrinolysis?
- Cleavage of fibrin mesh
- Destruction of coagulation factors
What mediates fibrinolysis?
Plasminogen activation to Plasmin mediates Fibrinolysis
What medication can help activate Plasminogen to Plasmin? Utility?
tPA - used as a thrombolytic
What is the action of Antithrombin?
Inhibits activated forms of factor II, VII, IX, X, XI, and XII
What is the action of Heparin?
Heparin enhances the activity of antithrombin; antithrombin inhibits activated forms of factor II, VII, IX, X, XI, and XII
What are the principal targets of antithrombin?
Thrombin and Factor Xa
What is the effect of the Factor V Leiden mutation?
Produces a factor V resistant to inhibition by activated Protein C
What are the steps of platelet plug formation (primary hemostasis)?
1. Injury
2. Adhesion
3. Activation
4. Aggregation
1. Injury
2. Adhesion
3. Activation
4. Aggregation
What is the first step of platelet plug formation (primary hemostasis)?
Injury
- vWF binds to exposed collagen upon endothelial damage
What is the second step of platelet plug formation (primary hemostasis), after injury?
Adhesion:
- Platelets bind vWF via GpIb receptor at the site of injury only (specific)
- Platelets release ADP and Ca2+ (necessary for coagulation cascade)
- ADP helps platelet adhere to endothelium
Adhesion:
- Platelets bind vWF via GpIb receptor at the site of injury only (specific)
- Platelets release ADP and Ca2+ (necessary for coagulation cascade)
- ADP helps platelet adhere to endothelium
What is the third step of platelet plug formation (primary hemostasis), after adhesion?
Activation
- ADP binding to receptor induces GpIIb/IIIa expression at platelet surface
Activation
- ADP binding to receptor induces GpIIb/IIIa expression at platelet surface
What is the fourth step of platelet plug formation (primary hemostasis), after activation?
Aggregation
- Fibrinogen binds GpIIb/IIIa receptors and links platelets
- Temporary plug stops bleeding
Aggregation
- Fibrinogen binds GpIIb/IIIa receptors and links platelets
- Temporary plug stops bleeding
What are the pro-aggregation factors?
- TXA2 (released by platelets)
- ↓ Blood flow
- ↑ Platelet aggregation
- TXA2 (released by platelets)
- ↓ Blood flow
- ↑ Platelet aggregation
What are the anti-aggregation factors?
- PGI2 and NO (released by endothelial cells)
- ↑ Blood flow
- ↓ Platelet aggregation
- PGI2 and NO (released by endothelial cells)
- ↑ Blood flow
- ↓ Platelet aggregation
What is the mechanism of aspirin?
Inhibits cyclooxygenase (TXA2 synthesis)
What is the mechanism of ticlopidine?
Inhibits ADP-induced expression of GpIIb/IIIa
What is the mechanism of clopidogrel?
Inhibits ADP-induced expression of GpIIb/IIIa
What is the mechanism of abciximab?
Inhibits GpIIb/IIIa directly
What is the mechanism of ristocetin?
Activates vWF to bind to GpIb
What is useful for diagnosis of von Willebrand disease?
Normal platelet aggregation response is not seen in von Willebrand disease
What disease occurs if there is a deficiency of GpIb?
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
What disease occurs if there is a deficiency of GpIIb/IIIa?
Glanzmann Thombasthenia
What molecules are inside of endothelial cells?
- vWF
- Thromboplastin
- tPA and PGI2
What can acute phase reactants in the plasma lead to?
RBC aggregation, thereby ↑ RBC sedimentation rate (RBC aggregates have a higher density than plasma)
What causes an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
- Infections
- Autoimmune diseases (SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, temporal arteritis)
- Malignant neoplasms
- GI disease (ulcerative colitis)
- Pregnancy
What causes a decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
- Polycythemia
- Sickle cell anemia
- CHF
- Microcytosis
- Hypofibrinogenemia