Exam 1 117

Front 1

A circulating neutrophil in which the cytoplasm is more basophilic than normal and contains vacuoles and Dohle bodies is known as a:

Back 1

c

Front 2

This sample tube utilizes separator gel

Back 2

tiger

Front 3

In a patient with significant dehydration, the plasma total protein reading from the ________ would likely be __________.

Back 3

C) Refractometer, increased

Front 4

It is best to develop a routine for evaluating a blood film and follow the same approach each time to prevent oversights and mistakes.

Back 4

true

Front 5

Which of the following is the correct formula for performing an MCV?

Back 5

PCV X 10 Divided by the total number of RBCs

Front 6

Fill in the blank. Noise levels above _____ dB are considered dangerous.

Back 6

110

Front 7

Which of the following would NOT be one of the five employee responsibilities required by OSHA regulations?

Back 7

Document the no-accidents policy on a monthly basis

Front 8

Which of the following is a way of determining the platelet count?

Back 8

all of the above

Front 9

slide

Back 9

crenation

Front 10

Fill in the blank. OSHA stands for the Occupational Safety and Health

Back 10

administration

Front 11

EDTA is the anticoagulant of choice for hematology because it:

Back 11

Preserves red blood cell morphology

Front 12

A feline urine sample with a specific gravity of 1.010 is relatively concentrated

Back 12

false

Front 13

Which of the following would NOT be a finding when performing a microscopic examination of urine?

Back 13

) Bacteria
C) White blood cells
D) Proteins
E) Spermatozoa

Front 14

slide different shapes

Back 14

Poikilocytosis

Front 15

slide u shape

Back 15

band cell

Front 16

Employees should know where the Hospital Safety Manual is kept

Back 16

true

Front 17

Casts are only seen in _____ urine. ______ casts almost always are indicative of severe degeneration of renal tubules

Back 17

C) Acidic, waxy

Front 18

slide stacked

Back 18

rouleaux

Front 19

This is an increase in urination

Back 19

pollakiuria

Front 20

Which of the following is required to do a blood smear to perform a differential blood cell count?

Back 20

clean glass slides

Front 21

This is when RBCs that have an abnormal shape.

Back 21

Polikocytosis

Front 22

Before a urinalysis is performed on refrigerated urine, the specimen should be allowed to come to room temperature.

Back 22

true

Front 23

The test for “blood” in the urine is actually testing for which of the following?

Back 23

A) Intact red blood cells
B) Hemoglobin
C) Myoglobin
D) A, B, and C

Front 24

Chemicals on shelves should be stored at __________ level or below

Back 24

eye

Front 25

Ketones in the urine indicate that the body is metabolizing excessive levels of which of the following?

Back 25

fats

Front 26

Which of the following would NOT be an evaluation of the chemical properties of urine

Back 26

A) pH
B) Protein
C) Glucose
D) Protein
E) Specific gravity

Front 27

With significant dehydration in a patient (otherwise healthy) which of the following would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC?

Back 27

A) Increased urine SG and increased PCV

Front 28

This sample tube does not contain an anticoagulant

Back 28

red

Front 29

Excessive __________ may be a hazard when animals struggle during restraint.

Back 29

Jewelry
B) Perfume
C) Clothing
D) Caution

Front 30

Microsporum is a fungus of the skin know as

Back 30

ringworm

Front 31

In cases of ethylene glycol toxicity which of the following crystals is most likely to be found in urine?

Back 31

A) Ammonium biurate

C) Calcium oxalate
D) Triple phosphate
E) Hyaluronic phosphate

Front 32

slide-clear tubes

Back 32

platets

Front 33

Ethylene oxide can be used to sterilize rubber gloves

Back 33

false

Front 34

Which of the following is the correct formula for performing an MCHC?

Back 34

Hemoglobin X 100 Divided by the PCV

Front 35

Which stain is used to provide the best visualization of reticulocytes

Back 35

New methylene blue stain

Front 36

Heavy equipment should be stored on lower shelves

Back 36

true

Front 37

An increase in the number of band cells (greater than 500 per micro liter) in the peripheral blood indicates which of the following?

Back 37

A left shift

Front 38

slide- red 2 purple dots

Back 38

eosinophil

Front 39

Radiation exposure reports must be shared with the employees

Back 39

true

Front 40

slide-u or c shape string ball

Back 40

Monocyte and segmented neutrophil

Front 41

This sample tube uses citrate as the anticoagulant

Back 41

Turquoise

Front 42

Which is normally the largest blood cell in domestic animals

Back 42

Monocyte

Front 43

slide-club irregular shape

Back 43

Acanthocytes

Front 44

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate guideline for a pregnant woman to use to avoid exposure to Toxoplasmosis?

Back 44

Wear gloves when gardening
B) Wash raw vegetables before eating
C) Do not eat raw or uncooked meat
D) Avoid cleaning cat boxes
E) All the above are appropriate guidelines

Front 45

Educating employees is a requirement of OSHA.

Back 45

true

Front 46

These are crenated RBCs that have multiple spicule appearing projections

Back 46

D) Acanthocytes

Front 47

The practice owner has the right to be present during an OSHA inspection

Back 47

true

Front 48

Eosinophillia is commonly seen with

Back 48

A) Bacterial infections

Front 49

A decreased number of WBCs is properly known as which of the following

Back 49

Leukopenia

Front 50

Which of the following is the major determinant of urine SG

Back 50

salt

Front 51

Correct Incorrect Ungraded
4.
A blood chemistry profile with an increase in BUN and creatinine indicates disease in which of the following organ systems

Back 51

kidney

Front 52

The ideal urine sample is which of the following

Back 52

Preprandial and first morning sample

Front 53

Removing the hypodermic needle from the syringe is not required for disposal

Back 53

true

Front 54

8.
Under what circumstances would you need to obtain a corrected white blood cell count

Back 54

A high number of nucleated red blood cells

Front 55

Equipment with grounded plugs can be used with extension cords

Back 55

false

Front 56

Platelets in avians and reptiles are nucleated cells that must be counted using a special dilution formula

Back 56

false

Front 57

Eosinophillia is commonly seen with

Back 57

C) Viral Infections
D) Hormonal disorders
E) Ethylene glycol intoxication

Front 58

OSHA has established a safe exposure limit for all halogenated anesthetic agents that is not to exceed ____ parts per million

Back 58

2

Front 59

16.
Which bovine erythrocyte parasite closely resembles a Howell-Jolly body

Back 59

Anaplasma

Front 60

Drawing a blood sample from an animal that has recently eaten may result in a sample that is

Back 60

lipemic

Front 61

What is the most numerous and second most numerous leukocytes seen in canine and feline blood, respectively

Back 61

Neutrophil, lymphocyte

Front 62

In cases of ethylene glycol toxicity which of the following crystals is most likely to be found in urine

Back 62

Calcium oxalate

Front 63

Any time glucosuria above trace levels is detected, hyperglycemia should be suspected and a blood glucose determination should be made as well

Back 63

true

Front 64

slide -fetus shaped

Back 64

monocyte

Front 65

Good mucin clot formation usually accompanies normal or noninflamed joints, whereas a poor or absent mucin clot is usually associated with inflammation and or effusion.

Back 65

true

Front 66

This finding is due to the presence of denatured hemoglobin that has fused to the red blood cell membrane and appear as hard to distinguish lightly eosinoplilic, spherical inclusions

Back 66

) Reticulocytes
C) Basophilic stippling
D) Heinz bodies
E) Howell-Jolly bodies

Front 67

slide big purple circle

Back 67

lymphocyte

Front 68

In general, herbivores tend to have more acidic urine than do carnivores and omnivores

Back 68

false

Front 69

High concentrations of bilirubin or urobilin cause yellowish brown urine that when shaken may produce yellowish foam

Back 69

true

Front 70

Which of the following would NOT be one of the most common chemicals used in the veterinary office

Back 70

Autoclaving steam

Front 71

Which of the following would NOT be an evaluation of the chemical properties of urine

Back 71

Specific gravity

Front 72

Which cell becomes a macrophage once it enters the tissues

Back 72

Monocyte

Front 73

Fragmented RBCs are referred to as which of the following?

Back 73

Schistocytes

Front 74

Although serum is usually used for biochemical profiles, if plasma is desired, the BEST anticoagulant to use would be

Back 74

Heparin

Front 75

The test for “blood” in the urine is actually testing for which of the following

Back 75

Intact red blood cells
B) Hemoglobin
C) Myoglobin
D) A, B, and C

Front 76

________mange can typically affect the bra line and waist band areas

Back 76

C) Malophagia
D) Culicoides
E) Sarcoptoc

Front 77

In the bird, what is the most common white blood cell seen on a smear

Back 77

Heterophil

Front 78

A variation in the size of RBC

Back 78

Anisocytosis

Front 79

he presence of pus (WBC) in the urine

Back 79

Pyuria

Front 80

When handling excised pieces of tissue for cytological study allow them to air dry and desiccate so that they can be preserved for submission for cytological study.

Back 80

false

Front 81

Borellia burdorferi is the cause of _____ disease

Back 81

Lyme

Front 82

Platelets in avians and reptiles are nucleated cells that must be counted using a special dilution formula.

Back 82

false

Front 83

Which of the following is required to do a manual WBC or RBC count?

Back 83

Hemacytometer

Front 84

Sample or prepared cytology slides should not be allowed to be exposed to formalin or formalin preserved samples.

Back 84

true

Front 85

The first responsibility during a fire is to alert others

Back 85

true

Front 86

aspartate aminotransferase ATE

Back 86

check for liver damage
help identify liver disease esp. hepatitis and cirrhosis
check for success of treatment
find out if icterus was caused by a blood disorder or liver disease
keep track of effects of any medication that might damage the liver

Front 87

The alanine aminotransferase (ALT) test is done to:

Back 87

▫ Identify liver disease, especially cirrhosis and hepatitis
caused by alcohol, drugs, or viruses.
▫ Help check for liver damage.
▫ Find out whether icterus was caused by a blood disorder or
liver disease.
▫ Keep track of the effects of any medicines that can damage
the liver.

Front 88

A test for alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is done to:

Back 88

Check for liver disease or damage to the liver.
▫ Check bone problems such as rickets, osteomalacia,
bone tumors, Paget's disease, or too much of the
hormone that controls bone growth PTH.
▫ Check the cause of a high blood calcium level.

Front 89

Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) serum measurement provides a very
sensitive indicator of the presence or absence of hepatobiliary disease.
Increased GGT

Back 89

▫ pancreatic disease
▫ myocardial infarction
▫ chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
▫ renal failure
▫ Diabetes mellitus

Front 90

The Bilirubin test is used to:

Back 90

Check liver function and watch for signs of liver
disease, such as hepatitis, or the effects of medicines
that can damage the liver.
▫ Find out if something is blocking the bile ducts. This
may occur if gallstones, tumors of the pancreas, or
other conditions are present.
▫ Diagnose conditions that cause increased destruction of
RBCs, such as hemolytic anemia.

Front 91

Albumin:-protein proceuced by liver

Back 91

• Low albumin levels can suggest liver disease.
• Diseases in which the kidneys cannot prevent albumin from leaking
from the blood into the urine and being lost.
• Low albumin levels can also be seen in inflammation, shock, and
malnutrition.
• Low albumin levels may also suggest conditions in which the body
does not properly absorb and digest protein.
• High albumin levels usually reflect dehydration.

Front 92

A Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) test is done to: more of a yes no test - doesn't tell you how bad

Back 92

Determine if the kidneys are working normally.
▫ Determine if a kidney disease is getting worse.
▫ Determine if the treatment of a kidney disease is
working.
▫ Determine if dehydration is present.

Front 93

A blood Creatinine level or a creatinine clearance test is done
to:- does tell how bad one after another over a week can tell you if it is progressing

Back 93

Determine if the kidneys are working normally.
▫ Determine if a kidney disease is changing.
▫ Determine how well the kidneys are working in patients who take
medicines that can cause kidney damage.
▫ Determine if dehydration may be present. (Dehydration generally
causes BUN levels to rise more than creatinine levels.)

Front 94

A Total Protein (TP)- 3 major proteins- firbrian albumin and globulin

Back 94

test measures the total
amount of protein in the blood. It also
measures the amounts of two major groups of
proteins in the blood; albumin and globulin.

Front 95

Albumin is tested to:

Back 95

▫ Determine how well the liver and kidney are
working.
▫ Find out if the diet contains enough protein.
▫ Help determine the cause of edema, ascities, or
pulmonary edema.

Front 96

Globulin is tested to:

Back 96

Determine the chances of developing an infection.
▫ Determine the presence of a blood disease, such as
multiple myeloma.

Front 97

Serum Sodium:

Back 97

Many factors affect serum sodium levels, including
the hormone aldosterone, which reduces sodium
loss in the urine.
ANP (atrial natriuretic protein), a hormone
secreted from the heart, increases sodium loss from
the body.

Front 98

Serum Chlorine:

Back 98

Chloride is a negatively charged molecule found
throughout the body. It works with other
substances, including sodium, to help control the
body's fluid level and acid-base balance.
Changes in the chloride level often go along with
changes in the sodium level.

Front 99

Serum Potassium: The blood level of potassium may be increased due to:

Back 99

• Kidneys or adrenal gland disease.
• Internal bleeding.
• Certain types of medications that cause the body to retain potassium. ACE
inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics, such as spironolactone, are
examples of these medicines.
• Sometimes red blood cells break as they pass through a needle into a bloodcollecting
tube. The cells may release potassium when this happens and cause
your test result to be high, even though the level of potassium in your body is
normal.

Front 100

Serum potassium level may be decreased because

Back 100

Vomiting or diarrhea.
▫ Certain medicines, such as diuretics.
▫ Dietary potassium deficiency.
▫ Rarely, kidney, liver, heart, or adrenal disease.

Front 101

Serum Calcium:
Increased levels may be due to:

Back 101

Addison's disease
▫ Excessive vitamin D level
▫ Excessive calcium intake
▫ Hyperparathyroidism
▫ Bone tumors
▫ Multiple myeloma
▫ Hyperthyroidism
▫ Certain medications

Front 102

Decreased levels of serum calcium may be due to:

Back 102

Hyperparathyoidism
▫ Renal failure
▫ Liver disease
▫ Low serum magnesium
▫ Malabsorption
▫ Osteomalacia
▫ Pancreatitis
▫ Rickets and vitamin D deficiency

Front 103

Increased levels of serum phosphorus may indicate

Back 103

Bone cancer
▫ Hypocalcemia
▫ Hypoparathyoidism
▫ Increased dietary or IV intake of PO4
▫ Liver disease
▫ Renal failure

Front 104

Decreased levels of serum phosphorus may indicate

Back 104

Diabetic ketoacidosis
▫ Hypercalcemia
▫ Hyperinsulism
▫ Hyperparathyoidism
▫ Inadequate dietary intake of PO4 or vitamin D

Front 105

Urine Collection

Back 105

Free Catch
Catheterization
Cystocentesis

Front 106

Evaluation of Physical Properties

Back 106

Color
Turbidity-normal in horses-cloudy
Specific Gravity

Front 107

Chemical Evaluation

Back 107

pH do not put test strip in tube
Protein
Glucose
Ketones

Front 108

Microscopic Examination:

Back 108

Sample Preparation
Epithelial Cells
Blood Cells
Casts

Front 109

cytology

Back 109

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