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203 Cards in this Set

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3 components of sensory experience
Sensory reception, perception, reaction
Stereognosis
is the ability to perceive and recognize the form of an object using cues from texture, size, spatial properties, and temperature. Stereognosis tests determine whether or not the parietal lobe of the brain is intact. Typically, these tests involved having the patient identify common objects (eg. keys, comb, safety pins) placed in their hand without any visual cues.
4 requirements for sensory experience
Stimuli capable of initiating a response by nervous system
Receptor or sense organ to receive stimuliys and convert it to nerve impulse
Nerve pathway to conduct impulse to brain
Area of brain must be able to receive and translate impulse into sensation
Reticular Activating System (RAS)
is an area of the brain responsible for regulating arousal and sleep-wake transitions.
Patients at risk for sensory deprivation
Institutionalized patients, patients confined to bed, patients with sensory alterations, depressed patients, patients with communicable diseases, patients with nervous system disease, patients from a different culture.
Patients at risk for sensory overload
Acutely ill or chronically ill patients, patients in pain, patients with invasive monitoring or treatment equipment, hospitalized patients (esp, ICU), patients with nervous system disturbances.
Factors affecting sensory stimulation
Age/developmental status, amount/presence or absence of meaningful stimuli, social interaction, environmental factors, culture
States of consciousness
Normal
Delirium
Dementia
Confusion
Somnolence/Lethargy
Chronic vegetative state
States of unconsciousness
Asleep
Stuporous
Comatose
cognition involves
Cerebral functioning - process of conscious thought, reality orientation, problem solving, judgement comprehension.
Components of Assesing sensory and perceptual function
Nursing history, mental status, physical examination, identify patients at risk, patient's environment, patient's social support system.
Acute confusion
Nursing diagnostic label - Abrupt onset of global, transient changes and disturbances in attention, cognition level, level of consciousness or sleep-wake cycle. Aka delirium
Chronic confusion
Irreversible, long-standing or progressive deterioration of intellect and personality with memory, behavioral changes. Aka dementia
Impaired memory
inability to recall information, behavioral skills
Expected outcomes related to sensory/perception
Patient will -
Live in developmentally stimulating/safe environment
Exhibit appropriate level of arousal
demonstrate intact functioning of the senses
maintain orientation to person, place, time
respond appropriately to sensory stimuli
Nursing interventions related to sensory/perception
Adjusting environmental stimuli
managing acute sensory deficits
Use of sensory aids
Sensoristasis
Sensoristasis is the term used to describe when a person is in optimal arousal.
Circadian rhythm
Physical, mental, and behavioral changes that follow a roughly 24-hour cycle. Affects patterns of brain wave activity hormone production, cell regeneration, sensory acuity, mood, and other biological activities.
What part of the brain controls the circadian rhythm?
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN): a group of cells located in the hypothalamus
Biological clock
drives circadian rhythm. Synchronizes sleep and wake cycles. Highly individual and genetically linked.
Two phases of sleep
NREM (nonrapid eye movement) and REM (rapid eye movement)
Stages of sleep
1 through 4 and REM
Describe the typical adult sleep cycle including stages and timeframe
Presleep sleepiness, Stage 1 (few minutes), Stage 2 (10-20 min), Stage 3 (15-30 min), Stage 4 (15-30 min), Stage 3 (15-30 min), Stage 2 (10-20 min), REM (20 minutes) - typical time to reach REM sleep is 90 minutes.
Sleep stage 1
Lightest level of sleep, lasts a few minutes, gradual fall in vitals and metabolism, easily aroused
Sleep stage 2
Sound sleep, 10-20 minutes, relaxation progresses, easy arousal
Sleep stage 3
Deeper Sleep, 15-20 minutes, difficult arousal, muscles relaxed, vitals decline
Sleep stage 4
Deepest sleep, 15-30 minutes, very difficult arousal, significant decrease in vital signs, considerable portion of night spent in this stage.
REM sleep
Vivid dreams, Begins about 90 min after onset of sleep. Typified by rapid eye movement, fluctuating heart and respiratory rates, increased BP. Loss of skeletal muscle tone, increased gastric secretions, very difficult arousal, duration increases with each sleep cycle. (20 min average length - may be as long as 60 min during last cycle).
Describe how many sleep cycles adults typically move through per night and how the sleep cycles change throughout the night.
4-5 complete cycles. With each successive cycle, stages 3 and 4 shorten and REM lengthens. The REM stages lasts up to 60 minutes in the last sleep cycle.
What percentage of a typical adult's sleep is spent in NREM stages?
75%-80%
Newborns spend more time in ____ whereas older adults sleep cycles tend to be _______.
Newborns spend more time in deep sleep. Older adults sleep is more fragmented with less time in deep sleep.
Functions of sleep
Contributes to physical and psychological restoration, body and brain tissue restoration, preserves cardiac function, preserves energy. Dreams involve learning, memory processing, and stress adaptation.
Sleep requirements - neonates
16 hrs average, sleep almost constantly the first week. Sleep cycle: 40-50 mins wakes after 1-2 sleep cycles. 50% is REM which stimulates brain centers and is critical for normal development.
Sleep requirements - infants
8-10 hrs of night time sleep by 3 months. Naps during the day. 15 hrs sleep total per day. 30% of sleep is REM. May awaken during the night.
Sleep requirements - toddlers
By age 2 - most sleep through the night, Still nap during the day. 12 hrs of sleep per day. May give up naps around age 3. Percentage of REM time falls with age. Bedtime routine may become a struggle.
Sleep requirements - Preschoolers
12 hrs per night. 20% REM. By age 5, naps are rare. Problems with sleep may include trouble settling down, bedtime fears, waking during the night, nightmares, partial wakening, crying, sleep-waking, bed-wetting.
Sleep requirements - school-aged children
required sleep varies 9-12 hours
Sleep requirements - adolescents
Experience changes in circadian rhythms. Secretion of melatonin changes to later in the night. May require 9-10 hours but actually get about 7.5. May result in poor school performance and behavior or mood problems.
Sleep requirements - young adults
6-8.5 hours 20% is REM. May begin to experience sleep problems due to stress, social activities, insomnia. Pregnancy may increase need for sleep.
Sleep requirements - middle adults
Total time spent sleeping declines. Stage 4 sleep falls and continues to decline with advancing age. Anxiety, depression, and or physical illness may cause sleep disturbances. Menopausal symptoms may lead to insomnia.
Sleep requirements - older adults
Increasing complaints of sleeping difficulties. 50% of adults 65 and older have sleep problems. REM sleep shortens. Decrease in stage 3 and stage 4 NREM with a possible total loss of stage 4 or deep sleep. Frequent awakenings and difficulty falling asleep. Chronic illenss may result in loss of sleep - changes caused by changes in CNS that affect sleep regulation. Sensory impairment reduces sensitivity to time cues that maintain circadian rhythms.
Insomnia
Chronic difficulty falling asleep, frequent wakings, short sleep. Most common sleep-related complaint.
Effects/characteristics of Insomnia
Results in excessive day time sleepiness. More common in women. Often signals underlying physical or psychological disorders or situational stress. Also associated with poor sleep hygiene (practices/habits associated with good health). Increased risk for anxiety, depression. Treatment begins with improved sleep hygiene.
Sleep Apnea
Lack of airflow (apnea) or diminished airflow (hypopnea) through the nose and mouth for periods of 10 seconds or longer. May be central, obstructive, or mixed. Most common is Obstructive (OSA).
Effects/characteristics of sleep apnea
Causes loud snoring. Affects 10-15% of middle-aged adults. Risk factors include smoking, obesity, alcohol, family history. Results in excessive daytime sleepiness. Causes a decline in arterial oxygen saturation. Increased risk of cardiac dysrhythmias, right sided heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, angina attacks, stroke, hypertension.
Polysomnography
Testing for sleep apnea. A number of physiologic variables are measured and recorded during sleep. These include - Brain electrical activity, eye and jaw muscle movement, leg muscle movement, airflow, respiratory efford (chest and abdomincal excursion), EKG, oxygen saturation
Treatment for sleep apnea
CPAP, VPAP, or BIPAP - Continuous, Variable, or Bi-pressure Positive Airway Pressure
Narcolepsy
Dysfunction of the mechanism that regulates sleep and wake states
Effects/characteristics of narcolepsy
Excessive daytime sleepiness, REM sleep occurs within 15 min of falling asleep. Treated with medications, exercise, diet modifications, deep breathing, scheduled naps.
Parasomnias
a category of sleep disorders that involve abnormal and unnatural movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, and dreams that occur while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Includes - Sleepwalking, night terrors, nightmares, bed wetting (nocturnal enuresis), tooth griding, body rocking.
Effects/characteristics of parasomnias
More common in children. Sleep hygiene becomes very important. Safety is key.
Examples of chronic diseases that poor sleep is believed to contribute to -
Heart disease, diabetes, immunity, obesity
Assesment for sleep issues includes
Asking about usual sleep patterns, physical and psychological illness, current life events, emotional and mental status, bedtime routines, bedtime environments, behaviors of sleep deprivation
Nursing diagnoses related to sleep issues
Anxiety, ineffective breathing pattern, acute confusion, compromised family coping, ineffective coping, insomnia, disturbed sensory perception, sleep deprivation.
Nursing planning related to sleep issues
Client will -
Control environmental sources disrupting sleep within 1 month
Identify factors in the immedicate home environment that disrupt sleep in 2 weeks
Report having a discussion with family members about environmental barriers to sleep within 2 weeks.
Report changes made in the bedroom to promote sleep within 2 weeks.
Report fewer than 2 awakenings per night within 4 weeks.
Geriatrics
is the branch of medicine dealing with the diagnosis and treatment of diseases and problems affecting older adults.
gerontology
is the study of all aspects of the aging process and its consequences.
gerontological nursing
is concerned with the assessment of the health and functional status of older adults; diagnosis, planning, and implementing health care and services to meet the identified needs; and evaluating the effectiveness of such care. This is the term nurses specializing in the field use most often.
Stochastic theories of aging
View aging as the result of random cellular damage that occurs over time. The accumulated damage leads to physical changes that we recognize as characteristic of the aging process. (the word stochasic means "aim" or "guess" and describes something that is non-deterministic)
Non-stochastic theories of aging.
View aging as a series of genetically programmed physiological mechanisms
Psychosocial theories of aging
Attempt to explain changes in behavior, roles, and relationships that come with aging. The 3 major psychosocial theories of aging are Disengagement theory, Activity theory, and Continuity theory.
Disengagement theory of aging
the oldest psychosocial theory, states that aging individuals withdraw from customary roles and engage in more introspective, self-focused activities
Activity theory of aging
considers the continuation of activities performed during middle adulthood to be necessary for successful aging.
Continuity theory of aging
also called developmental theory, states that personality remains the same and behavior becomes more predictable as people age. The personality and behavior patterns that developed during a lifetime determine the degree of engagement and activity in older adulthood.
What are the primary factors are contributing to the current increase in older adults?
Increased life span
Aging baby boomer generation (born 1946-1964)
Developmental tasks of the older adult
Adjusting to decreasing health and physical strength
Adjusting to retirement and reduced or fixed income
Adjusting to death of spouse
Accepting self as an aging person
Maintaining satisfactory living arrangements
Redefining relationships
Finding ways to maintain quality of life
Physiological changes of old age - Integumentary
loss of elasticity, pigmentation changes, glandular atrophy, thinning hair, slower nail growth, atrophy of epidermal arterioles.
Physiological changes of old age - Respiratory
Decreased cough reflex reduces removal of dust, mucus, and other irritants from airways. Decreased cilia, Decreased vital capacity (increased anterior-posterior chest diameter); Increased chest wall rigidity; Fewer alveoli; increased airway resistance; increased risk of respiratory infections.
Physiological changes of old age - Cardiovascular
Thickening of blood vessel walls; narrowing of vessel lumen; loss of vessel elasticity; lower cardiac output; decreased number of heart muscle fibers; decreased elasticity and calcification of the heart valves; decreased baroreceptor sensitivity; decreased efficiency of venous valves; increased pulmonary vascular tension; increased systolic blood pressure; decreased peripheral circulation.
Physiological changes of old age - Gastrointestinal
Periodontal disease; decrease in saliva, gastric secretions, and pancreatic enzymes; smooth muscle changes with decreased esophageal peristalsis and small intestine motility.
Physiological changes of old age - Musculoskeletal
decreased muscle mass, strength; decalcification of bones; degenerative joint changes; dehydration of interverterbral disks
Physiological changes of old age - Neurological
Degeneration of nerve cells, decrease in neurotransmitters, decrease in rate of conduction of impulses
Physiological changes of old age - Sensory
Decreased accommodation to near/far vision, difficulty adjusting to changes from light to dark, yellowing of the lens, altered color perception, increased sensitivity to glare, smaller pupils, Loss of acuity to high frequency sounds, thickening of tympanic membrane, sclerosis of inner ear, buildup of cerumen, fewer taste buds, decreased sense of smell, decreased skin receptors to touch, decreased awareness of body position in space.
Physiological changes of old age - Genitourinary
Fewer nephrons, 50% decrease in renal blood flow by age 80, decreased bladder capacity. Males: enlargement of prostate. Females: reduced sphincter tone.
Physiological changes of old age - Endocrine
Alteration in hormone production, decreased ability to respond to stress, Increased anti-inflammatory hormone, decreased secretion of pancreatic enzymes and hormones.
presbyopia
Decreased accommodation to near/far vision
presbycusis
loss of hearing acuity for high-frequency tones.
Functional status of older adults usually refers to
ability to safely perform ADLs
An infectious agent
pathogen
This refers to when a pathogen invades a host, and multiplies without causing infection
colonization
An _______ is infectious or communicable. It may pose a risk to the patient, but not to others.
infectious disease
Example: pneumonia, viral meningitis
If the infectious disease can be transmitted directly from one person to another, it is termed a _______.
communicable disease
If the pathogens multiply and cause clinical signs and symptoms, the infection is _____.
symptomatic
If the pathogens do not cause physical signs and symptom, this is referred to as _______.
asymptomatic
Ex. Hepatitis C is a communicable disease that can be asymptomatic
These steps are the _______. 1. Infectious agent 2. Reservoir 3. Portal of exit 4. Mode of transmission 5. Portal of entry 6. Host
chain of infection
The presence of a pathogen does not mean an infection will occur. It requires a presence of all of the following elements.
The ability for a microorganism to survive in the host or outside the body is called ___.
virulence
Resident skin microorganisms are not virulent, but can cause serious infection when surgery allows them to enter deep tissues or when a patient is immunocompromised.
Bacteria that requires oxygen for survival and for multiplication sufficient to cause disease is called _____.
aerobic bacteria
______ thrive where little or no free oxygen is available.
Anaerobic bacteria
_______ is the term used to describe a cold environment that prevents the growth and reproduction of bacteria.
Bacteriostasis
This destroys bacteria
bactericidal
Most organisms prefer an environment with a PH range of ____.
PH range of 5-7
Acid-reducing medications may cause an overgrowth of gastrointestinal organisms such as health care-associated pneumonia.
______ depends on the individual degree of resistance to a pathogen.
susceptibility
The severity of the clients illness depends on the extend of the infection, the ______ of the microorganisms.
pathogenicity
Pain and tenderness in a wound site, redness, heat, or loss of function of the body part affected would be considered a ____ infection.
localized
A ____ is a mode of transmission that requires an external mechanical transfer.
vector
A situation where you have personal contact with infected inanimate objects is an ____ mode of transmission.
indirect
Touching client feces is an example of a _____ mode of transmission.
direct
The _______ refers to the interval between entrance of pathogen into body and appearance of first symptoms.
incubation period
The ______ refers to the interval from onset of specific signs and symptoms to more specific symptoms.
prodromal stage
Ex. an onset of symptoms such as fever or malaise
The _____ refers to the interval when a client manifests signs and symptoms specific to type of infection.
illness stage
Ex. strep throat is manifested by sore throat pain
_____ do not usually cause disease when residing in their usual area of the body but instead participate in maintaining health.
Normal flora
Ex. Normal flora maintains a balance with other microorganisms to prevent infection. The skins normal flora exerts a bactericidal action.
The use of ______ can disrupt the normal flora of the body, and lead to a suprainfection.
broad-spectrum antibiotics
Why? It kills microbes that aid in defense against those that grow at will.
_____ is a protective vascular reaction that delivers fluid, blood products and nutrients to an area of injury.
inflammation
Serum proteins such as kinins, vasoactive amines, and prostaglandins serve to increase vasodilation. They play a key role in the inflammatory response.
Fluid and cells that are discharged from cells or blood vessels are called _____.
exudates
Ex. pus or serum
The accumulation of fluid appears as localized swelling referred to as ____.
edema
Injury causes tissue damage, and as a result the body releases chemical mediators that increases the permeability of small blood vessels. As a result, fluid, protein, and cells enter interstitial spaces causing fluid buildup.
The cellular response of inflammation involves _____, which describes the destruction and absorption of bacteria
phagocytosis
Fever is caused by phagocytic release of pyrogens from bacterial cells that cause a rise in the hypothalmic set point.
An increase in the number of circulating WBC's, is referred to as ____.
leukocytosis
Normal Serum WBC count:
5,000 to 10,000/mm3
Exudate may be ____ in color, or clear.
serous
Exudate may be ______, in that the color is red from containing RBC's.
sanguineous
Exudate may be ____, or white in color in that it contains pus, WBC's or bacteria.
purulent
When it comes to tissue repair, tissue defects may fill with _____.
granulation tissue
GT is not as strong as collagen and assumes the form of scar tissue.
An infection that results from being in a health care facility.
hospital-acquired infection (nosocomial)
_____ is a type of HAI from a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure.
Iatrogenic infection
Ex. Following a gastrointestinal endoscopy the client developed a P. aeruginosa infection.
A HAI that is present outside the client.
exogenous infection
Ex. A postoperative infection
An _____ can occur when part of the client's flora becomes altered and an overgrowth results.
endogenous infection
Assessment for infection prevention and control should include:
1. Immunizations/ vaccinations 2. Susceptibility 3. Client knowledge of how disease is transmitted 4. Review past diseases 5. Travel history 6. Status of defense mechanisms 7. Clinical appearance 8. Lab results
A _____ causes more generalized symptoms that a local infection. They usually result in fever, fatigue, nausea, vomiting and malaise.
systemic infections
True/False It is not uncommon to find that an older adult has an advanced infection before it is identified.
TRUE
Why? This is because older adults may have a reduced inflammatory and immune response. Older adults have increased fatigue and diminished pain sensitivity
True/False A reduced or absent fever response can occur from chronic use of aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
TRUE
True/False Checking a client for breakage in skin would be an example of the status of defense mechanisms.
TRUE
Normal Value for Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR):
up to 15mm/hr for men up to 20mm/hr for women
Normal Value for Iron:
60-90g/100ml
Normal culture for urine and blood:
normally sterile without microorganism growth
Normal cultures and gram stain of wound, sputum, and throat:
No WBC's on Gram stain, possible normal flora
An example for a nursing diagnosis related to infection prevention and control would be...
-risk for infection -imbalanced nutrition:less than body requirements -impaired oral mucous membrane -risk for impaired skin integrity -social isolation -impaired tissue integrity
Common goals of care applicable to clients with infection often includes:
-preventing exposure to infectious organisms -controlling or reducing the extent of infection -maintaining resistance to infection -verbalizing understanding of infection prevention and control techniques
Some implementation methods for infection and prevention control include:
-flu vaccine -hand hygiene -proper nutrition -rest
True/False A short term plan is written with a goal. And a long term plan is written with an outcome.
TRUE
____, or clean technique, includes procedures used to reduce the number of organisms present and prevent transfer of organisms.
Medical asepsis
The absence of pathogenic microorganisms is called ___.
asepsis
Procedures used to reduce the number of organisms present and prevent the transfer of organisms is called ____.
medical asepsis
The nurse follows ____ which are principles and procedures to prevent and control infection.
standard procedures
True/False Personal protective equipment does not need to be changed after contact with each client and between procedures.
FALSE
This transmission based precaution requires a private room, mask for caregiver and visitor, negative pressure airflow exchange in the room of at least 6-12 exchanges/hr.
airborne precaution
This transmission-based precaution requires a private room or room with others with the same infection, and a mask for caregivers and visitors
droplet precaution
This transmission based precaution requires private room or room with others of same infection. Gloves and gown for both the caregiver and visitors, dispose of materials in a single nonporous bag without touching the outside of the bag.
contact precaution
This transmission based precaution requires a private room, positive-pressure room with 12 or more air exchanges/hr, and a HEPA filtration for incoming air. It also requires the caregiver and visitors to wear respirator mask, gloves, and gown.
protective environment precaution
This type of precaution protects the patient from us and outside visitors
In ______ infection prevention and control, you would measure the success of the techniques, compare the client's response with expected outcomes, and if goals are not achieved, determine what steps must be taken.
evaluation
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle each minute is the_______.
cardiac output
CO= stroke volume x heart rate normal range= 4-6 L/min
______ is a more precise measure and takes into consideration tissue perfusion and the clients body surface area.
cardiac index
normal range 2.5-4.0 L/min/m2 CI= cardiac output / BSA
_____ is the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction.
stroke volume
_____ is the end-diastolic volume
preload
________ law states; The more stretch on the ventricular muscle, the greater the contraction and the greater the stroke volume.
Starlings
____ is the resistance to left ventricular ejection.
Afterload
An ____ reflects the electrical activity of the conduction system.
electrocardiogram
*does not reflect muscular work of the heart
The normal sequence of the ECG is called _____.
normal sinus rhythm
_____ is the process of moving gases into and out of the lungs.
Ventilation
____ is an active process, stimulated by chemical receptors in the aorta.
Inspiration
____ is a passive process that depends on the elastic recoil properties of the lungs, requiring little or no muscle work.
Expiration
____ is the process for exchange of the respiratory gases in the alveoli and the capillaries of the body tissues.
Diffusion
Conditions such as shock and severe dehydration cause extracellular fluid loss and reduced circulating blood volume, or _______.
hypovolemia
Electrical impulses that do not originate from the SA node cause condition disturbances called _____.
dysrhythmias
Name 2 heart rhythms that are life threatening and require immediate intervention.
ventricular tachycardia; ventricular fibrillation
_____ results when the supply of blood to the myocardium from the coronary arteries is insufficient to meet myocardial oxygen demands.
Myocardial ischemia
____ is a transient imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand.
Angina pectoris
_____ occurs when alveolar ventilation is inadequate to meet the body's oxygen demand or to eliminate sufficient carbon dioxide.
Hypoventilation
_____ is inadequate tissue oxygenation at the cellular level.
Hypoxia
____ is a clinical sign of hypoxia. It is a sensation of difficult or uncomfortable breathing.
Dyspnea
____ is an abnormal condition in which the client uses multiple pillows when lying down or must sit with arms elevated and leaning forward to breath.
Orthopnea
Bloody sputum
hemoptysis
High pitched musical sound caused by high-velocity movement of air through a narrowed airway.
weezing
_____ with a 50% increase between two samples 3-6 hours apart, peaking 12 hours after chest pain, or a single elevation two fold is diagnostic for an acute myocardial infarction
creatine kinase
Normal Myoglobin Level
<90 mcg/L
Normal Serum Electrolyte level (checking for potassium K+)
3.5-5 mmol/L
Normal Cholesterol level
Fasting: 200 mg/dl Low-density lipoproteins (LDL's) bad cholesterol- 60-180 mg/dL High-density lipoproteins (good cholesterol) Male: >45 mg/dL Female: >55mg/dL
Normal Triglycerides
Male: 40-160 mg/dL Female: 35-135 mg/dL
A component of pulmonary hygiene, consists of drainage, positioning, and turning; accompanied by chest percussion and vibration
postural drainage
_____ encourages voluntary deep breathing.
Incentive spirometry
A _____ is a catheter inserted through the thorax to remove air and fluids from the pleural space, to prevent air or fluid from reentering the pleural space, or to reestablish normal intrapleural and intrapulmonic pressures.
chest tube
A _____ is an accumulation of blood and fluid in the pleural cavity between the parietal and visceral pleurae, usually as a result of trama.
hemothorax
A _____ is a collection of air in the pleural space.
pneumothorax
_____ involves deep inspiration and prolonged expiration through pursed lips to prevent alveolar collapse.
Pursed lip breathing
_____ is more difficult and requires the client to relax intercostal and accessory respiratory muscles while taking deep inspirations.
Diaphragmatic breathing
Deoxygenated blood is delivered to the ____ side of the heart, and oxygenated blood is delivered from the lungs to the ____ side of the heart and tissues.
right;left
The ____ ventricle of the heart pumps blood through the pulmonary circulation.
right
The ____ ventricle of the heart pumps blood through the systemic circulation.
left
There are ___ cardiac chambers; ___ atria, and ____ ventricles.
4;2;2
The blood chambers fill with blood during ____ and empty during ____.
diastole; systole
An enlarged heart is called _____.
cardiomyopathy
results in decreased pumping action and a decrease in stroke volume (blood ejected)
Hemorrhage and dehydration cause a ____ in circulating blood volume and stroke volume.
decrease
___ represents the first heart sound when the blood fills a relaxed ventricle after leaving the atria.
S1
Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves represents, ___ or the second heart sound.
S2
_____ supplies the myocardium with oxygen and nutrients and removes wastes.
Coronary artery circulation
The arteries and veins of the _____ delivers nutrients and oxygen to and remove waste from the tissues.
systemic circulation
Blood is ejected from the ___ ventricle.
left
A _____ is a catheter inserted through the thorax to remove air and fluids from the pleural space, to prevent air or fluid from reentering the pleural space, or to reestablish normal intrapleural and intrapulmonic pressures.
chest tube
A _____ is an accumulation of blood and fluid in the pleural cavity between the parietal and visceral pleurae, usually as a result of trama.
hemothorax
A _____ is a collection of air in the pleural space.
pneumothorax
_____ involves deep inspiration and prolonged expiration through pursed lips to prevent alveolar collapse.
Pursed lip breathing
_____ is more difficult and requires the client to relax intercostal and accessory respiratory muscles while taking deep inspirations.
Diaphragmatic breathing
Deoxygenated blood is delivered to the ____ side of the heart, and oxygenated blood is delivered from the lungs to the ____ side of the heart and tissues.
right;left
The ____ ventricle of the heart pumps blood through the pulmonary circulation.
right
The ____ ventricle of the heart pumps blood through the systemic circulation.
left
There are ___ cardiac chambers; ___ atria, and ____ ventricles.
4;2;2
The blood chambers fill with blood during ____ and empty during ____.
diastole; systole
An enlarged heart is called _____.
cardiomyopathy
results in decreased pumping action and a decrease in stroke volume (blood ejected)
Hemorrhage and dehydration cause a ____ in circulating blood volume and stroke volume.
decrease
___ represents the first heart sound when the blood fills a relaxed ventricle after leaving the atria.
S1
Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves represents, ___ or the second heart sound.
S2
_____ supplies the myocardium with oxygen and nutrients and removes wastes.
Coronary artery circulation
The arteries and veins of the _____ delivers nutrients and oxygen to and remove waste from the tissues.
systemic circulation
Blood is ejected from the ___ ventricle.
left