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138 Cards in this Set

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What type molecule carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis?

a) RNA polymerase
b) start codons
c) tRNA
d) short proteins
e) mRNA
c) tRNA
The central dogma of molecular biology states that:

a) DNA is translated into protein.
b) DNA is translated into RNA which is transcribed into protein.
c) DNA is transcribed into RNA which is translated into protein.
d) DNA is transcribed into RNA.
e) RNA is transcribed into polypeptides.
c) DNA is transcribed into RNA which is translated into protein.
Most genes come in alternative forms called:

a) gametes.
b) alleles.
c) homozygotes.
d) heterozygotes.
e) chromosomes.
b) alleles.
Which of the following is NOT a difficulty that medicine has encountered in its attempts to cure human diseases through gene therapy?

a) It is difficult to get the working gene into enough cells at the right rate to have a physiological effect.
b) It is difficult to get the working gene into the specific cells where it is needed.
c) The transfer organism—a bacterium or virus—may get into unintended cells and cause disease.
d) For many diseases, a malfunctioning gene has not been identified.
e) All of the above are difficulties that medicine has encountered in its attempts to cure human diseases through gene therapy.
e) All of the above are difficulties that medicine has encountered in its attempts to cure human diseases through gene therapy.
Genotype is to phenotype as:

a) cookie is to recipe.
b) oven is to cookie.
c) cookie is to oven.
d) recipe is to cookbook.
e) recipe is to cookie.
e) recipe is to cookie.
Genetic markers are often used to predict the likelihood that a person will develop an inherited illness. Using this information, what is a reasonable definition of a genetic marker?

a) a detectable genetic sequence shared by all family members that have a certain disease but not by members that do not have that disease
b) an undetectable genetic sequence shared by all family members that have a certain disease but not by members that do not have that disease
c) a detectable genetic sequence that is linked to the allele that causes a particular disease
d) a detectable genetic sequence that occurs on the same position of the chromosome in every member of a family
e) Both a) and c) are reasonable definitions of "genetic marker."
e) Both a) and c) are reasonable definitions of "genetic marker."
Suppose you are a scientist and you have recently discovered a multicellular organism in the center of a meteorite that has fallen to earth. You run an initial chemical screen and find that this organism does not contain DNA. You begin to run more tests looking for a different molecule that has a similar function to DNA in this new type of life. What properties of this new molecule would you expect to find?

a) It is present in similar levels in most cells.
b) It is present in every cell.
c) It is robust.
d) It has a structural feature that suggests it is easily duplicated.
e) All of the above are expected properties of this new molecule.
e) All of the above are expected properties of this new molecule.
The full set of an individual organism's DNA is called its:

a) nucleotide.
b) nucleosome.
c) genome.
d) complement.
e) chromosome.
c) genome.
Which of the following is NOT true about the discovery of DNA structure by Watson and Crick?

a) Hydrogen bonds were shown to hold the two strands of DNA together.
b) Because of base pairing, there always is an equal number of G and C, and A and T.
c) Determining the structure of DNA almost immediately revealed how chromosomes duplicate.
d) From the structure of DNA, it was clear how genes encoded information for proteins.
e) X-ray pictures of DNA were helpful in deducing its structure.
d) From the structure of DNA, it was clear how genes encoded information for proteins.
When cloning a sheep, the step that IMMEDIATELY follows the isolation of an egg cell from one sheep and a mammary cell from another sheep and removing the nucleus from the egg cell is:

a) birthing the cloned sheep.
b) growing the embryo in culture.
c) initiating cell division.
d) fusing the mammary cell, including its nucleus, with the egg cell.
e) transplanting the embryo into the womb of a surrogate mother sheep
d) fusing the mammary cell, including its nucleus, with the egg cell.
Which of the following is NOT true about DNA?

a) It is found in the nearly all cells of all living things.
b) Plants have DNA in three places: the nucleus, chloroplasts, and mitochondria.
c) It can be used to identify an individual person.
d) Humans lack DNA in their brain cells.
e) It can be found in human saliva, hair, and blood.
d) Humans lack DNA in their brain cells.
Phylogenetic trees are built using:

a) similarities in the physical structure of organisms.
b) similarities in the embryological development of organisms.
c) similarities in the DNA sequences of organisms.
d) tissue samples.
e) a), b), and c) are all correct.
e) a), b), and c) are all correct.
DNA is a macromolecule that stores information. Which component of the DNA is the source of this information?

a) the histone
b) the base
c) the phosphate group
d) the sugar
e) None of the above is the source of the DNA's information.
b) the base
Which of the following is a possible medicinal use of cloning?

a) to clone sheep that produce the human protein alpha-1 antitrypsin used to treat cystic fibrosis
b) to clone hamsters that produce human erythropoietin to treat kidney disease
c) to clone dinosaurs in order to study the evolution of predatory behavior
d) to clone cows that produce greater quantities of milk
e) Both a) and b) are possible medicinal uses of cloning.
e) Both a) and b) are possible medicinal uses of cloning.
One of the four nucleotide bases in DNA is replaced by a different base in RNA. Which base is it, and what is it replaced by?

a) thymine, replaced by uracil
b) adenine, replaced by uracil
c) thymine, replaced by guanine
d) cytosine, replaced by guanine
e) thymine, replaced by adenine
a) thymine, replaced by uracil
Which of the following can be said about a frameshift mutation?

a) It must involve the insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
b) It changes the reading frame of the protein coding sequence.
c) It only changes the amino acid sequence before the frameshift.
d) Only a) and b) are correct.
e) None of the above is correct.
d) Only a) and b) are correct.
Deletions and substitutions are two types of point mutations. Which is more likely to cause mistranslations of proteins?

a) Substitutions are more likely to cause mistranslations of proteins because one protein is substituted for another protein.
b) Deletions are more likely to cause mistranslations of proteins because they shift the reading frame and cause downstream amino acids to be changed.
c) Substitutions are more likely to cause mistranslations of proteins because they shift the reading frame and cause downstream amino acids to be changed.
d) Deletions are more likely to cause mistranslations of proteins because one protein is deleted.
e) None of the above is correct.
b) Deletions are more likely to cause mistranslations of proteins because they shift the reading frame and cause downstream amino acids to be changed.
When a triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is GCA, the corresponding codon for the mRNA that is transcribed from it is:

a) UGC.
b) GCT.
c) GCU.
d) CGU.
e) GCA.
d) CGU
Which of the following is TRUE about human DNA?

a) A newt, onion, and amoeba all have smaller genomes than we humans have.
b) Bacteria have far more non-coding regions in their DNA than humans.
c) Human genes do not have non-coding regions of DNA within them.
d) More than 95% of our DNA is non-coding DNA.
e) The genome size of an organism is a good measure of the complexity of that organism.
d) More than 95% of our DNA is non-coding DNA.
Ninety-six percent of the base-pair sequences in chimps and humans are the same. This finding indicates that:

a) 96% of the proteins produced by chimps is identical to proteins produced by humans.
b) humans are more closely related to chimps than to any other species on earth.
c) 96% of the genes in humans have identical counterparts in chimps.
d) 4% of the DNA we carry contains mutations.
e) humans are more closely related to chimps than any two mice are related to each other.
b) humans are more closely related to chimps than to any other species on earth.
If the start sequence (codon) on an mRNA reads "AUG", what does the base sequence read on the initiator tRNA, carrying methionine? Remember that a codon on the mRNA binds to a complementary base sequence (called an anticodon) in a tRNA.

a) UAC
b) UUU
c) TAC
d) ATG
e) AUG
a) UAC
A mutation that involves the addition, subtraction, or substitution of a single base is known as:

a) a basic mutation.
b) gene flow.
c) a chromosomal aberration.
d) polypoloidy.
e) a point mutation.
e) a point mutation.
Which of the following nucleotide bases are present in equal amounts in DNA?

a) guanine and cytosine
b) guanine and thymine
c) thymine and guanine
d) adenine and guanine
e) thymine and cytosine
a) guanine and cytosine
A person's unique DNA is carried within some of the cells and tissues of their body. These include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) skin cells.
b) blood.
c) saliva.
d) stomach.
e) All of the above contain a person's DNA.
e) All of the above contain a person's DNA.
Considering the principle of complementary base pairing, you would expect an equal ratio of which two nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule?

a) guanine and thymine
b) thymine and cytosine
c) uracil and adenine
d) cytosine and guanine
e) adenine and guanine
d) cytosine and guanine
PCR is a common technique used to amplify large portions of specified gene sequences. What does the acronym PCR stand for?

a) Paul Carl Rease
b) powerful catabolize reaction
c) polymerase chain reaction
d) purification cleansing reagent
e) perform correct response
c) polymerase chain reaction
During transcription the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into a RNA molecule by:




a) RNA polymerase.
b) reverse transcriptase.
c) primase.
d) transcriptase.
e) DNA polymerase.
a) RNA polymerase.
When cloning a sheep, why is it necessary to remove the nucleus from the egg cell and fuse the mammary gland cell, including its nucleus, to the egg cell?

a) Because the egg cell has only a haploid complement of genes, while the mammary gland cell has a diploid complement.
b) Because mammary gland cells are only found in females.
c) because without the mammary gland cell, the newborn clone will have no mammary glands from which to receive nutrition.
d) Because only cells with the nucleus of a mammary gland cell will divide—the cells with the nucleus of an egg cell will not divide.
e) To clone a sheep, it is not necessary to remove the nucleus from the egg cell and fuse the mammary gland cell, including its nucleus, to the egg cell.
a) Because the egg cell has only a haploid complement of genes, while the mammary gland cell has a diploid complement.
Golden rice:

a) supplies more protein.
b) could help the 250,000 children each year who are at risk of blindness due to vitamin A deficiency.
c) can make vitamin A without beta-carotene.
d) supplies more vitamin A in one serving than an individual needs in a full week.
e) grows without a husk, thereby reducing the processing required before it can be consumed.
b) could help the 250,000 children each year who are at risk of blindness due to vitamin A deficiency.
The combination of DNA from two or more sources is called:

a) recombinant DNA.
b) biotechnology.
c) RNA.
d) fusion.
e) 2-DNA.
a) recombinant DNA.
One of the possible concerns about genetically modified foods is that they might kill organisms that we don't want to kill. Which of the following is an example of this phenomenon?

a) In the Irish Potato Famine, more than one million people died as a result of the lack of genetic diversity in the potato crop.
b) Genetically modified super-sized salmon have been known to kill the bald eagles that generally feed on them.
c) Featherless chickens has become prey to more animals than feathered chickens.
d) The pollen from plants containing insect-killing Bt genes can be blown onto other plants. Insect that we don't want to kill, such as monarch butterflies, may be killed by such pollen.
e) Bears eating genetically modified corn may be poisoned by the Bt gene introduced to the corn to act as a pesticide.
d) The pollen from plants containing insect-killing Bt genes can be blown onto other plants. Insect that we don't want to kill, such as monarch butterflies, may be killed by such pollen.
Most genetic diseases result from mutations that cause a gene to produce a non-functioning ______________, which in turn blocks the functioning of a metabolic pathway.

a) t-RNA
b) codon
c) glycoprotein
d) polysaccharide
e) enzyme
e) enzyme
The gene coding for Bt crystals have been genetically engineered into crop plants in order to:

a) make crops more sensitive to herbicides.
b) make crops more resistant to insects.
c) make crops grow faster.
d) make crops less sensitive to herbicides.
e) make crops develop larger fruits and vegetables.
b) make crops more resistant to insects.
Diabetes is to insulin as __________ is to __________.

a) anemia, human growth hormone
b) cystic fibrosis, erythropoietin
c) lactose intolerance, blood doping
d) dwarfism, human growth hormone
e) fast flush syndrome, the enzyme lactase
d) dwarfism, human growth hormone
Which of the following statements about transgenic plants is CORRECT?

a) Transgenic plants contain genes from more than one species.
b) Transgenic plants require many years to be produced.
c) Intermediate species are required for transgenic plants to be produced.
d) Transgenic plants have been used successfully for insect resistance but not herbicide resistance.
e) Both a) and c) are correct.
a) Transgenic plants contain genes from more than one species.
If you thought about DNA as the book of life, then:

a) the phosphate groups are the words and the sugars and bases are the binding.
b) the bases are the words and the sugars and phosphate groups are the binding.
c) the sugars are the words, the phosphate groups are the paper, and the bases are the covers.
d) the bases and sugars are the words and the phosphate groups are the binding.
e) the sugars and phosphate groups are the words and the bases are the binding
b) the bases are the words and the sugars and phosphate groups are the binding.
The loss of genetic diversity in crop plants can become disastrous. The Irish Potato Famine is an example of this problem. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the Irish Potato Famine?

a) When the crops were infected by a rot-causing mold, all of the potato plants were susceptible and most were wiped out.
b) Most of the potatoes in Ireland were genetically the same.
c) In the mid-1800s, much of the population of Ireland depended on potatoes.
d) Most of the potatoes were exported out of Ireland.
e) Most of the potatoes in Ireland were propagated from cuttings of the same plant.
d) Most of the potatoes were exported out of Ireland.
Many human diseases can be traced to mutations within a particular individual's genome. How does a particular mutation in DNA result in a disease?

a) A gene which contains code for a protein is mutated and the protein alters the level of expression of other genes, causing the disease phenotype.
b) A gene which contains code for an enzyme is mutated and the enzyme loses its ability to properly perform its function.
c) A gene which contains code for a protein is mutated and the protein gains a new function that has negative consequences.
d) All of these are ways in which disease can be caused by a mutation in DNA.
e) None of the above would cause disease.
d) All of these are ways in which disease can be caused by a mutation in DNA.
"Fast flushers" are people who lack:

a) the smarts to know when "enough is enough."
b) enough alcohol in their diet.
c) the ability to make proteins inside their cells.
d) the enzyme needed to digest lactose.
e) a functional enzyme that metabolizes alcohol.
e) a functional enzyme that metabolizes alcohol.
The human genome is composed of approximately how many base pairs?

a) 3 billion
b) 10 billion
c) 30 billion
d) 100 billion
e) one million
a) 3 billion
Measures of overall DNA similarity between chimpanzees and humans reveal that _____ of our base pairs are the same.

a) 92%
b) 75%
c) 96%
d) 85%
e) 100%
c) 96%
Which of the following species has the largest genome size and the smallest number of genes per million base pairs?

a) Mus musculus (mouse)
b) Homo sapiens (human)
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast)
d) Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly)
e) Serratia marcescens (bacterium)
b) Homo sapiens (human)
You read the following headline in the newspaper: "Scientists Find Gene Linked to Schizophrenia." As exciting as this new seems, the reality is that many more years of research will be required before this new knowledge will have any impact on people suffering from schizophrenia. How will this information likely benefit scientists searching for treatments?

a) It will help scientists identify the disease in rats.
b) It will allow scientists to treat patients with the disease through gene therapy.
c) It will help scientists identify the DNA mutations that cause the disease.
d) It will help doctors understand more about the drugs they prescribe to patients with schizophrenia.
e) All of the above are likely benefits.
c) It will help scientists identify the DNA mutations that cause the disease.
During transcription, at the point where the DNA strand being copied has an adenine, _______________ is added to the _______________.

a) a thymine; tRNA
b) an adenine; mRNA
c) a cytosine; DNA
d) a uracil; tRNA
e) a uracil; mRNA
e) a uracil; mRNA
Which of the following about DNA is FALSE?

a) Eukaryotes hold their DNA as long, linear strands while prokaryotes have circular loops.
b) Alleles are different versions of a gene for a certain characteristic or trait.
c) A DNA gene serves as the coded instructions for making a particular molecule of protein.
d) All the DNA found in an adult elephant cell is known collectively as the elephant genome.
e) The number of chromosomes increases with the complexity of the organism.
e) The number of chromosomes increases with the complexity of the organism.
In Tay-Sachs disease, individuals inherit genes with a mutation that causes an inability to produce ______________________ in their lysosomes.

a) r-RNA
b) t-RNA
c) aldehyde dehydrogenase
d) m-RNA
e) a lipid-digesting enzyme
e) a lipid-digesting enzyme
How many RNAs can be transcribed from a single DNA template?

a) Hundreds of RNAs can be transcribed from a single DNA template.
b) Only one RNA per DNA template can be transcribed.
c) Two RNAs per DNA template can be transcribed, because DNA is double-stranded.
d) It depends on the length of the DNA template strand.
e) Four RNAs, two per DNA strand, can be transcribed.
a) Hundreds of RNAs can be transcribed from a single DNA template.
The technique often used in forensics that identifies individuals based on their genetic differences is referred to as:

a) DNA typing.
b) DNA fingerprinting.
c) DNA analyzing.
d) DNA cloning.
e) DNA screening.
b) DNA fingerprinting.
A frameshift mutation:

a) causes a series of codons to be removed.
b) results from an insertion or deletion in a DNA sequence.
c) substitutes a pyrimidine for a purine, or vice-versa.
d) is the result of an unequal crossing-over.
e) leaves the amino acid sequence unchanged.
b) results from an insertion or deletion in a DNA sequence.
The Russian-American biochemist Phoebus Levene was the first to determine that nucleotides may contain one of four different nitrogen-containing bases. Levene believed that the nitrogen-containing bases occurred in equal amounts in DNA. What is the actual proportion of these bases?

a) DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and thymine, and equal amounts of guanine and cytosine.
b) DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and guanine, and equal amounts of thymine and cytosine.
c) DNA contains twice as much of adenine and thymine as guanine and cytosine.
d) DNA contains equal amounts of guanine and thymine, and equal amounts of adenine and cytosine.
e) a) and d) are correct.
a) DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and thymine, and equal amounts of guanine and cytosine.
Transcription is a synonym for:

a) DNA repair.
b) translation.
c) DNA synthesis.
d) RNA synthesis.
e) protein synthesis.
d) RNA synthesis
Which of the following is NOT a reasonable fear of genetically modified foods?

a) The loss of genetic diversity among crop plants is risky.
b) Organisms that we want to kill may become invincible.
c) Organisms that we don't want to kill, like the monarch butterfly, may be killed inadvertently.
d) Eating genetically modified foods could be dangerous.
e) All of the above are reasonable fears of genetically modified foods.
e) All of the above are reasonable fears of genetically modified foods.
During the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), two strands of DNA are separated by:

a) exposure to heat.
b) exposure to denaturing enzymes.
c) exposure to low pH.
d) cryogenic extrapolation.
e) centrifugation.
a) exposure to heat
What can be concluded about comparing differences in molecular biology between different species?

a) Extremely different species are fundamentally unrelated in any way.
b) Birds are more closely related to humans than dogs are.
c) The longer two species have been evolving on their own, the fewer the genetic differences between them.
d) Genetic similarities demonstrate species relatedness.
e) Only DNA sequences can be used to compare relatedness between species.
d) Genetic similarities demonstrate species relatedness.
The technique in which a nonfunctioning gene is replaced by a functioning gene in somatic cells is called:

a) gene medicine.
b) gene alteration.
c) gene transfixing.
d) gene replacement.
e) gene therapy.
e) gene therapy.
The Human Genome Project is a project to decode the three ____________ base pairs in the human genome.

a) hundred million
b) quadrillion
c) trillion
d) million
e) billion
e) billion
The first cloned vertebrate was Dolly, a sheep, in:

a) 2006.
b) 2008.
c) 1938.
d) 1988.
e) 1997.
e) 1997.
Is it possible to clone a dinosaur?

a) No, there are no living animals that could give birth to a dinosaur offspring.
b) Yes, scientists could extract DNA from a crocodile and mutate it until they got dinosaur DNA.
c) Yes, but scientists would have to find the DNA in a fossilized mosquito, hope the mosquito had bitten a dinosaur, and then isolate all of the dinosaur's DNA.
d) No, there is no dinosaur DNA remaining on the planet.
e) No, dinosaurs never existed.
c) Yes, but scientists would have to find the DNA in a fossilized mosquito, hope the mosquito had bitten a dinosaur, and then isolate all of the dinosaur's DNA.
Each codon on a DNA strand codes for:

a) a single gene.
b) a single amino acid.
c) a protein.
d) multiple amino acids.
e) multiple genes.
b) a single amino acid.
Which of the following are always the same in every unit of the DNA molecule?

a) the sugar
b) the base
c) the phosphate group
d) the sugar and base
e) the sugar and phosphate group
e) the sugar and phosphate group
The three nonsense codons that do not code for any amino acid; UAA, UAG, and UGA are also known as:

a) stop codons.
b) start codons.
c) transverse codons.
d) degenerate codons.
e) secondary codons.
a) stop codons
To start the transcription process, a large molecule, __________________, recognizes a _______________________.

a) RNA polymerase; messenger RNA
b) RNA polymerase; promoter site
c) DNA polymerase; termination site
d) DNA polymerase; promoter site
e) DNA polymerase; promoter site
b) RNA polymerase; promoter site
Which is the correct order of steps in the process of genetic engineering?

a) identify colonies, grow them, insert DNA, amplify that DNA, and chop it into pieces
b) amplify DNA, chop it into pieces, insert them into bacteria, identify colonies, and grow them
c) grow colonies, identify the right colonies, chop up their DNA, amplify it, and insert it into bacteria
d) chop up DNA, amplify it, insert it into bacterial cells, grow colonies, and identify colonies
e) insert genes into bacteria, chop up the DNA, amplify it, then grow colonies and identify them
d) chop up DNA, amplify it, insert it into bacterial cells, grow colonies, and identify colonies
During translation, chain elongation continues until:

a) all the tRNAs are enzymatically broken down.
b) a stop codon is encountered.
c) the polypeptide is too long to fit in the cell.
d) all the amino acids in the cell are used up.
e) the ribosome falls off the end of the mRNA.
b) a stop codon is encountered.
The first gene therapy experiments were undertaken in an attempt to cure otherwise fatal genetic diseases in children. What type of incurable genetic disease was the first gene therapy trial attempting to cure?

a) sickle-cell anemia
b) Tay-Sachs
c) immune deficiency
d) malaria
e) cystic fibrosis
c) immune deficiency
If the probability of a point mutation in a species were 10-8 per base pair per generation and each gamete in that species contained 3 x 10-8 base pairs, how many new point mutation would you expect per gamete per generation?

a) 80
b) 3
c) 3 x 10-8
d) 10-8
e) 6
b) 3
Which of the following correctly describes the locations of transcription and translation within a eukaryotic cell?

a) DNA is transcribed in the nucleus, then the mRNA transcript is transported to the cytosol to be translated into protein.
b) DNA is transcribed in the cytosol, then the mRNA transcript is transported into the nucleus to be translated into protein.
c) Both transcription and translation occur in the cytosol.
d) DNA is transcribed in the nucleus, then the mRNA transcript is transported to the nucleolus to be translated into protein.
e) Both transcription and translation occur in the nucleus.
DNA is transcribed in the nucleus, then the mRNA transcript is transported to the cytosol to be translated into protein.
During eukaryotic translation, mRNA carries genetic information from the ________ to the ________, where amino acids are assembled into proteins.

a) nucleolus; cytosol
b) nucleus; ribosome
c) nucleus; Golgi apparatus
d) nucleolus; smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e) nucleolus; nucleus
b) nucleus; ribosome
Which of the following is NOT a possible scenario resulting from genetic engineering?

a) Genetically engineered soybeans can be spread by a chemical that kills only the weeds in the field.
b) Genetically engineered cattle grow faster than unmodified cattle.
c) Genetically engineered herbicide-resistant rice is completely killed by application of that herbicide.
d) Genetically engineered salmon escape from their pens and outcompete native salmon.
e) Genetically engineered corn remains untouched in one field while insects attack wild corn.
c) Genetically engineered herbicide-resistant rice is completely killed by application of that herbicide.
Transgenic salmon:

a) carry a version of the growth hormone gene that functions year-round, rather than primarily in the summer.
b) show an increase in growth rate relative to wild salmon, but the increase was less than scientists expected.
c) show an increase in growth rate relative to wild salmon, but the increase was greater than scientists expected.
d) have a greater resistance to viruses than wild salmon.
e) Both a) and c) are correct.
e) Both a) and c) are correct.
An important difference between mRNA and DNA is:

a) mRNA can move throughout the cell, while DNA stays in the cytosol.
b) mRNA can move outside of the cell, while DNA stays inside the cell.
c) mRNA can move throughout the cell, while DNA stays in the nucleus.
d) DNA can move throughout the cell, while mRNA stays in the nucleus.
e) mRNA contains uracil instead of adenine, which is found in DNA.
c) mRNA can move throughout the cell, while DNA stays in the nucleus.
A "pseudogene" is best defined as:

a) a DNA sequence that encodes a functional gene, but lacks a promoter region.
b) a DNA sequence that arose from a duplication of a functional gene, but which itself is not expressed.
c) a gene that is no longer expressed due to a point mutation.
d) b) and c) are correct.
e) a) and b) are correct
b) a DNA sequence that arose from a duplication of a functional gene, but which itself is not expressed.
In any DNA molecule, the number of guanine bases will:

a) sometimes be equal to the number of thymine bases and will sometimes be equal to the number of adenine bases.
b) always be equal to the number of thymine bases.
c) always be equal to the number of cytosine bases.
d) be not be equal to any of the other bases.
e) always be equal to the number of adenine bases.
c) always be equal to the number of cytosine bases.
Mutation rates:

a) can be affected by environmental factors.
b) are equal in all species—this is why we can accurately calibrate a molecular clock.
c) provide only benficial changes to humans.
d) tend to be higher in E. coli than in Homo sapiens.
e) can be synonymous or non-synonymous.
a) can be affected by environmental factors.
Transgenic bacteria are bacteria:

a) found in the DNA of other organisms.
b) that have hybridized with other species of bacteria.
c) that produce genes used in recombinant DNA technology.
d) that have a sequence of DNA from another organism inserted into them.
e) that have transformed their DNA.
d) that have a sequence of DNA from another organism inserted into them.
The majority of transgenic corn grown in the United States contains:


a) the crystal-producing gene from Bacillus thuringiensis.
b) genetic information that will facilitate alcohol production.
c) a gene from the Chinese silkworm.
d) beta-carotene–producing genes from daffodils.
e) the Ti gene from tomatoes.
a) the crystal-producing gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
The "green revolution" refers to:

a) the global environmental movement.
b) the expansion of forests worldwide.
c) the global intensification of agricultural production.
d) the increase in funding for genetically modified crops.
e) the change in the distribution of worldwide poverty
c) the global intensification of agricultural production.
Scientists have inserted a gene from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into corn plants in order to:

a) lengthen the ripening time of the corn so it can be shipped longer distances.
b) increase the sweetness of the corn.
c) decrease the toxicity of Bacillus thuringiensis.
d) directly increase the growth rate of the corn.
e) increase the corn's resistance to insects.
e) increase the corn's resistance to insects.
What are the three functions of the tRNA molecule?

a) The tRNA molecule transcribes DNA, associates with rRNA molecules, and synthesizes activating enzymes.
b) The tRNA molecule transcibes, translates, and replicates the DNA.
c) The tRNA molecule carries an amino acid, associates with rRNA molecules, and binds to one of three sites on the large subunit of an mRNA molecule.
d) The tRNA molecule carries an amino acid, associates with mRNA molecules, and replicates DNA.
e) The tRNA molecule carries an amino acid, associates with mRNA molecules, and binds to one of three sites on the large subunit of a ribosome.
c) The tRNA molecule carries an amino acid, associates with rRNA molecules, and binds to one of three sites on the large subunit of an mRNA molecule.
Transgenic plants have been modified for all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a) improved nutritional quality.
b) herbicide resistance.
c) reduced cost of production.
d) nitrogen fixation.
e) insect resistance.
d) nitrogen fixation.
Which of the following is NOT a potential problem cause by genetically modified organisms?

a) We cannot adequately evaluate the potential risks posed by genetically modified organisms.
b) Some organisms, like weeds, might grow out of control and become unkillable.
c) Some "good" organisms, like monarch butterflies, may unintentionally be killed.
d) Genetically modified crops could turn out to be cheaper to raise than unmodified ones.
e) The loss of genetic diversity in crops may make them more susceptible to pests.
d) Genetically modified crops could turn out to be cheaper to raise than unmodified ones
Which of the following statements about mutations is FALSE?

a) Mutations occur in all species.
b) Mutations are the ultimate source of all genetic variability.
c) Mutations always decrease an organism's fitness.
d) Somatic cell mutations do not lead to evolution.
e) Mutations can be induced via ultraviolet radiation.
c) Mutations always decrease an organism's fitness.
The complementary base pairs in a DNA molecule are stabilized by:


a) the magnetic attraction of ions.
b) the electrostatic interactions of the charged backbone.
c) hydrogen bonds.
d) a covalent bond.
e) Both a) and b) are correct.
c) hydrogen bonds.
Which of the following statements about the metabolism of ethanol (which is present in alcoholic beverages) is INCORRECT?

a) The process requires two enzymes, which enable the conversion of alcohol to harmless molecules.
b) Aspirin interferes with the action of alcohol dehydrogenase.
c) Individuals who produce non-functioning aldehyde dehydrogenase exhibit normal metabolism of alcohol.
d) Individuals who are "fast flushers" are less likely to become alcoholics.
e) All of the above are correct.
c) Individuals who produce non-functioning aldehyde dehydrogenase exhibit normal metabolism of alcohol.
Transcription and translation are mediated by:

a) amino acids.
b) homeostasis.
c) chromosomes.
d) hormones.
e) RNA.
e) RNA.
A given section of DNA with the sequence AATGGCTAT is transcribed. What is the corresponding sequence on the mRNA transcription?

a) TTUCCGATA
b) CCGTTAGCT
c) UUGAACGUA
d) TTACCGATA
e) UUACCGAUA
e) UUACCGAUA
There are different _________ molecules for each of the twenty different amino acids that are used in building proteins.

a) tRNA
b) ribosomal subunit
c) mRNA
d) elongation
e) DNA
a) tRNA
Which of the following molecules is NOT DIRECTLY involved in translation?

a) small ribosomal subunit
b) mRNA
c) reverse transcriptase
d) tRNA
e) large ribosomal subunit
c) reverse transcriptase
In humans, genes make up ______ of the DNA.

a) less than 5%
b) about 75%
c) about 10%
d) 85%
e) about 50%
a) less than 5%
What is the most common reason that DNA analyses overturn incorrect criminal convictions?

a) In more than three-quarters of the cases overturned by DNA analysis, inaccurate eyewitness testimony played an important role in the original guilty verdict.
b) DNA analytical technology has improved markedly over the last decade, so cases in which earlier DNA analysis had been used to convict a defendant, more modern DNA analysis has overturned that conviction.
c) Two-thirds of incorrect criminal convictions are the result of prosecutorial misconduct, and DNA evidence cannot be used improperly by prosecutors.
d) Two-thirds of incorrect criminal convictions are the result of defense attorney incompetence, and DNA evidence cannot be used improperly by defense attorneys.
e) Only b) and c)are correct.
a) In more than three-quarters of the cases overturned by DNA analysis, inaccurate eyewitness testimony played an important role in the original guilty verdict.
The highest percentage of non-coding DNA is found in:

a) yeasts, with the exception of viruses.
b) bacteria, with the exception of viruses.
c) bacteria, with the exception of yeasts.
d) viruses, with the exception of yeasts.
e) eukaryotes, with the exception of yeasts.
e) eukaryotes, with the exception of yeasts.
What is the primary product of the transcription of eukaryotic genes?

a) mRNA
b) DNA
c) RNA
d) tRNA
e) rRNA
a) mRNA
Since its discovery in 1953, the double helix structure of DNA is now one of the most recognizable molecules in biology. What was so groundbreaking about the "double" part of the double helix molecule?

a) It suggested how genetic information could be copied and inherited.
b) It suggested that two helices are required for transcription.
c) It suggested that information could be contained in both strands of the helix and that this information was related by base pairs.
d) The symmetry of the molecule made it perfect for x-ray crystallography.
e) It suggested that information could be contained in both strands of the helix independently.
a) It suggested how genetic information could be copied and inherited.
The mutations that lead to genetic disease cause human illness commonly because:

a) mutations cause extra DNA to be made, which gets into your blood, causing illness.
b) a molecule normally metabolized by an enzyme accumulates to toxic levels.
c) mutations in DNA cause body cells to self destruct.
d) the overproduction of extra enzymes makes you sick.
e) most genetic diseases make people more likely to become sunburned.
b) a molecule normally metabolized by an enzyme accumulates to toxic levels.
In order for a person's DNA to be used for his or her identification, which of the following tools/techniques must also be used in the process?

a) PCR
b) gel electropheresis
c) restriction enzymes
d) All of the above techniques/tools must be used.
e) Only a) and c) must be used.
d) All of the above techniques/tools must be used.
To get from a gene to a protein, two processes must occur: transcription, in which ____________________________, and translation, in which ____________________________.

a) a copy of the gene's sequence of bases is made; that copy is used to direct the production of an amino acid
b) a copy of a protein's sequence of amino acids is made; that copy is used to splice the RNA to its final length.
c) a copy of the gene's sequence of bases is made; that copy is used to direct the production of a genome
d) a copy of the gene's sequence of bases is made; that copy is used to direct the production of a protein
e) a copy of a protein's sequence of bases is made; that copy is used to direct the production of an amino acid
d) a copy of the gene's sequence of bases is made; that copy is used to direct the production of a protein
Diabetes is a chronic disease in which the body cannot produce ________________, a chemical that allows cells to take up and break down sugar from the blood.

a) erythropoietin
b) aldehyde dehydrogenase
c) recombinant DNA
d) human growth hormone
e) insulin
e) insulin
Tomato plants that have pest-resistance genes inserted into the genome can be called:

a) transcribed organisms.
b) genetically engineered organisms.
c) transgenic organisms.
d) Only b) and c) are correct.
e) All of the above are correct.
d) Only b) and c) are correct.
When the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify segments of DNA, the sample is first heated, then cooled, in cycles. How many cycles of heating and cooling would be necessary to produce sixteen times the original quantity of DNA?

a) four
b) eight
c) six
d) three
e) two
a) four
Genetically modified weed-resistant canola plants were cultivated in Canada, making it possible for farmers to apply herbicides freely to kill the weeds but not the canola plants. What went wrong with this scenario?

a) The weed-resistant canola plants spread by seed to neighboring farms that weren't growing canola. The weed-resistant canola plants grew out of control, because traditional herbicides could not kill them.
b) The canola farmers applied the herbicide at such a great rate that it spread to other farms that were not growing weed-resistant canola and killed the crops on the other farms.
c) Canola plants mutated and in following generations were no longer resistant.
d) Farmers were so successful in growing canola plants that the market for canola crashed and the Canadian farmers went bankrupt.
e) The genetic modification that made the canola plants weed-resistant caused them to become more vulnerable to some insect pests.
a) The weed-resistant canola plants spread by seed to neighboring farms that weren't growing canola. The weed-resistant canola plants grew out of control, because traditional herbicides could not kill them.
Chromosomes on which recombination takes place:

a) have a mixtures of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
b) are created during meiosis.
c) contain more dominant genes than recessive.
d) usually result in aborted fetuses.
e) Both a) and b) are correct.
e) Both a) and b) are correct.
Chemotherapy is one common treatment for cancer. Which of the following are aspects of chemotherapy?

a) Drugs that interfere with cell division are administered to the patient.
b) Chemotherapy drugs circulate throughout the entire body.
c) Chemotherapy drugs disrupt normal systems that rely on the rapid and constant production of new cells.
d) All of the above are correct.
e) Only a) and b) are correct.
d) All of the above are correct.
Side effects of undergoing chemotherapy for cancer treatment include:

a) reduction of the rate at which red blood cells are produced, causing fatigue and shortness of breath.
b) reduction of the rate at which white blood cells are produced, causing increased susceptibility to infection.
c) reduction of the rate at which hair follicle cells divide, causing loss of hair.
d) All of the above are correct.
e) Only a) and c) are correct.
d) All of the above are correct.
During DNA replication, each strand serves as a _____________ for the new ________________ strand.

a) master model; identical
b) blueprint; template
c) template; complementary
d) template; supplementary
e) proofreader; complementary
c) template; complementary
Which of the following are features that distinguish cancer cells from normal cells?

a) Normal cells undergo cytokinesis; cancer cells do not undergo cytokinesis.
b) Normal cells have contact inhibition; cancer cells have no contact inhibition.
c) Normal cells divide rapidly; cancer cells divide very slowly.
d) Normal cells can divide a finite number of times; cancer cells can divide indefinitely.
e) Both b) and d) are correct.
e) Both b) and d) are correct.
Cancer cells differ from normal cells in two important aspects:

a) the ability to metastasize and contact inhibition.
b) a halting of all cell division and the ability to metastasize.
c) loss of contact inhibition and the halting of all cell division.
d) indefinite cell division and the loss of contact inhibition.
e) apoptosis and contact inhibition.
d) indefinite cell division and the loss of contact inhibition.
DNA replication is facilitated by the fact that the base on one strand of the double helix (T, for example) always has the same partner (A, in this case) on the other strand. This feature of DNA is called:

a) translation
b) the central dogma
c) the karyotype
d) complementarity
e) transcription
d) complementarity
Cancer cells are different from other cells in that they have lost their "contact inhibition." "Contact inhibition" means:

a) Genes in the DNA are inhibited from expressing themselves.
b) most cells stop dividing when they bump up against other cells or collections of cells.
c) DNA replication in most cells stops when the double helix comes in contact with particular enzymes.
d) most cells don't begin to divide until they bump up against other cells or collections of cells.
e) most cells stop dividing when they have reached 50 cell divisions.
b) most cells stop dividing when they bump up against other cells or collections of cells.
In the ______________ process of DNA replication, each of the single strands becomes a double strand as an enzyme connects the appropriate complementary base to the exposed base.

a) unwinding
b) attachment
c) histone winding
d) duplication
e) rebuilding
e) rebuilding
Radiation therapy for cancer is designed to destroy cells that are undergoing rapid mitosis, like cancer cells. How does this therapy work?

a) During mitosis, a cancer cell's telomeres are irreversibly shortened until the cell dies; radiation accelerates this process.
b) Radiation interferes with normal cytokinesis and causes cells to have twice as much DNA as normal, which is lethal.
c) High radiation has been shown to slow tumor growth by convincing cells that it would be dangerous to divide.
d) During mitosis, radiation interferes with DNA polymerase and DNA strands cannot be properly duplicated.
e) During mitosis, a cell's DNA is exposed and most vulnerable to damage from radiation.
e) During mitosis, a cell's DNA is exposed and most vulnerable to damage from radiation.
If DNA replication occurs by unzipping and rebuilding, then:

a) the two resulting DNA molecules are an unpredictable mixture of old and newly synthesized DNA.
b) the two resulting DNA molecules are completely composed of newly synthesized strands.
c) the two resulting DNA molecules each contain one original strand and one new strand.
d) Both a) and b) are true.
e) None of the above is true about DNA replication.
c) the two resulting DNA molecules each contain one original strand and one new strand.
In DNA replication, when the DNA molecule separates into two strands:

a) it is possible to reconstruct perfectly all the information on the missing strand because one strand carries all the information needed to construct its complementary strand.
b) the rebuilding process begins, in which an enzyme connects the appropriate complementary base to the exposed base.
c) the cell is ready for prophase.
d) All of the above are correct.
e) Only a) and b) are correct.
e) Only a) and b) are correct
The ability for cancer cells to divide indefinitely is made possible because:

a) cancer cells break down their centromeres after every cell division.
b) cancer cells avoid interphase during cell division.
c) cancer cells break down their telomeres after every cell division.
d) cancer cells rebuild their centromeres after every cell division.
e) cancer cells rebuild their telomeres after every cell division.
e) cancer cells rebuild their telomeres after every cell division.
Errors sometimes occur when DNA duplicates itself. Why might that be a good thing?

a) The DNA replication process becomes more fine-tuned the more errors it makes.
b) It is a way to get rid of old defective genes.
c) New genes can enter the population and be acted upon by evolution.
d) Most errors are, in fact, good for the organism in which they occur.
e) Errors in DNA replication can never be a good thing
c) New genes can enter the population and be acted upon by evolution.
Which of the following statements about the similarities and difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy as cancer treatments is INCORRECT?

a) Both chemotherapy and radiation therapy work by disrupting cell division.
b) Radiation therapy has a significantly higher success rate than does chemotherapy.
c) The drugs used in chemotherapy circulate throughout the entire body, while radiation therapy directs high energy radiation only at the part of the body where the tumor is located.
d) Both chemotherapy and radiation therapy have side-effects.
e) In radiation therapy, the nearby tissue may be harmed, while in chemotherapy, the rate at which healthy cells divide may be reduced.
b) Radiation therapy has a significantly higher success rate than does chemotherapy.
1.

Which statement is not correct concerning cell division and cancer?

a.Normal cells are limited in how many times that can divide
b.Cancerous cells can become immortal
c.Oncogenes protect against cancer
d.Apoptosis can be used to kill cancerous cells in the body.
c.Oncogenes protect against cancer
Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancerous cells?

a. immortality
b. contact inhibition
c. unusual shapes and sizes
d. all of the above are characteristics of cancerous cells
b. contact inhibition
Suppose a patient has a late-stage form of cancer that has metastasized. If only one cancer treatment could be used, the treatment that might have a chance at helping this person would be:

a. radiation
b.surgery
c.chemotherapy
d.inhibition of angiogenesis
e.any of these would have an equal chance of being helpful in this situation
c.chemotherapy
A biopsy report comes back indicating that the cells from a biopsy are Grade IV. Further tests to see how far the cancer has spread indicate that the cancer is Stage III. What is the prognosis for this person?
a. terrible - at this point there is no way this can be treated
b. fairly bad - treatment may or may not be successful
c. not bad - with treatment, this should be completely cured
d. great - there isn't much of a problem and no treatment is needed
b. fairly bad - treatment may or may not be successful
A protooncogene is:

a. a gene found only in cancerous cells
b. a gene that can be mutated to make the cell cancerous
c. a gene that started as a normal gene to prevent tumor formation
d. a gene that started as a normal gene to over-ride the checkpoints in the cell cycle
b. a gene that can be mutated to make the cell cancerous
Which of the following terms is not matched with its correct definition:

a.chemotherapy: the use of drugs which target and kill cells that have become cancerous
b.metastasis: the movement of cancerous cells via the bloodstream
c.benign: a non-invasive tumor
d.malignant: cancerous cells with the potential to move to new locations
a.chemotherapy: the use of drugs which target and kill cells that have become cancerous
DNA template reads: T A C G A C. Which of the following is the mRNA sequence?
a.
A T G C T G
b.
U A C G A C
c.
T A C G A C
d.
A U G C U G
d.
A U G C U G
DNA sample from an organism reveals that it is composed of 23% thymine. What percentage of guanine does this organism have?
a.
23%
c.
46%
b.
27%
d.
77%
b.
27%
How does DNA differ from RNA?
a.
DNA uses deoxyribose sugar; RNA uses ribose sugar
b.
DNA uses the bases A, T, C, and G; RNA uses the bases A, U, C, and G
c.
DNA is a double stranded molecule; RNA is a single stranded molecule
d.
All of these are differences
d.
All of these are differences
If you took a double helix and replaced its thymine (T) with radioactive T (which would allow you to trace the location of the T) and you allowed DNA replication to occur once, which of these results would you expect?
a.
the mRNA made from the double helices would be radioactive
b.
the DNA in each of the double helices would be radioactive
c.
the DNA would not be radioactive in either of the double helices
d.
the DNA in one of the double helices would be radioactive but not in the other one
b.
the DNA in each of the double helices would be radioactive
If __________ fails to proofread and correct mistakes, mutations may occur.
a.
RNA polymerase
b.
ribosomes
c.
tRNAs
d.
DNA polymerase
d.
DNA polymerase
Protein X is 40 amino acids long. _______ nucleotides were present in the mRNA used to make this protein.
a.
60
c.
40
b.
20
d.
120
d.
120
Since DNA provides information to make proteins, why is RNA necessary?
a.
because RNA is composed of amino acids which can be used to make the protein
b.
because the RNA will produce mutations needed to make sure the correct protein is made
c.
RNA is not necessary
d.
to deal with the location issue; DNA is in the nucleus and proteins are made in the cytoplasm. RNA is capable of traveling between the two locations
d.
to deal with the location issue; DNA is in the nucleus and proteins are made in the cytoplasm. RNA is capable of traveling between the two locations
Which of the following types of DNA mutations always has an effect on the protein produced:
a.
Frameshift
c.
both a and b
b.
Point mutation
d.
none of these
a.
Frameshift
Which of the following bases is found only in RNA and not in DNA?
a.
thymine
c.
guanine
b.
uracil
d.
adenine
b.
uracil
Mom: Type A Baby: Type O

Potential Daddy #1- Type B
Potential Daddy #2 - Type AB

Who is father?
a.
Dad 1
c.
either if these
b.
Dad 2
d.
neither of these
a.
Dad 1
An allele known as BRCA1 is often found in women with breast and ovarian cancer. However, some women develop these cancers and do not have the BRCA1 allele. In addition, some women who have BRCA1 never develop breast or ovarian cancer. How can this be explained?
a.
These types of cancers are in no way associated with specific alleles
b.
This must be an example of pleiotropy
c.
Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops or not
d.
The BRAC1 gene must be dominant inheritance
c.
Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops or not
An individual is heterozygous for a trait that functions according the incomplete dominance. This person will exhibit:
a.
the recessive phenotype
b.
the dominant phenotype
c.
both phenotypes
d.
an intermediate between dominant and recessive phenotypes
d.
an intermediate between dominant and recessive phenotypes
The allele F codes for the presence of freckles while the allele f codes for the absence of freckles. The ________________ of a person with freckles would be FF and an individual without freckles would be __________________ recessive for this trait.
a.
phenotype; heterozygous
c.
phenotype; homozygous
b.
genotype; homozygous
d.
genotype, heterozygous
b.
genotype; homozygous
Which of the following accounts for the largest percentage of our DNA?.
a.
genes
c.
exons
b.
introns
d.
mutations
b.
introns
Which of the following explanations could account for the fact that dominant alleles that cause fatal disorders are less common than recessive alleles that cause fatal disorders?Choose one answer.
a.
recessive fatal alleles must cause sterility
b.
dominant alleles that cause fatal disorders are more serious that recessive lethal disorders
c.
every person carrying a single fatal dominant allele dies whereas most individuals who carry a single recessive lethal allele live and reproduce
d.
any of these are suitable explanations
c.
every person carrying a single fatal dominant allele dies whereas most individuals who carry a single recessive lethal allele live and reproduce
Which of the following is incorrect concerning erythroblastosis faetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
a.
It occurs when a pregnant woman is Rh- and the fetus is Rh+
b.
it attacks the Rh+ cells of a fetus during the mothers first pregnancy
c.
it can be fatal to the fetus
d.
the condition can be prevented by injecting the mother with Rhogam
b.
it attacks the Rh+ cells of a fetus during the mothers first pregnancy
Why don't brain cells express the lactase gene?
a.
any of the above are suitable explanations
b.
they don't have the lactase gene
c.
they do express the lactase gene along with all the other genes
d.
they don't need to – its an efficiency issue
d.
they don't need to – its an efficiency issue