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373 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Who initiated America's first sea-based offensive against the British?
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General George Washington
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The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by?
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Bureau of Yards and Docks
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Seabee's celebrate March 5th, 1942 as...
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the day permission was granted to use the name Seabee
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In May 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers; the two fleets never saw each other. Name this battle.
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Battle of the Coral Sea
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Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea and were later renamed ________.
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Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Units
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Riverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to collect intelligence information. True or False?
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False
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Who is appointed by the President as the head of the Department of the Navy?
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Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
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Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff is?
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Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
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N-4 Department Head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate. True or False?
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False
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N-1 Department head is responsible for administration of a unit's supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met. True or false?
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False
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Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is?
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Provide oversight and command and control of anti-terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary type forces within the Navy.
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Which command list below is not a core NCW Force?
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Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
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Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES (selected reserves) are.
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Port Security Unit (PSU)
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Teams which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as _________ .
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Embarked Security teams (EST)
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The ___________ is the administrative and operational commander for six naval construction regiments and two seabee readiness groups.
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First Naval Construction Division
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During North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) operations what vehicle markings will be placed on the front and rear of the vehicle to indicate US ownership?
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solid black five-point star
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KC-135 Stratotanker is the only airplane capable of refueling other aircraft in flight. T or F?
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False
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___________ purpose is to rapidly establish a MAGTF ashore so that it is prepared to conduct subsequent operations ranging from humanitarian assistance to all levels of armed conflict
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MPF (Maritime prepositioning force)
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Pronounceable words or phrases that have been assigned meaning to expedite message handling on R/T circuits are _______ .
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prowords
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A whistle signal of three long blasts repeated several times usually indicates _______ .
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hostile aircraft or mechanized vehicle
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State the three types of intelligence.
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strategic, operational, tactical
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List the five steps of the intelligence cycle
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Planning and Direction, Collection, Processing, Production, Dissemination
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The navy's system for providing proper safeguards on telecommunications via encryption is known as Communications Security (COMSEC)
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Communications Security (COMSEC)
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TPI is the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals. The acronym TPI stands for _____ .
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two person integrity
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Clearance is defined as _______ .
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A formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program
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A real-time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occured over a NONSECURE circuit defines which term?
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BEADWINDOW
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Name three factors that affect the range of radio equipment.
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weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of radio
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What are four of the eight core elements that make up an expeditionary camp team?
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Security, intelligence, supply/logistic, training, administration, medical, operations, maintenance
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List the five basic phases of an expeditionary camp layout in order from one to five
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Phase I - Planning, Phase II - Site Survey/Security, Phase III - Camp Establishment, Phase IV - Camp Maintenance, Phase V - Camp Teardown
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What are two considerations of expeditionary camp layout phase one?
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Reason for the camp, type of camp, terrain, climate, threat level
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What are the three different teams used during expeditionary camp layout phase two?
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1. Site survey/preparation team, site security team, camp setup team
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What are five services that should be provided when carrying out phase three of expeditionary camp layout?
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billeting activities, food service, shower and head facilities, field armory, first aid station, combined maintenance engineering logistics (CMEL), laundry service, an administration service, a fire fighting team, facilites for MWR activities, a resident unit ministry team
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Briefly describe the purpose of a leach field
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A leach field is a series of drain lines that allow the effluent from the septic tank to drain over a large area of ground. Leaching fields are an integral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system. Leaching field may be referred to as tile fields or absorption trenches.
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What form is filled out when a trouble desk attendant receives a trouble call?
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Emergency/Service authorization (ESA)
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What are the four priority work classifications?
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Safety, function, preventive, appearance
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What is potable water suitable for?
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drinking, cooking, and personal use
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Define plain/simple chlorination
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plain or simple chlorination is the single application of chlorine as the only treatment before discharge to the (water) distribution system
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What are the three standard gear issue categories?
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1. fighting/load carrying
2. Bivouac 3. Protective |
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The standard 782 gear issue consists of what?
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pistol belt with two magazine pouches, pack (medium usually), H-Harness or suspenders
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Name the three fighting positions
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Hasty position, improved one man, improved two man
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What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man fighting position?
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two-man provides less protection from tanks, bombin, strafing, and shelling
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Which type of camoflauge is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting?
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natural cover
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What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead?
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Hit the deck
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What does "KOCOA" stand for?
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-Key terrain
-Observation and fields of fire -Concealment and Cover -Obstacles to movement -Avenues of approach |
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Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass.
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1. when a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line
2. turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned 3. for maps without a compass rose, use the N/S grid line |
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What does "BAMCIS" stand for?
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Begin planning
Arrange recon Make recon Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise |
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What does "SMEAC" stand for?
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Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration and Logistics, Command and Signal
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What are the three sub-paragraphs of the situation paragraph of a five paragraph order?
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1. enemy forces
2. friendly forces 3. attachments and detachments |
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When is a "SALUTE" report used?
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When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat
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What is the primary mission of a reconnaisance patrol?
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Information gathering
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What are three considerations when creating a fire plan?
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sectors or zone of fire, individual fighting positions, crew served weapons, rifleman positions, terrain features, fire team leader
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What are the two types of fire limits?
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lateral and forward
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Name the four types of fire team formation
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-column
-wedge -skirmishers -echelon |
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How many articles are contained in the code of conduct?
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six
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What are the four threatcon levels
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alpha, bravo, charlie, delta
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Is arrest or apprehension a circumstance under which deadly force would normally be authorized?
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Yes
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What are three types of wire entanglements?
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tactical, protective, supplementary
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Describe challenge and reply
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two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation
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What are the three types of waterborne security zones?
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1. assessment
2. warning 3. threat |
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List four things addressed by an effective ATFP plan
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-concept of operations
-preplanned responses -tactics -crisis management procedures -consequence management procedures -baseline security posture -measures to increase security posture -reporting procedures -command and control procedures |
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Name the five types of waterborne threats
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small boats, deep draft boats, subsurface, swimmer, floating mines
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what actions are taken when seaward continuum of force level three is attained?
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Warning shots from crew served weapons are fired across bow of contact of interest (COI)
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When enganging a hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain, true or false?
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false
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What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborne high value asset (HVA)?
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500 meters
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Name three things that affect waterborne security zone size/location?
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UN restrictions, geography, threat areas, capabilites of U.S. security forces, proximity of targets
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What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels?
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to determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible
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What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone?
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two (minimum) and four (ideal)
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Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what?
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Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other regional organization
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What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)?
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To ensure the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas.
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What is the specific purpose of a chemical agent?
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Intended for military operation to kill, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel.
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Define Biological warfare.
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The use of biological agents (pathogens or toxins) as a weapon.
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Name two routes of entry for nonpercutaneous hazards.
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- respiratory tract
- open wounds - eyes - ingestion |
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True or False: An M40 mask canister cannot be changed in a contaminated environment.
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True
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The Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG) Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST) may be laundered how many times?
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Six
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What are the two auto injectors commonly issued to personnel as a for CBR treatment?
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- 2 PAM Chloride
- Atropine |
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What is the primary purpose of IM series dosimeters?
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Measure and indicate the accumulated dose of X–ray and gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed.
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What are the three types of chemical warfare agents?
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Casualty agents
Non-lethal incapacitating agents Harassing agents |
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What are the three types of nuclear explosions?
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- Air burst
- Surface burst - Sub-surface burst |
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Of the four types of nuclear radiation what two are the most dangerous to personnel?
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Gamma rays and neutrons.
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When at MOPP Level two overboots are _________?
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Worn
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Chemical marker signs are what color(s)?
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Yellow and red
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What is M-9 paper used to detect?
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Liquid nerve and blister agents
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What are the three possible colors M-8 paper can turn when it has a positive reading?
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Red, Yellow, and Green
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M-291 and M-295 are used to do what?
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Decontaminate exposed skin in a chemical environment and prior to entering the Contamination Control Area.
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The Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG) Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST) has a wear life of how long in a contaminated environment?
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24 hours
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What are the three types of decontamination?
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- Immediate
- Operational - Thorough |
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What device is used in conjunction with the CP-95 radiac computer indicator and what is its range?
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DT-60 dosimeter with a range of 10 to 600 Roentgens.
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What does COSAL stand for?
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Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List
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What does SHORECAL stand for?
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Shore Consolidated Allowance List.
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Name one thing that the COSAL/SHORECAL provide?
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Lists the items required to support the equipment and mission
List of items to be stocked to support equipment It specifies all equipment to be onboard your ship |
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What is the first process in relation to the COSAL?
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1. researching
2. reviewing 3. validating 4. updating |
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Who receives a listing of outstanding requisitions monthly?
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Department Head
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What is the unit cost for plant property?
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100,000+
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Define the following acronyms:
ARP, CTR, CUU, NSN, NC, NIS, ROD, DLR, RIP |
-AUTOMOTIVE REPAIR PARTS
-CENTRAL TOOL ROOM -CAMOFLAGE UTILITY UNIFORM -NATIONAL STOCK NUMBER -NOT CARRIED -NOT IN STOCK -REPORT OF DISCREPANCY -DEPOT LEVEL REPAIRABLE -REMAIN IN PLACE |
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What is the concept of ORM?
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Minimizes risks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment
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List the five steps for applying ORM.
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1. Identify Hazards
2. Assess Hazards 3. Make Risk Decisions 4. Implement Controls 5. Supervise |
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The order of preference for implementing controls are:
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Engineering, Administrative, PPE
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What report is required to be filed for negligent weapons discharges?
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OPREP 3- Navy Blue
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Unit Personnel violating safety regulations are subject to:
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b) Disciplinary action under The Uniform Code of Military Justice.
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Personal protective devices do nothing to reduce or eliminate the hazard itself. true or false?
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true
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Ear plugs or earmuffs are required for noises greater than ___ dBA and peak noises greater than ___ dBA.
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84, 104
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Sustained noises greater than 104 dBA require double hearing protection. (ear plugs and muffs) T or F?
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True
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Whose responsibility is it to organize, train, equip, prepare and maintain readiness of the United States Navy?
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Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
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Who is overall responsible for a command’s Enlisted Warfare Qualification Program?
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Command Master Chief (CMDCM)
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An OPERATION PLAN (OPLAN) is a detailed statement of a course of action to be followed to accomplish a future mission. It is put into effect with an ____
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OPERATION ORDER (OPORD).
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Platoons receive mission details such as specified uniforms, including any camouflage and identification measures and specific weapons, ammunition, and equipment requirements through which means.
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a) WARNO
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The Executive Officer shall be primarily responsible under the Commanding Officer for the organization, performance of duty, and good order and discipline of the entire command. T or F?
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True
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What document provides a permanent historical record at the Bureau of Naval Personnel (BUPERS) of an activity’s personnel account for statistical uses and overall Navy manning?
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b) EDVR
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List three items located on an Enlisted Service Record Page 2 – NAVPERS 1070/602.
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a. Person(s) to be notified in case of emergency or death.
b. Person(s) to receive the death gratuity when no spouse or child exists. c. Person(s) to receive unpaid pay and allowances (arrears of pay) including money accrued during a missing or captured status, unused leave, travel, per diem, transportation of family members, transportation of household goods, and savings deposits found due from Department of the Navy. d. Dependents of member to receive allotment of pay if member is missing or unable to transmit funds. e. Commercial insurance companies to be notified in case of death. f. National Service Life Insurance, Servicemen’s Group Life Insurance, and Veterans Group Life Insurance in effect. |
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Which report do ships utilize as they come in to port to pass information on about the ship and to request services from the port?
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LOGREQ
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Give two examples of personnel who are noncombatants.
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Civilians, medical personnel, chaplains
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Under the laws of armed conflict, only ________ are considered proper targets and may be fired upon.
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combatants
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What four applications are applied to prevent or mitigate workplace hazards?
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Substitution, Isolation, Ventilation, and Administrative Controls.
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What are two types of Ventilation?
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Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) and general or dilution ventilation.
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Define Substitution.
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Reducing the risk of injury or illness by substituting a known hazard (process or material) with a less hazardous process or material.
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What are Administrative Controls with regards to safety?
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Control method that mitigates hazards through the implementation of effective operating procedures that reduce the exposure of individuals to chemical or physical hazards.
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What training is required for all new employees regardless of their position?
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Safety Orientation Training
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What are two things that should be done to support the launch and retrieval of a small boat?
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1. Inspect all equipment before use
2. Conduct an operations and safety briefing 3. Conduct a boat inspection 4. Keep non-essential personnel away from the davit area. |
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True or False. Small boats should be fueled during the daytime and while in the water if possible.
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True
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Boat crew members must be at least what class swimmer?
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Class II
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What does the “Rule of Good Seamanship” require?
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Requires boats to give way to ships and seaplanes.
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Maximum boat capacity should be reduced when?
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During extreme weather conditions.
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What does the acronym “FOD” stand for?
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Foreign Object Damage
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FOD is any object that may be what?
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Disturbed by the wind across the deck or rotor wash.
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Personnel should avoid approaching within _____ feet of a helicopter with rotating blades, unless necessary.
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50
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Whenever personnel are required to approach or leave a helicopter with rotating blades they should do so in a ___________ position.
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crouched
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True or False. It is safe to take flash pictures during flight operations.
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False
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What type of equipment is considered “electrical”?
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1. generators
2. electrically powered machinery and mechanisms 3. power cables 4. controllers 5. transformers 6. associated equipment |
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What type of equipment is considered “electronic”?
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1. radars
2. sonars 3. radios 4. power amplifiers 5. antennas 6. electronic warfare equipment 7. computers 8. associated controls and peripherals. |
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What is considered “portable electrical equipment”?
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Devices that may be plugged into the ship’s electrical power (outlets).
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What must be done prior to energizing any equipment that has been tagged out?
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The tag must be properly cleared.
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What are two ways to prevent electrical fires?
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1. Keep electric motors clean
2. Ensure proper maintenance is performed 3. Report overheating or arcing electrical equipment 4. Keep air filters clean 5. Do not overload circuits |
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What are three symptoms of an electrical shock victim?
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1. Victim possibly very pale or “bluish”
2. Pulse is extremely weak or entirely absent 3. Unconsciousness is complete 4. Burns are usually present 5. Victim’s body may become rigid or stiff. |
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Define First Aid.
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First Aid is the emergency care and treatment of a sick or injured person before medical services are obtained.
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What are the three primary purposes of First Aid?
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1. To save life
2. Prevent further injury 3. To minimize or prevent infection. |
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With regards to First Aid what does A.B.C. stand for?
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- Airway
- Breathing - Circulation |
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What is the correct position of a patient being treated for shock?
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Patient should be placed on his or her back, with legs elevated 6 to 12 inches.
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What are the two types of fractures?
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Open and Closed
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True or False: Splints should not be so long that they reach the joint above and below a fracture.
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false
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What are symptoms of a second degree burn (select all that apply).
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_X_ Affects the first layer of the skin
___ Healing occurs within a week _X_ Skin blistered and weeping _X_ Pain is moderate to severe ___ Skin graft may be necessary |
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A fracture or separation of the ribs from the breastbone may produce a free-floating segment called a _____________?
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flail area
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True or False: Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair the internal damage.
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true
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What are the three types of heat injuries?
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1. Heat Cramps
2. Heat Exhaustion 3. Heat Stroke |
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What are the two types of cold injuries?
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1. Frostbite
2. Hypothermia |
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What does line five of a nine line medevac indicate?
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Number of patients
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Name 3 of the 5 organizations that pioneered the unconventional warfare to form the present Naval Special Warfare Warrior.
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Scouts and Raiders, Naval Combat Demolition Units, Office of Strategic Services Operational Swimmers (OSS),
Underwater Demolition Teams, Motor Torpedo Boat Squadrons of WWII |
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Who is considered to “Father of Naval Special Warfare’?
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Phil H. Bucklew
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During WWII what two services merged for training at Amphibious Training Base, Little Creek to begin Amphibious Scouts?
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Army & Navy
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What year were the first Amphibious Scouts and Raiders group commissioned?
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1942
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What was the first operation conducted by the Amphibious Scouts and Raiders?
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Operation Torch
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In November 1942 the first combat demolition unit succeeded in cutting a cable and net barrier across the Wadi Sebou River during Operation Torch. This action enables which vessel to insert U.S. Rangers?
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USS Dallas (DD 199)
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Who is considered the “Father of Naval Combat Demolition”?
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LCDR Draper L. Kauffman
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What year did LCDR Kauffman establish Naval Combat Demolition Unit Training at Ft. Peirce?
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1944
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Why were Naval Combat Demolition Units established?
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To eliminate obstacles on an enemy beach prior to invasion.
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What was the operation conducted by the Naval Combat Demolition Units, for the amphibious landing at Normandy?
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Operation OVERLOAD
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During which operation did Underwater Demolition Teams first see combat?
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1/31/1944 Operation FLINTLOCK
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Which President desired the services to develop an Unconventional Warfare capability?
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President Kennedy
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What year did the United States Navy establish SEAL Team ONE and TWO?
|
1962
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Were did the Navy get the personnel to form the first SEAL Teams/
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Underwater Demolition Teams
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What year were all Underwater Demolition Teams re-designated as SEAL Teams?
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May 1, 1983
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SEAL Delivery Vehicles and Special Boat Units can trace their history back to WWII. True or False.
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True
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In response to September 11th Naval Special Warfare had troops on the ground in Afghanistan by what month?
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October
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The first military flag officer to set foot in Afghanistan was a Navy SEAL? True or False?
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True
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What conflict has employed the largest number of Navy SEALs in its history?
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Operation Iraqi Freedom
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What model of submersible vehicle is used today by SEAL Delivery Vehicle Teams?
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Mark 8 Mod 1 and Advance SEAL Delivery System (ASDS)
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USSOCOM is made up of how many organizations?
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4
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What does “MARSOC” stand for?
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U.S. MARINE CORPS FORCES SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND
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What date was MARSOC established?
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February 24, 2006
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What does “AFSOC” stand for?
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AIR FORCE SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND
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How many units carry out the AFSOC mission around the globe?
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11
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How many commands are under NAVSPECWARCOM?
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7
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What does “USASOC” stand for?
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U.S. ARMY SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND
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What does CSSD stand for?
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Combat Service Support Detachment
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What officer is the department head for MCD?
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Communications Officer
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The mission of the SEAL Teams is to plan and conduct special operations in support of combatant commanders.
|
True
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TRADET is not a command within NSWG.
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False
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Naval Special Warfare Group One exercises operational and administrative control over all SEAL Teams located where?
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West Coast
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What does NSWTG stand for?
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NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE TASK GROUP
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Which of the four listing below have command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon level or below the level of combatant commander?
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OPCON
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Where is NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE UNIT ONE located and based at?
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Agana, Guam
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What type of maintenance is used to discover functional failure?
|
preventative maintenance
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What is the max threshold dollar amount for the purchase card?
|
3,000
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What does the acronym TOA stand for?
|
Table Of Allowance
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What does TOA outfit the Naval Mobile Construction Battalion with?
|
The capability to perform construction operations under contingency conditions for 90 days 1800 hours) without resupply.
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What does OPTAR stand for?
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Operating Target
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What is a standard milstrip requisitioning form used when automated supply requisitioning is not available?
|
DD Form 1348-6
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What form is an alternate form of the DD 1348-6?
|
NAVSUP 1250-2
|
|
|
What form is known as the financial liability investigation of property loss/survey?
|
DD 200
|
|
|
What is the primary NSW HF Manpack Radio?
|
AN/PRC-150(C)
|
|
|
What are What is the maximum power output of the AN/PRC-150(C)?
|
20 Watts
|
|
|
What type of batteries do the AN/PRC-150 abd the AN/PSC-5D utilize?
|
BA-5590 series
|
|
|
What manpack radio is primarily used for SATCOM operations?
|
AN/PSC-5D
|
|
|
What is the frequency range of the AN/PSC-5D manpack radio?
|
30-512 Mhz (Megahertz)
|
|
|
What frequency hopping modes are the AN/PSC-5D and the AN/PRC-148 capable of?
|
Havequick and SINCGARS
|
|
|
What is the primary handheld tactical radio used for intra/inter team communications?
|
AN/PRC-148 MBITR (Multi-intra/inter Team Radio)
|
|
|
True/False. Both the MBITR radio and the AN/PSC-5D utilize embedded encryption. Meaning there is no external encryption device needed for secure communications.
|
TRUE.
|
|
|
True/False. Only the AN/PSC-5D radio is capable of secure data communications.
|
False
|
|
|
What is the frequency range of the MBITR radio?
|
30-512 Mhz (Megahertz)
|
|
|
What is the AN/PRQ-7 (CSEL) utilized for?
|
Handheld survival radio.
|
|
|
What does CSEL stand for?
|
Combat Survivor/Evader Locater
|
|
|
What communications system provides base station capabilities for up to 12 UHF/SATCOM circuits and 2 HF circuits?
|
JBS(Joint Base Station) TSC-135 V2D
|
|
|
Which two deployable communications systems provide the Task Unit with SIPR/NIPR and JWICS connectivity?
|
SDN-TCV (SOF Deployable Node Transit Case Variant) and SDN-Medium.
|
|
|
Describe the basic capabilities of the SDN-Lite?
|
64K capable INMARSAT terminal that provides SIPR or NIPR and RED and Black phones.
|
|
|
What deployable communications system provides high-speed receive capability at 23 Mbps (Mega Bytes per Second) for weather, map imagery, intel-data, and UAV Feeds?
|
GBS (Global Broadcast Service)
|
|
|
What is the AN/PSN-13A (DAGR)?
|
Tactical Handheld GPS (Global Positioning System) receiver.
|
|
|
List three methods of alternate communications.
|
- Messenger.
- Whistle Signals. - Hand Signals. - Rifle Shots - IR Strobes. |
|
|
What must be taken into consideration when using Special Signals?
|
Must be predetermined and practiced before used.
|
|
|
What are the steps that Vehicles must go though to be prepared for air or sea movement?
|
Cleaned, Mechanics inspect, Reduce height for aircraft (ROPS), mobile load, weighed and marked for center of balance, staged
|
|
|
what steps must cargo go through to be prepared for air or sea shipment?
|
inventoried, palletized, 463L pallet, containerized with proper container (ISO), weighed, marked, staged.
|
|
|
What is the primary cargo pallet used for air lift?
|
463 L
|
|
|
How much does the 463 L weigh?
|
290 Lbs.
|
|
|
What is the max load you can put on a 463 L pallet?
|
10,000 Lbs
|
|
|
what is the size of the 463 L pallet and what are the height requirements?
|
88 inches X 108 inches (84” X 104” useable) max build height is 96 inches
|
|
|
What color are the side cargo nets for 463 L pallet, and how may do you use per pallet?
|
Green, 2
|
|
|
What color is the top net of the 463 L pallet, and how many do you use per pallet?
|
Yellow, 1
|
|
|
What do can you use to secure your pallet for flight if there are no cargo nets available?
|
Use seven 5K Lb Cargo straps, 4 in one direction, three in the other.
|
|
|
How many pieces of dunnage ( 4X4) do you put under the 463 L pallet?
|
Three
|
|
|
What does the acronym TPFDD mean?
|
Time Phased Force Deployment Data
|
|
|
What does TPFDD do? How is it used?
|
It is the information used to plan and execute the movement of personnel and equipment to support OPLANS... It shows the detailed flow of forces by date into the theater, this will include # of Passengers, exact debarkation and the amount of gear they are bringing in Short Tons.
|
|
|
What does the Acronym JOPES mean?
|
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System
|
|
|
How is Jopes Used?
|
It is the program used to input a unit’s data for movement. It can also be used as a C2 tool to track units in theater
|
|
|
What does the Acronym TUCHA Data mean?
|
Type Bit Characteristics Data
|
|
|
What is TUCHA Data?
|
The Data file for each unit in the military and the units different configurations (i.e. Special Boat Team, SEAL Team, EOD) ** It can be revised annually by commands to reflect changing mission/ organization. This information consists of # of personnel and amount of gear ( size & weight) for that configuration.
|
|
|
What are three camp layout considerations?
|
1. Key Terrain Features KOCOA
2. Security/ Defensive Posture 3. Health and Sanitation |
|
|
Camp facilities and utilities should be dispersed by how many meters?
|
35
|
|
|
In a camp the heads should be at least how far from a natural water source?
|
100 yards
|
|
|
What are the dimension specifications for a camp burn pit?
|
4’X 4’ hole 4 feet deep per 100 Troops per day.
|
|
|
Which of the following is considered a camp layout essential?
|
a) Entry Control Point(s)
b) Barriers and obstacles c) Leach fields d) MWR tent e) All of the above |
|
|
Camp generators must be ___________, ____________, and _________?
|
sheltered, grounded, and contained
|
|
|
What does ROWPU stand for?
|
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit
|
|
|
ROWPU site selection must be how far upstream of a usable water source?
|
75’
|
|
|
A ROWPU is powered by what?
|
30 KW generator
|
|
|
A ROWPU can purify how many gallons per hour of soiled water?
|
600
|
|
|
What model HMMWV is used in a CSS-TU?
|
M1113
|
|
|
What publication ensures that weight handling operations are conducted safely?
|
P307
|
|
|
Which license gives the authority to operate construction equipment?
|
11260/2
|
|
|
A vehicle not able to perform its intended function should be placed in?
|
Deadline
|
|
|
_______ _______ is used for CESE required only for contingency, emergency, or occasional use and, consequently, have extended periods of non use.
|
Live Storage
|
|
|
A NSWTG is a provisional NSW task organization that does what?
|
Plans, conducts, and supports SO in support of joint force SOC and/or fleet commanders.
|
|
|
Who normally commands an NSWTU?
|
A SEAL lieutenant commander or senior lieutenant from a deployed NSWRON
|
|
|
What does JSOTF stand for?
|
Joint Special Operations Task Force
|
|
|
A JSOTF is composed of whom?
|
Special operations units from more than one service.
|
|
|
When is a SEAL team designated as an NSWRON?
|
Six months prior to deployment
|
|
|
A SEAL Task Unit normally consists of how many SEAL platoons?
|
Two
|
|
|
The 11 meter RHIB can carry one CRRC, three crew members and up to how many SEALs?
|
eight
|
|
|
The MK V SOC carries two CRRCs, up to 16 SEALs and how many crew members?
|
five
|
|
|
The definition of Terrorism is “the calculated use of __________ or threat of ___________ to inculcate fear; intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious or ideological.”
|
lawful violence
|
|
|
The Elements of a Terrorist Group are:
|
Ideology, Goals, Characteristics, Organization
|
|
|
Circle 3 Goals of a Terrorist Group:
|
Recognition, Elimination of Western influence, Attainment of money or equipment, Freedom of prisoners, Satisfying vengeance
|
|
|
The typical characteristics of Terrorist Groups are:
|
Urban-based, Highly mobile, Well-trained, Covert
|
|
|
The Cells normally found in well organized Terrorist Groups are:
|
Planning and Preparation, Administration and Logistics, Intelligence and Surveillance, Operations Combat Cell
|
|
|
What are four types of terrorist operations?
|
Assassination Raids or attacks on facilities Bombing
Hostage taking Hijacking or skyjacking Kidnapping Sabotage Seizure of important buildings or assets Arson Information warfare Employment of weapons of mass destruction |
|
|
Put the following Terrorist Attack Preparations in the correct order:
|
Target options 1
Selection surveillance 2 Target selection 3 Detailed surveillance 4 Training and preparation 5 Attack 6 |
|
|
Match the Threat Level with its definition: LOW =
|
No terrorist group is detected or the group activity is nonthreatening.
|
|
|
Match the Threat Level with its definition: MODERATE =
|
Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activity. The operating environment favors the host nation / United States.
|
|
|
Match the Threat Level with its definition: SIGNIFICANT =
|
An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and their preferred method of operation is to attack personnel; or the terrorist group’s preferred method of operation is to execute large casualty producing attacks but has limited operational activity. The operating environment is neutral.
|
|
|
Match the Threat Level with its definition: HIGH =
|
An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is a substantial DOD presence and the operating environment favors the terrorist.
|
|
|
FPCON NORMAL
|
applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
|
|
|
FPCON ALPHA
|
applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. These measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.
|
|
|
FPCON BRAVO
|
applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining these measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities.
|
|
|
FPCON CHARLIE
|
applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of these measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.
|
|
|
FPCON DELTA
|
applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has
occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. Normally, this FPCON is declared as a localized condition. These measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods. |
|
|
The first general order is?
|
To take charge of this post and all government property in view.
|
|
|
To receive, obey and pass on to the ______ who relieves me all orders from the commanding officer, command duty officer, officer of the deck and officers and petty officers of the watch.
|
Sentry
|
|
|
True or false to give the alarm in case of fire or disorder is the 9th general order?
|
False
|
|
|
The tenth general order is?
|
To salute all officers, colors and standards not cased
|
|
|
Used to standardize watch turnover between on-coming and off-going personnel is known as?
|
Guard Mount procedures
|
|
|
Profuse sweating, nervous muttering, and unseasonable dress are typical indicators of?
|
Suicide bombers
|
|
|
What are the four type of questioning used in interview techniques?
|
Neutral, relaxing, control, and symptomatic
|
|
|
What is your name is an example of what type of question?
|
Neutral
|
|
|
Are you nervous about something is an example of what type of question?
|
Symptomatic
|
|
|
As boat coxswain, you must be familiar with and utilize which guiding principles?
|
International/ Inland Rules of the Road
|
|
|
Which of the following is not considered a Vessel Restricted in Ability to Maneuver?
|
A ship at anchorage
|
|
|
While underway you encounter another boat in a head on situation. What is your correct response?
|
Alter course to starboard
|
|
|
Boat sidelights are what colors?
|
Red to port, green to starboard
|
|
|
Name three environmental conditions which effect small boat operation?
|
Wind, seas, current
|
|
|
Cavitation of a propeller occurs due to _____ mixing with water, which can reduce thrust.
|
Air
|
|
|
Define Mean High/ Low Water.
|
Average high/ low water level over 19 yr period
|
|
|
Spring and Neap tides occur when?
|
During new, first quarter, last quarter and full moon.
|
|
|
The velocity of current is commonly called
|
Drift
|
|
|
The front and rear end of a boat are known as
|
Bow and stern
|
|
|
The beam of a vessel is located where?
|
Amidships
|
|
|
The compass error, which results from the offset of true geographic north to magnetic north, is __________________.
|
Variation
|
|
|
Deviation error is caused by
|
Ship acting as a magnetic
|
|
|
On a compass rose the inner circle indicates what?
|
Magnetic North
|
|
|
A ships position is known as
|
Fix
|
|
|
Name three items required to be onboard a F-470 prior to getting underway.
|
Anchor and line, first aid kit, flare kit, foot pump and hose, compass, paddles, VHF radio.
|
|
|
A reaction boat operates in which defensive zone?
|
Threat
|
|
|
Which boat formation is warranted when there is a suspicion the area is mined?
|
Column
|
|
|
Who issues fire commands onboard a boat?
|
Coxswain
|
|
|
Check Fire command means
|
All gunners cease fire temporarily to check effect
|
|
|
Who is responsible for the planning and preparation of a convoy?
|
Convoy Commander
|
|
|
_________ ______/_____ Render medical treatment and supervise evacuations and casualties?
|
Combat Life Savers/Medics
|
|
|
Who is responsible for sectors of fire?
|
Crew Served Weapons Operator
|
|
|
During convoy operations who is responsible for standard equipment requirements such as food, ammunition, fuel, and water?
|
Vehicle Commander
|
|
|
Who can fill the any position in the convoy when in duress?
|
Security Personnel
|
|
|
True or false the File formation offers simplicity and minimizes IED blasts
|
true
|
|
|
Which vehicle formation allows for greater headlight coverage?
|
Staggered
|
|
|
_________ ___ and _______limit 3rd party vehicle infiltration?
|
Inverted T/ diamond
|
|
|
What are the three elements of a strip map?
|
check points, starting points, critical points
|
|
|
During convoy operations what technique is used to physically block the road from oncoming traffic?
|
blocking
|
|
|
______ _____ _____ has the second vehicle take the off ramp to observe the top of an overpass
|
Deliberate high clear
|
|
|
Who takes control of the steering wheel in the downed driver battle drill?
|
Vehicle Commander
|
|
|
While performing the In-stride vehicle recovery who hooks up the tow and release straps?
|
Driver/Vehicle Commander
|
|
|
Who makes the call for a Dismount/Re-mount?
|
Vehicle Commander
|
|
|
In the blow Thru drill you should?
|
Speed up, signal direction of enemy, return fire, move to rally point, establish 360 degree security, report, continue mission.
|
|
|
______/_______ _______ Used when not in contact, but in proximity of persons who may pose a threat.
|
Dismount/Re-mount procedures
|
|
|
_____ ______ ______ the vehicle Commander hooks up the disabled vehicle, steers and brakes and moves to a rally point to set up more stable means of towing.
|
Hasty Vehicle Recovery
|
|
|
Who monitors the 0900-1100 field of fire?
|
Driver
|
|
|
The Vehicle commanders observations is?
|
1100-1500
|
|
|
What rule should be used while reacting to IED’s
|
The 5 C’s
|
|
|
What does SMEAC stand for?
|
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration & Logistics, Command & Signal
|
|
|
What does CEOI stand for?
|
Communications-Electronics Operating Instructions
|
|
|
What does JSOI stand for?
|
Joint Signals Operating Instructions
|
|
|
The __________ section of the SMEAC contains the WHO, WHAT, WHERE, WHEN, WHY.
|
mission
|
|
|
The_________ section of the SMEAC contains the Use of Force Actions.
|
Execution
|
|
|
The ___________ section of the SMEAC contains Call Signs.
|
C2 or Command & Signal
|
|
|
The SMEAC is also known as what?
|
Five-Paragraph Order
|
|
|
A RAVEN Plan is used for?
|
Aircraft
|
|
|
COA stands for?
|
Course of Action
|
|
|
what are the eight convoy troop leading procedures in their correct order of execution?
|
1. Receive the mission
2. Issue the warning order (WARNO) 3. Make a tentative plan 4. initiate movement 5. Reconnoiter 6. Complete the plan 7. Issue the convoy brief 8. Supervise |
|
|
What is the primary purpose of a COC?
|
Provides the battalion commander centralized command and control facilities for all combat tactical and operational operations conducted under his or her command.
|
|
|
What are two of the normal functions of a COC?
|
- Receiving and recording operational reports from subordinate
elements and companies - Maintaining current plots of the friendly and enemy situations and displaying this information within the COC - Preparing and submitting operational reports to higher headquarters - Providing dedicated communication channels for tactical and operational reporting - Transmitting orders and tactical decisions of the battalion commander to companies subordinate elements, and higher headquarter as required |
|
|
Which of the following are COC watchstations? (Check all that apply)
|
_X_ Operations Officer
___ Facilities Control Officer ___ Engineering Watch Officer _X_ RTO _X_ Journal Clerk ___ Combat Control Watch |
|
|
What is the purpose of the COC Watch Officer?
|
Keeps current on the tactical situation, makes routine decisions, and notifies Operations Officer of incidents of an unusual nature.
|
|
|
What are two of the factors that must be considered when establishing a COC?
|
- Adequate light must be provided
- Light-proof for night operations - Collocate all situation boards - Use remote equipment for radios - Security post to control access - Communications wiring must not impede foot traffic |
|
|
How is the terrorist threat level for a particular area determined?
|
The terrorist threat level for a particular area is determined by the presence or absence of threat factors.
|
|
|
What are the four DOD threat level assessment factors?
|
Operational Capability, Intentions, Activity, Operating Environment
|
|
|
What does it mean if a level of threat is considered to be “Significant”?
|
An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and their
preferred method of operation is to attack personnel; or the terrorist group’s preferred method of operation is to execute large casualty producing attacks but has limited operational activity. The operating environment is neutral. |
|
|
What does “CEOI” stand for?
|
Communications Electronics Operating Instructions
|
|
|
Name four things contained in a CEOI.
|
- General communications instructions
- Call sign assignments - Frequency assignments - General cryptographic instructions - Passwords/challenge - General authentication instructions - Effective cryptographic key lists and authentication tables |
|
|
How is a CEOI classified?
|
According to the highest classification of its content.
|
|
|
If you are only a “witness” are you responsible for the proper security and control of CMS?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Who is/are responsible for training all personnel involved with COMSEC material with regards to its handling and security?
|
The CMS Custodian and alternates.
|
|
|
Can COMSEC material be stored with non-COMSEC material?
|
No
|
|
|
What does “TPI” stand for?
|
Two Person Integrity!
|
|
|
What two types of Emergency Destruction are there?
|
- Precautionary Destruction
- Complete Destruction |
|
|
If not using secure voice communications equipment you must assume what?
|
That everything you say when using R/T is being intercepted.
|
|
|
List three circuit techniques you should use when using voice communications.
|
- Listen before transmitting.
- Speak clearly and slowly. - Use standard pronunciation. - Speak in a moderately strong voice. |
|
|
What are the two types of tactical circuits?
|
Short and Long range
|
|
|
Define “administrative circuits”.
|
Any voice circuit that is neither tactical nor operational are included in the administrative category.
|
|
|
What are the two types of circuit nets?
|
Directed and Free
|
|
|
What type of net requires stations to obtain permission from the Net Control Stations prior to communicating with other stations on the net?
|
Directed
|
|
|
What are the two types of “Execution Methods”?
|
Delayed and Immediate
|
|
|
Define high risk training.
|
Training that exposes students and instructors to the risk of death or permanent disability of safety precautions are not instituted and adhered to during execution.
|
|
|
What is required for high risk training?
|
An Emergency Action Plan
|
|
|
What is included in and Emergency Action Plan (EAP)?
|
Emergency phone numbers, Radio channels with call signs, Location of emergency equipment, Equipment shut down procedures, Back-up communication, Muster site for non affected students, Procedures to follow in the event of an emergency
|
|
|
What are the three basic features of effective unit training?
|
Compatibility
Evaluation and Instruction Analysis and Improvement |
|
|
What are the requirements for effective training?
|
Dynamic Instruction Quality Control
Positive Leadership Technical Support Personal Interest Regular Schedule |
|
|
What is PB4T?
|
Planning Board for Training
|
|
|
What is the PB4T board responsible for?
|
Developing the unit training program
|
|
|
Who chairs the PB4T?
|
XO
|
|
|
The PB4T board is composed of whom?
|
XO ESO 3MC
Department Heads Training Officer Legal Officer DCA CMC Medical |
|
|
What is the long range training plan used for?
|
To inform personnel of training goals and operating schedules Provides the framework for developing the short range training plan
|
|
|
What are two examples that would be listed on the long range training program?
|
-Annual employment schedule
-List of all required inspections/certifications List of all TYCOM required exercises School and NEC requirements -Lectures and seminars appropriate to each training group |
|
|
When is the quarterly training schedule given out to the Department Heads?
|
The month prior to that quarter
|
|
|
How is the monthly training plan developed?
|
Using the quarterly training plan as a guide. Each training group submits a proposed training plan to the cognizant Department Heads
|
|
|
When is the Quarterly Training Plan due to the Department Heads?
|
No later than the last week proceeding the up coming month
|
|
|
Who approves the quarterly training plan?
|
Department Head
|
|
|
Who can approve changes to the weekly training plan?
|
Department Head
|
|
|
What does the Jarb Stand for?
|
Joint Acquisition Review Board
|
|
|
What is a JARB not?
|
funding process
|
|
|
What class of supply handles ammunition?
|
Five
|
|
|
What class of supply is medical equipment?
|
Eight
|
|
|
What is the JFUB?
|
JOINT FACILITIES UTILIZATION BOARD.
|
|
|
A smoke hand grenade fuse safety lever held in place with what?
|
A cotter pin/pull ring
|
|
|
True or False: A smoke hand grenade is fitted with a M201A1 fuse.
|
true
|
|
|
A smoke hand grenade should be thrown at least how far from all personnel?
|
30 feet
|
|
|
A smoke hand grenade will produce smoke for how long?
|
50 – 90 seconds
|
|
|
An Illumination Ground Signal Kit will produce a _________ _________ display at a minimum altitude of __________ft for minimum of _____ seconds.
|
green star, 250, 4.5
|
|
|
The 40MM star parachute is fired from what two launchers?
|
M79 and M203
|
|
|
The 40MM star parachute will provide visual light for about how long while descending?
|
40 seconds
|
|
|
The max burst height of a 40MM star parachute is how high when fired at an 85 degree angle?
|
550 feet
|
