Exam 3

Front 1

1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the constituents of blood?
a. Plasma is composed of 90% dissolved substances and 10% water.
b. Blood volume in adults is about 6 L.
c. Plasma accounts for 10% of blood volume.
d. Plasma and serum are identical.

Back 1

Blood volume in adults is about 6 L.

Front 2

1. Which component of the blood system is responsible for the critical colloid oncotic pressure?
a. Immune globulins
b. Albumin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Clotting factors

Back 2

Albumin

Front 3

2. Which of the following is TRUE regarding erythrocytes?
a. They comprise 80% of blood volume.
b. Erythrocytes are responsible for tissue oxygenation.
c. They contain ribosomes and mitochondria.
d. They can synthesize proteins.

Back 3

Erythrocytes are responsible for tissue oxygenation.

Front 4

2. Which of the following is NOT a granulocyte?
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Monocyte

Back 4

Monocyte

Front 5

2. A person develops a severe urinary tract infection. Which of the following are the predominant cells of early inflammation?
a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Basophil
d. Eosinophil

Back 5

Neutrophil

Front 6

2. Which of the following is NOT true about platelet?
a. Platelets initiate repair process including clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)
b. Induce vasoconstriction to regulate blood flow to damaged site
c. Activate the cooagulation (or clotting cascade)
d. Normally circulate freely in plasma in an unactivated state
e. Platelet counts above 100,000 is called thrombocytopenia

Back 6

Platelet counts above 100,000 is called thrombocytopenia

Front 7

2. Which of the lymphoid organs cluster around lymphatic veins and collect interstitial fluid from tissues?
a. Spleen
b. Bone Marrow
c. Lymph nodes
d. Thymus

Back 7

Lymph Nodes

Front 8

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the four processes of platelet activation?
a. Adhesion
b. Aggregation
c. Secretion
d. Inhibition

Back 8

Inhibition

Front 9

2. Which of the following is responsible for lysis or the breakdown of blood clots?
a. Nitric oxide
b. Tissue factor
c. Antithrombin III
d. Fibrinolytic system

Back 9

Fibrinolytic system (plasmin)

Front 10

1. True or False The neurologic symptoms in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia are not reversed even with appropriate treatment.

Back 10

True

Front 11

1. True or False Considering oral iron therapy, the ferric form is preferred to the ferrous form because ferric is more readily absorbed.

Back 11

False

Front 12

1. True or False In hemolytic anemia, the bone marrow is capable of increasing red cell production because of elevated levels of erythropoietin.

Back 12

True

Front 13

1. True or False Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) is initially a normochromic and normocytic anemia, but as the condition progresses, it becomes hypochromic and microcytic.

Back 13

True

Front 14

1. In some anemias the erythrocytes are present in various sizes, which is referred to as:
a. poikilocytosis.
b. isocytosis.
c. anisocytosis.
d. microcytosis.

Back 14

Anisocytosis

Front 15

1. The major physiologic manifestation of anemia is:
a. hypotension.
b. hyperesthesia.
c. hypoxia.
d. ischemia.

Back 15

Hypoxia

Front 16

1. True or False Paresthesia occurs in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia.

Back 16

True

Front 17

1. The body compensates for anemia by:
a. increasing rate and depth of breathing.
b. capillary vasoconstriction.
c. hemoglobin holds on to oxygen more firmly.
d. pituitary gland release more erythropoietin.

Back 17

Increasing rate and depth of breathing

Front 18

1. Deficiencies in folate and vitamin B12 alter the synthesis of:
a. RNA.
b. Cell membrane
c. DNA.
d. mitochondria.

Back 18

DNA

Front 19

1. The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.
a. Microcytic
b. Pernicious
c. Hypochromic
d. Hemolytic

Back 19

Pernicious

Front 20

1. Atrophy of gastric mucosal cells results in pernicious anemia because of:
a. erythrocyte destruction.
b. folic acid malabsorption.
c. vitamin B12 malabsorption.
d. poor nutritional intake.

Back 20

Vit B12 Malabsorption

Front 21

1. A woman complains of chronic gastritis, fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and a high mean corpuscular volume. These findings are consistent with _____ anemia.
a. folate deficiency
b. pernicious
c. iron deficiency
d. aplastic

Back 21

Pernicious

Front 22

1. The Schilling test is described as the:
a. administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency.
b. measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia.
c. measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia.
d. administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.

Back 22

administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency.

Front 23

1. Pernicious anemia is treated with:
a. vitamin B12by oral intake.
b. cyanocobalamin by intramuscular injection.
c. ferrous fumarate by intramuscular injection, Z track.
d. folate by oral intake.

Back 23

cyanocobalamin by intramuscular injection.

Front 24

1. Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of:
a. brain hypoxia.
b. liver hypoxia.
c. heart failure.
d. renal failure.

Back 24

heart failure

Front 25

2. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
a. Reticulocyte count
b. Serum transferring
c. Hemoglobin
d. Serum vitamin B12

Back 25

Reticulocyte Count

Front 26

2. Which statement about folic acid is false?
a. Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.
b. Folic acid is stored in the liver.
c. Folic acid is essential for RNA and DNA synthesis within erythrocytes.
d. Folic acid is absorbed in the upper small intestine.

Back 26

Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.

Front 27

2. Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes (microcytic-hypochromic)?
a. Folic acid
b. Hemolytic
c. Iron deficiency
d. Pernicious

Back 27

Iron Deficiency

Front 28

1. A man has fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea. His conjunctiva and palms are pale. His nails appear brittle, thin, and concave, and he has sores at the corners of his mouth. Considering this information, the nurse practitioner suspects that this patient probably has _____ anemia.
a. Pernicious
b. iron deficiency
c. aplastic
d. hemolytic

Back 28

Iron Deficiency

Front 29

1. The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia is:
a. decreased dietary intake.
b. chronic blood loss.
c. vitamin deficiency.
d. autoimmune disease.

Back 29

Chronic Blood Loss

Front 30

1. Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting:
a. 6 to 8 weeks.
b. 8 to 12 months.
c. until the iron level is normal.
d. the rest of ones life.

Back 30

Rest of one's life

Front 31

1. A man has cheilosis, stomatitis, and painful ulceration of the buccal mucosa and mouth. He complains of dysphagia and watery diarrhea. These clinical manifestations are indicative of:
a. PA. (pernicious anemia)
b. folate deficiency anemia.
c. anemia of chronic disease.
d. IDA. (iron deficiency anemia)

Back 31

Folate Deficiency Anemia (No neuro symtptoms)

Front 32

1. Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Pernicious
c. Sideroblastic
d. Aplastic

Back 32

Sideroblastic

Front 33

1. A person with sideroblastic anemia would be likely to have _____ plasma levels of iron.
a. High
b. Low
c. Normal
d. Absent

Back 33

High

Front 34

1. (Figure 26-7) In a plastic anemia, pancytopenia develops as a result of the:
a. suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes.
b. suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.
c. lack of DNA to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.
d. lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes.

Back 34

suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.

Front 35

1. What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia?
a. Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T cells
b. Malignancy of the bone marrow in which unregulated proliferation of erythrocytes crowd out other blood cells
c. Inherited genetic disorder with recessive X-linked transmission

Back 35

Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T cells

Front 36

1. An allogenic bone marrow transplantation remains the preferred and most successful method for treating which anemia?
a. Polycythemia vera
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Anemia of chronic disease

Back 36

Aplastic Anemia

Front 37

1. In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when:
a. erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.
b. heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
c. the patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).
d. the erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.

Back 37

heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.

Front 38

1. Erythrocyte life span less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiology of
a. aplastic anemia.
b. sideroblastic anemia.
c. anemia of chronic disease.
d. IDA.

Back 38

anemia of chronic diease

Front 39

1. Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of:
a. a decreased erythrocyte count.
b. destruction of erythrocytes.
c. increased blood viscosity.
d. neurologic involvement.

Back 39

increased blood viscosity

Front 40

1. Treatment for polycythemia vera involves:
a. therapeutic phlebotomy and radioactive phosphorus.
b. restoration of blood volume by plasma expanders.
c. the administration of cyanocobalamin.
d. blood transfusions.

Back 40

therapeutic phlebotomy and radioactive phosphorus.

Front 41

1. Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options will be used more than once.
Pernicious anemia

Back 41

c. Macrocytic-normochromic anemia

Front 42

1. Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options will be used more than once.
Sideroblastic anemia

Back 42

b. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia

Front 43

1. Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options will be used more than once.
Aplastic anemia

Back 43

a. Normocytic-normochromic anemia

Front 44

1. Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options will be used more than once.
Iron deficiency

Back 44

b. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia

Front 45

1. True or False A shift to the left describes the premature release of immature neutrophils when the demand for mature neutrophils exceeds the supply.

Back 45

True

Front 46

1. True or False Frequently the initial sign of Hodgkin disease is a painless mass, lump, or swelling, most commonly on the neck.

Back 46

True

Front 47

1. True or False Non-Hodgkin lymphoma may be associated with Epstein Barr virus or HIV.

Back 47

True

Front 48

1. True or False One of the most common causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is sepsis.

Back 48

True

Front 49

2. True or False DIC is a paradoxical condition in which clotting and hemorrhage occur within the vascular system simultaneously.

Back 49

True

Front 50

2. What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?
a. Neutrophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Eosinophilia
d. Monocytosis

Back 50

Eosinophilia

Front 51

2. In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect?
a. IgE
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgA

Back 51

IgM

Front 52

1. A 20-year-old is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis (IM). Which of the following is one of the classic clinical manifestations?
a. Lymph node enlargement
b. Hepatitis
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Edema in the area of the eyes

Back 52

Lymph Node Enlargement

Front 53

1. Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
a. It is a progressive neoplasm defined by the presence of greater than 30% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow or blood.
b. The bone marrow and peripheral blood are characterized by leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
c. There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
d. The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 create an abnormal, fused gene identified as BCR-ABL.

Back 53

It is a progressive neoplasm defined by the presence of greater than 30% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow or blood.

Front 54

1. Early detection of acute leukemia would include which of the following symptoms?
a. Dizziness, dehydration, palpitations, hypotension
b. Dyspnea, paresthesia, malaise
c. Bradycardia, abdominal pain, fever
d. Bruising, fatigue, bone pain, anorexia

Back 54

Bruising, fatigue, bone pain, anorexia

Front 55

1. Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
a. There are defects in the ras oncogene, TP53 tumor-suppressor gene, and INK4A, the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein.
b. The bone marrow and peripheral blood are characterized by leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
c. There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
d. The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL.

Back 55

The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL.

Front 56

1. Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
a. There are defects in the ras oncogene, TP53 tumor-suppressor gene, and INK4A, the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein.
b. The bone marrow and peripheral blood are characterized by leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
c. There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
d. The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL.

Back 56

There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.

Front 57

1. Which electrolyte imbalance accompanies multiple myeloma (MM)?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hyperphosphatemia
d. Hypernatremia

Back 57

Hypercalcemia

Front 58

1. Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease related lymphadenopathy are a result of:
a. ischemia and pressure.
b. pressure and obstruction.
c. inflammation and ischemia.
d. obstruction and pressure.

Back 58

Pressure and Obstruction

Front 59

1. _____ is the virus associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children.
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Epstein-Barr virus

Back 59

Epstein-Barr virus

Front 60

1. A patient with a bleeding disorder has a red-purple discoloration caused by diffuse hemorrhage into skin tissues. The nurse practitioner documents this discoloration as:
a. petechiae.
b. hematoma.
c. ecchymosis.
d. purpura.

Back 60

purpura

Front 61

1. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n):
a. IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
b. hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body’s needs.
c. IgE-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
d. cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.

Back 61

IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.

Front 62

1. Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a(n) _____ condition in adults and a(n) _____ condition in children.
a. acute; acute
b. chronic; chronic
c. acute; chronic
d. chronic; acute

Back 62

Chronic; Acute

Front 63

1. Vitamin _____ is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by the _____.
a. K; kidneys
b. D; kidneys
c. K; liver
d. D; liver

Back 63

K; Liver

Front 64

1. What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?
a. Administration of warfarin (Coumadin)
b. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with antibiotic therapy
c. An IgG-mediated autoimmune disorder
d. Liver failure

Back 64

TPN w/ Antibiotic Therapy

Front 65

1. Which disorder is described as an unregulated release of thrombin with subsequent fibrin formation and accelerated fibrinolysis?
a. DIC
b. ITP
c. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
d. Essential thrombocythemia (ET)

Back 65

DIC

Front 66

1. In DIC, what are indications of microvascular thrombosis?
a. Reduced amplitude in peripheral pulses
b. Symmetric cyanosis of fingers and toes
c. Numbness and tingling in fingers and toes
d. Pallor and edema of fingers and toes bilaterally

Back 66

Symmetric cyanosis of fingers and toes

Front 67

1. The most reliable and specific test for diagnosing DIC is:
a. prothrombin time (PT).
b. activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
c. fibrin degradation products (FDP).
d. D-dimer.

Back 67

D-Dimer (fibrin degradation)

Front 68

1. The most significant risk factors for the development of thrombus formation are referred to as the Virchow triad and include: (Select all that apply.)
a. endothelial injury to blood vessels.
b. turbulent arterial blood flow.
c. rapid coagulation of the blood.
d. stagnant venous blood flow.
e. history of obesity.

Back 68

Everthything but history of obesity

Front 69

1. Match the causes or diagnostic tests with the hematologic disorders.
a. Epstein-Barr virus

Back 69

Infectious Mononucleosis

Front 70

1. Match the causes or diagnostic tests with the hematologic disorders.
a. Bence Jones protein

Back 70

Multiple myeloma

Front 71

1. Match the causes or diagnostic tests with the hematologic disorders.
a. Diagnosed by the Reed-Sternberg (RS) cell

Back 71

Hodgkin diease

Front 72

1. Match the causes or diagnostic tests with the hematologic disorders.
a. Diagnosed by the Philadelphia chromosome

Back 72

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Front 73

1. Match the descriptions with the platelet disorders.
a. Thrombi composed of platelets with minimal fibrin and erythrocytes that occlude arterioles and capillaries

Back 73

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

Front 74

1. Match the descriptions with the platelet disorders.
a. Causes ischemic signs and symptoms in the central nervous system

Back 74

Acute idiopathic thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

Front 75

1. Match the descriptions with the platelet disorders.
a. Caused by an alteration of multipotent stem cells, resulting in an excess production of platelets

Back 75

Essential (primary) thrombocythemia (ET)

Front 76

1. Match the descriptions with the platelet disorders.
a. Antibody-coated platelets removed from circulation by mononuclear phagocytes in the spleen

Back 76

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

Front 77

1. True or False Between 4 years of age and the onset of puberty, dietary iron deficiency is common.

Back 77

False

Front 78

1. True or False HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes.

Back 78

True

Front 79

1. True or False Rh incompatibility rarely causes hemolytic disease of the newborn in the first incompatible fetus.

Back 79

True

Front 80

1. True or False Sickled erythrocytes (characteristic of sickle cell anemia) are stiff and cannot change shape as easily as normal erythrocytes and thus tend to plug the microcirculation.

Back 80

True

Front 81

1. True or False Sickle cell crisis can be prevented by avoiding fever, infection, acidosis, dehydration, constricting clothing, and exposure to cold.

Back 81

True

Front 82

1. True or False In beta-thalassemia major, most erythroblasts are destroyed in the spleen.

Back 82

False

Front 83

1. True or False Hyperdiploidy (increased number of chromosome copies) is associated with a poor prognosis in leukemia.

Back 83

False

Front 84

1. Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because:
a. fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen due to DPG.
b. there is increased erythropoiesis in response to the hypoxic intrauterine environment.
c. the lungs of the fetus are undeveloped and unable to adequately diffuse oxygen to the pulmonary capillaries.

Back 84

the lungs of the fetus are undeveloped and unable to adequately diffuse oxygen to the pulmonary capillaries.

Front 85

1. In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.
a. 30 to 50; 80
b. 60 to 80; 120
c. 90 to 110; 140
d. 120 to 130; 150

Back 85

60 to 80; 120

Front 86

1. The most common cause of anemia from insufficient erythropoiesis in children is:
a. folic acid deficiency.
b. iron deficiency.
c. hemoglobin abnormality.
d. erythrocyte abnormality.

Back 86

iron deficiency

Front 87

1. An infant hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur.
a. 11
b. 9
c. 7
d. 5

Back 87

5

Front 88

1. Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron taken to treat iron deficiency anemia in children?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin E

Back 88

Vit C

Front 89

1. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is:
a. Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative.
b. Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.
c. type A blood and the fetus has type O.
d. type AB blood and the fetus has type B.

Back 89

Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.

Front 90

1. During HDN, the newborn develops hyperbilirubinemia after birth, but not in utero because:
a. excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
b. hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
c. the liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble to water-soluble form.
d. the destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.

Back 90

excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.

Front 91

1. What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?
a. Kernicterus
b. Icterus neonatorum
c. Jaundice
d. Icterus gravis neonatorum

Back 91

Kernicterus

Front 92

1. What prevents kernicterus caused by hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. Administration of intravenous fluids to dilute the blood and remove the bilirubin through the kidneys faster
b. Replacement transfusion of Rh-positive erythrocytes to prevent the deposit of bilirubin in the kidneys
c. Performance of a splenectomy to prevent the destruction of abnormal erythrocytes
d. Replacement transfusion of Rh-negative erythrocytes to prevent the deposit of bilirubin in the brain

Back 92

Replacement transfusion of Rh-negative erythrocytes to prevent the deposit of bilirubin in the brain

Front 93

1. The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait:
a. inherited normal hemoglobin A from one parent and Hb S from the other parent, whereas the child with sickle cell disease has Hb S from both parents.
b. has a mild form of sickle cell disease that causes sickling during fever and infection, but not during acidosis or hypoxia, whereas the child with sickle cells disease develops sickling during each of these conditions.
c. has a milder form of the disease that is characterized by vaso-occlusive crises and is believed to result from higher hemoglobin values and viscosity.
d. has the mildest form of the disease with normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin F, which prevents sickling.

Back 93

inherited normal hemoglobin A from one parent and Hb S from the other parent, whereas the child with sickle cell disease has Hb S from both parents.

Front 94

1. The manifestations of chronic sickle cell disease in children include:
a. atelectasis and pneumonia.
b. edema of the hands and feet.
c. stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet.
d. splenomegaly and hepatomegaly.

Back 94

stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet.

Front 95

1. The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is:
a. microcytic, hypochromic.
b. microcytic, normochromic.
c. macrocytic, hyperchromic.
d. macrocytic, normochromic.

Back 95

microcytic, hypochromic.

Front 96

1. True or False Hemophilia B is caused by a clotting factor deficiency.

Back 96

True

Front 97

1. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against:
a. neutrophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. platelets.
d. basophils.

Back 97

Platelets

Front 98

1. Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?
a. ITP
b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
d. Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

Back 98

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

Front 99

1. Match the sickle cell crises with its description.
a. Vaso-occlusive crisis

Back 99

Blood flow is impaired by tangled masses of rigid, sickled cells.

Front 100

1. Match the sickle cell crises with its description.
a. Aplastic crisis

Back 100

Compensatory erythropoiesis is compromised, thus limiting the number of erythrocytes that are replaced.

Front 101

1. Match the sickle cell crises with its description.
a. Sequestration crisis

Back 101

Large amounts of blood become acutely pooled in the liver and spleen.

Front 102

1. Match the sickle cell crises with its description.
a. Hyperhemolytic crisis

Back 102

Occurs in association with certain drugs or infection

Front 103

1. True or False Blood contained within the atria and the ventricles is a recognized source of oxygen for the cells of the heart.

Back 103

False

Front 104

1. True or False Ventricular hypertrophy results in the capillaries of the heart becoming more extensive as well as numerous.

Back 104

False

Front 105

1. True or False To produce an action potential, the sinoatrial node must be stimulated by the autonomic nervous system.

Back 105

False

Front 106

1. True or False The arteries in the peripheral vasculature system are less able to stretch and recoil than the arteries of the great vessels.

Back 106

True

Front 107

1. True or False Veins are less compliant than arteries.

Back 107

False

Front 108

1. True or False Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.

Back 108

True

Front 109

1. True or False Metabolic and hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.

Back 109

False

Front 110

1. True or False The aortic valve obstructs coronary blood flow by pushing against the openings of the coronary arteries during systole.

Back 110

True

Front 111

1. True or False Although both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.

Back 111

True

Front 112

1. Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the pericardium?
a. It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart
b. It is composed of connective tissue and a surface layer of squamous cells.
c. It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d. It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

Back 112

It is composed of connective tissue and a surface layer of squamous cells.

Front 113

1. Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?
a. The right and left atria because they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood
b. The right and left atria because they are not involved directly in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.
c. The left ventricle because the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure
d. the right ventricle because it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation

Back 113

The right and left atria because they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood

Front 114

1. Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle

Back 114

Left Ventricle

Front 115

1. The mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood because the:
a. chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b. increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close.
c. trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d. reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.

Back 115

increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close.

Front 116

2. During the cardiac cycle, the aortic and pulmonic valves close after the ventricles contract because the:
a. papillary muscles relax, which allows the valves to close.
b. chordae tendineae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
c. reduced pressure in the ventricles creates a negative pressure, which pulls the valves closed.
d. blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves.

Back 116

blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves.

Front 117

1. Oxygenated blood flows through the:
a. superior vena cava.
b. pulmonary veins.
c. pulmonary artery.
d. coronary veins.

Back 117

pulmonary veins.

Front 118

1. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to the:
a. left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum.
b. left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle.
c. upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex.
d. posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles.

Back 118

left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum.

Front 119

1. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to the:
a. left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum.
b. posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles.
c. upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex.
d. left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle.

Back 119

left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle.

Front 120

1. The function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers is that they:
a. are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b. prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c. are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d. initiate repolarization of the myocardium.

Back 120

are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.

Front 121

1. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a. decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b. rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c. decrease in the movement of sodium out of the cell.
d. rapid movement of calcium out of the cell.

Back 121

rapid movement of sodium into the cell.

Front 122

1. Which of the following events occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a. Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b. Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c. Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d. Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

Back 122

Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

Front 123

1. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a. Phase 0
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3 (Potassium is moved out of the cell)
e. Phase 4 (a return to resting membrane potential)

Back 123

Phase 4 (a return to resting membrane potential)

Front 124

1. In the normal electrocardiogram, the PR interval represents:
a. atrial depolarization.
b. ventricular depolarization.
c. atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity.
d. electrical systole of the ventricles.

Back 124

atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity.

Front 125

1. The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because:
a. of its superior location in the right atrium.
b. it is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization.
c. it has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve.
d. it depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.

Back 125

it depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.

Front 126

1. The _____ period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated.
a. Refractory
b. Hyperpolarization
c. Threshold
d. SA

Back 126

refractory

Front 127

1. The _____ complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations.
a. PRS
b. QRS
c. QT interval
d. P

Back 127

QRS

Front 128

1. Which of the following can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node?
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Catecholamines
c. Vagal stimulation
d. Sinoatrial node (SA)

Back 128

Catecholamines

Front 129

1. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a. 60 to 70 per minute
b. 40 to 60 per minute
c. 30 to 40 per minute
d. 10 to 20 per minute

Back 129

40-60 per minute

Front 130

1. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on beta2-receptors of the heart?
a. There is no effect
b. Dilate coronary arterioles
c. Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d. Decrease the heart rate

Back 130

dilate coronary arterioles

Front 131

1. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a. Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b. Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c. Myocardium and coronary vessels
d. Epicardium and atrioventricular node

Back 131

myocardium and coronary vessels

Front 132

1. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a. increased force of contraction.
b. decrease in refractory time.
c. increase in afterload.
d. decrease in repolarization.

Back 132

increased force of contraction

Front 133

1. As stated by the Frank-Starling law, there is a direct relationship between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole.
a. pressure; force
b. volume; strength
c. viscosity; force
d. viscosity; strength

Back 133

volume; strength

Front 134

1. Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in the _____ before the left ventricle can eject blood.
a. superior vena cava
b. aorta
c. inferior vena cava
d. pulmonary veins

Back 134

aorta

Front 135

1. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?
a. Pulmonic valve regurgitation
b. Mitral stenosis
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Jugular vein distention

Back 135

Pulmonary edema

Front 136

1. The resting heart in a healthy person is primarily under the control of the _____ nervous system.
a. Sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic
c. Somatic
d. spinal

Back 136

parasympathetic (vagal stimulation)

Front 137

1. The correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated is that the impulse is transmitted from the carotid artery to the:
a. vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity.
b. glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity.
c. glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity.
d. ossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity.

Back 137

glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity.

Front 138

1. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a. parasympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins.
b. sympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins.
c. autonomic control of the heart only.
d. somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

Back 138

sympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

Front 139

1. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a. autonomic regulation’
b. somatic regulation
c. autoregulation
d. metabolic regulation

Back 139

autoregulation

Front 140

1. The right lymphatic duct drains into the:
a. right subclavian artery.
b. right atrium.
c. right subclavian vein.
d. superior vena cava.

Back 140

right subclavian vein

Front 141

1. Where is the major cardiovascular center in the central nervous system?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Thalamus
c. Brainstem
d. Hypothalamus

Back 141

Brainstem

Front 142

1. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a. Arterial stiffening
b. Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c. Decreased aortic wall thickness
d. Arteriosclerosis

Back 142

Arterial Stiffening

Front 143

1. The major determinant of the resistance that blood encounters as it flows through the systemic circulation is the:
a. volume of blood in systemic circulation.
b. muscle layer of the metarterioles.
c. muscle layer of arterioles.
d. force of ventricular contraction.

Back 143

Muscle Layer of Arterioles

Front 144

1. True or False Atrial natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss.

Back 144

True

Front 145

1. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a. Urodilatin
b. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d. C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

Back 145

BNP

Front 146

1. Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a. a wave

Back 146

Generated by the atrial contraction

Front 147

1. Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a. v wave

Back 147

An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins

Front 148

1. Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a. c wave

Back 148

May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole

Front 149

1. Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a. x descent

Back 149

Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles

Front 150

1. Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a. y descent

Back 150

Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle

Front 151

1. Match the description with the corresponding terms.
a. Relationship among blood flow, pressure, and resistance

Back 151

Poiseuille’s formula

Front 152

1. Match the description with the corresponding terms.
a. Increased heart rate from increased volume

Back 152

Bainbridge reflex

Front 153

1. Match the description with the corresponding terms.
a. Relationship of wall tension intraventricular pressure, internal radius, and wall thickness

Back 153

Laplace’s law

Front 154

1. Match the description with the corresponding terms.
a. Cycles of attachment, movement, and dissociation of thin filaments during the attachments of actin to myosin

Back 154

Cross-bridge theory

Front 155

1. Match the description with the corresponding terms.
a. Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle

Back 155

Frank-Starling law

Front 156

1. True or False Atherosclerosis is an inflammatory disease.

Back 156

True

Front 157

1. True or False Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.

Back 157

True

Front 158

1. True or False Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.

Back 158

True

Front 159

1. True or False Many people with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.

Back 159

True

Front 160

1. True or False Most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.

Back 160

True

Front 161

1. True or False Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia.

Back 161

True

Front 162

1. True or False When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate the fluid without compressing the heart.

Back 162

True

Front 163

1. True or False Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A beta-streptococcus.

Back 163

True

Front 164

1. True or False An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV) in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.

Back 164

True

Front 165

1. True or False Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.

Back 165

True

Front 166

1. The pathophysiology of atherosclerosic injury includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. injured endothelial cells can not produce normal amounts of antithrombotic cytokines and vasodilating cytokines
b. numerous inflammatory cytokines are released
c. macrophages adhere to injured endothelium
d. macrophages release enzymes and toxic oxygen radicals that create oxidative stress
e. Fatty streaks lead to foam cell formation

Back 166

Fatty streaks lead to foam cell formation

Front 167

1. Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by:
a. causing ischemia of the intima.
b. increasing nitric oxide.
c. eroding the vessel wall.
d. obstructing the vessel.

Back 167

eroding the vessel wall.

Front 168

1. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a. Deep venous thrombosis
b. Endocarditis
c. Valvular disease
d. Left heart failure

Back 168

DVT

Front 169

1. Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a. An inflammatory disorder of small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b. A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes
c. An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d. A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

Back 169

An inflammatory disorder of small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands

Front 170

1. Which of the following statements best describes Raynaud disease?
a. An inflammatory disorder of small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b. A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities
c. A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes
d. An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities

Back 170

A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes

Front 171

1. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a. An increase in osmotic pressure
b. Damage to the valves within veins
c. Damage to the venous endothelium
d. An increase in hydrostatic pressure

Back 171

Damage tot he valaves within veins

Front 172

1. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a. Inflammation
b. Occlusion
c. distention
d. sclerosis

Back 172

Occlussion

Front 173

1. A local state in which cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply is defined as:
a. infarction.
b. ischemia.
c. necrosis.
d. inflammation.

Back 173

Ischemia

Front 174

1. The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by:
a. diabetes mellitus.
b. hypertension.
c. obesity.
d. high alcohol consumption.

Back 174

HTN

Front 175

1. Which of the following risk factors is NOT associated with coronary artery disease (CAD)?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hypertension
c. Obesity
d. High HDL

Back 175

High HDL

Front 176

1. Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of:
a. histamine.
b. nitric oxide.
c. angiotensin II.
d. epinephrine.

Back 176

Epinephrine

Front 177

1. Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
a. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
c. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
d. Triglycerides (TGs)

Back 177

HDLs

Front 178

1. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a. Homocysteine
b. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d. C-reactive protein (CRP)

Back 178

CRP

Front 179

1. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

Back 179

20

Front 180

1. The scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) is most vulnerable to injury between days:
a. 5 to 9.
b. 10 to 14.
c. 15 to 20.
d. 20 to 30.

Back 180

10 to 14

Front 181

1. An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with:
a. myocardial ischemia.
b. hypertension.
c. myocardial infarction (MI).
d. coronary artery disease.

Back 181

MI

Front 182

1. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a person when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a. Prolonged QT interval
b. ST elevation (STEMI)
c. ST depression (STDMI)
d. Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)

Back 182

STEMI

Front 183

1. Angiotensin II increases the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction by:
a. increasing the peripheral vascular resistance.
b. causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia.
c. reducing the contractility of the myocardium.
d. stimulating the sympathetic nervous system.

Back 183

increasing the peripheral vascular resistance

Front 184

1. The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is significant because it reflects the impairment of the:
a. diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b. blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c. blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d. diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

Back 184

diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers

Front 185

1. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
a. myocardial infarction.
b. pericardial effusion.
c. restrictive pericarditis.
d. acute pericarditis.

Back 185

Acute pericarditis

Front 186

1. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of aortic stenosis?
a. Jugular vein distention
b. Bounding pulses
c. Peripheral edema
d. Angina

Back 186

Angina

Front 187

1. Aortic and mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis are caused by:
a. congenital malformation.
b. cardiac failure.
c. rheumatic fever.
d. coronary artery disease.

Back 187

Rheumatic Fever

Front 188

1. Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
a. Mitral valve prolapse
b. Tricuspid stenosis
c. Tricuspid valve prolapse
d. Aortic insufficiency

Back 188

Mitral Valve Prolapse

Front 189

1. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a. Fat emboli
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Bacterial endocarditis
d. Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

Back 189

Rhematic Fever

Front 190

1. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a. a virus.
b. a fungus.
c. a bacterium.
d. rickettsiae.

Back 190

a bacterium

Front 191

1. Genitourinary instrumentation, male gender, and intravenous drug use are risk factors for which of the following?
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Infective endocarditis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation

Back 191

Infective endocarditis

Front 192

1. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a. Right heart failure
b. Left heart failure
c. Low-output failure
d. High-output failure

Back 192

Right Heart Failue

Front 193

1. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a. left ventricular hypertrophy.
b. right ventricular failure.
c. myocardial ischemia.
d. contractile dysfunction.

Back 193

Myocardil ischemia

Front 194

1. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a. Increases preload and decreases afterload
b. Increases preload and increases afterload
c. Decreases preload and increases afterload
d. Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Back 194

Increases preload and increases afterload

Front 195

2. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Back 195

Usually caused by infiltrative disease, such as amyloidosis

Front 196

2. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Back 196

Results in muscular subaortic stenosis

Front 197

2. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy

Back 197

Usually caused by ischemic or valvular heart disease

Front 198

1. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle

Back 198

Mitral stenosis

Front 199

1. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Impairs flow from the left ventricle

Back 199

Aortic stenosis

Front 200

1. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Backflow into left atrium

Back 200

Mitral regurgitation

Front 201

1. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Backflow into right atrium

Back 201

Tricuspid regurgitation

Front 202

1. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Backflow into left ventricle

Back 202

Aortic regurgitation

Front 203

1. True or False Cardiogenesis begins at approximately 3 weeks’ gestation, whereas most cardiovascular development occurs between the fourth and seventh.

Back 203

True

Front 204

1. True or False Closure of the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in a full-term infant normally occurs immediately after birth.

Back 204

False

Front 205

1. True or False The purpose of the foramen ovale is to allow a right-to-left shunt necessary for fetal circulation.

Back 205

True

Front 206

1. True or False Lesions that increase the pulmonary blood flow are called right-to-left shunts.

Back 206

False

Front 207

1. True or False Complete transposition of the great vessels is a congenital heart defect in which the left ventricle pumps blood to the pulmonary circulation.

Back 207

True

Front 208

1. True or False Common clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure in infants include unexplained weight gain and periorbital edema

Back 208

False

Front 209

1. True or False In general, the pathophysiologic mechanisms of congestive heart failure (CHF) are very different in infants and children than in adults.

Back 209

False

Front 210

1. True or False Kawasaki disease is a self-limiting systemic vasculitis.

Back 210

True

Front 211

1. True or False Iron deficiency anemia may result from polycythemia that develops from chronic hypoxia.

Back 211

True

Front 212

1. True or False Diagnosis of primary hypertension in children is difficult because the early stages are often asymptomatic.

Back 212

True

Front 213

1. True or False Acquired heart disease is the most common cardiovascular disease in children.

Back 213

False

Front 214

1. True or False Conditions in which a patent foramen ovale may continue past the first month of life include pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular (RV) failure, and tricuspid atresia.

Back 214

True

Front 215

1. The function of a patent opening between the left and right atria in a fetus is that it allows:
a. right-to-left blood shunting
b. left-to-right blood shunting
c. blood to flow from the umbilical cord
d. blood to flow to the lungs

Back 215

right-to-left blood shunting

Front 216

1. Congenital heart defects that cause acyanotic congestive heart failure usually involve:
a. right-to-left shunts
b. left-to-right shunts
c. obstructive lesions
d. mixed lesions

Back 216

left-to-right shunts

Front 217

1. Congenital heart effects that cause hypoxemia, and therefore cyanosis, usually involve;
a. Right-to-left shunts
b. Left-to-right shunts
c. Obstructive lesions
d. Mixed lesions

Back 217

Right-to-left shunts

Front 218

1. Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?
a. Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis
b. Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
c. Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia
d. Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus

Back 218

Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus

Front 219

1. What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?
a. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
b. Cor pulmonale
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Cerebral hypertension

Back 219

CHF

Front 220

1. Children with tetralogy of Fallot compensate to relieve hypoxic spells by:
a. Lying on their left side
b. Performing the Valsalva maneuver
c. Squatting
d. Hyperventilating

Back 220

Squatting

Front 221

1. The infant diagnosed with small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is likely to present:
a. An intermittent murmur
b. Asymptomatically
c. A need for surgical repair
d. With a triad of congenital defects

Back 221

Asymptomattically

Front 222

1. Which of the following is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels?
a. The aorta arises from the right ventricle
b. The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle
c. The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs
d. All of the above

Back 222

The aorta arises from the right ventricle

Front 223

1. Which of the following describes total anomalous pulmonary venous return?
a. The foramen ovale closes after birth
b. Pulmonary venous return is to the right atrium
c. Pulmonary venous return is to the left atrium
d. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood

Back 223

Pulmonary venous return is to the right atrium

Front 224

1. True or False The oropharynx is considered part of a conduction airway

Back 224

True

Front 225

1. True or False The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and does not participate in gas exchange.

Back 225

True

Front 226

1. True or False The PaO2 must drop below 80 mmHg before the peripheral chemoreceptors have much influence on ventilation.

Back 226

False

Front 227

1. True or False The lungs contain only superficial lymphatic capillaries.

Back 227

False

Front 228

1. True or False The movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs is called: ventliation

Back 228

True

Front 229

1. The nurse practitioner who is auscultating the lungs of a child who has aspirated a piece of hot dog, would expect decreased or absent breath sound over the:
a. left lung.
b. right lung.
c. trachea.
d. carina.

Back 229

Right Lung

Front 230

1. Aspiration is most likely to occur in the:
a. right mainstem bronchus because it extends vertically from the trachea.
b. left mainstem bronchus because it is more narrow.
c. trachea because it comes into contact with the food and drink first.
d. carina because of its location at the site where the bronchi bifurcates.

Back 230

right mainstem bronchus because it extends vertically from the trachea.

Front 231

1. Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
a. Trachea
b. Segmental bronchi
c. Alveolocapillary membrane
d. Main bronchus

Back 231

Alveolocapillary membrane

Front 232

1. Surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by:
a. decreasing thoracic compliance.
b. attracting water to the alveolar surface.
c. decreasing surface tension in alveoli.
d. increasing surface tension in alveoli.

Back 232

decreasing surface tension in alveoli.

Front 233

1. True or False The basic automatic rhythm of respiration is set by the dorsal respiratory group DRG, a cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla that sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles.

Back 233

True

Front 234

1. Pressure in the pleural space is:
a. atmospheric.
b. below atmospheric.
c. above atmospheric.
d. variable.

Back 234

Below atmospheric pressure

Front 235

1. The adequacy of a person’s alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring:
a. ventilatory rate.
b. ventilatory pattern.
c. respiratory effort.
d. arterial blood gas.

Back 235

arterial blood gas

Front 236

1. Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include:
a. decreased flow resistance.
b. fewer alveoli.
c. stiffening of the chest wall.
d. improved elastic recoil.

Back 236

stiffening of the chest wall

Front 237

1. How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported?
a. Dissolved in plasma
b. Bound to hemoglobin
c. In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. Bound to protein

Back 237

bound to hemoglobin

Front 238

1. Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the:
a. pneumotaxic center in the pons.
b. apneustic center in the pons.
c. dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata.
d. ventral respiratory group in the medulla oblongata.

Back 238

dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata.

Front 239

1. Which endogenous substances cause bronchoconstriction?
a. Epinephrine and acetylcholine
b. Histamine and prostaglandin
c. Bradykinin and thromboxane A
d. Leukotrienes and prostacyclin

Back 239

Histamine and prostaglandin

Front 240

1. If a patient develops acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to:
a. shift to the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells.
b. shift to the left, allowing less O2 to be released to the cells.
c. show no change, allowing the O2 concentration to remain stable.
d. show dramatic fluctuation, allowing the O2concentration to increase.

Back 240

shift to the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells.

Front 241

1. Most carbon dioxide in the blood is transported:
a. attached to oxygen.
b. in the form of bicarbonate.
c. combined with albumin.
d. dissolved in the plasma.

Back 241

in the form of bicarbonate.

Front 242

1. Changes in the alveoli that cause an increase in alveolar surface tension, alveolar collapse, and decreased lung expansion are a result of:
a. decreased alveolar macrophage production.
b. increased compliance.
c. decreased surfactant production.
d. increased stimulation by peripheral chemoreceptors.

Back 242

decreased surfactant production.

Front 243

1. Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are
a. difficult to deflate.
b. easily inflated.
c. stiff.
d. unable to diffuse oxygen.

Back 243

stiff

Front 244

1. The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via the _____ nerve.
a. Vagus
b. Phrenic
c. Brachial
d. Pectoral

Back 244

vagus

Front 245

1. Hypoventilation that results in the retention carbon dioxide will stimulate which of the following receptors in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state?
a. Irritant receptors
b. Central chemoreceptors
c. Peripheral chemoreceptors
d. Stretch receptors

Back 245

Central chemoreceptors

Front 246

1. Which of the following is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction?
a. Low alveolar PO2
b. Hyperventilation
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Epinephrine

Back 246

Low alveolar PO2

Front 247

1. Match the receptor with its action and then with its location.
a. Irritant receptors

Back 247

Initiates cough reflex

Front 248

1. Match the receptor with its action and then with its location.
a. Stretch receptors

Back 248

Hering-Breuer expiratory reflex

Front 249

1. Match the receptor with its action and then with its location.
a. J-receptors

Back 249

Initiates rapid, shallow breathing

Front 250

1. Match the receptor with its action and then with its location.
a. Peripheral chemoreceptors

Back 250

Monitors pH, PaCO2 and PaO2 in blood

Front 251

1. Match the receptor with its action and then with its location.
a. Central chemoreceptors

Back 251

Senses pH of cerebrospinal fluid

Front 252

1. True or False An abnormal ventilation-perfusion ratio is a common cause of hypoxemia.

Back 252

True

Front 253

1. True or False Hypoxia is the reduced oxygenation of tissue cells, whereas hypoxemia is the reduced oxygenation of arterial blood (reduced PaO2)

Back 253

True

Front 254

1. True or False Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted from person to person through airborne droplets.

Back 254

True

Front 255

1. True or False Chronic pulmonary hypertension can lead to cor pulmonale.

Back 255

True

Front 256

1. True or False The greatest single risk factor for reactivation of tuberculosis is infection with HIV.

Back 256

True

Front 257

1. Dyspnea is NOT a result of:
a. decreased pH, increased PaCO2 and decreased PaO2
b. decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.
c. stimulation of stretch or J-receptors.
d. fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm.

Back 257

decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.

Front 258

1. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a result of:
a. obstructed bronchi.
b. collapsed alveoli.
c. fluid in the lungs.
d. inflamed bronchioles.

Back 258

fluid in the lungs

Front 259

1. _____ is generally relieved by sitting up in a forward-leaning position.
a. Hyperpnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Apnea
d. Dyspnea on exertion

Back 259

orthopnea

Front 260

1. Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern:
a. with alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing.
b. commonly observed in pulmonary fibrosis.
c. commonly observed in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
d. with a slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause.

Back 260

with a slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause.

Front 261

1. Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of:
a. decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.
b. increased PaCO2 decreased pH, and decreased PaO2
c. stimulation of stretch or J-receptors.
d. fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm.

Back 261

decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata

Front 262

1. Which of the following is a true statement?
a. Hypoventilation causes hypocapnia.
b. Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia.
c. Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.
d. Hyperventilation results in an increased PaCO2.

Back 262

Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.

Front 263

12. ____________ is the selective bulbous enlargement of the distal segment of a digit and is commonly associated with diseases that interfere with oxygenation of the blood.
a. Edema
b. Clubbing
c. Angling
d. Osteoarthropathy

Back 263

clubbing

Front 264

12. Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by:
a. creating alveolar dead space.
b. decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas.
c. creating a right-to-left shunt.
d. impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion.

Back 264

impairing alveolocapillary membrane

Front 265

12. High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through:
a. shunting
b. hypoventilation.
c. decreased inspired oxygen.
d. diffusion abnormalities.

Back 265

decreased inspired oxygen.

Front 266

12. Alveolar dead space is a result of:
a. pulmonary edema.
b. pulmonary emboli.
c. atelectasis.
d. pneumonia.

Back 266

pulmonary emboli.

Front 267

12. The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
a. right-sided heart failure.
b. left-sided heart failure.
c. mitral valve prolapsed.
d. aortic stenosis.

Back 267

left-sided heart failure.

Front 268

12. Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?
a. Spontaneous pneumothorax
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Open pneumothroax
d. Secondary pneumothorax

Back 268

Tension pneumothorax

Front 269

12. In ________ pleural effusion, the fluid is watery and diffuses out of the capillaries as a result of increased blood pressure or decreased capillary oncotic pressure.
a. exudative
b. purulent
c. transudative
d. large

Back 269

transudative

Front 270

12. _________ involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchanged system and the destruction of alveolar walls.
a. Transudative effusion
b. Emphysema
c. Exudative effusion
d. Abscess

Back 270

emphysema

Front 271

12. A(n) _________ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma.
a. consolidation
b. cavitation
c. empyema
d. abscess

Back 271

abcess

Front 272

12. Which of the following is not a cause of chest wall restriction?
a. Pneumothorax
b. Severe kyphoscoliosis
c. Gross obesity
d. Neuromuscular disease

Back 272

pneumothorax

Front 273

12. Which statement about silicosis and asbestosis is false? Neither silicosis nor asbestosis is:
a. caused by inhalation of inorganic dust particles.
b. a type of pneumoconiosis.
c. a cause of lung cancer.
d. a cause of cellular apoptosis.

Back 273

a cause of lung cancer

Front 274

12. _________ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.
a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
b. Pneumonia
c. Pulmonary emboli
d. Acute pulmonary edema

Back 274

ARDS

Front 275

12. Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air?
a. Restrictive
b. Obstructive
c. Acute
d. Communicable

Back 275

Obstructive

Front 276

12. Which immunoglobulin may contribute to the pathophysiology of asthma?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

Back 276

IgE

Front 277

12. Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?
a. Neutrophil proteases, bradykinin, and histamine
b. Bradykinin, serotonin, and neutrophil proteases
c. Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
d. Lymphokines, serotonin, and prostaglandins

Back 277

Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes

Front 278

12. The effect of inflammatory cytokines, tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a), and IL-1 on asthma is that they increase the levels of:
a. norepinephrine, which causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and mucus secretion.
b. acetylcholine, which causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and mucus secretion.
c. epinephrine, which causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and increases capillary permeability.
d. immunoglobulin G, which initiates the complement cascade and causes smooth muscle contraction and increased capillary permeability.

Back 278

acetylcholine, which causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and mucus secretion.

Front 279

12. Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of:
a. chronic bronchitis.
b. emphysema.
c. pneumonia.
d. asthma.

Back 279

asthma

Front 280

12. The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with:
a. elimination of the causative agent.
b. broad-spectrum antibiotics.
c. drugs that reduce bronchospasm.
d. drugs that decrease airway inflammation.

Back 280

elimination of the causative agent.

Front 281

12. Which bacteria become embedded in the airway secretions in chronic bronchitis?
a. Legionella pneumophila and Chlamydia pneumonia
b. Klebsiella pneumonia and Pneumocystis jiroveci
c. Haemophilus influenza and Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Mycoplasma pneumonia and Staphylococcus aureus

Back 281

Haemophilus influenza and Streptococcus pneumonia

Front 282

12. Clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough are indicative of:
a. chronic bronchitis.
b. emphysema.
c. pneumonia.
d. asthma.

Back 282

chronic bronchitis

Front 283

12. Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of:
a. chronic bronchitis.
b. emphysema.
c. pneumonia.
d. asthama.

Back 283

emphysema

Front 284

12. The most common route of lower respiratory tract infection is:
a. aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions.
b. inhalation of microorganisms.
c. microorganisms spread to lung via blood.
d. poor mucus membrane protection.

Back 284

aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions.

Front 285

12. The progression of chronic bronchitis is best halted by:
a. regular use of bronchodilators.
b. smoking cessation.
c. postural chest drainage techniques.
d. identification of early signs of infection.

Back 285

smoking cessation

Front 286

12. Clinical manifestation of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of:
a. chronic bronchitis.
b. emphysema.
c. pneumonia.
d. asthma.

Back 286

pneumonia

Front 287

12. Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include:
a. systemic blood pressure greater than 130/90.
b. productive cough and rhonchi bilaterally.
c. dyspnea on exertion and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
d. peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.

Back 287

peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.

Front 288

12. Pulmonary hypertension result from which of the following alteration?
a. Narrowed pulmonary capillaries
b. Narrowed bronchi and bronchioles
c. Destruction of alveoli
d. Ischemia of the myocardium

Back 288

Narrowed pulmonary capillaries

Front 289

12. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is best described as a tumor that:
a. causes airway obstruction and ectopic hormone production.
b. produces a productive cough and airway obstruction in addition to pneumonia and atelectasis.
c. causes pleural effusion and shortness of breath.
d. produces chest wall pain, pleural effusion, productive cough, and hemoptysis.

Back 289

produces a productive cough and airway obstruction in addition to pneumonia and atelectasis.

Front 290

12. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung

Back 290

Aspiration

Front 291

12. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Inflammatory obstruction of small airways

Back 291

Bronchiolitis

Front 292

12. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung

Back 292

Pulmonary fibrosis

Front 293

12. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Lung tissue collapse

Back 293

Atelectasis

Front 294

12. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Abnormal dilation of the bronchi

Back 294

Bronchiectasis

Front 295

13. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Accumulation of air in pleural space

Back 295

Pneumothorax

Front 296

13. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Pus in the pleural space

Back 296

Empyema

Front 297

13. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

Back 297

Pleural effusion

Front 298

13. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Inflammation of the pleura

Back 298

Exudative effusion

Front 299

13. Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
a. Result of rib or sterna fractures

Back 299

Flail chest

Front 300

1. True or False - About 75% of aspirated foreign objects in children lodge in a bronchus.

Back 300

True

Front 301

1. True or False – The most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea of childhood is adenotonsillar hypertrophy.

Back 301

True

Front 302

1. True or False – Paradoxical breathing is an ominous sign in premature infants.

Back 302

False

Front 303

1. True or False – All alveoli are present and functioning at birth.

Back 303

False

Front 304

2. True or False – Surfactant is produced by the fourth week of gestation.

Back 304

False

Front 305

1. True or False – Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infects nearly 100% of children in the United States by 2 or 3 years of age.

Back 305

True

Front 306

1. True or False – Signs of acute respiratory failure remain the same regardless of etiology.

Back 306

True

Front 307

1. True or False - Asthma is one of the leading chronic illnesses in children and has become more prevalent in the past two decades.

Back 307

True

Front 308

1. True or False – Children with chronic asthma have clubbing of fingers and toes.

Back 308

False

Front 309

1. Chest wall compliance in infants is _________ in adults.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. the same as
d. unlike that

Back 309

higher than

Front 310

1. Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?
a. They are obligatory nose breathers
b. Their noses are small in diameter
c. They become dehydrated when mouth breathing
d. Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than an adults

Back 310

They are obligatory nose breathers

Front 311

1. Which of the following types of croup is most common?
a. Bacterial
b. Viral
c. Fungal
d. Autoimmune

Back 311

viral

Front 312

1. Rhinorrhea, sore throat, a low-grade fever and a seal-like barking cough are clinical manifestations indicative of:
a. epiglottitis.
b. retropharyngeal abscess.
c. bacterial tracheitis.
d. croup.

Back 312

croup

Front 313

1. What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?
a. An immature immune system
b. Small alveoli
c. A surfactant deficiency
d. Anemia

Back 313

A surfactant deficiency

Front 314

1. The primary problem in RDS of the newborn is:
a. consolidation.
b. pulmonary edema.
c. atelectasis.
d. bronchiolar plugging.

Back 314

atelectasis.

Front 315

1. Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?
a. Administering glucocorticoids to women in preterm labor accelerates the maturation of the fetus’s lungs.
b. Administering oxygen to mothers during preterm labor increases their arterial oxygen before birth of the fetus.
c. Treatment includes the instillation of exogenous surfactant down an endotracheal tube of infants weighing less than 1000g.
d. Supporting the infant’s respiratory function by using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

Back 315

Administering oxygen to mothers during preterm labor increases their arterial oxygen before birth of the fetus.

Front 316

1. Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by _______ infection.
a. respiratory syncytial virus
b. influenzavirus
c. adenoviruses
d. Epstein-Barr virus

Back 316

RSV

Front 317

1. What are the clinical manifestations of bacterial pneumonia in children?
a. Mild to high fever, cough, rhinorrhea, crackles, and wheezes
b. High fever, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain
c. Decreased breath sounds in areas of consolidation and dyspnea
d. Increased respiratory rate and respiratory alkalosis

Back 317

Mild to high fever, cough, rhinorrhea, crackles, and wheezes

Front 318

1. An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n):
a. obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation.
b. pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.
c. pulmonary disorder involving and abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens.
d. obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency.

Back 318

obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation.

Front 319

1. Which arterial blood gas values would be expected in the acute phase of childhood asthma?
a. pH 7.6, PaCO2 35 mmHg, HCO3 32 mEq/L
b. pH 7.4, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
c. pH 7.5, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
d. pH 7.2, PaCO2 20 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L

Back 319

pH 7.5, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L

Front 320

1. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is described as a(n):
a. obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation.
b. pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.
c. respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens.
d. pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency.

Back 320

pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.

Front 321

1. Cystic fibrosis is best described as a(n):
a. obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation.
b. pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.
c. pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of aprotein producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens.
d. pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency.

Back 321

pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of aprotein producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens.

Front 322

1. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n):
a. autosomal recessive inheritance.
b. autosomal dominant inheritance.
c. infection.
d. malignancy.

Back 322

autosomal recessive inheritance.

Front 323

1. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) occurs most often between ______ and ______ months of age.
a. 1; 2
b. 3; 4
c. 5; 6
d. 6; 7

Back 323

3; 4

Front 324

1. Match the sound with the location of the problem.
a. Sonorous snoring

Back 324

Nasal problems, foreign body, polyps, or choanal atresia

Front 325

1. Match the sound with the location of the problem.
a. Muffled voice

Back 325

Pharyngeal problems.

Front 326

1. Match the sound with the location of the problem.
a. High –pitched inspiratory sound, voice change, hoarse

Back 326

Laryngeal problems

Front 327

1. Match the sound with the location of the problem.
a. Expiratory stridor or central wheeze

Back 327

Tracheal problems

Front 328

1. Match the sound with the location of the problem.
a. Expiratory wheezes

Back 328

Bronchial problems