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405 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What is ORM?
ORM is a decision making tool- used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for loss, thereby increasing the probability of a successful mission.
What are the five steps in applying ORM?
Identify Hazards, Assess the Hazards, Make Risk Decisions, Implement Controls, and Supervise
What year did the US Army adopt Risk Management to reduce training and combat losses?
1991
What are the three types of ORM Controls?
Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, and Personal Protective Equipment
Which ORM Control is the lease effective control and why?
PPE is the least effective type of control because it does not reduce the probability of a mishap occurring, it only reduces the severity when a mishap does occur.
How often do Safety Councils convene to develop recommendations for policy and analyze progress of the overall safety program?
Quarterly
Who does the Safety Council members consist of?
Chairperson (CO or XO), Unit Safety Officer (recorder), and safety reps from each department
Who is ultimately responsible for safety within the command?
Commanding Officer
Who is responsible for advising the CO on matters pertaining to safety, manages the command safety program, investigates mishaps, monitors projects, shops, and special evolutions for compliance with safety hazards?
Safety Officer
When should personnel use hearing protection?
When noises exceed 84 DBA
When should personnel use double hearing protection?
When there is sustained noises greater than 104 DBA
What is used to provide data regarding information of a particular substance and provides procedures for handling of working with the substance in a safe manner and includes physical data, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill handling proced
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Who is authorized to perform lockout/tagout procedures?
Only qualified designated personnel in writing are authorized
What type of extinguisher do you use for a Class B fire?
Dry Chemical, CO2 foam
What is an EDVR?
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
What is a Naval Message and what are the three categories?
A formal and secure form of correpsodence that has the ability to be tracked once sent. The three categories are routine, priority and flash.
What is a Page 2?
NAVPERS 1070/602 Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data
What is a Page 4?
NAVPERS 1070/604, used to report educational experience, qualifications, awards, rating designator, and more.
What is a Page 13?
NAVPERS 1070/613 Administrative Remarks, serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere in the service record.
What is an OPREP used for?
The OPREP is used by Navy Forces to report significant events and incidents to senior Leadership.
Under the LOAC what is a Combatant?
All persons in uniform, carrying a weapon or participating in any way in military operations or activities.
Under the LOAC what is a Non-Combatant?
Civilians, medical personnel, and chaplains.
Who initiated America’s first sea-based offensive against the British?
General George Washington
The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by?
Bureau of Yards and Docks
Seabee’s celebrate March 5th, 1942 as
The day permission was granted to use the name Seabee.
In May 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers; the two fleets never saw each other. Name this battle.
Battle of the Coral Sea
Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea. What were they later renamed?
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Units.
Riverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to collect intelligence information. True or False
False
Who is appointed by the President as the head of the Department of the Navy?
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff is?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
N-4 Department head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate.
FALSE
N-1 Department Head is responsible for administration of a unit’s supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met.
FALSE
Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is?
Provide oversight and command and control of anti- terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary- type forces within the Navy.
Which command list below is not a core NCW Force?
a) Naval Coastal Warfare Groups (NCWGRU)
b) Mobile Inshore Undersea Warfare Units (MIUWU)
c) Inshore Boat Units (IBU)
X d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
e) United States Coast Guard (USCG) Port Security Units (PSU)
Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are?
Port Security Unit (PSU)
Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as
Embarked Security Teams (EST).
What three Air Mobility Command (AMC) Organic aircraft we commonly use?
C-130 Hercules, C-5 Galaxy and C-17 Globemaster III.
What is the primary mission of a C-130?
Intra-theater tactical airlift.
What is the primary mission of a C-5?
Inter-theater strategic airlift of outsized cargo.
What is the primary mission of a C-17?
Inter-theater tactical airlift of outsized items of cargo to small austere airfields at or near the battle area, by aerial delivery or air-land method.
What organic aircraft replaced the C-141?
C-17 Globemaster III.
What is the typical use of a C-130?
Moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines.
What does MPF stands for?
Maritime Prepositioning Forces.
True or False. Hazardous cargo needs to have a Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods Form completed?
True.
True or False. Military Sealift Command (MSC) are tasked with providing strategic, common-user sealift transportation services to U.S. Forces to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy those forces on a global basis.
True.
What does APF stands for?
Afloat Pre-positioning Force.
Currently how many ships do APF have?
Over 30 Ships.
APF are separated into what two mission categories?
Maritime Pre-positioning ships and Afloat Pre-positioning Ships.
Are prowords to be substituted for text?
No
Name a method of communication that can be used in areas where oral communication is not reliable
Arm and hand signals, Whistle signals, and Special signals
What is the nature and purpose of command and control?
To enable the Naval Commander to understand the situation in his/her battle space.
Who drives the command and control process?
The Commander
Who has final responsibility and accountability for success of the mission?
The Commander
What are the three forms of intelligence?
Strategic, Operational and Tactical
What is the cornerstone of naval intelligence?
To support the operating forces (at sea, from sea and ashore)
Name two key attributes of naval intelligence.
Timeliness, objectivity, usability availability, thoroughness, accuracy and relevance
What does the acronym COMSEC stand for?
Communications Security
What is COMSEC?
The Navy's system for providing safeguards on telecommunications via encryption.
What is meant by the term TPI?
Two-person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals
What are the three types of clearances?
Confidential, Secret and Top Secret
Name the frequency of HF, VHF and UHF.
HF = 3 MHZ - 30 MHZ, VHF = 30 MHZ - 300 MHZ, UHF = 300 MHZ - 3 GHZ
Name two factors that effect the range of radio equipment.
Weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of the radio
What is meant by the term minimize?
To drastically reduce normal message and telephone traffic so that vital messages connected with the situation at hand will not be delayed. Similar to "Silence on the Net."
What is meant by the term beadwindow?
It is used to alert the operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NON-SECURE circuit.
What are the Five Basic Phases to an Expeditionary Camp layout?
Phase I - Planning
Phase II - Site Survey/Security
Phase III - Camp Establishment
Phase IV - Camp Maintenance
Phase V - Camp Teardown
Planning phase has what four types of camps?
Base, Expeditionary, Unit and Logistics Hub.
True or False. Site Survey preparations are future site by aerial photograph, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol.
True.
List about three facilities or structures in Phase III Camp Establishments?
Billeting, Food Service, Showers/Heads, Field Armory, BAS, Laundry, Administrative Services, MWR, Ministry.
What are the basic duties of First Aid Station?
Emergency Response Team, Minor Surgeries, Patient Monitoring, Medical Evacuation, Pharmacy and Administration.
True or False. Personnel should be trained in Basic First Aid and Adult CPR.
True.
Phase IV Maintenance is normally run by who?
Seabees and Contractors (KBR and Blue Diamond).
Who maintains the tactical equipment in Camp?
Seabee Mechanics and L-3 Mechanics.
What is an intergral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system?
Leach Field.
What form is filled out when a trouble call is submitted to the Trouble Desk?
Emergency/Service Authorization (ESA)
What are the four priority work classifications?
Safety, Function, Preventive and Appearance.
State the reason for a priority work classification I (Safety)?
Work required primarily for Safety reasons.
What is potable water for?
Suitable for drinking, cooking and personal use.
What are the three standard gear issue categories?
1. Fighting/load carrying
2. Bivouac
3. Protective
The standard 782 gear issue consists of what?
- Pistol belt with two magazine pouches
- Pack, usually a medium size
- H-harness or suspenders
Name the three fighting positions.
- Hasty Position
- Improved one man
- Improved two man
What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man fighting position?
Two-man provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing, and shelling.
Which type of camouflage is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting?
Natural cover
What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead?
Hit the deck.
What does “KOCOA” stand for?
Key Terrain
Observation and Fields of Fire
Concealment and Cover
Obstacles to Movement
Avenues of Approach
Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass.
1. When a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line.
2. Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned.
3. For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line.
What does “BAMCIS” stand for?
Begin planning
Arrange recon
Make recon
Complete the plan
Issue the order
Supervise
What does “SMEAC” stand for?
Situation
Mission
Execution
Administration and Logistics
Command and Signal
What are the three sub-paragraphs of the Situation paragraph of a five paragraph order?
1. Enemy forces
2. Friendly forces
3. Attachments and detachments
When is a “SALUTE” report used?
When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat.
What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol?
Information gathering.
What are three considerations when creating a fire plan?
- Sectors or Zone of Fire
- Individual fighting positions
- Crew Served Weapons
- Rifleman positions
- Terrain Features
- Fire Team Leader
What are the two types of fire limits?
Lateral and Forward
Name the four types of fire team formations.
- Column
- Wedge
- Skirmishers (right and left)
- Echelon (right and left)
How many Articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?
Six
What are the four THREATCON levels.
- Alpha
-Bravo
-Charlie
-Delta
Is arrest or apprehension a circumstance under which deadly force would normally be authorized?
Yes
What are three types of wire entanglements?
- Tactical
-Protective
-Supplementary
Describe Challenge and Reply.
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation.
What are the three types of waterborne security zones?
1. Assessment
2. Warning
3. Threat
List four things addressed by an effective ATFP plan.
- Concept of operations
- Preplanned responses
- Tactics
- Crisis management procedures
- Baseline security posture
- Measures to increase security posture
- Reporting procedures
- Command and control procedures.
Name the five types of waterborne threats.
- Small Boats
- Deep Draft Boat
- Subsurface
- Swimmer
- Floating Mines
What actions are taken when Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level three is attained?
Warning shots from Crew Serve weapons are fired across bow of Contact of Interest (COI).
True or False: When engaging a hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain.
False
What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborne High Value Asset (HVA)?
500 meters
Name three things that affect waterborne security zone size/location?
- UN restrictions.
- Geography.
- Threat Areas.
- Capabilities of U.S. security forces.
- Proximity of targets
What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels?
To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible.
What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone?
Two (minimum) and Four (ideal)
Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what?
Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other regional organization.
What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)?
To ensure the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas.
Chemical Warfare is broken into what two categories?
Chemical Agents and Chemical Compounds.
Biological Warfare is the use of what biological agents?
Pathogens or toxins.
Do we have any detection equipment for Biological Warfare?
NO.
What are the signs or indictors for Biological Warfare?
Dead bodies, animals, and vegetation.
True or False. Radiological Warfare is when radiation (nuclear Bomb) is used as a weapon.
True.
What is MCU-2/P?
Chemical Gas Mask.
What does JSLIST stands for?
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology.
What is the color and markings on a NATO CBR marker signs for Biological.
Blue with Red marking BIO
When the suit is removed from the package in uncontaminated area, how days and/or how many washes ever comes first.
45 Days or 6 Washes.
What are the three types of decontaminations?
Immediate, Operational and Thorough.
What color does the M-9 paper turns when it comes in contact with a liquid chemical agent?
Colors of RED.
What does NAAK stands for and what are the contents of the kit?
Nerve Agent Antidote Kit and Atropine/2-PAM CL Injectors.
Explain all the MOPP levels?
MOPP 0 – Everything within sight or to the ready
MOPP I – Overgarment
MOPP II - Over Boots
MOPP III - Mask and Hood Open
MOPP IV - Close Hood and Gloves
What equipment reads the DT-60 personnel Dosimeter.
Portable Equipment CP-95.
What are radiations measured in?
Roentgens.
What does the acronym COSAL stand for?
Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List
What does the acronym COSBAL stand for?
Consolidated Shorebased Allowance List
What does COSAL/COSBAL provide?
A list of every piece of every equipement and piece part of items on ship or shore.
What doe the acronym MOV stand for?
Material Obligation Validation (MOV) program
What are the two components of the operating target (OPTAR)?
1. Repairables 2. Consumables
What does the acronym DRMO stand for?
Defense Reutilizaton Marketing Office (DRMO)
What is DD Form 1348-6?
Standard MILSTRIP requistioning form used when automated supply requsitioning is not available.
What is the aternate form of DD Form 1348-6?
DD Form 1250-2
What form is used as a Requisition and Invoice/Shipping document?
DD Form 1149
What form is used to report lost, stolen, damaged or unserviceable items?
DD 200
What is an NSN?
NSN stands for National Stock Number. It is used to identify standardized supply items by NATO countries
Property with a unit cost of $100,000 or more is considered plant property?
TRUE
What is the unit cost of minor property?
Between $2500 to $100,000
Is a printer, copier or television considered plant or minor property items?
Minor property items
Discuss the Depot Level Repairables (DLR) program.
High priced parts that can be turned in for repair or refurbishment for another's use.
What does the acronym NRFI stand for?
Not Ready For Issue
What does it mean for item to be Remain In Place (RIP)?
The current part stays in place until the new part arrives. Removing a RIP item could down a part or system completely.
A RIP chit has a duration of how long?
72 Hours
What are some of the symptoms of electrical shock?
Pale, weak pulse, burns are usually present, stiffness in the body
What are two types of ventilation used to control potential hazardous airborne substances?
Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) and General of Dilution Ventilation
What safety requirement is conducted on the weather decks and flight deck prior to flight operations?
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) walk through
When conducting helo operations how many feet away should you be when the rotor blades are turning, unless necessary?
50 feet
Name some ways to prevent an electrical fire?
Keep electric motors clean, ensure proper maintanenance is performed, keep air filters cleand, and do not overload circuits.
What flag is flown during ordnance cargo handling operations?
BRAVO flag
Define First Aid.
First Aid is the emergency care and treatment of a sick or injured person before medical services are obtained.
What are the three primary purposes of First Aid?
1. To save life
2. Prevent further injury
3. To minimize or prevent infection.
With regards to First Aid what does A.B.C. stand for?
- Airway
- Breathing
- Circulation
What is the correct position of a patient being treated for shock?
Patient should be placed on his or her back, with legs elevated 6 to 12 inches.
What are the two types of fractures?
Open and Closed
True or False: Splints should not be so long that they reach the joint above and below a fracture.
False
What are symptoms of a second degree burn?
_X_ Affects the first layer of the skin
_X_ Skin blistered and weeping
_X_ Pain is moderate to severe
A fracture or separation of the ribs from the breastbone may produce a free-floating segment called a ___________________?
flail area
True or False: Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair the internal damage.
True
What are the three types of heat injuries?
1. Heat Cramps
2. Heat Exhaustion
3. Heat Stroke
What are the two types of cold injuries?
1. Frostbite
2. Hypothermia
What does line five of a nine line medevac indicate?
Number of patients
Who is Phil Bucklew?
Father of Naval Special Warfare
What contributions did he have towards NSW?
He was part of the first group commissioned in October 1942 that saw action During Operation TORCH
Explain Operation TORCH?
The first Allied Landing in Europe, on the North African Coast.
When did the Amphibious Scout and Raider Training Begin?
15 August 1942
What is the importance of LCDR Draper Kaufman?
Father of Naval Combat Demolition. Set up school to train how to eliminate obstacles on an enemy-held beach prior to an invasion. Naval Combat Demolition Unit Training at Ft Pierce opened 6 June 1943
Who was the President that established the first SEAL Teams and when?
John F. Kennedy, January 1962
What was NSW response to 11 September 2001
NSW put forces on the ground in Afghanistan in October. The first military flag officer to set foot in Afganistan was a Navy SEAL.
What is the mission fo USSOCOM?
Train, organize, equips and deploys combat ready special operations forces to combatant commands.
What are the four organizations that make up USSOCOM and what is their mission under USSOCOM?
MARSOC, AFSCOC, NAVSPECWARCOM, and USASOC. Lead, plan, synchronize, and as directed, executes global operations against terrorist networks.
What is the Mission of NSW Logisitics Support Unit?
Provide direct administrative, maintenance, logistical, and medical support to Group ONE and TWO and their subordinate SEAL Teams.
What is CSSD? What do they do?
Combat Service Support Detachment. Provide forward area logistics, sustainment, and combat service support to deployed, landbased NSW task organizations.
What is MCT? What do they do?
Mobile Communications Team. Augments NSWTG/TU to ensure communications interoperability with joint and fleet commanders.
What is the mission of Naval Special Warfare Unit?
Plan, coordinate, deconflict, and provide NSW forces for operations and exercises in support of a Theater Commander while advising Theater SOC and Fleet Staffs and to provide support to theater NSW forces as required.
Name the locations of the different NSWUs and who they support?
NSWU 1 - Guam supports PACOM; NSWU 2 - Stuttgart, Germany supports EUCOM; NSWU 3 - Bahrain supports CENTCOM
What is the mission of Naval Special Warfare Group ONE and TWO?
Prepare, maintain, deploy, and support assigned NSW forces to conduct MSO in support of designated Theater Commanders and conventional naval forces and, when directed command and control NSW operational forces in exercises and operations.
Who are the subordinated commands under NSWG1?
SEAL Team ONE, SEAL Team THREE, SEAL Team FIVE, SEAL Team SEVEN, LOGSUPP ONE, NSWU1, NSWU3
Who are the subordinated commands under NSWG2?
SEAL Team TWO, SEAL Team FOUR, SEAL Team EIGHT, SEAL Team TEN, LOGSUPP TWO, NSWU2
What is the mission of a SEAL Delivery TEAM?
Prepare and deploy SDV Dets and ASDS Dets to conduct MSO and to augment NSWTG/TU in support of Theater Commanders and conventional naval forces.
What is the mission of a Special Boat Team?
Prepare and deploy assigned craft and crews as SPECBOAT Dets as components of NSWTG/Tus to conduct MSO in support of Theater Commanders and conventional naval forces.
What does TOA stand for?
Table of Allowance
The Table of Allowance provides how many days capability to perform operations?
Based on the mission and personnel attached (90 days for operations)
What does 3M stand for?
Maintenanace Material Management
What does PM stand for?
Preventive Maintenance
What is the pruprose of the 3M/PM system?
To provide a means of managing preventive and corrective maintenance.
What program is used to streamline small purchase methods, minimize paperwork, and streamline payment processes?
Purchase Card program
What is the micro purchase-threshold used to purchase supplies and services for official government business?
The micro-purchase threshold is at or below $3000 (up to $9,999,900 with other contracting methods)
What does OPTAR stand for?
Operating Target
Who distributes the OPTAR?
The OPTAR is distributed from the Commanding Officer to the department level.
Who maintains budget records?
The Supply Officer maintains budget records with the OPTAR funds records.
What does the acronym PWRMS stand for?
Pre-positioned War Reserve Management System
When is Navy war reserve material essential?
(Times of war) These items are not needed during peacetime, but are essential to successful pursuit during pursuit of victory in war.
What form is used as a request for contractual procurement?
NAVCOMPT 2276
What form is used for original purchase orders?
DD Form 1155
What is the SF 30 used for?
To modify original purchase orders and delivery/task orders
What type of radio is the AN/PRC-150C?
HF LOS manpack radio which provides tactical communications through secure voice and data
What type of batteries does the AN/PRC-150C utilize?
BA-5590
An AN/PSC-5D is a UHF/VHF SATCOM/LOS manpack radio. True/False?
TRUE
What is the maximum output of an AN/PSC-5D?
20 watts
What is the frequency range of the AN/PSC-5D?
30-215 Mhz
What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-148 MBITR?
30-512 Mhz
Is the AN/PRC-148 MBITR certified for SATCOM use?
It is SATCOM capable, but not SATCOM certified.
What radio is considered the handheld survival radio?
AN/PRQ-7 CSEL (Combat Survivor/Evader Locator)
Name two 24 hour characteristics provided by the AN/PRQ-7 radio.
Line-of-Sight Voice, Beacon, GPS, 2-way data communications, Low probability Intercept/Detection, Global coverage, and Over the Horizon messaging
How many HF and UHF circuits does the JBS V2D radio base station have?
2 HF circuits and 12 UHF/SATCOM circuits
What SHF terminal is 1MB capable used in support of deploying NSW TUs to provide NIPR, SIPR, JWICs, and red/black phones?
SDN-TCV (SOF Deployable Node-Transit Case Variant)
What SHF terminal is 2MB capable used in support of deploying NSW TUs to provide NIPR, SIPR, JWICs, and red/black phones?
SDN-m (SOF Deployable Node-Medium
What receive-mode only system provides both unclassified and classified weather information, map imagery, intel data, UAV video and CNN/FOX news?
GBS (Global Broadcast Service) provides high-speed one way information to the warfighter.
How many waypoints can the AN/PSN-13S DAGR (Defense Advanced GPS Receiver) store?
Up to 999.
Name two alternate methods of communications.
Messenger, Whistle signals (Attention to Orders, Cease Firing, Hostile Aircraft/Mechanized Vehicle), Special signals and Hand signals
What does CESE stands for?
Civil Engineer Support Equipment.
What is the process of Embarking CESE to the Marshalling area?
Dispatch, Collateral Equipment, Fuel/De-fuel, Wash, Maintenance Checks, Rewash, and Final Inspection.
What is the process of Embarking Cargo to the Marshalling area?
Stage, Inventory, Clean, Build, Secure, and Final Inspection.
What is the process of Embarking Equipment/Cargo for Air and Sea Shipment?
All Equipment/Cargo should be inventoried, Weighed, Marked and JI’ed (Joint Inspection by AMC).
What is the primary and secondary means for loading cargo by Air and Sea Shipment?
463L Pallet and ISU.
What is the total weight for a 463L?
290 lbs.
What is the total weight for a 2 side nets and 1 top net?
65 lbs.
What is the maximum weight for 463L pallet?
10K lbs.
What is the color of the Side Nets?
Green
What is the size of a 463L pallet?
88” X 108”.
What is the maximum height for 463L pallet?
96”.
What is TPFDD?
Time Phased Force Deployment Data.
How is TPFDD used?
It is the information used to plan and execute the movement of personnel and equipment to support OPLANS.
What does JOPES stands for?
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
What does TUCHA DATA stands for and how is it used?
Type Unit Characteristics Data and it’s used for Data filing for different military unit’s configurations (EOD, SBT, and SEAL Team).
What are three camp layout considerations?
Key Terrain Feature, Security/Defensive Posture, Health and Sanitation.
What does the acronym KOCOA means?
Key Terrain Features, Observation and Fields of Fire, Cover and Concealment, Obstacles (Man made or Natural), Avenues of approach.
Define Cover and Concealment in KOCOA?
Cover and Concealment in a Camp Layout is important for Camp Security, Protections and Safety.
How many meters apart should you disperse Camp Facilities and Utilities?
35 Meters.
How many meters apart should utilities for a natural water sources?
100 Meters.
How far apart should the TOC and Ant Farm be?
100 Meters.
What does ECP stands for?
Entry Control Point.
What are the three types of ECP’s for Defensive Posture.
Serpentine, Bunker and Observation.
For Health reasons, what is the distance from Food/Water should the Heads be?
100 Yards.
What considerations for waste water (Black and Gray) for Health and Sanitation are?
Wind Direction.
How many yards should Garbage Disposal/Burn Pit area be from a natural water source?
100 Yards.
What are the three considerations for setting up Generators must be?
Sheltered, Grounded and Contained.
What is the diameter size of a grounding rod and at least how deep should it be buried in the ground?
Diameter is 5/8” and least 8’ Deep.
What does acronym ROWPU means?
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit.
How many gallons can ROWPU purify in one hour of soiled water?
600 Gallons.
What publication assist management at all levels in properly discharging their responsibilities in the efficient management of the transportation program?
P-300
What does the P-11200 do for the Naval Construction Force (NCF)?
To establish policy, assign action and provide guidance for Equipment Management Program.
What publication ensures optimum service life of the equipment is conducted safely and efficiently.
P-307
What is MHE stands for?
Material Handling Equipment.
How to check out a Government vehicle?
Fill out a vehicle request form and turn it in to the Dispatcher or Lead Mechanic with a 48 hours wait time. Dispatcher will issue a trip ticket and keys to the vehicle for operation, after you turn in a Pre-Start Card.
What is a Pre-start card for?
The first operator to check out the vehicle needs to checks over the vehicle for damage, cleanliness, leaks, operational function checks.
How to turn a vehicle?
Turn in the keys after cleaning, refueling and inspected by the Dispatcher or Lead Mechanic.
All vehicle accidents should notify who?
Dispatcher or Lead Mechanic.
What is the form to fill out when you have an accident?
SF-91.
What is the maintenance schedule for all Government Vehicles not in Live Storage Program?
40 Days Cycle.
What type of license authorizes to operator a government motor vehicle?
OF/346
Publication 11260/2 authorizes to operate what equipment?
Construction and weight handling equipment.
Vehicles not able to operator in a safe operating conditions or mechanical failure are considered what?
Deadline.
What are NORS and ANORS stands for?
Not Operationally ready Supply and Anticipated Not Operationally Ready Due to Supply.
What program is used to support CESE required only for contingency and emergency operation that are stored on an 80 days preventive maintenance cycles.
Live Storage.
What is NSWTG stands for?
Naval Special Warfare Task Group.
A NSWTG is a Provisional NSW task organization that does what?
Plans, conducts, and support special operation in support of joint force SOC and/or fleet commanders.
Who normally commands NSWTG?
Commander (O-5).
NSWTG is comprised of what?
C2 element and one or more subordinate Task Units.
What does NSWTU stands for?
Naval Special Warfare Task Unit.
Who normally commands NSWTU?
Senior Seal Lieutenant and above (O-3 to O-4).
NSWTU is comprised of what?
C-2 element and one or more SEAL PLTs, and other units (mobility and communication).
What does JSOTF stands for?
Joint Special Operations Task Force.
Who is the Commanding Officer of Naval Special Warfare Squadron (NSWRON)?
The SEAL Team Commanding Officer that is attached to the Squadron.
The SEAL Platoon is made up of 2-3 Officers and how many enlisted?
12-14 enlisted
True or False. All SEAL PLTs personnel are dive, parachute and demolition qualified and proficient in small-unit tactics and maritime operations.
True.
What component is made up of small C2 element and one or more SEAL Platoons.
SEAL Task Unit.
What does RHIB stands for?
Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat Detachment.
The NSW RHIB carries up to eight SEALs with one CRRC and how many crewmembers?
3 Crewmembers.
The 82-foot MK V SOC is designed for what?
Insertion/Extraction of SOF in a low to medium threat environment.
Terrorist operations are meticulously planned; what three elements are accomplished to minimize the risk of failure?
Detailed reconnaissance missions, Training, Rehearsals
Name three types of tactics that are employed by terrorists?
Hostage Taking, Kidnapping, Bombing, Hijacking, Seizure,Raids or Attacks on Facilities, Sabotage, Hoaxes, Arson, Assassination, WMD, Information Warfare(Computer Hacker)
Terrorist attack methodology is comprised of six phases; target options; selection surveillance; target selection; target surveillance; training and preparation; and attack. Which of these six phases presents the greatest weakness and why?
Target surveillance, because an effective counter-surveillance program may be able to detect surveillance and alert the target of an impending attack.
What are the five Force Protection conditions?
Normal, Alpha, Bravo,Charlie,Delta
What are the two types of vulnerability assessments?
Area Specific (port,airfield), Assessment of own unit
What is the main purpose for unit to perform a vulnerability assessment?
Examine for any weaknesses a unit has that might be susceptible to a terrorist attack
How does weapons effect mitigation apply to a vulnerability assessment?
Assesses the effects of any attacks through standoff distances, blast barriers, and structural hardening
Why must an Anti Terrorism / Force Protection Plan be understandable?
It must be kept understandable for all involved so that the information may be promulgated easily
Who must complete Level I AT / FP training?
All military service members and all DOD employees
Dependent family members ages 14 and over must complete what level of training prior to a PCS OCONUS move?
Level I
Commands that have more than 300 attached personnel must have what appointed in writing?
Anti Terrorism Officer
Level I AT / FP training must be completed how often?
Annually
What importance does AOR Specific Training provide a unit or an individual?
Provide detailed threat information covering transit routes and sites that will be visited
Who must attend Level III Pre-Command AT Training before assuming command?
O5 and O6 commanders or civilian equivalent
What are the four Terrorist Threat Levels?
Low, Moderate, Significant, High
How many general orders are there for a Sentry watch?
11
What are the three zones of an Entry Control Point?
Assessment, Warning, and Threat Zones
When doing a personnel search, what is the proper way to do a search?
Have the person spread their feet shoulder width apart, stand on one side utilizing the crush squeeze method, search the body in 1/4 sections using the knife edge of your hand.
What is the proper way to search a vehicle?
Search the vehicle in three priorities. Priority 1 - Trunk and Engine Department, Priority 2 - Interior, Priority 3 - Underneath Vehicle
What is the purpose of anti swimmer patrols?
The purpose is to deter swimmers on or near the surface
Name the three control force actions for civil disturbances.
Isolate the area, protect likely targets, and exert control
As boat coxswain, you must be familiar with and utilize which guiding principles?
International/ Inland Rules of the Road
Which of the following is not considered a Vessel Restricted in Ability to Maneuver?
A ship at anchorage
While underway you encounter another boat in a head on situation. What should you do?
Alter course to starboard
Boat sidelights are what colors?
Red to port, green to starboard
Name three environmental conditions which effect small boat operation?
Wind, seas, current
Cavitation of a propeller occurs due to _____ mixing with water, which can reduce thrust.
Air
Define Mean High/ Low Water.
Average high/ low water level over 19 yr period
Spring and Neap tides occur when?
During new, first quarter, last quarter and full moon.
The velocity of current is commonly called
Drift
The front and rear end of a boat are known as
Bow and stern
The beam of a vessel is located where?
Amidships
The compass error, which results from the offset of true geographic north to magnetic north, is __________________.
Variation
Deviation error is caused by
Ship acting as a magnetic
On a compass rose the inner circle indicates
Magnetic North
A ships position is known as
Fix
Name three items required to be onboard a F-470 prior to getting underway.
Anchor and line, first aid kit, flare kit, foot pump and hose, compass, paddles, VHF radio.
A reaction boat operates in which defensive zone?
Threat
Which boat formation is warranted when there is a suspicion the area is mined?
Column
Who issues fire commands onboard a boat?
Coxswain
Check Fire command means
All gunners cease fire temporarily to check effect
Weapons Free command indicates
Firing is at gunners discretion
What are the three elements of a strip map?
Check points, starting points, critical points
Who is responsible for the planning and preparation of a convoy?
Convoy Commander
Who is responsible for sectors of fire?
Crew Served Weapons Operator
Who is responsible for patients and casualties?
Combat Life Savers/Medics
During convoy operations who is responsible for standard equipment requirements such as food, ammunition, fuel, and water?
Vehicle Commander
Who can fill any position in the convoy when in duress?
Security Personnel
True or False. The File formation offers simplicity and minimizes IED blasts.
FALSE
Which vehicle formation allows for greater headlight coverage?
Staggered
What two techniques limit 3rd party vehicle infiltration?
Inverted T/ diamond
During convoy operations what technique is used to physically block the road from oncoming traffic?
Blocking
What technique has the second vehicle take the off ramp to observe the top of an overpass?
Deliberate high clear
Who takes control of the steering wheel in the downed driver battle drill?
Vehicle Commander
While performing the In-stride vehicle recovery who hooks up the tow and release straps?
Driver/Vehicle Commander
Who makes the call for a Dismount/Re-mount?
Vehicle Commander
In the blow Thru drill,what action should you take?
Speed up, signal direction of enemy, return fire, move to rally point, establish 360 degree security, report, continue mission.
What is the first step of mission planning?
Mission analysis
What does COA stand for?
Coarse of Action
Name the five steps of mission planning.
Mission analysis, COA development, COA Wargame, COA Comparison and development, and Orders development (and Transition)
What does SMEAC stand for?
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration and Logistics, Command and Signal
What segment of SMEAC gives the who, what, when, where and why?
The mission statement is a clear and concise statement of the mission.
In what section can you find the commander's intent?
Execution
What section contains information or instructions pertaining to rations, ammo, resupply and admin matters?
Administration and logistics
The Inport Security Plans (ISP) supplements what standing plan?
AT/FP plan
What format is used to to brief ongoing crews.
SMEAC
What does the acronym WARNO stand for?
Warning Order
What does COC stand for?
Combat Operations Center
What is the prupose of the COC?
To provide the battalion commander centralized command and control facilities fpr all combat tactical and operational operations conducted under his/her command.
Name the three officers of the COC watch.
Operations, Intelligence, and COC
What are the four DOD threat level assessment factors?
Operational capability, Intentions, Activity, and Operating environment
Terrorist threat levels are set based on the analysis of a combination of threat assessment factors.
TRUE
What are the four threat levels?
Low, moderate, significant and High
What does CMS stand for?
Communications Security Material System
Who is responsible for proper security, control, accountability and destruction of CMS in their workspace?
Everyone, whether you are a CMS user or a witness.
How should COMSEC and non-COMSEC material be stored?
Separately. COMSEC material of different security classifications may be stored in the same drawer but segrated by classification for destruction in a timely manner.
During a routine destruction, when whould superseded COMSEC mterial be be destroyed?
As soon as possible after supersession
Name two voice circuit techniques.
Listen before transmitting, Speak clearly and slowly, Use standard pronunciation, Speak in a moderately strong voice
Name the two types of tactical circuits.
Short range and long range
When are administrative circuits normally used?
Inport
What are the two types of nets?
Directed net and free net
What are the two types of execution methods?
Delayed and Immediate
What OPNAV instruction is used for safety policy and procedures for conducting High Risk training?
OPNAVINST 1500.75A
What OPNAV instruction is used for the Standard Organization and Regulations of the US Navy?
OPNAVINST 3120.32C
What plan is used in case of mishap and is required during high risk training evolutions?
Emergency Action Plan
What are the three basic features of effective unit training?
1. Compatibility 2. Evaluation and Instruction 3. Analysis and Improvement
What board does the CO use for developing the Unit training program?
Planning Board for Training
Who is the designated chairperson for Planning Board for Training?
XO
Name the three types of training plans?
1. Long Range Training Plan 2. Quarterly Training Plan 3. Monthly/Weekly Training Plan
Which training plan is used to list all inspections, certifications, assist visits, and TYCOM required exercises?
Long Range Training Plans
Who is responsible for approving quarterly schedules for the Quarterly Training Plan?
Department Head
What does the Jarb Stand for?
Joint Acquisition Review Board
What is a not a JARB process?
2. funding process
The JARB Support cell is made up of how many Officers and how many enlisted persons?
2 officers and 1 enlisted person
What class of supply handles ammunition?
Five
What class of supply is medical equipment?
Eight
What is the JFUB?
Joint Facilities Utilization Board
Who is the Supply Officer of the CJSOTF?
J8
Who is responsible for all Logistic requirements of the TF, including all Supply, Maintenance and Transportation needs.
J8
Who is the TF Comptroller and is responsible and accountable for all Monetary Funds associated with the operation of the TF.
J4
What is ARSOF?
Army Special Operation Forces.
What class of supply is Lubricants?
Three
What is a MIPR?
Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)
Which Officer is responsible to inventory and accept custody of those items by from the Army Property Book.
PBO
Are Combat forces initially deployed into theater with their ammunition basic loads?
Yes
What does ASA stand for?
Ammunition support activities (ASA).
How far from you should you throw a smoke grenade?
30 ft
How long is the delay for the smoke grenades?
0.7 - 2 seconds
How long is smoke produced from a smoke grenade?
50-90 seconds
What is a minimum altitude pencil flare will travel?
250 ft
How long does the pencil flare last when released?
4.5 seconds
A 40MM Flare has a delay of how long?
4-5 second
The max burst height for the 40mm Flare is what?
550
True or false. The bandolier is part of the pencil flare.
TRUE
How many holes are in the GREEN smoke grenade?
4
How long does the 40MM flare last?
40 seconds
P226: WHAT TYPE/CALIBER OF AMMO DOES IT USE?
9mm
P226: HOW DOES IT OPERATE?
RECOIL-OPERATED SEMI-AUTO IN EITHER SINGLE OR DOUBLE ACTION.
P226: DOES IT HAVE ANY SAFETIES?
NO
P226: WHAT TYPE OF SAFETY FEATURES DOES IT HAVE?
DECOCKING LEVER ON THE LEFT SIDE.
P226: WHAT IS THE AMMO CAPACITY?
15+1
P226: WHEN FIELD STRIPPING, WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP?
CLEAR AND SAFE
M4A1: WHAT IS THE MAX EFFECTIVE RANGE?
500M
M4A1: WHAT IS THE AMMO CAPACITY?
30+1
M4A1: WHAT TWO MAIN ASSEMBLIES DOES IT BREAK DOWN TO?
THE UPPER AND LOWER RECIEVERS
M4A1: WHAT IS THE BARREL LENGTH?
14.5 INCHES
M4A1: HOW DOES IT OPERATE?
GAS OPERATED, MAGAZINE FED, FULL OR SEMI AUTO
M2HB: WHAT DOES IT WEIGH WHEN EMPTY?
84LBS
M2HB: WHAT IS THE RATE OF FIRE?
450-550 RPM
M2HB: WHAT IS THE BARREL LENGTH?
45 INCHES
M2HB: WHAT TYPE OF OPERATION DOES IT DO?
RECOIL OPERATED FULLY-AUTO 0R SINGLE SHOT BELT FED.
M2HB: WHAT IS THE MAX EFFECTIVE RANGE?
2,000 YARDS
M240: WHAT TYPE OF AMMO DOES IT USE?
7.62MM LINKED
M240: WHAT IS ITS RATE OF FIRE?
750-950 RPM
M240: WHAT TYPE OF OPERATION?
GAS-OPERATED BELT FED FULLY-AUTO
M240: WHAT DOES THIS WEAPON ALLOW YOU TO DO THAT THE OTHERS DO NOT, WHEN IT COMES TO THE RATE OF FIRE?
THE RATE OF FIRE IS ADJUSTABLE WITH THE GAS REGULATOR.