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1398 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What unit provides supply support for Navy publications, instructions, directives,technical manuals, and other digital documents?
A. NLL B. NIL C. NEL D. NDL |
A.NLL
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Sheet 1 of a multi-sheet drawing contains all but which of the following?
A. Sheet Index B. Title Block C. Author's Signature D. Revision Block |
C. Author's Signature
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What type of drawings describe hull, mechanical, electrical (HM&E), ordnance, and electronic systems and equipment installed on Coast Guard platforms?
A. Platform Drawings B. Engineering Drawings C. Fleet Drawings D. Contract Guidance Drawings |
B. Engineering Drawings
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What symbol appears next to revised areas and may have a superscript?
A. Square Revision Symbol B. Rectangular Revision Symbol C. Triangular Revision Symbol D. Circular Revision Symbol |
C. Triangular Revision Symbol
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Who maintains copies of reproducible drawings?
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MLCLANT and MLCPAC
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Original drawings are printed on Mylar or velum and stored where?
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ELC (02T)
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On drawings, what is identified by sequential uppercase letters?
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Revision Designator
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What on-line supply and maintenance system is used for updating and maintaining baseline configuration data and replacement materials?
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CMplus
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The cognizant department head is responsible for ensuring that checks and audits of all tag-outs are performed once every _________ week(s).
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Two
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Safety lock-out procedures at shore units are governed by ________________________.
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OSHA regulations
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What are the two types of Periodicity Codes?
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In dealing with PMS, what does MIP stand for?
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Maintenance Index Pages
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On a quarterly PMS schedule, what does the Header Section provide for?
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On a quarterly PMS schedule, what does the Body Section provide for?
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What type of schedule is used to plan and schedule maintenance requirements to be conducted during each calendar quarter?
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Cycle
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What form is used to report completion (or partial completion) of alterations, maintenance actions that resulted in a configuration change, and to correct discrepancies and errors in the configuration files?
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OPNAV 4790/CK
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What type of maintenance is performed before going into a yard period where the equipment is unused and covered?
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Layup maintenance
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How many different types of feedback reports are there?
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Three
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What type of feedback report involves safety of personnel and potential or actual damage to equipment?
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Urgent FBR
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A new quarterly schedule is done each quarter or when affected by changes caused by a/an
_________________ or _________________. |
SFR or PMS Feedback
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Configuration and management program that
contains a list of inventory items |
CMplus
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A unit-specific document that contains
allowance parts list and allowance equipment list |
MICA
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Locally requisitioned or procured tangible
personal property, which is consumed by normal operations. |
OM&S
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The number of line items to be checked,
determined by the total number of stocked items recorded in CMplus |
Standard Sample
Size |
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B. Used to facilitate physical inventories and
include the NSN, ACN, or part number and CAGE code, item nomenclature, unit of issue, all storage locations for each item, quantity of the item, and a Remarks section for additional notes. |
Count Sheets
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Inventories that include all OM&S with a unit price less than $1000; allowance; SIM and non-SIM material; and classified, hazardous, and
shelf-life material. |
Scheduled
Inventories |
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Inventories that include bulkhead-to-bulkhead or wall-to-wall and spot.
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Unscheduled
Inventories |
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Items that are supported through MICA and COSAL.
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Allowance Items
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Items that have two or more demands recorded within the last 6 months
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SIM
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Used to facilitate physical inventories.
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Count Sheets
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In order for galvanic corrosion to take place______.
a. an electrolyte must be in contact with the metal B. Dissimilar metals must be in contact with each other c. current must flow d. bare metal must be exposed |
C. Current must flow
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In order for galvanic corrosion to take place______.
a. an electrolyte must be in contact with the metal B. Dissimilar metals must be in contact with each other c. current must flow d. bare metal must be exposed |
C. Current must flow
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Define Heterodying
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When two or more single frequency sine waves are mixed in a nonlinear devise, many new frequencies are generated. These new frequencies include the original plus the sums and differences of the original and all of their harmonics.
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When a welded junction aboard a ship receives a signal, and radiates this signal, a receiver will detect signals_______.
a. at the fundamental frequency b. at the harmonic frequency c. at the sum and difference frequencies d. on all bands due to spurious signals caused by the junction |
A. at the fundamental frequency
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What can cause arcing inside of waveguide?
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Describe ways to detect arcing inside of waveguide.
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Describe the EMI effects of arcing.
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No matter what the source, arcing produces a very intense, broad distribution of
interference that may disrupt frequencies far removed from the radar fundamental frequency |
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Describe the two general techniques for bonding
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There are two general techniques for bonding: direct and indirect. Direct bonding is achieved by direct metal to metal contact between two metal items through the process of welding or brazing. Indirect bonding is achieved by the use of a bonding jumper or bolts between two metal items.
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What are the two main purposes of shielding?
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The two main purposes of shielding are to confine EMI within a specific region and to prevent EMI from entering a specific region.
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Filters are combinations of circuit components designed to ________________
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pass currents at certain frequencies or to attenuate currents at other frequencies
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Loss of the desired signal in a filter is known as _______ Loss.
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Insertion
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Cables with twisted pair shielding leads should be used with a/an _______.
A. RF frequency line B. audio frequency line C. Negative power lead D. unshielded antenna |
B. Audio frequency Line
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When is the shortest cable run between two or more pieces of equipment not necessarily the best run?
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If the cable is active and passes through a susceptible area compartment
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An Engineering Certification Checklist is used to “_____” the installation.
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Certify
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The Certification Team Leader is responsible for submitting a memorandum documenting the results of the certification not more than _____ days after certification completion, with a copy to the unit.
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30
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What is/are used to notify the ELC of the completion of an authorized Field Change or Platform/System Engineering Change that affects the unit’s configuration?
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Configuration Change
Forms (OPNAV 4790/CK |
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Who shall maintain the master Engineering Change file for all cutter and boat classes?
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ELC
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Intermodulation is primarily caused by?
A. one frequency in a nonlinear element b. two or more frequencies in a nonlinear element c. two frequencies mixing in free space d. one harmonic frequency in a nonlinear element |
B. Two or more frequencies in a nonlinear element
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Which type of EMI is classified as natural interference?
A. Precipitation static B. Image frequency C. Modulated Carrier frequency D. Unmodulated carrier frequency |
A. Precipitation static
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Interference from arcing is sometimes misinterpreted as a high_____Level.
A. Harmonic radiation B. Ambient Noise C. Cross Modulation D. Modulation |
B Ambient Noise
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Nonlinear intrusion is usually the result of___________
A. Nearby transmitter radiation B. Spurious outputs of transmitters C. Broadband noise from receivers D. Unwanted signals entered in the passband of the receiver |
A. Nearby transmitter radiation
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When a welded junction aboard ship receives a signal and radiates this signal, a reveiver will detect signals______.
A. at the fundamental frequency B. At the harmonic frequency C. at the sum and difference frequencies D. on all bands due to spurious signals caused by the junction. |
A. at the fundamental frequency
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Loss of a desired signal in a filter is known as ______loss.
A. shunt B. Mismatch C. Impedance D. Insertion |
D. insertion
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Broadband interference is usually caused by______
A. a nearby CW transmitter B. Harmonic radiation C. High-Background Noise D. arcing or corona discharge |
D. Arcing or corona discharge
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The difference between intermodulation and cross modulation is that intermodulation results in______
A. nonlinear distortion B. Arcing in transmitter PA C. the generation of many new frequencies D. the transfer of a signal from an undesired RF carrier |
C. The generation of many new frequencies
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A communication receiver has a steady crackling or rattling in its audio output. The cause of this interference is probably____
A. nonlinear intrusion B. distant thunderstorm C. generator slot harmonics D. a nearby overmodulated transmitter |
B. Distant thunderstorm
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the only way to eliminate hull-generated EMI is to_____
A. install multicouplers B. increase antenna spacing C. make the entire topside structure a single conductor D. Limit the number of ship's operating transmitters |
C. make the entire topside structure a single conductor
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what shall be affixed, in a visible location, to all electronic equipment?
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Field Change
Accomplishment Plate |
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What are approved alterations to Navy-owned weapon systems called?
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ORDALTs
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Cutters shall submit an OPNAV Form 4790/CK within _____ days of an ORDALT
installation. |
30
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Each unit shall maintain a file of pending and completed Engineering Changes as part of the general engineering files, in accordance with Chapter 090 of the
____________________. |
Naval Engineering Manual,
COMDTINST M9000.6 (series) |
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What documents approved changes to a Configuration Baseline?
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Field Change Bulletins
(FCB) |
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Define Bandwidth
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The frequency separation between the 3 db cutoff frequencies. If the term is applied to a low-pass filter, it means the band from DC up to the cutoff frequency.
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Define Bonding (Bond)
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An electrical current path between two metallic surfaces established by welding (class A bond), bolting or clamping (class B bond), or the addition of a bond strap (class C bond). The direct (dc) resistance across bonded
surfaces (not using the bolt, clamp or bond strap as one of the surfaces) must be 0.1 ohms or less. |
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Define Conduit
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A metallic structure containing one or more ducts used to protect and support wires and cables of electrical and electronic systems and to provide sufficient attenuation to radio frequencies for reduction of RF interference.
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Define Cutoff
Frequency |
The frequency, or those frequencies, toward the edge of the response at which the attenuation is 3db greater than the insertion loss value. The reason for specifying the edges of the response is that some practical
bandpass filters might tolerate a 3db (or greater ripple) in the bandpass. |
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Define Corona
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A luminous discharge which occurs when a gaseous dielectric material, such as air, is subjected to high voltage and the gas ionizes. In high voltage equipment, the corona is most likely to be found in the air gap adjustment
to high voltage buses, bushings, locations where small air gaps are present, and where the electrostatic field is non-uniform. For uniform fields, a corona usually precedes arc breakdown. The corona produces broadband interference at random frequencies and is very difficult to suppress. |
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Define Direct Bond
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The joining of two metallic surfaces by welding, brazing, or soldering.
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Define Electrical
Equipment |
Equipment that, by design, is not intended to generate radio frequency energy. Examples are: electric motors, office equipment, ship repair equipment, power supplies, ultrasonic equipment, medical equipment, and fluorescent lights.
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Define Electrical
Space |
A space used primarily to house installed units of electrical equipment.
Spaces include 60-hertz and 400-hertz motor-generator (MG) rooms, power switchboard distribution rooms, gyrocompass rooms, and internal communications spaces. Spaces occupied by both electrical and electronic equipment are classified as electronic spaces. |
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Improper neutralization and/or improper lead dressing are the usual causes of ______________
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Parasitic oscillations
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What are multicouplers used for?
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They allow the use of
more than one transmitter and offer attenuation to off-frequency signals. |
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which circuit is a reciever radiates interference?
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Local oscillator
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the difference between cross modulation and intermodulation is tht cross modulation _______
a. is caused by a linear device b. results in the generation of many new frequencies c. is caused by a de-tuned transmitter d. is the transfer of a signal from an undesired to a desired carrier |
D. is the transfer of a signal from an undesired to a desired carrier
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Who provides supply support for Navy publications, instructions, directives, technical manuals, and other digital documents?
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Naval Supply Systems Command Naval Logistics Library (NLL)
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What reference is the user guide for the Naval Logistics Library?
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NAVSUP P2003
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Plan-Set Number is incorporated into what?
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It is incorporated into the
drawing number and all platform class drawings are assigned one. |
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Engineering
Drawings are used for? |
Used for reference
documentation, design alterations, and maintenance. |
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Publication and
Manual Drawings are constructed with ? |
Constructed with less stringent
requirements than engineering drawings. |
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Original Drawings are stored where and on what?
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Stored at ELC (02T) and
printed on Mylar or velum. |
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Reproducible
Drawings are maintained by whom? |
MLCLANT and MLCPAC
maintain copies. |
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Title Blocks Contain?
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Contains the drawing title,
drawing number, sheet number, and scale of the drawing. |
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Triangular Revision
Symbol appears where and may have what |
Appears next to revised areas
and may have a superscript. |
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Revision Designator is identified by?
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Identified by sequential
uppercase letters and may be sequential numbers. |
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Block A-Activity list's what?
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Lists “US Coast Guard,
Washington, D.C. 20593,” and the “Office of Naval Engineering.” |
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What is the on-line supply and maintenance system for updating and maintaining baseline configuration data and replacement materials?
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CMplus
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What are Maintenance Tasks also known as?
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Maintenance Task Execution
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How often are checks and audits of all tag-outs performed?
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Once every two weeks
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What is the first step in accessing and using CMplus for recording maintenance actions?
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Determine CMplus System Administrator
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What governs lock-out procedures at shore units?
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OSHA Regulations
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When should abbreviated tag-out audits be conducted?
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As part of a routine watch relief
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Electronic or ordnance equipment loaned by the Navy to the Coast Guard is supported by the___________, and used to fill a Navy operational requirement.
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Navy
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The__________ is a standardized preventive maintenance program for Coast Guard equipment not covered by Navy Preventive Maintenance.
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Coast Guard Preventive Maintenance
System (CGPMS) |
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OPNAVINST 4790.4
(series) PMS covers what? |
Covers electronic equipment
loaned by the Navy |
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Any periodicity code followed by the _____ will have a mandatory related maintenance.
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# sign
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Non-technical FBR is used for?
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Used for replacement of
missing or mutilated MIPs and MRCs. |
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Urgent FBR involves what?
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Involves safety of personnel
and potential or actual damage to equipment. |
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CGPMS and the
CMplus system covers what? |
Covers equipment procured by
the Coast Guard |
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Category B FBR reports what?
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Reports technical
discrepancies inhibiting PMS performance. |
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Form 5451is available through?
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Available through Adobe
Forms program |
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Define COSAL
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Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List
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Define CSMP
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Current Ship’s Maintenance Project
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Index of Maintenance
Procedures (IMP) provides what? |
Provides a listing of MPCs assigned to a piece of equipment.
Note: Customized to reflect applicable maintenance actions. |
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Current Ship’s Maintenance
Project describes what? |
Describes the material condition of the work center.
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List of Effective Pages provides what?
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Provides a listing of MIPs assigned to a work center.
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LOEP stands for
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List of Effective Pages
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Maintenance Index Page
(MIP) provides what? |
Provides a listing of MRCs assigned to a piece of equipment.
Note: Customized to reflect applicable maintenance actions. |
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Maintenance Requirement
Card (MRC) provides what? |
Provides detailed procedures for performing maintenance
requirements (Navy PMS). |
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Maintenance Procedure
Card (MPC) provides what? |
Provides detailed procedures for performing maintenance
requirements (CGPMS). |
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SCLSIS stands for?
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Ship’s Configuration and Logistics Support Information
System |
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Semi-Annual Force
Revision provides correction to what? |
Correction to MRCs and MIPs, which are sent to all units.
The changes are incorporated into the unit's PMS schedule. |
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SFR stands for?
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Semi-Annual Force Revision
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When two metallic surfaces are joined by a weld, a/an ____________ bond is formed.
A. direct B. indirect C. simple D. compound |
A. direct
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The MOST common sources of EMI are______?
A. Light Circuits B. Electrical Controllers C. Engines and Igniters D. Motors and Generators |
D. Motors and Generators
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The BEST place to eliminate or suppress EMI is at the ?
A. source B. input to the affected equipment C. power cables to the affected equipment D. antenna coupler or antenna input to the affected equipment |
A. Source
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Broadband interference is usually caused by?
A. adjacent channel interference B. Harmonic radiation C. high background noise D. arcing and corona |
D. Arcing and corona
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Define EMI
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An electromagnetic or electrostatic disturbance that causes malfunctioning, or an undesirable response, in one or more electronic
receivers. It may also include a condition which does not meet the requirements of interference tests. |
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Define Grounding
(Ground) |
The process of physically providing a metallic surface with a low resistance or impedance path to ground potential. (On metallic hull ships, the ship’s hull is considered to be ground potential.)
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Define Indirect Bond
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All bonds achieved by use of interconnecting straps, cables, etc.
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Define Impedance
Level |
The value in ohms from which, and into which, the filter is to work. The input and output impedances may be the same or different, though they are often the same in communication work.
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Define Insertion Loss
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The attenuation of the desired signal due to the insertion of the filter when properly terminated. Ideally, this should be zero – practically, it is kept as small as possible.
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Define Intermodulation
interference (IMI) |
An electromagnetic (EM) disturbance resulting from the generation of frequencies equal to the sum or difference of integral multiples of two or more frequency sources when mixed in a nonlinear junction. The
interference can be equipment generated or result from energy mixing in corroded junctions of ship’s structure or rigging, and to a lesser extent, in ferrous metal parts in the RF path. |
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Define Mismatch Loss
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The attenuation suffered because of impedance mismatch in the system. Sometimes mismatch loss and insertion loss are inseparable – in other cases, they are distinctly different.
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Define Q-Factor
(applies to bandpass) |
The ratio between the center frequency to the 3db bandwidth (defined as f2 - fl). A high Q-factor indicates good selectivity.
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Define Nonlinear
junction |
A contact area between two metallic surfaces which exhibits nonlinear voltage-current transfer characteristics when subjected to an RF voltage.
This nonlinearity is usually caused by corrosion or other semi-conducting materials in the contact area. |
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Define Shape Factor
(for bandpass) |
The ratio of the 60db bandwidth to the 6db bandwidth. It defines the
selectivity of an amplifier stage |
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Define Spurious
Emissions |
Emissions from a transmitter at frequencies outside its assigned or intended
frequency, including harmonics, parasites, and intermodulation product. |
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What form is used to provide information needed for reqisitioning supplies from government sources?
A. DD-1149 B. CG-4940 C. DD-1348-6 D. DOT F 4200.1.2CG |
B. CG-4940
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What form is used to provide information needed for reqisitioning supplies from commercial sources?
A. SF-30 B. OF-347 C. DOT F 4200.1.2CG D. SF-1165 |
C. DOT F 4200.1.2CG
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Place an X beside the information that is required on a Surf
Requisition Log. ___ A. Dates required ___ B. Unit of issue ___ C. Commanding office ___ D. Department ___ E. Originating office ___ F. Priority ___ G. NSN ___ H. Unit cost |
B, D, G, H
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Place an X beside the information that is required for a Procurement Request.
___ A. Accounting data ___ B. Unit of issue ___ C. Government furnished property ___ D. Originating officer ___ E. Accounting certification officer ___ F. Priority designator ___ G. Routing symbol ___ H. Item number |
B, C, E, G, H
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If a product is considered hazardous, it is required to have a______, under the OSHA standard.
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Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
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What requisition forms are used to provide information for procuring supplies and/or services from the Federal Stock System or commercial services?
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DOT F 4200.1.2CG and CG-4940
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What is the name of the on-line supply and maintenance system for updating and maintaining baseline configuration data and replacement materials?
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Configuration Management Plus
(CMplus) |
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All units are required to comply with the cognizant __________ electronic test equipment program and to report all electronic test
equipment. |
MLC
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The maintenance philosophy and the maintenance requirements for equipment to be supported is specified in the _____Command Policy Manual for the electronics system at the time of procurement and subcategory (SCAT) codes are used to identify the required test
equipment to fulfill maintenance requirements |
System Integrated Logistics Support
(SILS) |
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MLCs shall make changes to the unit _____ as the appropriate Program / Project / Acquisition / Platform Manager modifies the
configuration of a supported unit. |
SPETERL
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A unit must send an Initial CASREP within _____ hours when an equipment malfunction or deficiency: reduces a unit's ability to complete any mission; Cannot be corrected within 48 hours; or requires outside assistance to correct the failure
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24
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How many different types of casualty reports does the Coast Guard currently use?
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Four
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In the Coast Guard what application is an on-line supply and maintenance system for updating and maintaining baseline configuration data and replacement materials?
|
CMplus
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What form is used to report completion (or partial completion) of alterations and maintenance actions that resulted in a configuration
change? |
OPNAV 4790/CK
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When filling out a Configuration Change Form, units shall fill in, as a minimum, blocks 1 through 7, _____ through 23, and signature blocks Work Center Supervisor and 3M Coordinator (if applicable).
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13
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How is classified material prioritized for destruction?
___________________________________ |
Priorities are based on classification
level in descending order. |
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How often are EAP drills conducted?
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Semiannually
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What level of clearance is required to destroy Secret material?
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Secret
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What manual provides instructions for safeguarding and destroying classified material?
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Classified Information Management Program, COMDTINST M5510.23
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How many people are required when destroying Top Secret material?
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Two
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(True or False) Shredding is an approved method of destruction for floppy disks. ________
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True
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Using the dismantling and smashing method, metallic items can be destroyed by means such as __________.
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Sledgehammers, cutting tools, and torches
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(True or False) Personnel who witness the destruction of material are not required to hold a security clearance.
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False
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Why must destroyed material be checked for residue?
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To ensure that destruction is complete
and reconstruction is impossible |
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Accurate information concerning the extent of emergency destruction
of classified material is second in importance only to _________________________. |
Destruction of the material
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What is a logistics information system that allows the user to retrieve the following information from the Federal Logistics Information System (FLIS) and service specific databases quickly and easily:
|
FED LOG
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Excess materials (i.e., materials from the Coast Guard or other Government agencies) can be obtained from _____.
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DRMO
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Who shall be notified of any SPETERL changes?
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CGPMS Manager
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What is the DOD Defense Logistics Management System consisting of standards, procedures, codes, formats, and documents for requisitioning material from the Federal Stock System called?
|
MILSTRIP
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You must submit a/an ______ to ELC for updating the unit test equipment configuration data to reflect the addition of new test equipment and/or removal of defective or obsolete test equipment, and updating the calibration dates.
|
OPNAV 4790/CK
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The calibration intervals listed in the_____ closely follow the average calibration intervals used by other military services.
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METRL
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(True or False) Shredders shall be used to destroy classified microfilm, microfiche, or similar high information density human readable material.
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False
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(True or False) All markings identifying previous source, subject matter, use, or
classification of the information previously recorded are required to be removed from the media. |
True
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(True or False) Classified microfilm or microfiche may be destroyed by chemical process (e.g., in an acetone bath).
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True
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(True or False) Non-record FOUO material may be destroyed by the tearing method.
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True
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What Executive Order requires the Coast Guard to maintain a
safety and occupational health program? |
EO 12196
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What OSHA regulation contains specifications for accident
prevention signs and tags? |
CFR part 1910
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How many RF radiation hazard type signs are there?
|
Eight
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What Coast Guard manual provides policy on hazard identification and discrepancy reporting procedures?
|
COMDTINST M5100.47
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What size RADHAZ sign is required for shipboard use?
|
5-inch square
|
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What type RADHAZ sign is required at gasoline fueling stations?
|
Type 4
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RADHAZ type 6 signs advise personnel not to
|
Operate transmitters within
designated areas |
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What are the standard colors for danger signs?
|
Red and black with a white
background |
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Where should high voltage warning signs be placed?
|
Compartments or walk-in enclosuresm containing equipment with exposed
conductors presenting shock hazards in excess of 500V RMS or DC |
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CPR warning signs must present the ____ for providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation to adults.
|
American Heart Association standard
|
|
|
How many CPR signs are required in an electronics space?
|
One
|
|
|
Multiple power sources tags are normally located on
|
Electronic circuits
|
|
|
Where are the two locations for placing toxic gas warning signs?
|
Near the bottom of each access ladder
and at the top of each ladder |
|
|
What are PEL boundaries used for?
|
To restrict or limit access to
RADHAZ zones |
|
|
COMDTINST M5100.47 states that environments that produce ___ or greater are considered hazardous.
|
Eight-hour TWA of 85 dB (A)
|
|
|
What is the easiest and most prompt method used to report hazards to the command?
|
Oral report
|
|
|
What is the form number of the USCG hazardous conditions log used to track, prioritize, and manage hazard abatement?
|
CG-4905
|
|
|
Coast Guard and civilian employees may submit a written report of unsafe conditions in a workspace by completing a _____.
|
CG-5082
|
|
|
Every discrepancy report to correct warning signs should include:________ _________ ____________.
|
What type of sign is missing or misplaced, reasons why it is required, reason why it should be in a certain location
|
|
|
HERF
|
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel
|
|
|
HERO
|
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
|
|
|
PEL
|
Permissible Exposure Limit. A PEL boundary is established to delineate the RADHAZ exclusion zones, areas where the potential RF radiation exceeds the general public/ uncontrolled exposure of radiation. Boundaries can also be used to restrict access to a RADHAZ exclusion zone, ensuring that personnel entering an area do not exceed the limit. See “Permissible RF Exposure Areas.”
|
|
|
MPE
|
Maximum Permissible Exposure—the MPE limits (also known as PEL) have been set to allow the body enough time to dissipate or “cool” before returning to the RF field to ensure that no injury occurs.
|
|
|
RADHAZ
|
RF radiation hazards
|
|
|
TWA
|
Time weighted average—the average concentration of a chemical substance or physical energy measured or calculated for an eight-hour workday and 40-hour workweek.
|
|
|
Training should be performed for at least _____ hour(s) per week.
|
one
|
|
|
The _____ is the instructional instrument that guides the instructor
through the material to be covered. |
lesson plan
|
|
|
You, as the instructor should ___________ the presentation of the
lesson as much as you can before you actually deliver the training. |
rehearse
|
|
|
Presentations should be interesting, accurate, and _____.
|
to the point
|
|
|
How does a TDR work?
|
Sends a pulse down a cable and
measures the reflected pulse back |
|
|
What will be displayed on the CRT of the TDR if the cable’s
impedance goes up? ___________ |
A bump upwards on the display sweep
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the voltage cursors on the Tektronix 2245A?
|
Act as a measuring point for
measuring peak-to-peak waveforms |
|
|
After completing a TDR test, a recording of the display should be
printed and attached to what? ________________ |
NAVSHIP-531 (Resistance Test
Record Card) |
|
|
Making a phase measurement on the Tektronix 2245A requires
setting a reference for the _______ ________ waveform period. |
Full 360-degree
|
|
|
The TTS measures the performance of _______________________ and
___________________. |
Analog telephone and data
communication lines |
|
|
(True or False) The Comms Analyzer has a built-in SINAD meter
|
True
|
|
|
(True or False) The TTS is capable of measuring power loss because of its capability to transmit and receive simultaneously _____.
|
False; two TTS’s are required to measure power loss.
|
|
|
Which mode of operation allows the TTS to perform measurements without disturbing the existing hookup?
|
Bridge mode
|
|
|
What two connections does the Comms Analyzer use to receive and
monitor AM, FM, and SSB? ______________ _____________ |
ANT and the T/R connector
|
|
|
What is the maximum input wattage at the T/R connection on the
Comms Analyzer? _____________________ |
150 watts
|
|
|
What are the categories of RADHAZ effects?
|
Induced and Personnel Biological
Injury |
|
|
The PEL for this area is equivalent to a SAR of .08 W/kg.
|
Uncontrolled Environment
|
|
|
To reduce the chances of RF-related incidences during ordnance
handling, a unit will produce what? |
EMCON bill
|
|
|
Rising body temperature and possible tissue damage are
symptoms associated with… |
Biological effects
|
|
|
Maximum allowable time before detectable tissue damage occurs
is the definition of… |
Permissible Exposure Limit
(PEL) |
|
|
X-rays may be generated from what type of equipment?
|
High-power radars, electron
tubes, or communications equipment |
|
|
Induced heating damage to the human body is a function of what part of the RF radiation?
|
Intensity of the RF field
|
|
|
The time rate at which RF radiation is imparted into human tissue
is defined as what? |
SAR
|
|
|
What is the PEL for a Controlled Environment?
|
0.4 W/kg
|
|
|
How are personnel informed of potential exposure to RF radiation?
|
Hazard warning signs
|
|
|
RF voltage induced into flammable material is also known as what?
|
HERF
|
|
|
With a transmitter output of 75 watts, how close can exposed ordnance be safely handled?
|
25 feet
|
|
|
Talking in a ___________ voice without inflection may cause the class to lose interest in the topic (or even go to sleep!).
|
Monotone
|
|
|
When choosing a piece of test equipment for troubleshooting a control head for a remote radio sending out correct signal, but remote radio not responding, then use a _____.
|
TTS
|
|
|
If troubleshooting a transmitter’s power out, modulation, distortion, or frequency error then you would use a ______.
|
Comms Analyzer
|
|
|
The PEL will be exceeded when within a _____ foot radius of a Mini-Loop antenna.
|
Twelve
|
|
|
The ________________ program was developed to protect fueling operations.
|
HERF
|
|
|
Hazards caused by a transmitter/antenna installation that generates electromagnetic radiation near ordnance, personnel, or fueling operations are called _______.
|
Electromagnetic radiation hazards (RADHAZ).
|
|
|
The Senior Commandant or MLC member acts as _____, whose
responsibilities are outlined in section 5.2.5.2.4 of the Electronics Manual. |
team leader
|
|
|
Section 5.2.3.10.8 of the Electronics Manual states that an
“______________________________________” is used to certify an installation as and after it occurs. |
Engineering Certification Checklist
|
|
|
As you go through the DOD-STD-2003 (NAVY) directive, you'll note that the document deals extensively with devices known as “_________.”
|
multiple cable penetrators
|
|
|
Multi-Cable Transit device use on weather decks is not authorized per_________.
|
DOD-STD-2003
|
|
|
What are cable tags made of?
|
Soft aluminum
|
|
|
How do you determine which cable to trace when going through a bulkhead?
|
Identification tags must be on both sides of the bulkhead
|
|
|
For the tag number R-RT12, what does the RT stand for?
|
Radio transmitter control
|
|
|
What is the identical system number used for?
|
To identify two or more identical
electronic systems |
|
|
What three pieces of information can be obtained from a conductor tag?
a. ____ b. ____ c. ____ |
Terminal the conductor is connected to, unit and terminal board connected
to on opposite end, terminal connected to on opposite end |
|
|
You should refer to Section 2-18.2.1 of ___________ to find correct
procedures for repair of coaxial cables. |
EIM-110
|
|
|
Coaxial cables that have a damaged shield as well as a damaged jacket shall be _____ and not _____.
|
replaced, repaired
|
|
|
Attenuation and______ tests shall be conducted on all flexible and semi-rigid coaxial cables.
|
Voltage Standing-Wave Ratio
(VSWR) |
|
|
Insulation resistance tests shall be made on coaxial cables _________
and upon completion of installation. |
prior to installation
|
|
|
NAVSEA SE000-00-___________ may be used for test methods and
guidance for testing of coaxial cables. |
EIM-130
|
|
|
The guidelines listed in _________ Section 5-2.10 for Quality Control
inspections of waveguides shall apply to rigid coaxial transmission lines. |
EIM-110
|
|
|
Various groups approve and fund field changes. Those groups include:_______, ________, and _______.
|
Coast Guard, Navy, commercial
|
|
|
Coast Guard field changes are issued by _____ or ______.
|
CG-643, SMEF
|
|
|
Surface search radar system cables have a marking of _______________.
|
ES
|
|
|
A complete Field Change package consists of the Field Change Bulletin and a
__________. |
Field Change Parts Kit
|
|
|
Radio navigation system cables have a marking of__________________.
|
RN
|
|
|
A spare conductor shall have “_____” written on the conductor tag.
|
Spare
|
|
|
When should cables installed in shipboard electronic systems receive visual inspections, continuity checks, and insulation resistance tests?
|
Prior to energizing of equipment
|
|
|
Coax cable with polyethylene or polytetrafluorethylene (Teflon) dielectric and a length of 100 feet (or less) shall have an insulation resistance greater than or equal to ___ megohms.
|
40,000
|
|
|
Cables not meeting the minimum insulation resistance values shall be ___________.
|
replaced
|
|
|
Semi-rigid coaxial cables may be classed in two categories in reference to dielectric
types: Solid or foam dielectric cables that do not require pressurization or |
Semi-air dielectric type that requires
dry air pressurization |
|
|
Deterioration of coaxial connectors due to the corrosive action resulting from moisture,
salt, and stack gasses is a serious problem where? |
Aboard ships
|
|
|
True or False: Andrew® Corporation includes specific installation instructions with each
HELIAX® cable connector package. |
True
|
|
|
List the components that make up the facility ground system.
|
The four components that make up the facility ground system are:
1. Earth electrode subsystem or shipboard ground plane 2. Fault protection subsystem 3. Lightning protection subsystem 4. Signal reference ground subsystem |
|
|
Facility ground system inspections and site surveys are conducted after
major changes to the facility, structure or equipment are made. (Circle correct answer) True False |
True
|
|
|
List the primary functions of the facility ground system.
|
The three primary functions of the facility ground system are:
1. Personnel safety through low impedance grounding and bonding between equipment. 2. Equipment and facility protection through low impedance grounding and bonding between electrical services, protective devices, equipment and other conductive objects. 3. Electrical noise reduction on communication circuits. |
|
|
List the components that make up the earth electrode subsystem.
|
• Buried, driven rods interconnected with bare wire that normally form a ring around the building
• Metallic pipe systems, i.e., water, gas, fuel, etc., that have no insulation joints (these must not be used as the sole earth electrode subsystem) • A ground plane of horizontal buried wires |
|
|
Class C bond
|
Bridging using a metallic (conductive)
strap. |
|
|
Class A bond
|
Welding of metallic surfaces.
|
|
|
Class B bond
|
Bolting or clamping of metallic surfaces.
|
|
|
If the service-entrance conductor is copper wire size 1, what size
copper wire should be used for the grounding electrode conductor for the AC system? |
Wire size no. 6
|
|
|
Metal raceways, ducts and cable trays should not be used in lieu of
equipment grounding conductors. (Circle correct answer): True False |
True
|
|
|
If the current rating of the overcurrent protection device is 500, what is
the minimum copper wire size for the equipment-grounding conductor? ______ |
Wire size no. 2
|
|
|
The five effects of lightning are:
|
Thermal effects
Mechanical effects Electrical effects Conductor impedance effects Induced voltage effects |
|
|
Due to _____________________ effects, all elements of the lightning
protection subsystem must be securely fastened. |
Mechanical
|
|
|
Metal objects within six feet of lightning down conductors should be
bonded to the down conductors in order to avoid _________________. |
Flashovers
|
|
|
Insulation breakdown may be due to the ___________________ effect
of lightning. |
Electrical
|
|
|
To reduce the possibility of ____________________________ effects,
cables that terminate electronic devices (such as power, signal and control lines) should not be run in parallel to down conductors. |
Induced voltage
|
|
|
The tip of the air terminal must be a minimum of ___________ inches
above the structure. |
10 inches
|
|
|
The bend of any down conductor shall not be less than _____ degrees.
|
90 degrees
|
|
|
The three types of signal reference ground network configurations are:
|
Floating, single-point, multi-point
|
|
|
Which type of equipotential ground plane must be installed during new
construction of a facility? |
Concrete floor with embedded copper
grids |
|
|
What should the resistance be when measuring between the signal
ground terminal and the equipment case? |
Greater than 1 megohm
|
|
|
In a single-point ground system, how many paths are there for the
signal reference to ground? |
One
|
|
|
What should the resistance be when measuring between the green
safety wire and the equipment case? |
.1 ohm or less
|
|
|
Data gathered during the site survey consists of data collected IAW:
|
MIL-STD-188-124B,
National Electrical Code (NEC) |
|
|
For a complete list of site survey requirements, refer to:
|
MIL-HDBK- 419A, Vol. II Section
1.4.9. |
|
|
Facility ground system inspections and site surveys are conducted: at least ____________.
|
annually
|
|
|
Electronic and telecommunications equipment are effectively grounded through ______
accidental contact or intentional contact. |
capacitive coupling
|
|
|
_____ from buried electrodes entering buildings often serve as the principal ground point
for connections to equipment ground systems. |
Extensions
|
|
|
For metallic and non-metallic hull ships, all Class _____ extensions to the ship’s ground
potential shall be designated as the ship’s ground plane. |
"A"
|
|
|
The most common type of ground rods are those made of __________________________.
|
copper-clad steel
|
|
|
List the four elements that make up the facility ground system.
|
The four elements that make up the
facility ground system are: • Earth electrode subsystem or shipboard ground plane. • Fault protection subsystem. • Lightning protection subsystem. • Signal reference ground subsystem. |
|
|
If at all possible, fault protection conductors should be physically __________ from signal
reference ground conductors except at where they connect to the earth electrode subsystem. |
separate
|
|
|
Lighting protection devices include:
|
Ground rods, down conductors, and air
terminals |
|
|
The tower manual is what CIM Number?
|
CIM 11000_4A
|
|
|
Who maintains a complete file for each antenna system?
|
The servicing CEU should maintain a complete file for each tower or antenna system containing:
|
|
|
What are the four inspection levels of antenna towers?
|
Tall Tower Coordination Center (TTCC) Level.
Major Field Command Level. Intermediate Level. Unit/Field Level. |
|
|
Each inspection and maintenance record for each antenna system should include what?
|
a. Inspection reports.
b. Specifications used for inspection or maintenance. c. Correspondence pertaining to the particular tower or antenna. d. Records of all maintenance or modifications. e. Updated inventory of tower spare parts. f. Pertinent procurement documents. |
|
|
What is the most effective way to protect Coast Guard investments in towers?
|
Inspections on a periodic basis
|
|
|
How often should antenna systems be inspected?
|
Because of seasonal storm cycles, antenna systems should be carefully inspected about once per year, making allowances for local conditions, expenses involved, expertise availability, and the magnitude of the original capital investment.
|
|
|
Who provides the electronic test equipment program for the
Coast Guard? |
MLC
|
|
|
What document specifies electronic maintenance
philosophy? |
EILSP
|
|
|
Who has final authority for a unit’s test equipment allowance
list? |
MLC
|
|
|
Who is responsible for developing a unique test equipment
list for a unit? |
CGPMS Manager
|
|
|
(True or False) MLC provides procedures for unit
calibration under the NICP and the NLCP. |
True
|
|
|
Who has authority to monitor and inspect a unit’s calibration
program? |
MLC
|
|
|
Who provides authorization for NTNO test equipment?
|
Commandant (G-SCE-2)
|
|
|
What document identifies the types of test equipment that
are approved, their standards, stock numbers, and related parameters? |
Test Equipment Index, NAVSEA
ST000-AA-IDX-010-TEL |
|
|
Define On-the-job Training (OJT)
|
Used to gain hands-on experience under operational conditions
|
|
|
What is an example of Development Obstacles
|
Adequate and up-to-date lesson plans
|
|
|
Unit Training Plan ensures what?
|
Ensures readiness and ability to perform the many operational missions
|
|
|
Define Presentation
|
Demonstrate the information or performance for the student
|
|
|
All ropes, straps, and webbing used in lanyards, lifelines, and strength components of body harnesses shall be made of ___________________ fibers
|
Synthetic
|
|
|
______________ shall be installed in open spaces around electronic or electrical equipment on board ship and at shore facilities.
|
Rubber matting
|
|
|
Name two personnel-protective equipments.
|
Insulated shoes, insulated gloves, eye and face protection, or aprons
|
|
|
Hearing protection devices shall be worn by all personnel when operating in noise levels greater than or equal to ____________ dBA TWA continuous sound pressure.
|
85 dBA
|
|
|
What type of shoes shall be worn when working on live electrical circuits of 30 volts or more?
|
Non-conductive
|
|
|
________________ all wires and lead-ins.
|
Insulate
|
|
|
____________________ plier handles with __________ when they are to be used on electronic or electric equipment.
|
Insulate, Sleeving
|
|
|
What intranet website can you visit to assist units in identifying safety and environmental health hazards and program deficiencies?
|
MLC (kse)
|
|
|
____________ or disconnects shall be located at or within reach of each workbench or piece of equipment.
|
Power Kill Switches
|
|
|
Name the two types of safety inspections that can be preformed.
|
Routine Inspections, Formal Unit Safety Inspections
|
|
|
What are the 5 types of bond straps associated witha class c method of bonding?
|
Type 1 A corrosion-resistant copper/nickel alloy assembly.
Type 2 Flat CRES 316 with mounting holes in each end. Type 3 Flat copper with mounting holes in each end. Type 4 Flat copper braid with mounting holes in each end. Type 5 TRFX-84 cable with mounting lugs and hardware selected to suit individual installation requirements. |
|
|
List the four subsystems that make up the facility grounds systems.
|
Earth electrode, lightning protection, fault protection, and signal reference subsystems
|
|
|
Another name for an air terminal is
|
Lightning rod
|
|
|
Earth electrode grounding is a process that establishes
|
Electrical connections to the earth
|
|
|
The primary purpose of the signal reference ground subsystem is to
|
Reduce noise in signal circuits, provide leakage path for static charges and establish a voltage reference
|
|
|
The primary purpose of the fault protection subsystem is to
|
Provide fault current path to operate equipment breakers and blow fuses
|
|
|
(True or False) BBN is a form of EMI.
|
True
|
|
|
(True or False) Ground loops are not a source of noise.
|
False
|
|
|
EMI in audio circuits will appear as _______________ to the operator.
|
A low 50-Hz/60-Hz hum or buzz
|
|
|
To reduce or eliminate electrical noise, components must be
|
grounded
|
|
|
In a single-point ground, there should be _____ _______ path for the signal reference to ground.
|
only one
|
|
|
What is the main symptom for a ground loop?
|
Noise within an electrical or electronic circuit
|
|
|
What type of bonding technique uses bonding straps?
|
Semi-permanent
|
|
|
What method of bonding offers the highest mechanical strength?
|
Class A method
|
|
|
How are bonding straps classified?
|
According to their construction
|
|
|
BBN is usually caused by
|
Arcing between structures and transmitting antennas
|
|
|
What are the 4 type of Casualty Reports?
|
• Initial Casualty Report
• Update Casualty Report • Cancel Casualty Report • Correct Casualty Report |
|
|
A unit must send an Initial CASREP within ___ hours when an
equipment malfunction or deficiency: • Reduces a unit's ability to complete any mission • Cannot be correct within 48 hours • Requires outside assistance to correct the failure |
24 hours
|
|
|
Send an Update
CASREP if under what conditions are present? |
• Change in status or estimated repair time
• Change in the request for parts or equipment • Receipt of ordered parts or equipment • Additional failure(s) discovered in the same equipment • Previous CASREP contains an error |
|
|
An Update CASREP must be sent every __ days for
open CASREP messages. |
30 Days
|
|
|
When must a CASCOR message be sent?
|
Send a CASCOR message
when the failed equipment has been repaired and is working properly. |
|
|
A CANCEL CASREP (CASCAN)is sent when?
|
• If the equipment is scheduled to be repaired at the beginning
during a scheduled maintenance period • When the equipment is replaced with a new type of equipment |
|
|
What are the four message precedence's?
|
Routine (R)
Priority (P) Immediate (O) Flash (Z) |
|
|
What are the speed of service objectives for each message precedence?
|
Routine - 6 hours or less
Priority - 3 hours or less Immediate - 30 Minutes or less Flash - less than 10 minutes |
|
|
When a deficiency exists in mission-essential
equipment, which causes a minor degradation in any primary mission, or a major degradation or total loss of a secondary mission it is classified as a Casualty Category ____? |
Category 2
|
|
|
When a deficiency exists in mission-essential
equipment, which causes a major degradation but not the loss of a primary mission it is classified as a casualty category ____? |
Category 3
|
|
|
Wehn a deficiency exists in mission-essential equipment
that is worse than casualty category 3, and causes a loss of at least one primary mission it is classified as a casualty category_____? |
Category 4
|
|
|
On a PR accounting data line, what type of funding is
operating expenses (OE)? |
Regular Appropriations
|
|
|
Name the three procurement manuals that are used for
procurement questions. |
• FINCEN SOP
• Supply Policy and Procedures Manual • Simplified Acquisitions Procedures Handbook |
|
|
You are given a PR for a new $1,200 treadmill for the fitness
center. Should that treadmill be accounted for in property? |
Yes - #6 of Mandatory Items
|
|
|
You are given a PR for one can of paint. What must be
submitted with the PR since paint is hazardous material? |
Statement of Essential Need (SEN)
|
|
|
What reference manual can be used for more information on
accounting for property in the CG? |
Personal Property Manual
|
|
|
When given a PR, you must all
information to ensure completeness and accuracy. |
Verify
|
|
|
What is the single most important signature on the PR?
|
Certification of Funds Availability
|
|
|
Name the seven sources of supply.
|
• Excess from other CG agencies
• Excess from other agencies • Federal Prison Industries • Products available from NIB-NISH • Wholesale supply sources • Open-market commercial suppliers |
|
|
Who is responsible for source of supply or service selection?
|
Contracting Officer
|
|
|
Name the five sources of service.
|
• Services available from NIB-NISH
• Mandatory federal supply schedules • Optional-use federal supply schedules • Federal Prison Industries • Open-market commercial services |
|
|
If a PR item has been designated by the EPA as an item that
can be made with recycled materials, what form must be included with the PR? |
Requisitioner determination form
|
|
|
What signature has to be on the Statement of Essential Need
(SEN) before a purchase of hazardous materials can be made? |
Pollution Prevention Coordinator (PPC)
|
|
|
What are the six small-purchase methods?
|
• P-Card
• C-Checks • Imprest Funds • SF-44 • BPA • Purchase Order |
|
|
What are the three procurement methods?
|
• MILSTRIP
• Simplified Acquisition Method • Acquire from excess materials |
|
|
Of the six small-purchase methods, which one is the
preferred method? |
P-card
|
|
|
Of the six small-purchase methods, which one is the least
preferred method? |
SF-44
|
|
|
What is the monetary limit using the simplified acquisition
method for supply or service? |
$2,500
|
|
|
When acquiring excess materials from other government
agencies, what form must be filled out? |
DD-1149
|
|
|
What is the monetary limit using the simplified acquisition
method for construction? |
$2,000
|
|
|
What are the two computer software programs that the CG
uses to post, reconcile, and close out procurement requests? |
• CMplus
• LUFS |
|
|
There are three basic changes to publications, what are they?
|
Pen and ink
Cut and paste Page-per-page replacement |
|
|
Publication changes are received via several mediums:What are they?
|
CD-ROM
Official message Change Directive or Notice |
|
|
A Type ___ field change Furnishes documentation, parts, and special tools required to complete a
change. Documentation, parts, and tools are assembled and supplied as a Field Change Parts Kit, which is assigned a stock number. This type of change involves alteration to equipment and requires changes to the technical documentation. |
Type 1
|
|
|
A Type ____ field change Furnishes documentation only. The installing unit procures required parts or special tools with their own funds from an appropriate supply
source. This type of change requires alteration to the equipment and also requires changes to the technical documentation. |
Type 2
|
|
|
A Type _____ Field Change Implements changes to technical
documentation only and requires no alteration to the equipment. |
Type 4
|
|
|
A Type ___ Field Change Furnishes documentation and some of the required parts or special tools. The remaining required parts or special tools are procured from a specified source by the installing
unit. This type of field change requires alteration to the equipment, and requires corresponding changes to the technical documentation. |
Type 3
|
|
|
Field Change Parts Kits
are not required for Type __ or Type ___ field changes |
2 or 4
|
|
|
A field change parts kit is included in Type 1 and Type
3 field changes and consists of: |
-Parts
-Special tools -Related parts lists -Installation procedures -Copy of the field change bulletin |
|
|
If troubleshooting a Transmission line problem or a
Cable problems then use a____ |
TDR
|
|
|
If troubleshooting a Control head for remote radio sending out correct signal, but remote radio not responding, Audio signal level problems
Frequency response Communication network line quality e.g., telephone line Line continuity problems then use a _____ |
TTS
|
|
|
If troublewshooting Unknown frequencies or there is a need to measure AC/DC voltage levels then use a ______
|
Oscilloscope
|
|
|
If troubleshooting any of the following:
A receiver’s; sensitivity, squelch threshold, SINAD A duplex operation in an R/T A transmitter’s power out, modulation, distortion, frequency error Monitor “Off-the-Air” transmissions Then usa a _____ |
Comms Analyzer
|
|
|
How does a TDR work?
|
Sends a pulse down a cable and measures the reflected pulse back
|
|
|
The TTS measures the performance of ____________ and
|
Analog telephone and data communication lines
|
|
|
What will be displayed on the CRT of the TDR if the cable’s impedance goes up ? ___________
|
A bump upwards on the display sweep
|
|
|
(True or False) The Comms Analyzer has a built-in SINAD meter________.
|
True
|
|
|
After completing a TDR test, a recording of the display should be printed and attached to what?
|
NAVSHIP-531 (Resistance Test Record Card)
|
|
|
Which mode of operation allows the TTS to perform measurements without disturbing the existing hookup?
|
Bridge mode
|
|
|
(True or False) The TTS is capable of measuring power loss because of it’s capability to transmit and receive simultaneously_______.
|
False, Two TTSs are required to measure power loss
|
|
|
What is the maximum input wattage at the T/R connection on the Comms Analyzer? _______
|
150 watts
|
|
|
What two connections does the Comms Analyzer use to receive and monitor AM, FM, and SSB? _________
|
ANT and the T/R connector
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the voltage cursors on the Tektronix 2245A?
|
Act as a measuring point for measuring peak-to-peak waveforms
|
|
|
Making a phase measurement on the Tektronix 2245A requires setting a reference for the _______ ________ waveform period.
|
Full 360-degree
|
|
|
How is classified material prioritized for destruction?
|
Priorities are based on classification level in descending order.
|
|
|
How often are EAP drills conducted?
|
Semiannually
|
|
|
What level of clearance is required to destroy Secret material?
|
Secret
|
|
|
What manual provides instructions for safeguarding and destroying classified material?
|
Coast Guard Security Manual, COMDTINST M5500.11
|
|
|
How many people are required when destroying Top Secret material?
|
Two
|
|
|
(True or False) Shredding is an approved method of destruction for floppy disks.
|
True
|
|
|
Using the dismantling and smashing method, metallic items can be destroyed by means such as
|
Sledgehammers, cutting tools, and torches
|
|
|
(True or False) Personnel who witness the destruction of material are not required to hold a security clearance.
|
False
|
|
|
Why must destroyed material be checked for residue?
|
To ensure that destruction is complete and reconstruction is impossible
|
|
|
Accurate information concerning the extent of emergency destruction of classified material is second in importance only to
|
Destruction of the material
|
|
|
List the elements that make up the fault protection subsystem.
|
Earth electrode subsystem, green safety grounding conductor and other grounding and fault protection components
|
|
|
What is the difference between a “grounded” and “grounding” conductor?
|
The grounded conductor refers to the neutral conductor. The grounding refers to the green safety wire
|
|
|
What are the four types of fault protection devices?
|
Fuses, circuit breakers, ground fault sensors, ground fault circuit interrupters
|
|
|
What type of materials can be used for grounding electrode conductors?
|
Copper, aluminum, or copper-clad aluminum
|
|
|
What are electrode conductors used for?
|
To connect equipment grounding conductors or grounded conductors to the earth electrode subsystem
|
|
|
If the service-entrance conductor is copper wire size 1, what size copper wire should be used for the grounding electrode conductor for the AC system?
|
Wire size no. 6
|
|
|
If the ampere rating of the overcurrent protection device is 500, what is the minimum copper wire size for the equipment-grounding conductor?
|
Wire size no. 2
|
|
|
List one exception to having more than one service per building.
|
Operation of building fire pumps
|
|
|
(True or False) At a single source for a single building the green safety wire must be grounded to the earth electrode subsystem at the source side of the first service disconnect.
|
False
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a site survey?
|
To establish a base or starting point by which the fault protection subsystem can be measured for subsequent inspections
|
|
|
How do you determine the number of ground rods required for lightning protection?
|
By the number of down conductors, each down conductor shall be terminated by a ground rod dedicated exclusively for lightning protection
|
|
|
What is the average distance between down conductors?
|
Shall not exceed 100 feet
|
|
|
What is the minimum size of a lightning protection ground rod?
|
8 feet long by ½-inch diameter
|
|
|
Due to _________ effects, all elements of the lightning protection subsystem must be securely fastened.
|
Mechanical
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a down conductor?
|
Provides a path for the air terminal to discharge the lightning to ground
|
|
|
Critical structures require a cone of protection zone ratio of?
|
1:1
|
|
|
The tip of the air terminal must be a minimum of ______ above the structure.
|
Should be at least 10 inches above the structure
|
|
|
A 2:1 ratio means that the angle formed by the apex of the structure and the horizontal distance is ______ degrees.
|
63 degrees
|
|
|
For flat roofs, the air terminal placement will be _________.
|
On the corners or edges
|
|
|
What does the term flashover mean?
|
High voltage developed by the lightning strike will conduct to objects as close as 14 inches away.
|
|
|
List the three types of ground network configurations.
|
Floating, single-point, multi-point
|
|
|
List one disadvantage of using a floating ground system.
|
Static charge buildup on the signal circuit may present a shock and spark hazard.
|
|
|
A multi-point ground system requires the use of an ________ _______ plane whenever the conductors exceed ______ wavelength at the highest frequency.
|
Equipotential ground, 1/8
|
|
|
List one advantage to using a single-point system.
|
Control of conductively coupled interference by minimizing the effects of lower frequency noise currents that may be flowing in the facility ground.
|
|
|
Which ground network consists of multiple conductors connected in the form of a grid or mesh that offers very low impedance to ground at high frequencies?
|
Equipotential ground plane
|
|
|
Which type of equipotential ground plane must be installed during new construction of a facility?
|
Concrete floor with embedded copper grids
|
|
|
What are the three categories of electronic equipment, when performing resistance checks?
|
Low frequency, high frequency, and hybrid
|
|
|
What should the resistance be when measuring between the signal ground terminal and the equipment case?
|
Greater than 1 megohm
|
|
|
In a single-point ground system, how many paths are there for the signal reference to ground?
|
One
|
|
|
What should the resistance be when measuring between the green safety wire and the equipment case?
|
.1 ohm or less
|
|
|
What are cable tags made of?
|
Soft aluminum
|
|
|
How do you determine which cable to trace when going through a bulkhead?
|
Identification tags must be on both sides of the bulkhead
|
|
|
For the tag number R-RT12, what does the RT stand for?
|
Radio transmitter control
|
|
|
What is the identical system number used for?
|
To identify two or more identical electronic systems
|
|
|
What three pieces of information can be obtained from a conductor tag?
|
Terminal the conductor is connected to, unit and terminal board connected to on opposite end, terminal connected to on opposite end
|
|
|
What is the main purpose for multiple conductor cable?
|
Used to send operating signals back and forth between pieces of electronic equipment
|
|
|
There are two types of fiber optic cable, which type is always used by the United States Coast Guard?
|
Glass composition is used for maximum performance
|
|
|
What are the two most common impedances for coaxial cable?
|
50 and 75Ω
|
|
|
Cat-5 network will support frequencies up to _______ with speed up to
|
100 MHz, 1000Mbps
|
|
|
(True or False) Conductors in multiconductor cable can be paralleled to obtain current carrying capacity.
|
False
|
|
|
What can happen when cable being stored is transferred from cold to warm locations?
|
Moisture absorption
|
|
|
What is the storage temperature range for fiber optic cable?
|
Temperature range of -40°C to +85°C
|
|
|
Cable tags should never be any more than ___ apart.
|
50 feet apart
|
|
|
What is the minimum separation between susceptible and passive cable?
|
2 inches
|
|
|
When performing continuity and insulation resistance checks on coaxial cable, the resistance should be?
|
200 MΩ
|
|
|
When additional grips are being used for heliax, the cable should be tied to the hoist line between the grips at ______ intervals.
|
50 feet
|
|
|
What is the purpose for grounding heliax at top and bottom?
|
Lightning protection
|
|
|
Impedance between ground buss and fault protection subsystem shall be less than __ ohm.
|
0.1 ohms
|
|
|
Any outlet voltage and frequency other than ___ VAC, __ hz shall be so labled.
|
110 VAC, 60 Hz
|
|
|
The solvent approved for cleaning CG electronic or electrical equipment is _______. All CG units shall discontinue the use of freon tf when the stock is expended. The use of freon tf causes ozone depletion.
|
TRICHLOROETHANE
|
|
|
Temporary ____ (class A type, 5 mA trip) shall be used on the AC outlets whenever hand held
power tools are used on metal workbenches. |
ground fault circuit interruptors
|
|
|
Chemical burns should be washed immediately with large
quantities of water for ____ minutes. * Chemicals in the eyes should be washed out for 15-20 minutes. |
5-20 minutes
|
|
|
What is the height of a woman's dress shoe (pump)?
|
Heel height may vary in range from 1 to 2 5/8 inches, heel widths maybe no less than 1/2
inch at the floor |
|
|
Can women wear ribbons in their hair?
|
No
|
|
|
What type of earings are authorized for women?
|
1/4 inch round ball style gold, silver, or pearl--- 1/4 diamond when wearing formal dress
|
|
|
How are ball cap devices centered?
|
1 1/4 inches from the brim
|
|
|
When wearing winter dress blue, how many inches above the pocket do you place your ribbons?
|
1/4 inch
|
|
|
How many inches do you place the cuttersman pin above the ribbons?
|
1/4 inch
|
|
|
On a working uniform, how many inches are the collar devices placed from the collar?
|
1 inch
|
|
|
Hair bulk for men will not exceed?
|
1 -1/2 inches
|
|
|
Large medals may be worn on what uniform?
|
Full Dress
|
|
|
What is the proper length of side burns for males?
|
Not to extend below the lowest external opening
|
|
|
Hair bulk for women shall not exceed?
|
2 inches
|
|
|
What color should pins or combs that help bind women's hair be?
|
Similar to the individual's hair color
|
|
|
What is the maximum number of insignias a member can wear simultaneously?
|
Total of 4 ; 2 breast insignia and 2 command or OIC insignia
|
|
|
When sewing on any item onto a uniform, what is the minimum stiches per inch that must be used?
|
Minimun of six stiches per inch
|
|
|
How wide should the tie clasp for men be?
|
Approximately 3/16 inch wide
|
|
|
How should a member who has a shaving waiver have it documented?
|
CG-3307
|
|
|
What is the correct manner to wear a hat?
|
It should be worn squarely on the head, bottom edge horizontal
|
|
|
One service stripe should be worn in lieu of how many years of service?
|
4
|
|
|
How must the skirt hem line on a women's uniformfall, except for formal uniforms?
|
It cannot be any higher than the crease in the back of the knee, and no lower than 2 inches below the crease
|
|
|
What angle should the service stripe be sown on the service dress bravo uniform?
|
45 degree angle
|
|
|
What manual would you go to for instructions on how to complete a CASREP message?
|
NWP 1-03-1
|
|
|
There are 4 types of CASREP messages, what are they?
|
Initial, update, correct, and cancel
|
|
|
When will the message serial numbers start over again at 1?
|
After the unit has submitted number 999
|
|
|
An Initial CASREP must be sent within how many hours of the equipment failure?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
What must be done to correct a CASREP message transmitted with errors?
|
Generate a CASREP UPDATE
|
|
|
If a deficiency exists in mission essential equipment which causes a major degradation but not the loss of primary mission, what casualty will be given?
|
CAT 3
|
|
|
What is the highest casualty category that can be assigned to a CASREP?
|
CAT 4
|
|
|
The estimated time of repair will be based on__________.
|
When parts or outside assistance are received
|
|
|
UPDATE to casualty 98015 will appear as _________.
|
UPDATE-01-98015
|
|
|
On CASREP messages , when will the INITIAL casualty number start over again at 001?
|
At the begining of the calendar year
|
|
|
What form will provide information on the condition of all transmitting and receiving antenna systems?
|
NAVSHIP-531 Resistance test Record Cards
|
|
|
How often should transmitting and receiving antenna systems be tested for ship or shore units?
|
Ship- Monthly
Shore-Quarterly |
|
|
What publication will give you final authority as to which publications your shop or unit is required to have on hand?
|
COMDTNOTE 5600 Directives and Publications Index
|
|
|
What publication list can be used for obtaining stock numbers and identification data for Navy technical manuals, field changes, placards, etc?
|
NAVSUP 2002
|
|
|
What form is used for ordering other government agency publications?
|
OF-347
|
|
|
What military standard will give you information on shipboard bonding, grounding, and other techniques for electromagnetic compatability and safety?
|
MIL-STD-1310
|
|
|
General purpose test equipment (GPETE) having a cost of more than ________ shall appear on your units EIR
|
$300.00
|
|
|
When removal of surveyed equipment occurs, how many days do you have to enter a change to your EIR?
|
30 Days
|
|
|
Units may report COMSEC (TSEC) equipment on their EIR. However, reports must be marked how?
|
"For official use only"
|
|
|
According to the electronics manual, an EIR inventory is normally required how often?
|
Upon relief of custodian or every 2 years
|
|
|
Should a joint inventory not be possible, the new custodian must
inventory the property within _______ days, and submit a letter of relief to the Commanding Officer. |
30 Days
|
|
|
Who is required to be present for a physical inventory of property?
|
Old custodian, new custodian, and an independent person who has no direct interest in the outcome
|
|
|
Normally, a _______ days supply of repair parts is provided as an allowance quantities in the ERPAL.
|
90 Days
|
|
|
An ERPAL package is prepared by what Coast Guard Unit?
|
ELC Baltimore, MD
|
|
|
The ELC normally requires ________ days after receipt of an equipment list to prepare an ERPAL.
|
60 Days
|
|
|
ERPAL revisions should be routinely scheduled approximately every ________ months.
|
24 Months
|
|
|
Whom shall provide funding for initial and revised ERPALs?
|
MLC's or Headquarter Units
|
|
|
Initial and first revised ERPALs for new construction will utilize what funds?
|
AC and I funds
|
|
|
A physical inventory of all ERPAL parts shall be conducted at least how often?
|
Annnually or upon receipt of a new or revised ERPAL
|
|
|
What is the first thing the unit should do after receiving a revised ERPAL package?
|
Update stock numbers
|
|
|
What form is provided for each item on the deletion list of the revised ERPAL?
|
DD-1348-1
|
|
|
What is another name for a DD-1348-1 turn in document?
|
BC1 document
|
|
|
What is the first action the unit should take upon receiving an intitial ERPAL package?
|
Storage of all parts
|
|
|
Once the storage action is completed, what should the unit do next?
|
Inventory parts
|
|
|
APA-Repairables are identified by what COG Code proceeding the stock number?
|
XB
|
|
|
Requisition for APA - Repairable's material must be submitted using what form?
|
DD-1348
|
|
|
What form shall not be used for turn in of APA-Repairable materials?
|
DD-1149
|
|
|
What advice code shall be used for the requisition of APA-Repairables on an exchange basis only?
|
5G
|
|
|
If no serviceable unit is available for turn in, what advice code shall be used?
|
5A
|
|
|
What tag shall be attached to the unserviceable item identifying the failure symptoms?
|
DD-1577-2 (NONAV DLR) or CG-5236 (E/GICP turn in)
|
|
|
What routing identifier is used for E/GICP Baltimore on the DD-1348 requisition?
|
ZNC
|
|
|
On the DD-1572-2 Unserviceable (repairable) tag, where do you continue to write if you run out of room in the "Reason For Repairable Condition" block?
|
In the remarks block and on the back if required
|
|
|
According to COCINST M10550.25, who do you order MIL-HNBK-419 from?
|
Naval Publications and Forms Center (NPFC)
|
|
|
What type of field change furnishes documentation, parts and special tools?
|
Type 1 field change
|
|
|
What must you have for authorization to perform an installation of a field change?
|
Field change bulletin
|
|
|
If relatively minor mistakes have been made in the field change bulletin, what will be issued to correct these errors?
|
Errata Sheet
|
|
|
What type of field change implements changes to tech manuals only?
|
Type 4
|
|
|
Who has responsibility for assigning numbers for all CG Electronic field Changes?
|
SMEF
|
|
|
What unit stocks general services field change part kits?
|
ELC Baltimore
|
|
|
What type field change furnishes documentation only?
|
Type 2
|
|
|
Current field change lists will be published periodically in the PMS
Work Schedule Book. Is the PMS Work Schedule Book authority fo official action? |
NO
|
|
|
What type of field change furnishes documentation and some special tools?
|
Type 3
|
|
|
Upon completion of a field change, what shall be done with the field change bulletin?
|
Insert in front of the tech manual
|
|
|
What must be done with the errata sheet upon completion?
|
Attech to front of the field change bulletin
|
|
|
What manual do you check to verify NAVY field changes?
|
EIMB and updated in the EIB
|
|
|
Each equipment that has an applicable field change should be checked how to verify the field change has actually been installed?
|
Physically Checked using the field change bulletin and the "field change accomplished" plate
|
|
|
Coast Guard configuration changes to NAVY equipment, what form is completed and sent to ELC?
|
4790-CK
|
|
|
Isolated Loran stations should have ERPAL supplies to last how long?
|
12 months
|
|
|
If you sent a CASREP which contained a mistake, you should?
|
Send a CASUALTY UPDATE containing the correct information
|
|
|
If you have a failed Cesium Frequency Standard, you obtain a new one by?
|
Contacting ISC Alexandria
|
|
|
Coast Guard field changes to Navy equipment are identified by?
|
Begining at the number 9?
|
|
|
Safety training must be held how often?
|
Semi annual
|
|
|
CASREP serial numbers start over at 001 after _____________.
|
Serial number 999
|
|
|
If you want to change the date of a required 24 month ERPAL revision, you must obtain permission from __________.
|
Your CO
|
|
|
You must send your ERPAL request to SUPCEN Baltimore _________ days prior to the required delivery date.
|
90
|
|
|
A type 1 field change should contain____________.
|
Eveything needed (Documentation, parts, tools)
|
|
|
How often do you do an ERPAL inventory?
|
Yearly
|
|
|
What is another name for a common collector transistor configuration?
|
Emmiter follower
|
|
|
An SCR is usually used as an electronic ____________ in a cicuit.
|
Switch
|
|
|
What effect does adding capacitance in series with an antenna do?
|
Decreases the electrical length (increases resonant frequencies)
|
|
|
Beta is the ratio of collector to ________ current.
|
Base
|
|
|
What transistor configuration has the best power gain?
|
Common Emmiter
|
|
|
What is the advantage of a MOSFET?
|
High input impedance
|
|
|
_________ particles have a short range, dissipate their energy quickly, and have a very strong ionizing power. These particles have weak penetrating power and are easily stopped by a thin sheet of paper.
|
Alpha
|
|
|
____ ____ have strong ionizing power and moderate penetrating power. It can penetrate shields 100 times as thick as that required to stop alpha particles.
|
Beta rays
|
|
|
______ ______ are similar to x-rays and are more penetrating than either alpha or beta particles and can be detected after passing through as much as 2 inches of steel.
|
Gamma rays
|
|
|
The best way to identify arcing in the topside structures is to check them __________.
|
At nightime
|
|
|
Hot spots in waveguides are most often caused by__________.
|
Foriegn material
|
|
|
What can cause a receiver to have buzzing at regular intervals?
|
PRF overload
|
|
|
Interference, arcing, or corona in rigging or mast is most often
caused by? |
High frequency
|
|
|
On a power cord, which lead is ground?
|
The green wire
|
|
|
What is the most common source of EMI?
|
Motors and generators
|
|
|
A common emitter has high _________ gain?
|
Power
|
|
|
When inspecting a PCB for cold solder joints, what do you look for?
|
Crystalline appearance
|
|
|
If you have a transmitter with a 25 watt output and an antenna with 6 dB of gain, what is your effective radiated power?
|
100 watts
|
|
|
If your transmitters input is 50 watts and has a output of 100 watts, how much gain does the transmitter provide?
|
3dB
|
|
|
An end fed 1/2 wave dipole voltage is highest where?
|
At both ends
|
|
|
What is the phase relationship between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit?
|
Thy are in phase
|
|
|
RF transmission cables must be seperated from other cables by how much?
|
18"
|
|
|
Frequencies of _________ are most likely to cause induced voltages in davits, cranes, etc.
|
2-30 MHZ
|
|
|
A receiver has a steady crackling noise, what is the most likely cause?
|
Lightning and distant thunderstorms
|
|
|
A 100% modulated AM signal has _________ % of total power in each sideband.
|
33%
|
|
|
A perfect square wave contains?
|
Odd harmonics
|
|
|
In a linear device, the output would be an _________ __________ of the input .
|
Exact replica
|
|
|
Induced RF current in a linear junction __________ an undistorted signal and no others.
|
Reradiates
|
|
|
In order to eliminate interference, the entire topside structure of metal ships will have to be made a single_________ _________.
|
Conducting structure
|
|
|
A rapid change in air temperature at a feirly low altitude creates, in effect, a huge waveguide that tends to propagate the radar energy along the curvature of the earth. This is called_________.
|
Ducting
|
|
|
What are the advantages of honeycomb-type ventillation panels?
|
Higher attenuation, allow more air to flow, and cannot be damaged as easily as mesh screen
|
|
|
Single-sideband transmitters use___________ __________ for developing power.
|
Linear amplifiers
|
|
|
Linear power amplifiers are limited by their __________ __________ handling capability.
|
Peak power
|
|
|
To reduce the effects of EMI when using a receiver, select the ________ __________ that passes the desired signals.
|
Narrowest bandwidth
|
|
|
What method would you use to check a waveguide?
|
VSWR measurement
|
|
|
What would you use when connecting 2 pieces of waveguide?
|
RF shield
|
|
|
When bonding equipment that is removeable, how do you do it?
|
Weld one side, bolt the other
|
|
|
When should you meg antennas?
|
Damp weather
|
|
|
When a humidity detecting crystal turns this color, you should change the dessicant.
|
Pink
|
|
|
What does an SWR of 1:1 indicate about your antenna circuit?
|
It is tuned
|
|
|
You have just replaced an antenna connector. How long until you must weatherproof it?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
Multicouplers are designed to permit several transmitters to operate simultaneously with a __________.
|
Common antenna
|
|
|
Insulators should be cleaned how often?
|
Weekly
|
|
|
Susceptible cables should be segregated at least _________ _______ from passive cables.
|
2 inches
|
|
|
A good antenna reading on megger will be at least ?
|
200 Megaohms
|
|
|
What is the effective range of VHF?
|
Line of sight
|
|
|
How does a shipboard wire antenna differ from a shore wire antenna?
|
Larger diameter
|
|
|
To electrically shorten an antenna you would?
|
Add capacitance in series
|
|
|
A half wave dipole is also known as a __________ antenna?
|
Hertz
|
|
|
What is the radiation pattern of a vertical half wave dipole?
|
Circular and perpendicular to the dipole
|
|
|
What happens to the resonant frequency if inductance is added to the antenna circuit?
|
It decreases
|
|
|
Generally, vertically polarized antennas are __________ fed.
|
End
|
|
|
Vertically polarized antennas create ________ directional radiation patterns.
|
Omni
|
|
|
Generally, horizontally polarized antennas create _________ directional radiation patterns.
|
Bi
|
|
|
What is the effect of salt water on an antenna?
|
Shorts to ground
|
|
|
What causes standing waves in a resonant transmission line?
|
Power flowing back down the transmission line (VSWR)
|
|
|
How often do you meg antennas ashore?
|
Quarterly
|
|
|
How do you clean an air filter?
|
Mild soap and water
|
|
|
What is the vertical input to an o'scope?
|
Common collector for impedence matching
|
|
|
The safety harness must be constructed of ____________ material?
|
nylon web
|
|
|
Shorting probes shall be rated for _________ volts?
|
25,000
|
|
|
Rubber gloves must have a protection rating of _________ Vac?
|
5,000 (3,000 VDC)
|
|
|
Rubber gloves should be frequently checked visually for cracks, cuts, blisters, chemical damage, etc. How else should you check rubber gloves?
|
By trapping air inside the glove and squeezing the glove to check for pin-hole air leaks
|
|
|
Smoke pipe gases warning signs should be posted where?
|
Shall be displayed at the bottom and top of access ladders to electronic equipment in the way of smoke pipe gases
|
|
|
What manual shall be referred to for proper lettering and color markings used with electronic and electrical equipment?
|
COMDTINST M10360.3 Coatings and color manual
|
|
|
What is the first thing that must be done prior to going aloft?
|
Get permission from the OOD
|
|
|
What is the common practice to get permission from the OOD?
|
Route a "Man aloft chit"
|
|
|
Before performing any maintenance on any electronic equipment, what is the first thing that must be done?
|
Equipment power must be secured and tagged
|
|
|
When discharging a capacitor, how long should a shorting probe be held on the terminals?
|
30 Seconds
|
|
|
When measuring voltages, at what level must special procedures be utilized?
|
300 volts or more
|
|
|
For electronic workbenches, the ground bus shall be connected to the fault protection subsystem or _________ ground, but only at the earth electrode subsystem.
|
Green wire ground
|
|
|
For electronic workbenches, the impedance between neutral and fault protection subsystem when measured with a ground impedance tester, shall be less than _________ ohms
|
.5 Ohms
|
|
|
Electrical outlets and workbench wiring should be checked at least how often to assure proper wiring and grounding?
|
Quarterly
|
|
|
When rescuing a person who is in cotact with a live wire or circuit, what is the first thing you should do?
|
Secure power to the circuit
|
|
|
Immediately after removing the victim from the electric circuit, what should you do?
|
Apply mouth to mouth artificial respiration
|
|
|
What Coast Guard manual is the authorized instruction on cardio-pulmonary resuscitation?
|
COMDINST M6000.3 series
|
|
|
What manual will you find the cold weather safety precautions?
|
COMDINST M10550.25 Electronics manual
|
|
|
PCB/PCB- contaminated transformers and capacitors on hand as spares shall be inspected how often for signs of leakage?
|
Weekly
|
|
|
Explain the 3 methods of disposal for CRT's.
|
A. Break off the locating pin from it's base, and with a small screwdriver, break off the tip of the glass vacuum seal
B. Place the CRT in the box face down. The using a long metal rod, pierce through the cartonand side of the CRT. C. Submerge the CRT in water and crush it with a blunt instrument. |
|
|
How should water and acid be mixed?
|
Pour acid into water, never water into acid
|
|
|
As stated in in COMDINST M51000.29A, how often are Coast Guard units required to have a risk analysis inspection for toxic chemicals?
|
Yearly
|
|
|
Radiation from what type of antennas will cause biological injury to personnel who are subjected to prolonged exposure?
|
VHF, UHF, Radars
|
|
|
What is the maximum allowed exposure to RF radiation above the permissible exposure limit (PEL) before detectable damage to body tissue occurs?
|
6 minutes per hour
|
|
|
What is the permissible exposure limit for HF mini-loop and whip antennas?
|
12 foot radius
|
|
|
What manual will you find a list of radioactive electron tubes?
|
COMDINST M10550.25 Electronics Manual
|
|
|
All areas containing storage of radioactive material should be monitored how often?
|
Monthly or when new stock is placed into such areas
|
|
|
When breakage of an electron tube occurs, what is the first thing you should do?
|
Warn others and secure ventillation
|
|
|
If the airway seems obstructed after the first attempt to give rescue breaths to an unconscious victim, the rescuer should do what?
|
Reposition the head and attempt rescue breaths again
|
|
|
The method used for opening the airway is called?
|
Head tilt, chin lift
|
|
|
The presece of breathing in an unconcious victim can be determined by what?
|
Looking, listening, and feeling for air exchange
|
|
|
If breathing does not seem to be present after opening the airway, what do you do next?
|
Give 2 rescue breaths
|
|
|
To determine initially whether an adult victim has a pulse, the
rescuer should feel for the pulse at the _________. |
Cartoid artery in the neck
|
|
|
To perform chest compressions on an adult, one hand is placed on the top of the other with the heel of the lower hand pressing on what?
|
On the middle of the sternum
|
|
|
When performing external chest compressions on an adult , the sternum should be depressed how much?
|
1 1/2 - 2 inches
|
|
|
When inspecting electronic workbenche wiring, wiring must conform to what standard?
|
NEC
|
|
|
Can anyone be directed to climb a tower?
|
No, it must be a responsible voulunteer
|
|
|
What requirement must be met before climbing a tower?
|
Must be authorized in writing by a major field commander to climb towers equal to or greater than
|
|
|
On the first time you climb a tower greater than 100 feet (30 meters) in height, the climber must be accompanied by ____________.
|
A qualified Coast Guard military or civilian engineer
|
|
|
What device must a climber have in order to go up a tower?
|
A complete safety ladder climbing device
|
|
|
Who must be present at all times when a climber is on the tower?
|
Safety observer with a complete safety ladder climbing device
|
|
|
You are working on a tower when fog is present, and it obscures a portion of the tower where the work is to be done. What must you and the safety observer do in order to safely complete the job?
|
Both the climber and the observer must be equipped with a 2 way radio. Radio checks should be done every 5 minutes
|
|
|
What must be used to positively ground the tower?
|
A deadman stick
|
|
|
What should be attached on all tools and equipment on the tower to prevent accidental droppings?
|
A safety line
|
|
|
It is Coast Guard policy to conform to what standard with respect to ladders and safety climbing devices?
|
Occupational safety and Health administration (OSHA)
|
|
|
All towers over 20 feet in height shall be equipped with what?
|
A rigid rail safety climbing device
|
|
|
Where should the D-ring on the climbing belt be positioned when a lanyard is connected to it?
|
Should be positioned in the climber's back so that, in case of a fall, the body can freely bend at the waist without causing a back injury
|
|
|
What shall be installed to completely enclose the immediate area around the base of each transmitting antenna tower?
|
A permanent, single gated fence, constructed of non-conductive materials
|
|
|
"High Voltage" warning signs should be conspicuously placed where at a tower site?
|
On the outside face of each side of the fence and on the gate
|
|
|
Where perimeter fencing for an antenna field is not provided, and the public can gain unrestricted access to the guy anchors, they should be marked in one of 3 ways.
|
A. Place wooden posts painted in alternating yellow and black stripes. The posts should be 4x4 and extend 4 feet above the ground level. B. If the anchor concrete or steel is prominent and not liable to be covered with vegetation, these may be painted in alernating yellow and black stripes C. Retroreflective, brightly colored "reflective guy wire guards", may be installed on the lower portion of the guys
|
|
|
The currently approved safety harness consists of a parachute harness, a safety line with a _____________, and a working lanyard.
|
Dyna-break absorber
|
|
|
Non-conductive shoes meeting the requirements of ________ shall be worn when working on live electrical circuits of 30 volts or more.
|
ANSI Z41
|
|
|
Metal rings, watches, bracelets, metel framed eyewear or similar metal items shall not be worn within _________ feet of exposed energized circuits.
|
Four (4)
|
|
|
Portable power tools shall be tested how often?
|
Quaterly
|
|
|
To minimize fire hazards, circuit breaker disconnects at the power panel shall be rated at no more than _________ amps.
|
20
|
|
|
When measuring voltages from an ungrounded power source, you must?
|
Use an isolation transformer between the test instrument and the power source
|
|
|
If safety precautions found in the Electronics Manual conflict those contained in other publications you should?
|
Follow the Electonics Manual
|
|
|
Metal rings, watches, etc, shall not be worn within _______ FT of exposed energized circuits.
|
4 FT
|
|
|
Shoes with non-conductive qualities meeting the requirements of ANSI Z41 shall be worn when working on live electrical circuits of __________ volts or more.
|
30 volts
|
|
|
Exposure for more than __________ minutes to Radio Frequency Radiation (RFR) above the Permissible Exposure Limits (PEL) in any hour has been determined to be the maximum allowable time before detectable damage to bodily tissue occurs.
|
6 minutes
|
|
|
If you get acid in your eyes, you should flush with water for ____________ minutes.
|
15-20 minutes
|
|
|
What is the procedure for storing cables?
|
The ends of the cable shall be sealed against moisture absorption by using heat shrinkable rubber end caps
|
|
|
The minimum bend radius for flexible coaxial cables shall be how many times the cable diameter?
|
10 times
|
|
|
If the cable is subjected to repeated flexure, the minimum bend radius shall be what?
|
20 times the cables diameter
|
|
|
For multiconductor cables, what is the minimum insulation resistance value?
|
50 K ohms
|
|
|
What must be done to coaxial cables prior to installation and upon completion of installations?
|
Insulation resistance check with a 500 volt megger
|
|
|
If a coaxial cable does not meet specs due to moisture absorption, what corrective action shall be taken?
|
A length not greater than 4 feet shall be cut away from the ends and a new measurement of insulation shall be made. If this does not solve the problem but improvement is shown, then the moisture intrusion can be driven out by passing a current through the cable for 4 hours
|
|
|
What military publications shall be used in determining the correct coaxial cable for a specific installation?
|
MIL-HDK-216 and MIL-STD-242
|
|
|
What is the main difference between typical flexible and semirigid coaxial cables?
|
Flexible coaxial cable has a braided shield, and semirigid has a solid shield
|
|
|
Radar, radio transmitter antenna cables, and sonar transducer cables shall be seperated at least how many inches from all other cables except at the area where they enter the equipment?
|
18 inches
|
|
|
Where should cable tags be placed on interconnecting cables?
|
Shall be installed as close as possible at each point of termination and on both sides of decks and bulkheads
|
|
|
What shall be contained on connector destination tags?
|
Jack number to which the connector is attached, when cable connects to an antenna, the antenna number and type
|
|
|
What is the acceptable spacing between tie wraps on a cable run?
|
Not more than 2.5 times the bundles diameter. The maximum distance between tie wraps shall not exceed 10 inches
|
|
|
How often should weatherproofed connectors be inspected for signs of deterioration?
|
Monthly
|
|
|
Coaxial connectors exposed to weather, salt spray, moisture, and stack gases shall be weatherproffed within how many hours after assembly?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
Explain how bundles should be routed over a hinge.
|
The cable run must be routed a great distance as possible in a direction parallel and close to the hinge.
|
|
|
Shields shall not be stripped off conductors where they enter an enclosure, but shall remian on the conductor's to within how many inches of the conductors termination point?
|
3 inches
|
|
|
Work benches of a wood construction are only acceptable for _________ units.
|
Shore
|
|
|
Lighting in work bench areas shall be no less than ______ foot candles.
|
100
|
|
|
Electronics training should be scheduled for how many hours per week?
|
1 (ONE)
|
|
|
Where do you connect the feedline of a longwire antenna?
|
At the center
|
|
|
What is the best way to prevent intermodulation between transmitters and receivers?
|
Use multi-couplers
|
|
|
To replace a flatpack IC, you should?
|
Cut all the legs, then desolder
|
|
|
If you are supposed to install a piece of equipment on a 110' and the equipment cannot be installed in the exact location as the shipalt requires, you may still install the equipment if________________.
|
it can be installed within 4 FT of the specified location
|
|
|
Elements whose atoms contain _________ __________ electrons are classified as semiconductors.
|
Four valence
|
|
|
Examples of such elements are _________ and __________ .
|
Germanium and Silicon
|
|
|
When a _____________ impurity is added to a semiconductor material, "N" type material is formed.
|
Pentavalent
|
|
|
When _________ impurity is added, "P" type material is formed.
|
Trivalent
|
|
|
The potential barrier of a semiconductor is also called __________.
|
Depletion region
|
|
|
A semiconductor permits current flow from the _________ to __________.
|
Cathode to anode
|
|
|
The value of reverse voltage at which the structure of a semiconductor breaksdown is called the _________ or ____________ voltage.
|
Avalanche or breakdown
|
|
|
A transistor is a device which uses a small change in _____________ to produce a large change in voltage, current, or power.
|
Current
|
|
|
A transistor may function as an _________ or__________ __________.
|
Amplifier or electronic switch
|
|
|
In the _________ transistor, current will flow from the emitter, through the very thin base, and through the collector base junction to the collector.
|
NPN
|
|
|
In the _________ transistor, the majority of current will flow from the collector, through the base to the emitter.
|
PNP
|
|
|
Which amplifier operates at 360 degrees of input, has minimum distortion, low output and medium efficiency?
|
Class A
|
|
|
Which amplifier operates at 180 degrees of the input, has moderate distortion, medium output and medium efficiency?
|
Class B
|
|
|
Which amplifier operates more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees ?
|
Class AB
|
|
|
Which amplifier is biased beyond cutoff (less than 180 degrees), and has high distortion, high output and high efficiency?
|
Class C
|
|
|
The common emitter transistor amplifier has an output that has a ______________.
|
180 degree phase shift
|
|
|
When a transistor is called common (emmiter, collector, base), it means that leg is the one with the _________ on it.
|
Ground
|
|
|
The common collector transistor amplifier is also called the __________ __________.
|
Emitter follower
|
|
|
A __________ type of transistor operates with about .2 volts of forward bias.
|
Germanium
|
|
|
A __________ type transistor operates with about .7 volts forward bias.
|
Silicon
|
|
|
A transistor which develops a partial short between emitter and collector is commonly called a _________ _________.
|
Leaky transistor
|
|
|
Only a _________ transistor with its excellent stability, can be operated safely without a protective emitter resistor.
|
Silicon
|
|
|
____________ transistors have almost no leakage.
|
Silicon
|
|
|
The field effect transistors (FET) are also called ____________.
|
Unipolar
|
|
|
NPN and PNP transistors are called ____________.
|
Bipolar
|
|
|
The ____________ and _____________ terminals on a FET may be interchanged .
|
Source and Drain
|
|
|
A UJT transistor produces a _________ waveform.
|
Sawtooth
|
|
|
One simple way to determine if an IC is defective is to test it for excessive __________ by touching it.
|
Heat
|
|
|
When measuring the level of an oscillator circuit, you should use an electronic voltmeter instead of a multimeter because?
|
A multimeter may load down the circuit
|
|
|
If the baseline on a TDR increases sharply?
|
An open in the cable
|
|
|
If there is no start pulse on the TDR display?
|
Improper setup
|
|
|
When you need to look at a waveform for a long time on channel 1 on your o'scope?
|
Put trigger in auto
|
|
|
Formula for RMS?
|
Peak voltage times .707
|
|
|
_________ is an optical phenomenon that occurs when the viewer's eye is not in line with 2 items being viewed.
|
Parallax
|
|
|
The __________ switch selects the origin of the signal from which triggering is derived.
|
Source
|
|
|
_________ selects the specific amplitude point on the waveform at which the time window is to begin.
|
Level
|
|
|
________ switch determines how triggering is accomplished.
|
Mode
|
|
|
_________-__________ means that only one time window is displayed.
|
Single-sweep
|
|
|
_________ ________ switch is used to determine how the trigger signal is connected to the triggering section of the o-scope.
|
Trigger coupling
|
|
|
__________ ________ is an electrical adjustment the matches the probe to the o-scope to ensure uniform signal-handling capabilities.
|
Probe compensation
|
|
|
To alleviate signal errors, use an additional lead such as the ________ ________ attached to the signal probe.
|
Ground lead
|
|
|
The _________ __________ in the o-scope is the main source of loading the signal source and distorting the signal.
|
Vertical section
|
|
|
_________ ________ means that there are 2 two independent signal-input connectors in the vertical section.
|
Dual trace
|
|
|
The octopus is used mainly for _____ -_______ troubleshooting.
|
In-circuit
|
|
|
The octopus primarily tests all components for ________ and ________.
|
Shorts and opens
|
|
|
_________ is the mode of operation for dual-trace o-scopes in which the display is switched between the 2 channels at some fixed rate.
|
Chop
|
|
|
_________ _________ is a sweep which is started after a defined interval of delay following a triggered pulse; a function of dual-time-base o-scope.
|
Delayed sweep
|
|
|
_________ is the signal that initiates the sweep on an o-scope and determines the begining point of a trace.
|
Trigger
|
|
|
If you wanted to determine the bandwidth of a transformer or any other device, you could use a signal generator and a ____________.
|
Spectrum analyzer
|
|
|
What is first aid?
|
First aid is the emergency treatment given to the sick or injured until trained medical or surgical care can be obtained
|
|
|
What is the purpose of first aid?
|
To save lives, to prevent
further injury or unfavorable progression and to preserve vitality and resistance to infection |
|
|
What is done during the initial survey?
|
All casualties are quickly examined for life threatening conditions using the ABC's of first aid. (A=airway, B=Breathing, C=circulation)
|
|
|
What type of bleeding comes from a cut or small abrasion?
|
Capillary bleedin
|
|
|
What are some of the causes of asphyxia?
|
Some of the causes are- Drowning, suffocation, electrocution, poison gas, heart attack, and traumatic injuries
|
|
|
What is the opening through which the laryngetomee breathes?
|
Stoma
|
|
|
Why is the secondary survey important?
|
Because it is during this examination that conditions which are not immediately life threatening are recognized and treated
|
|
|
What is the term for the sorting of the victims?
|
Triage
|
|
|
What color is arterial bleeding?
|
Bright red
|
|
|
What color is veous bleeding?
|
Dark red
|
|
|
What is the first method used to control bleeding?
|
Direct pressure
|
|
|
How do you position an injured person?
|
Keep victim in the position found until the extent of injuries is determined. After thorough examination of the victim and immobilization of suspected fractures/dislocations, position victim lying down unless otherwise indicated. The type of injury must always be considered when postioning the victim
|
|
|
When should a victim be moved?
|
Do not move the victim until the extent of all injurys have been determined and all possible fractures/dislocations have been immobilized
|
|
|
How do you determine pulmonary arrest?
|
Look, listen, and feel to verify the absence of breathing
|
|
|
What is the difference between clinical and biological death?
|
clinical death occurs when breathing and heartbeat stop; however, irreversible brain damage has not occured. Biological death occurs when there is irreversible brain damage
|
|
|
What is the time factor before irreversible brain damage occurs?
|
Irreversible brain damage (biological death) occurs between 4 to 6 minutes after breathing stops
|
|
|
What techniques can be used to establish an airway?
|
Hyperextend the victim's neck, lift the victim's jaw upward so that it is forward, finger probe, back blows, and manual thrusts
|
|
|
What is the method of choice for artificial respiration?
|
Mouth to mouth
|
|
|
How do you administer mouth to mouth resuscitaion to an adult, small child, or infant?
|
Initially give 4 quick breaths without interruption, repeat 12 to 14 times a minute for adults, or 18 to 20 times per minute for infants and small children
|
|
|
What type of artificial respiration is given to laryngectomees?
|
Mouth to stoma
|
|
|
What is cardiac arrest?
|
Cardiac arrest ia any condition is any condition in which the circulation is either absent or inadequate to sustain life
|
|
|
What is the rate of external cardiac compression for an adult victim?
|
Adults- 80 to 100 times per minute, Children- 100 times per minute
|
|
|
what 2 rescue techniques are incorporated into cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
|
Artificial respiration and external cardiac compression
|
|
|
What is the xiphoid process and why should it be avoided during external cardiac compression?
|
It is the lower tip of the breastbone. It is very weak and lies over the liver. Compressio here might lead to lacerating the liver and severe internal hemorrhage
|
|
|
What is the ratio for ventilation to compressions for one first aider?
|
15 compressions for every 2 deep lung inflations
|
|
|
What is the ratio of ventilation to compressions for more than one first aider?
|
5 compressions for every 1 deep lung inflation
|
|
|
What is shock?
|
A condition in which the circulation of the blood
is seriously disturbed |
|
|
What is the general appearance of a shock victim?
|
Weak, rapid, thread pulse, eyes may be glassy or lackluster, pupils may be dilated
|
|
|
What are the 7 major types of shock?
|
Oligemic or hemorrhagic shock, respitory shock, cardiogenic shock, neurogenic shock, septic shock, and anaphylactic shock
|
|
|
What is the position of choice for a shock victim?
|
Flat on back with feet elevated about 12 inches higher than the head, unless contradicted by other injuries
|
|
|
What is Oligemic shock?
|
Oligemic (hemorrhagic) shock is disturbance of blood circulation caused by the loss of blood or body fluids
|
|
|
What are the general types of wounds?
|
Abrasion, laceration, puncture, incision, mutilating, evisceration, enucleation, and deep burn
|
|
|
When should a tourniquet be used?
|
Only for the severe, lifethreatening bleeding that cannot be controlled by other means
|
|
|
What indication should be made after a tourniquet is used?
|
Mark a "T" on the victim's forehead with the time the tourniquet was applied. Also, attach a note stating the location and time it was applied to the victim's clothing
|
|
|
When should a tourniquet be loosened once it is applied?
|
Only when advised to do so by a medical doctor
|
|
|
What should be the width of material used as a tourniquet?
|
About 2 inches wide
|
|
|
What is the most commonly encountered head wound?
|
Concussion
|
|
|
Why should all head injuries be referred to medical personnel?
|
They are all potentially dangerous because of the possibility of damage to the brain
|
|
|
What should be done with objects impaled in the eye?
|
Should be immobilized with a thick gauze dressing placed around its base or by covering it with a cup or cone to prevent accidental movement
|
|
|
What is the immediate treatment for chemical burns of the eye?
|
Throroghly flush the eyes with clean water
|
|
|
What is the rule of nines concerning burns?
|
It's a formula used to describe the percentage of each area on the body involved in a burn. Back-18%, front-18%, arms and head-9%, legs-18%, and groin-1%
|
|
|
Where should you place a tourniquet if a wound is in a joint area?
|
Just above the joint
|
|
|
What 4 factors must be considered when determining the severity of a burn?
|
Age of victim, location of the burn, percentage of burn, and depth or degree of burn
|
|
|
Why are burns of the face and neck especially dangerous?
|
Because of the possibility of respitory burns
|
|
|
As a guideline, a burn of morethan what percentage of body surface endangers life?
|
20%
|
|
|
How are burns usually classified?
|
Depth or degree of skin damage usually classifies burns
|
|
|
Define dressing (compresses)?
|
A dressing (compress) is sterile material used directly over the wound
|
|
|
Define bandages?
|
Any material used to hold a dressing in place
|
|
|
How large should a dressing be?
|
Large enough to cover the entire wound and to extend at least 1 inch in every direction beyond the wound edges
|
|
|
What are the 3 types of banding material?
|
Roller bandages, triangular bandages, and adhesive tape
|
|
|
Why should you not give Morphine to casualties with respitory difficulties?
|
It is a severe respitory depressant and therefore should not be given to casualties with respitory dificulties
|
|
|
What is a cravat bandage?
|
A cravat bandage is a triangular bandage that has been folded. It is very useful in controlling bleeding from wounds of the scalp or forehead
|
|
|
What is the adult dose of morphine?
|
8-16 milligrams
|
|
|
Why should you not give Morphine to casualties who can walk?
|
It causes considerable mental confusion and interferes with judgement.
|
|
|
In general, how many injections may be given by non-medical personnel?
|
Do not give more than 2 injections, not less than 4 hours apart
|
|
|
Where is the best place to inject Morphine?
|
he outer surface of the upper arm
|
|
|
What should be written on the forehead of a casualty who has received Morphine?
|
The letter "M"
|
|
|
What should be done with the empty Morphine syrette or tubex?
|
Should be attached to the victim's shirt collar or other conspicuous place
|
|
|
What is a fractue?
|
A break in the continuity of the bone
|
|
|
What are the five classifications of fractures?
|
Closed (simple), open (compound), greenstick, comminuted and impacted
|
|
|
What is the greatest danger with a fractured jaw?
|
Obstruction of the airway
|
|
|
Should Morphine be given to a victim with a skull fracture? What about a jaw fracture?
|
No, Mrphine should not be given to victims with skull fractures or jaw fractures
|
|
|
What is a coaptation splint?
|
It is used solely for immobilization and support
|
|
|
What is a traction splint?
|
It not only immobilizes but also affords a means of applying support, traction, extention, and counter extention
|
|
|
Why should fingers and toes be left exposed after splinting?
|
So that circulation in the extrmity can be observed
|
|
|
How far should a splint be extended beyond the injury site?
|
It must be long enough to immobilize the joint above and the joint below the fracture site
|
|
|
Why should splints be well padded?
|
For the victim's comfort and to prevent pressure injury and resulting in laceration of the parts
|
|
|
What should the first aider's primary concern with an unconcious victim?
|
Keep the victim's airway open and unobstructed
|
|
|
What should you do to a severelt angulated fracture before splinting it?
|
Nothing
|
|
|
How should joint fractures be splinted?
|
Splint them in the position found
|
|
|
How tightly should a splint be applied?
|
Should be tight enough to serve the purpose of immobilization, but not enough to cut off circulation
|
|
|
What is unconsciousness? Fainting? Coma? Stupor?
|
Unconciousness is a state in which the victim is completely unaware of what is going on around them. Fainting is brief unconciousness. Coma is prolonged, deep unconciousness. Stupor is a state of near unconciousness
|
|
|
What type of stretcher should be used to transport a victim through a hatch or from an engine room?
|
A Neil-Robertson stretcher should be used
|
|
|
Explain the drag carry.
|
Tie victim's wrists together and place them around your neck, raise yourself at the shoulders and carry
|
|
|
The interval between guns in a salute is normally __________ seconds.
a. 5 b. 3 c. 9 d. 7 |
a. 5
|
|
|
Normally, a gun salute would not be fired between__________.
a. SS and SR, after 0800, or on Sundays b. SR and SS, before 0800, or on Sundays c. SS and SR, after 0800, or on Saturdays d. SSand SR, before 0800, or on Sundays |
d. SSand SR, before 0800, or on Sundays
|
|
|
If obligated to fire a gun salute when entering a foreign port of a country recognized by the U.S., a ship of the CG fires a ________ gun salute.
a. 17 b. 21 c. 15 d. 19 |
b. 21
|
|
|
What does a band play for the evening colors ceremony?
a. Taps b. The Star Spangled Banner c. Retreat d. To the Colors |
b. The Star Spangled Banner
|
|
|
A gun salute is required at 0800, the first gun of the salute will be fired immediately__________.
a. Upon the last note of the National Anthem b. Before "prep" is broken for morning colors c. Before morning colors d. Upon the first note of the National Anthem |
a. Upon the last note of the National Anthem
|
|
|
During the firing of a gun salute, a group of persons in uniform standing on the fantail, but not in the ceremonial party, should stand at ________.
a. Attention b. Attention, giving the hand salute c. erase d. parade rest |
b. Attention, giving the hand salute
|
|
|
If 2 or more officials, each entitled to honors, arrive at different times, who is entitled to the honors?
a. None b. Both c. Only the first to arrive d. Only the Senior |
b. both
|
|
|
When the President of the United States visits a Coast Guard ship, the flag is displayed from the _________.
a. Foretruck b. Jackstaff c. Main truck d. Flagstaff |
c. Main truck
|
|
|
Which flag is flown from the yardarm of a ship to indicate that a general courts-martial or court of inquiry is in session?
a. Echo flag b. Bravo flag c. Golf flag d. Union flag |
d. Union flag
|
|
|
A boat should display the national ensign whenever it is _________.
a. Taking personnel ashore after sunset b. Decomissioned c. Going alongside a foreign vessel d. In a U.S. port |
c. Going alongside a foreign vessel
|
|
|
When an officer or official is entitled to an 11 gun salute or more, he/she shall be invited to ____________.
a. Dismiss the honors b. Inspect the guard c. Inspect the ship's company d. Command the guard |
b. Inspect the guard
|
|
|
On C.G. day, all C.G. cutters not underway should_________.
a. Dress ship b. Display the rainbow of colors c. full dress ship d. carry out normal routine |
c. full dress ship
|
|
|
A ball displayed atop a flagstaff in a small boat indicates the
personal boat of a _________. a. Vice Admiral b. Captain c. Commander d. Fleet Admiral |
b. Captain
|
|
|
Coast Guard day is on what date?
a. 2 Aug b. 4 Aug c. 8 Aug d. 6 Aug |
b. 4 Aug
|
|
|
What are the 2 dates that every ship in the C.G., not underway, Full Dress Ship?
a. 4th of July and Lincoln's birthday b. Washington's birthday and the 4th of July c. 4th of July and Memorial day d. Wahington's birthday and Memorial day |
b. Washington's birthday and the 4th of July
|
|
|
16. Which of the CG cutters would not fly the comission pennant?
a. A cutter in "comission active" status b. A cutter in "comission special" status c. A cutter whose OINC is a BMCM d. A cutter whose CO is a CWO2 Bosn |
c. A cutter whose OINC is a BMCM
|
|
|
The only flag that is flown on the same halyard above the national ensign is the _________.
a. Command Pennant b. President's flag c. Church pennant/Jewish worship flag d. comission pennant |
c. Church pennant/Jewish worship flag
|
|
|
When the 4th of july falls on a Sunday, the ceremonies ________-.
a. Will be held Monday b. Will be held on Sunday c. Will not be held d. Will be held on the Saturday before |
a. Will be held Monday
|
|
|
When are E-5, E-3, E-2, and E-1's marked?
a. Oct and Apr b. Nov and May c. Sept and March d. May |
a. Oct and Apr
|
|
|
What article of the UCMJ is the General Article?
a. Art 138 b. Art 113 c. Art 115 d. Art 134 |
d. Art 134
|
|
|
A summary court martial consists of __________.
a. Capt and above b. One enlisted c. One officer d. Two enlisted personnel |
?
|
|
|
A General Court martial has a military judge and any number of members, but not less than _________.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 4 |
c. 5
|
|
|
What is the maximum punishment that an OIC can award?
a. Correctional custody b. Letter of admonition/repremand c. Reduction to next inferior pay grade d. 14 days extra duty and 14 days restriction and 3 days pay/allowances |
d. 14 days extra duty and 14 days restriction and 3 days pay/allowances
|
|
|
What year did the Coast Guard transfer from the Treasury Department to the Department of Transportation?
a. 1967 b. 1960 c. 1950 d. 1970 |
a. 1967
|
|
|
When are E-7 and E-4 marked?
a. Nov and May b. Oct and April c. May d. Sept and Mar |
d. Sept and Mar
|
|
|
What year did the Revenue Cutter Service and Lifesaving Service merge to form the U.S. Coast Guard?
a. 1915 b. 1925 c. 1930 d. 1920 |
a. 1915
|
|
|
The first lighthouse built in the U.S. was________.
a. Boston lighthouse b. French Frigate Shoals Lighthouse c. Diamond Shoals Lighthouse d. Cape Hatteras Lighthouse |
a. Boston lighthouse
|
|
|
The lighthouse service joined the Coast Guard in _______.
a. 1939 b. 1915 c. 1910 d. 1920 |
a. 1939
|
|
|
A major in the Airforce is what corresponding rank in the C.G.?
a. CDR b. CAPT c. LCDR d. LT |
c. LCDR
|
|
|
What article requires that certain articles of the UCMJ, which went into effect 31May1951, be explained during certain times of a members career?
a. Art 115 b. Art 134 c. Art 137 d. Art 15 |
c. Art 137
|
|
|
When manning the rail you hear 3 blasts on the ship's horn, what would that indicate to you?
a. man overboard b. Carry on c. General quarters d. Salute |
b. Carry on
|
|
|
Every commissioned, warrant and petty oficer in the C.G. is granted the authority to enforce certain boarding laws by __________.
a. Part 99 FCC b. CFR 49 c. 14 USC 89 d. CFR 14 |
c. 14 USC 89
|
|
|
Emergency leave for enlisted personnel is limited to _________ days at any one time.
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 15 |
b. 60
|
|
|
How many days cumulative leave may a CO authorize for any one illness or injury?
a. 60 b. 90 c. 15 d. 30 |
d. 30
|
|
|
It is the responsibilty of each officer granting leave to ensure that personnel taking leave have ____________.
a. Sufficient funds for travel b. Correct phone number c. Correct leave address d. none of the above |
a. Sufficient funds for travel
|
|
|
Why should night service be authorized?
a. Whenever the 1st LT wants night service b. When suspect might be alerted to the upcoming search c. Evidence may be transferred, sold, or destroyed d. Both b and c |
d. Both b and c
|
|
|
WHICH WAR RESULTED IN THE BIRTH OF THE CODE OF CONDUCT?
A. WW2 B. KOREAN CONFLICT C. VIETNAM D. WW1 |
B. KOREAN CONFLICT
|
|
|
IF YOU ARE UNABLE TO USE YOUR RIGHT ARM TO SALUTE, WHAT IS A PERSON TO DO?
A. NONE OF THE BELOW B. STAND AT ATTENTION C. TURN AND WALK AWAY D. SALUTE WITH LEFT ARM |
D. SALUTE WITH LEFT ARM
|
|
|
WHEN WOULD HAIL TO THE CHIEF BE PLAYED?
A. FOR THE V.P. B. FOR CHANGE OF COMMAND C. FOR THE COMMANDANT D. FOR THE PRESIDENT |
D. FOR THE PRESIDENT
|
|
|
IF YOU ARE A POW, YOU MAY REVEAL YOUR NAME, RANK, SSN, AND ______.
A. UNIT ATTACHED TO B. HOME ADDRESS C. DATE OF BIRTH D. CO'S NAME |
C. DATE OF BIRTH
|
|
|
HOW WOULD YOU ADDRESS THE COMMANDANT OF THE C.G. IF HE ENTERED YOUR
SPACE IN THE MORNING? A. GOOD MORNING ADMIRAL (NAME) B. GOOD MORNING ADMIRAL C. HOW YA DOING CAP'N D. GOOD MORNING COMMANDANT |
B. GOOD MORNING ADMIRAL
|
|
|
WHAT UNIFORM ARE YOU NOT TO WEAR RIBBONS WITH?
A. TROPS B. ALPHAS C. WHITES D. BRAVOS |
B. ALPHAS
|
|
|
A FIRST LT IN THE ARMY IS THE SAME AS A ________ IN THE C.G.
A. CAPTAIN B. LT COMMANDER C. LTJG D. ENSIGN |
C. LTJG
|
|
|
WHAT AWARD HAS THE HIGHEST PRECEDENCE?
A. PISTOL B. RIFLE C. SEA DUTY D. GOOD CONDUCT |
D. GOOD CONDUCT
|
|
|
WHEN WALKING WITH AN OFFICER, WHERE SHOULD YOU BE?
A. RIGHT SIDE, ONE PACE BACK B. RIGHT SIDE, SAME PACE C. LEFT SIDE, SAME PACE D. LEFT SIDE, ONE PACE BACK |
D. LEFT SIDE, ONE PACE BACK
|
|
|
WHAT IS THE BEST METHOD TO STOP BLEEDING?
A. BANDAGES B. DIRECT PRESSURE C. CAUTERIZING THE WOUND D. TOURNIQUET |
B. DIRECT PRESSURE
|
|
|
IN WHAT YEAR DID THE C.G. TRANSFER TO THE DOT?
A. 1967 B. 1956 C. 1918 D. 1976 |
A. 1967
|
|
|
WHEN LEAVING A VESSEL, WHAT IS THE PROPER PROCEDURE FOR DEPARTING?
A. REQUEST DEPARTURE, SALUTE OOD, THEN SALUTE NATIONAL ENSIGN B. SALUTE ENSIGN, REQUEST DEPARTURE, THEN SALUTE OOD C. SALUTE OOD, REQUEST DEPARTURE, THEN SALUTE NATIONAL ENSIGN D. DON'T SALUTE OOD, SALUTE NATIONAL ENSIGN, AND LEAVE |
C. SALUTE OOD, REQUEST DEPARTURE, THEN SALUTE NATIONAL ENSIGN
|
|
|
HOW MANY STAR(S) DOES A VICE-ADMIRAL HAVE?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 |
B. 3
|
|
|
HOW MANY COMPRESSIONS DO YOU GIVE AN ADULT WHEN HIS HEART HAS STOPPED?
A. 21 PER MIN B. 12 PER MIN C. 15 PER MIN D. 5 PER MIN |
B. 12 PER MIN
|
|
|
TO ESTIMATE HOW MUCH OF THE BODY'S SURFACE HAS BEEN BURNED, YOU SHOULD USE THE RULE OF __________.
A. FIVES B. EIGHTEENS C. TENS D. NINES |
D. NINES
|
|
|
THE NOISE LIMIT FOR UNPROTECTED PERSONNEL AT C.G. INSTALLATIONS IS ____________ DECIBELS.
A. 80 B. 90 C. 95 D. 85 |
D. 85
|
|
|
BECAUSE INJURED PARTS ARE LIKELY TO SWELL, SPLINTS AND BANDAGES SHOULD BE CHECKED FOR RESTRICTED CIRCULATION EVERY_________.
A. 10 MINUTES B. 20 MIN C. 30 MIN D. 40 MIN |
C. 30 MIN
|
|
|
A TEMPORARY ID CARD _________-.
A. IS NOT LAMINATED AND CONTAINS NO PHOTOGRAPH B. IS LAMINATED C. CONTAINS A PHOTOGRAPH D. NONE OF THE ABOVE |
A. IS NOT LAMINATED AND CONTAINS NO PHOTOGRAPH
|
|
|
A SPECIAL COURTS-MARTIAL HAS JURISDICTION OVER__________.
A. BOTH OFFICERS AND ENLISTED B. ENLISTED ONLY C. OFFICERS ONLY D. NONE OF THE ABOVE |
A. BOTH OFFICERS AND ENLISTED
|
|
|
A SPECIAL COURTS-MARTIAL MAY NOT AWARD THE PUNISHMENT OF A DISHONORABLE DISCHARGE.
A. TRUE B. FALSE |
A. true
|
|
|
HOW MANY ORDERS COMPRISE THE 'GENERAL ORDERS'?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 11 D. 9 |
C. 11
|
|
|
A SUMMARY COURTS-MARTIAL IS COMPOSED OF _________-
A. ONE OFFICER B. THREE OFFICERS C. THREE OFFICERS AND TWO ENLISTED D. NONE OF THE ABOVE |
A. ONE OFFICER
|
|
|
THE ORDER OF PRECEDENCE IN WEARING CG RIBBONS IS:
A. PISTOL, RIFLE, GOOD CONDUCT B. RIFLE, PISTOL, GOOD CONDUCT C. GOOD CONDUCT, PISTOL RIFLE D. GOOD CONDUCT, RIFLE, PISTOL |
D. GOOD CONDUCT, RIFLE, PISTOL
|
|
|
THE RANK OF CAPTAIN IN THE ARMY CORRESPONDS TO THE RANK OF ____________ IN THE C.G.
A. LT B. CAPT C. CMDR D. LTJG |
A. LT
|
|
|
WHEN SWIMMING IN COLD WATER , BODY MOVEMENT WILL________.
A. INCREASE THR RATE OF BODY HEAT AND REDUCE YOUR CHANCES OF SURVIVAL B. INCREASE THE RATE OF BODY HEAT AND INCREASE YOUR CHANCES OF SURVIVAL C. INCREASE THE RATE OF BODY HEAT AND HAVE NO EFFECT ON YOUR CHANCE OF SURVIVAL D. NONE OF THE ABOVE |
A. INCREASE THR RATE OF BODY HEAT AND REDUCE YOUR CHANCES OF SURVIVAL
|
|
|
A BURN IS CLASSIFIED AS SECOND DEGREE IF ____________.
A. THE SKIN IS REDDEND B. CHARRING OCCURS C. THE SKIN IS DESTROYED D. BLISTERS ARE PRESENT |
D. BLISTERS ARE PRESENT
|
|
|
THE BASIC SHOCK POSITION SHOULD NOT BE USED IF THE VICTIM HAS_________.
A. ELECTRIC SHOCK B. HEAD INJURY C. FRACTURES D. INTERNAL INJURIES |
B. HEAD INJURY
|
|
|
WHEN 1 RESCUER IS PERFORMING CPR, THE RATE OF COMPRESSIONS TO VENTILLATIONS SHOULD BE____________.
A. 5 TO 5 B. 15 TO 2 C. 15 TO 5 D. 5 TO 2 |
B. 15 TO 2
|
|
|
FOR WHAT REASON MAY YOU REMOVE A DRESSING THAT HAS BEEN APPLIED TO CONTROL HEMORRHAGING?
A. TO CLEAN THE WOUND B. NEVER C. NEW DRESSING |
B. NEVER
|
|
|
WHEN ADMINISTERING FIRST AID, WHCH CONDITION SHOULD BE TREATED FIRST?
A. PREVENT INFECTION B. STOP BLEEDING C. PREVENT SHOCK D. MAINTAIN BREATHING |
D. MAINTAIN BREATHING
|
|
|
WHEN TRANSPORTING A VICTIM BY LITTER, THE INJURED PERSON SHOULD ALWAYS BE CARRIED ________ FIRST.
A. HEAD B. FEET |
B. FEET
|
|
|
WHEN PERFORMING CPR ON AN INFANT, HOW FAR IS THE STERNUM DEPRESSED?
A. NOT AT ALL B. 1 TO 2 INCHES C. 1/2 TO 1 INCH D. 1 1/2 TO 2 INCHES |
C. 1/2 TO 1 INCH
|
|
|
A BREAK IN A BONE THAT DOES NOT PIERCE THE SKIN IS CALLED A _______- FRACTURE.
A. COMPOUND B. OPEN C. CLOSED D. INTERNAL |
C. CLOSED
|
|
|
WHAT TYPE OF WOUND HAS TORN, RAGGED, OR IRREGULAR EDGES?
A. ABRASION B. LACERATION C. INCISION D. PUNCTURE |
B. LACERATION
|
|
|
WHAT PROCEDURE IS PREFERRED FOR CLEARING A BLOCKED AIRWAY IN PREGNANT WOMEN?
A. ABDOMINAL THRUST B. BACK BLOWS C. CHEST THRUST |
C. CHEST THRUST
|
|
|
THE MAXIMUM LENGTH OF A FEMALES HAIR IS _________.
A. IT CAN TOUCH THE COLLAR, BUT IT CAN'T EXCEED THE BOTTOM EDGE OF THE COLLAR B. SHORT C. 18 INCHES D. LONG |
A. IT CAN TOUCH THE COLLAR, BUT IT CAN'T EXCEED THE BOTTOM EDGE OF THE COLLAR
|
|
|
WHAT OFFICER IS EQUIVILENT TO A CAPT IN THE AIRFORCE?
A. CAPT B. LCDR C. CDR D. LT |
D. LT
|
|
|
WHAT OFFICER IS EQUIVILENT TO A LT COLONEL IN THE AIRFORCE?
A. LT B. CDR C. CAPT D. LCDR |
B. CDR
|
|
|
YOU ADDRESS OFFICERS BY THEIR RANK AT __________.
A. CAPT B. CDR C. LTJG D. LT |
B. CDR
|
|
|
THE COAST GUARD GOOD CONDUCT HAS PRECEDENCE BEFORE A ________.
A. NATIONAL DEFENSE B. MERITORIOUS UNIT COMM C. COMDT LOC D. GOOD LIFESAVING MEDAL |
A. NATIONAL DEFENSE
|
|
|
HOW MANY DAYS DO YOU HAVE TO APPEAL MARKS?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 30 |
C. 15
|
|
|
A SPECIAL COURT MARTIAL CONSISTS OF ANY NUMBER OF MEMBERS NOT LESS THAN _____________.
A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3
|
|
|
PROPERTY IS INVENTORIED WHEN A CUSTODIAN IS RELIEVED AND __________.
A. ON THE FIRST ANNIVERSARY DATE OF THE LAST INVENTORY B. ON THE SECOND ANNIVERSARY DATE OF THE LAST INVENTORY C. ON THE THIRD ANNIVERSARY DATE OF THE LAST INVENTORY D. ON THE FOURTH ANNIVERSARY DATE OF THE LAST INVENTORY |
C. ON THE THIRD ANNIVERSARY DATE OF THE LAST INVENTORY
|
|
|
WHAT CUTTER TOOK INTO PROTECTIVE CUSTODY THE NORWEIGIAN TRAWLER BOSKOE, THUS BECOMING THE U.S. FIRST NAVAL CAPTURE OF WW2?
A. WESTWIND B. EASTWIND C. SOUTHWIND D. NORTHLAND |
D. NORTHLAND
|
|
|
DURING THE WAR OF 1812, THE BRITISH FRIGATE NARCISSUS CAPTURED WHAT CUTTER?
A. MIAMI B. HARRIET LANE C. SURVEYOR D. TAMPA |
C. SURVEYOR
|
|
|
DURING THE WAR OF 1812, THE CREW OF WHAT CUTTER DRAGGED IT'S GUNS UP A BLUFF ON LONG ISLAND TO ENGAGE THE BRITISH BRIG DISPATCH?
A. EAGLE B. HARRIET LANE C. RELIANCE D. JEFFERSON DAVIS |
A. EAGLE
|
|
|
THE INTERNATIONAL ICE PATROL WAS STARTED IN 1913 AS A RESULT OF WHAT ACCIDENT?
A. CHERNOBYL B. HINDENBURG C. LUSITANIA D. TITANIC |
D. TITANIC
|
|
|
IN 1837, A GROUP OF VOLUNTEERS MANNED A LIFEBOAT STATION IN NY TO "WREST FROM THE GREEDY SEA ITS PREY". WHAT WAS THIS STATION?
A. STA PINE BLUFF B. STA NEW YORK C. STA ROCKAWAY D. STA WREST |
C. STA ROCKAWAY
|
|
|
WHAT CUTTER WAS LOST WITH ALL HANDS DURING WW1 AFTER BEING TOPEDOED BY A U-BOAT IN THE ENGLISH CHANNEL?
A. TAMPA B. DILIGENCE C. MIAMI D. BEAR |
A. TAMPA
|
|
|
WHAT WAS THE FIRST IRONCLAD SHIP IN THE REVENUE CUTTER SERVICE?
A. WASHINGTON B. NAUGATUCK C. HARRIET LANE D. BEAR |
B. NAUGATUCK
|
|
|
WHAT CUTTER WAS ISSUED A DISPATCH CONTAINING THE NOW FAMOUS WORDS... IF ANYONE ATTEMPTS TO HAUL DOWN THE AMERICAN FLAG, SHOOT HIM ON THE SPOT?
A. ARGUS B. MCCLELLAND C. GENERAL GREENE D. ACTIVE |
B. MCCLELLAND
|
|
|
WHO WAS THE C.G.'S FIRST AVIATOR?
A. BILLY MITCHELL B. ELMER F. STONE C. BUZZ JOHNSON D. ALEX HALEY |
B. ELMER F. STONE
|
|
|
WHAT CUTTER FIRED THE FIRST NAVAL SHOTS OF THE CIVIL WAR, WHILE CHALLENGING THE STEAMER NASHVILLE?
A. JEFFERSON DAVIS B. EAGLE C. RELIANCE D. HARRIET LANE |
D. HARRIET LANE
|
|
|
IN 1897-98, CREWMEMBERS OF WHAT CUTTER DROVE A HERD OF REINDEER 2000 MILES AS FOOD FOR 97 STARVING WHALERS CAUGHT IN THE ARTIC ICE?
A. NOTHWIND B. BEAR C. POLAR STAR D. POLAR SEA |
B. BEAR
|
|
|
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE OLDEST ACTIVE LIGHTHOUSE?
A. THE GRAVES LIGHT B. NUBBLE LIGHT C. MINOT'S LEDGE LIGHT D. BOSTON LIGHT |
D. BOSTON LIGHT
|
|
|
WHAT WAS THE NAME OF THE FIRST REVENUE MARINE CUTTER?
A. ALERT B. MASSACHUSETTS C. DILIGENCE D. BEAR |
B. MASSACHUSETTS
|
|
|
WHO WAS THE FIRST CHIEF OF A CENTRAL REVENUE-MARINE BUREAU (HISTORICAL FIRST COMMANDANT)?
A. ALEXANDER FRAZER B. ALEXANDER HAMILTON C. DOUGLAS MUNRO D. HARRIET LANE |
A. ALEXANDER FRAZER
|
|
|
WHICH OIC, IN 1939, REFUSED THE GOLD LIFE SAVING MEDAL BECAUSE HIS CREW WAS OFFERED ONLY A SILVER?
A. WINSTON CHURCHILL B. GARDNER J. CHURCHILL C. THOMAS PAINE D. THOMAS JEFFERSON |
B. GARDNER J. CHURCHILL
|
|
|
DURING WW2, COASTIES FROM WHAT CUTTER LANDED IN GREENLAND TO CAPTURE AN ENEMY RADIO-WEATHER OUTPOST AND 12 GERMANS WITHOUT FIRING A SINGLE SHOT?
A. NORTHWIND B. SOUTHWIND C. EASTWIND D. WESTWIND |
C. EASTWIND
|
|
|
WHAT WAS THE NAME OF THE ONLY MAN EVER EXECUTED BY THE C.G.?
A. WILMER FRANKLIN B. HORACE ALDERMAN C. DANIEL DEFOE D. PETER PARKER |
B. HORACE ALDERMAN
|
|
|
WHICH C.G. CUTTER HAD AN OFFICIAL KILL OF 2 GERMAN U-BOATS DURING WW2?
A. TAMPA B. HARRIET LANE C. BEAR D. ICARUS |
D. ICARUS
|
|
|
WHO WAS THE FIRST OFFICER TO SERVE AS COMMANDANT WITH STATUTORY AUTHORITY?
A. CAPT LEONARD G. SHEPHERD B. ALEXANDER HAMILTON C. LT ELMER STONE D. LT HARRY CHELPON |
A. CAPT LEONARD G. SHEPHERD
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THE FIRST CG AIRSTA WAS ESTABLISHED AT MOREHEAD CITY, NC IN ___________.
A. 1927 B. 1920 C. 1945 D. 1912 |
B. 1920
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WHICH CUTTER MADE A SUCCESSFUL ATTACK INVOLVING TRACKING A SUBMARINE THROUGH A CONVOY, WHICH BECAME STANDARD TRAINING FOR ANTI-SUB WARFARE?
A. BEAR B. PAMPA C. TAMPA D. SPENCER |
D. SPENCER
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WHAT WAS THE NAME OF THE CG'S FIRST TRUE ICE-BREAKER?
A. KICKAPOO B. BEAR C. NORTHLAND D. WESTWIND |
A. KICKAPOO
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WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR MAKING THE FINAL DETERMINATION THAT A
MEMBER'S PERSONAL INJURY WAS INCURRED IN THE LINE OF DUTY AND NOT DUE TO MISCONDUCT? A. DISTRICT COMMANDER B. COMMANDANT (G-K) C. FACT FINDING BODY D. COMMANDANT (G-L) |
?
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THE TOTAL OF ALL EXTENSIONS OF AN ENLISTMENT MAY NOT EXCEED ________ YEARS.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 2 D. 8 |
B. 6
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PICK THE POINT CREDIT AUTHORIZED FOR THE FOLLOWING AWARDS: PURPLE HEART-CG GOOD CONDUCT MEDAL-CG ACHIEVEMENT MEDAL.
A. 1-2-3 B. 4-1-2 C. 1-3-4 D. 4-2-1 |
B. 4-1-2
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WHENEVER PRACTIBLE- THE NOTIFICATION TO THE NEXT OF KIN OF A NONCOMBAT CASUALTY IS ACCOMPLISHED BY A _________.
A. PERSONAL VISIT B. TELEGRAM C. MESSAGE D. PHONE CALL |
A. PERSONAL VISIT
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THE CG OPERATES AS A MILITARY SERVICE UNDER THE NAVY DURING WARTIME CONDITIONS OR WHENEVER _________-.
A. THE PRESIDENT SO DIRECTS B. NATIONAL SECURITY IS THREATENED C. A NATURAL DISASTER STRIKES |
A. THE PRESIDENT SO DIRECTS
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THE MAXIMUM PURCHASE ON AN SF-44 IS ____________.
A. 3,500 B. 2,500 C. 4,000 D. 3,000 |
B. 2,500
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AN ENLISTED MEMBER WHO CONSIDERS THE MARKS ASSIGNED TO BE UNJUST, MAY APPEAL WITHIN __________ WORKING DAYS.
A. 5 B. 20 C. 10 D. 15 |
D. 15
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MEMBERS IN PAY GRADES E-1,3, AND 5 ARE REQUIRED TO BE EVALUATED SEMIANNUALLY ON THE LAST DAYS OF __________ AND _________.
A. OCTOBER-APRIL B. SEPTEMBER-MARCH C. JAN-JULY D. NOVEMBER-MAY |
C. JAN-JULY
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HOW MANY DAY'S CUMULATIVE SICK LEAVE MAY A CO AUTHORIZE FOR ANY ONE ILLNASS OR INJURY?
A. 45 B. 60 C. 90 D. 30 |
C. 90
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TYPES OF LEAVE NOT CHARGEABLE TO A MEMBER'S LEAVE RECORD ARE SICK LEAVE AND _________ LEAVE.
A. GRADUATION B. TERMINAL C. ADVANCE D. EARNED |
A. GRADUATION
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EMERGENCY LEAVE FOR ENLISTED PERSONNEL IS LIMITED TO ________ DAYS AT ANY ONE TIME.
A. 60 B. 90 C. 30 D. NONE OF THE ABOVE |
A. 60
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A SPECIAL EVALUATION FOR RATE ADVANCEMENT OR CHANGE NEED NOT BE PERFORMED IF LESS THAN _________ DAYS HAVE PASSED SINCE THE LAST EVALUATION.
A. 30 B. 60 C. 92 D. 90 |
C. 92
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PLACE THE FOLLOWING MILITARY DECORATIONS IN THE CORRECT ORDER OF PRECEDENCE: 1-PURPLE HEART, 2-CG GOOD CONDUCT MEDAL, 3-CG ACHIEVEMENT MEDAL, 4-CG MEDAL
A. 3-1-4-2 B. 1-4-2-3 C. 2-1-3-4 D. 4-3-1-2 |
D. 4-3-1-2
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WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF LIBERTY A CO MAY AUTHORIZE AN INDIVIDUAL?
A. 120 HRS B. 48 HRS C. 96 HRS D. 72 HRS |
C. 96 HRS
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THE MEDAL OF HONOR IS APPROVED AND AWARDED BY __________.
A. HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES B. SENATE C. COMMANDANT D. PRESIDENT |
D. PRESIDENT
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Name the first 10 Revenue Cutters
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Scammel, Massachusets, Argus, Vigilant, General Green, Active, Virginia, Diligence, South Carolina, and Eagle
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On what occasion is the CG Ensign flown at half mast?
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Never
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What cutter was issued a dispatch containing the now famous words: "If anyone attempts to haul down the American flag, shoot him on the spot?
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USCGC Mccleland
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During what war was the CG Aviation born?
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WW1
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In july 1976, what did the CG Academy become the first to do?
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Accept women
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In what war did the CGC Vigilant capture the dart?
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War of 1812
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Who was the first commisioned officer?
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Hopely Yeaton
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In 1919 who made the first Transatlantic crossing?
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LT E. F. Stone
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In 1942, Douglass Munro rescued the lives of Marines and receives the Congressional Medal of Honor. What battle was this in?
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During the battle of Guadalcanal
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In what war did the CGC Tampa sink with all crewmembers aboard?
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WW1
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What mission was started after the sinking of the luxury liner Titanic?
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International Ice Patrol
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Who is known as the father of the CG?
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Alexander Hamilton
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In what war did the cutter Harriet Lane fire the first maritime shot?
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Civil War
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Which officer in charge refused the Gold Lifesaving Medal because his crew was only offered the Silver Lifesaving Medal?
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Gardner J. Churchill
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What was the name of the CG cutter who was the first to shoot down a Japanese aircraft during the attack at Pearl Harbor?
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CGC Taney
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What date did the lighthouse Service and the CG merge?
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July 1, 1939
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What year did the USCG become a part of the Dept of Transportation?
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1967
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In what year was the first CG Airsta established at Morehead City, NC?
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1920
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Who was Samuel Jenkins?
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Fist African American to graduate from OCS
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What did EMC Pamela D. Autury become the first to do in the CG?
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She was the first African American female Chief Petty Officer
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What was the name of the only person ever executed by the CG?
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Horace Alderman
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What is the name of the first lighthouse built in the English Colonies?
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Boston Light on Little Brewster Island in 1716
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During the war of 1812, the crew of what cutter dragged it's guns up a high bluff on long Island to engage the British Brig dispatch
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CGC Eagle
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What does the colors of the CG Ensign stand for?
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The color red stands for our youth and sacrifice of blood for liberty's sake. The color blue not only stands for justice, but also for our covenant against oppresion. The white symbolizes our desire for light and purity
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What is the purpose of the CG racing stripe on a CGC?
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Represents our various missions
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In what year was the Revenue Cutter Service combined with the Lifesaving Service?
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January 28, 1915
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Which CG cutter made a succesful attack involing tracking a submarine through a convoy that became standard training for anti-sub warfare?
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CGC Spencer
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How many combat battle streamers has the CG earned in its history?
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31
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What was the salary of the first masters of the Revenue Cutters?
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$30
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What year was the CG Auxillary established?
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1941
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In 1897 crewmembers of what cutter drove a herd of reindeer 2000 miles as food for 97 sterving whalers caught in the Artic Ice?
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CGC Bear
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What 2 services were merged to form the Coast Guard?
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Revenue Cutter Service and the Lifesaving service
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Who is the most celebrated lifesaver in CG history?
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Joshua James- he is credited with saving more than 600 lives and earned 2 Gold Medals, 3 silver, and other awards during his career
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Who is considered to be our first Commandant?
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Capt. L. G Shaepard (1889-1895)
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During WW2, Coasties from what cutter landed in Greenland to capture an enemy radio weather outpost and 12 Germans without firing a single shot? This was considered the first naval capture of WW2.
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Northland
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How amny stripes are on the CG Ensign and what do they stand for?
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16 stripes are symbolic of the number of states in the union when the ensign was officially adopted
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Who wrote the song Semper Paratus?
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Capt Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
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What was the name of the famous lighthouse keeper who upon their death, a lighthouse was renamed after them?
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Ida Lewis
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Who was the first woman accepted for service and named as director of the SPAR's, with the rank of Lt Cmdr?
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Dorothy C Stratton
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What article provides the basic authority for the imposition of punishment without resort to the judicial forum of a courts-martial?
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Article 15
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Do Executive Petty Officers have power to impose non-judicial punishment?
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No, unless they are serving in an "acting" capacity
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If a LT succeeds to command in the absence of the assigned commanding officer, a LCDR, will he be able to impose the amount of punishment allowed a CO in the grade of LCDR?
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No, he is limited to a LT's maximum punishment
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If the Superintendant, USCG Academy, delegates his powers under Article 15 to the Assistant Superintendant of his command, what are the maximum limitations on punishment determined by?
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The grade of the officer delegating the authority
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If a CO thinks that the punishment he could impose is not appropriate for the action, he may refer the case to his supervisor. True or false?
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True
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May a CO award non-judicial punishment to persons who are TAD aboard his unit?
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Yes
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Can non-judicial punishment be imposed for an offense previously tried by courts-martial?
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No
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Any member of the armed services may be placed on report by another member of the armed forces who is aware of the commission of the offense. True or false?
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True
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Does the executive officer have powers to impose non-judicial punishment ?
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No, the power to impose non-judicial punishment rests solely on the CO
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If a member is attached to a cutter and is put on report, can he opt for a courts-martial instead?
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No, only personel stationed ashore have this option
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Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations is authorized in the Coast Guard. True or false?
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False
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The maximum allowable time EMI can be given is _________ hours per day.
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2 (two)
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Describe what Mishaps (reportable events) must be
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Must be damage to Coast Guard facility, vehicle, or other equipment. Active duty Coast Guard members killed or injured on active duty status. Reservist injured or killed when on active duty status, either on or off duty. Coast Guard Auxiliarist injured or killed while under orders. Visitors/civilian contractors working on Coast Guard property.
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Describe what Mishaps (non-reportable events) must be
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Civilian contractors at other than Coast Guard facilities, when working on a Coast Guard Equipment (vessel or equipment) when it does not have a crew in attendance. Suicide, homicide, or other malicious acts that result in physical harm. Intentional damage or injury: enemy action, sabatage. *Predicated damage or damage which cannot be reasonably be prevented.
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What are the 2 parts that make a mishap severity of Class A?
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1. The cost of reportable damage is 1,000,000 or greater.
2. An injury results in fatality or permanent total disability. |
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What are the 3 parts that make a mishap severity of Class B?
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1. The cost of reportable property damage is 200,000-1,000,000.
2. Any injury results in permanent, partial disability. 3. 5 or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized. |
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What are the 2 parts that make a mishap severity of Class C?
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1. The cost of reportable damage is 10,000-200,000.
2. A non-fatal injury which results in any loss of time from work beyond the day or shift on which it occurred. |
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What are the 3 parts that make up a mishap severity of Class D?
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1. The cost of repotable damage is below 10,000.
2. A non-fatal injury occurs that does not meet the criteria of a Class C mishap (no lost time) 3. An electric shock occurs that doesn't meet the criteria of a higher classification. |
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Which class of mishaps warrant a formal mishap analysis board?
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Class A and B
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All personnel involved in a Class A and B mishap will receive a complete _______ before returning to full duty?
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a complete physical exam by a military medical officer
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This level of security shall be applied to information that could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the National Security. What is this level called?
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Confidential
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This level of security shall be applied only to information that could be expected cause exceptionally grave damage, what level of security is this called?
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Top Secret
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This level shall be applied to information that could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the National Security. What level of security is this considered?
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Secret
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The carrying of classified material across national borders is not permitted unless you have made special arrangements with whom?
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Customs, postal, or other inspection agencies
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What is it called when the release of classified material is being displayed or revealed to an unauthorized person?
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A Compromise
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What action is taken when a report of compromise (or possible compromise) is received and you don't have custodial responsility?
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Conduct a preliminary inquiry and send the report to the custodian with a copy to the Commandant (OIS)
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TC3 Jones wants to know whether he can mail top secret information to another unit. What should you tell him?
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Neither the normal mail nor messenger system of a unit nor postal and commercial delivery services are authorized for the transmission of top secret information
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What is For Official Use Only (FOUO) material?
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Information that doesn't concern the safety of the nation but is priviliged information
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What are the conditions for releasing classified information to an individual?
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Must have need to know and a security clearance
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What is the definition of a controlled area?
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The area adjacent to or surrounding an exclusion or limited area
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What is the definition of a limited area?
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An area where the visitor could gain access to classified material
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What is an exclusion area?
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An area that constitutes access because equipment cannot be covered up
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How often must a safe combination be changed for U.S. material?
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Every year
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What is a need to know?
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The necessity for access to and the knowledge of or possession of classified information in order to carry out official military or other government duties
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How is the overall security classification affixed on a classified document?
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It is marked, stamped, or permanently affixed at the top and bottom of all pages. Th front cover of the document must have the overall document classification with all inside pages marked with the highest classification on that page
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What is the color of the cover sheet for Top Secret Information?
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Orange border
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What is the color of the cover sheet for Confidential Information?
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Blue border
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What types of number multiples should not be used in selecting combinations?
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Multiples of 5, simple ascending or descending arithmetical series, personal dates, and known serial numbers
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After closing a safe, how many times should the combination dial be rotated?
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4 times
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What is the mailing requirement for FOUO material?
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Any class of U.S. Postal Service mail
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What is the color of the cover sheet for secret information?
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Red border
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Who appoints commissioned officer's in the CG?
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The president with the Senate's advice and consent.
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Who is eligble for the USCG Direct Commissionig Program?
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Civilians with no prior experience and prior or current military service personnel except those with 13 years or more of previous creditable service.
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What billet do all CWO's fill?
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W4 billet.
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What are the requirements for CWO?
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Must be a citizen and be a member of the CG or CG Reserve with a total of eight years active duty service in any Armed Force and have served on CG continuous active duty for the last 4 years. Members returning under the care of newborn infants act must serve at least half this time (at least two years) after their return to be eligible. Credit for active duty is computed to 30 June after the 1 January deadline. Must be an E-6 or above. If an E-6 must be in the top 50% of last SWE. Members who fall under HYT are not eligible to apply. Members who have been approved for retirement cannot apply. No CM, NJP and no unsat mark in conduct for the three years immediately prior to the 1 January deadline and for the entire period from 1 January to appointment.
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What is the final step in the CWO appointment process?
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Obtaining the Commanding Officer's recommendation.
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How is time in grade computed for the CWO cycle?
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Calculate the TIG to 1 July of the year of the board. 30 days equals one month.
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What's the age limit to enter the CG Academy?
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Between 17 and 23 by 01 July of the year admitted as a cadet.
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What is the definition of Reenlistment?
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The enlistment of a person who has previously served in the regular CG.
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What are the lengths of a reenlistment?
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3, 4, 5 or 6 years.
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What are the terms of enlistment into the CG Reserve?
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If immediately from active duty (within 24 hours) to the reserves, a period for 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 or 8 years at the option of the individual.
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When is a physical examination required upon reenlistment?
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When reenlistment comes after 24 hours upon being discharged.
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First term personnel are not eligible for reenlistment unless they have the authority of who?
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The centralized first term reenlistment review panel (CFTRR).
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For regular reenlistments, how long can a member wait before losing his/her SRB bonus or TIR for advancement?
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Three months from the date of discharge.
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Who can administer oaths?
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Any commissioned officer, a recruiter, MCPOCG or any gold badge CEA, a permanently assigned officer in charge of a unit.
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Where may a person reenlist?
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Within 24 hours it may be done at the unit. After 24 hours it must be performed at a recruiting office.
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What are the time frames of an extension of an enlistment?
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Any number of full years not less than two nor greater than six when requested by the member. OR, any number of full years and months up to six years to ensure obligated service for: Attend a resident school, CG Tuition Assistance program, INCONUS & OUTCONUS assignments, advancement to E7, E8 or E9, to meet an approved retirement date.
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What may the total of all extensions of an enlistment not exceed?
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Six years.
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How is an extension of an enlistment made legal and binding?
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The member concerned must enter an agreement to extend his/her enlistment with his/her CO on Agreement to Extend Enlistment, CG-3301B.
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How long before an extension/enlistment ends can a member extend/reenlist?
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No more than three months before the date the existing enlistment expires.
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What determines a commissioned officer's seniority?
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His/Her place on the active duty promotion list (ADPL).
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What is the definition of a Rating?
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The name given to an occupation such at ET, EM, MK, etc, etc,..
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What is the definition of Rate?
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Defines personnel occupationally by pay grade.
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When distributing personnel what needs come first?
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The needs of the service.
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Who exercies directing, guiding and restraining authority over enlisted and officer assignments?
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Coast Guard Personnel Command (CGPC).
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When may a members tour lenght be involuntarily extended?
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If need is dictated by the needs of the service.
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What is the usual solution when a member is unavialable for unrestricted assignment?
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Seperation from the service.
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What should a member do if they are not fully available for duty and cannot locally resolve a problem which appears to be relatively short-term in nature?
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Request a humanitarian assignment.
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What is used to certify that members are available for unrestricted assignment?
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Annually certify on CG-4170A, in the remarks block that they are available for unrestriced worldwide duty.
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Who is required to have a sponser upon receiving PCS orders?
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It is mandatory for a receiving command to assign a sponser to all incoming personnel inroute.
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Who assigns enlisted personnel?
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Commander, CGPC-epm-2.
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What would disqualify a person from transfer?
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pending military or civil disciplinary action, history of indebtedness, repeated discipline infractions and other unsuitable characteristics. If an individual in receipt of orders subsequently receives a characteristic factor average of three or less, transfer will not be effected.
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When is a physical examination required before transfer?
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Before member's transfer to sea, avaition or overseas duty, before a member's seperation and when the member needs more than 12 months of obligated service.
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How much advance notice can a member expect for transfer orders?
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90 days for INCONUS units, 120 days for OUTCONUS units.
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What are the assignment priorities?
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1) overseas restriced
2) overseas afloat, Icebreakers, LORSTA Shoal Cove 3) INCONUS afloat, LEDET's, RCC and International training division. 4) Overseas shore units, Atlantic and Pacific training teams, Afloat training Groups, National Strike Force. 5) INCONUS shore units. |
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What priority does a member have if the billet they are at is deleted?
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With less than a year at the billet the member retains his/her previous priorty.
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What happens if a member does not have a current ADC on file?
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Assignment priority is lost.
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How much obilgated service must a member have upon reporting to a new unit?
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Personnel E4 and above with more than 6 years of active duty are considered in a career status. Must have 1 year of OBLISERV remaining upon reporting to a new unit. Personnel odered to an OUTCONUS unit must obligate a full tour.
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What document is used for Reserve Personnel being called back to active duty?
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CG-3472, Request for Extended Active Duty
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What are the rules for assigning enlisted personnel as Mess Attendants?
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The CO or OinC may detail mess attendants when the mess has 10 or more enlisted personnel subsisting there. The number shall not exceed one for each 20 persons
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What is the policy on Unilateral/Mutual Transfers?
|
A mutual exchange is between two members of the same rating and paygrade. Each member will assume the other's tour completion date for a minimum of 1 year and maximum of 3.5 years. A unilateral involves a member who is in excess at his/her present unit and who requests a unit or area which has a billet vacancy.
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What is a Humanitarian Assignment?
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A special assignment authorized to alleviate a hardship so severe an emergency leave cannot fully resolve it.
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What is the duration of a HUMS transfer?
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A no-cost temporary TAD orders up to six months or a no-cost PCS transfer for up to two years.
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When is the normal transfer season?
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March through September.
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What is the SPEAR process?
|
"S" = Strategize, phase one, June and July. involves planning for the transfer season.
"P" = Publish, phase two, August. Shopping list is published. "E" = Engage, phase three, September through November. All those involved have the opportunity to communicate information. Special Duty Assignment ADC's are due by 01 Oct. All others are due by Nov 15th. "A" = Act, phase four, December through March. AO's act on input, develop assignment slates and issue orders. "R" = Review, phase five, April and May. Review the assignment season and make necessary adjustments. |
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What is the primary method of communcating with the Assignment Officer?
|
The ADC, CG-3698A.
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When should an ADC be submitted?
|
Upon six months of reporting aboard, during phase three of SPEAR, when requesting special duty, or whenever the member's assignment preferences change.
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When may a member call the Assignment Officer?
|
During phase three of SPEAR.
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What is the Senior Enlisted Assignment Policy (SEAP)?
|
A newly advanced E7 may fill only E7 billets and must remain three years in grade before becoming eligble for an E8 billet. An E8 may fill any E7 or E9 billet when there are no qualified E7's or E9's available. For E9 Assignments members must recieve a favorable command endorsement. E9's will have priority over E7's. An E-9 may fill any E8 or E9 billet. Billets which will be exclusively filled by E9's are Commnad Master Chiefs, Senior SWE examination writers and CPO Academy School Chief.
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For projected advancement to E7, when should a member submit an ADC?
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Within 30 days of his/her name appearing on the list indicating advancement.
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What is the Petty Officer Assignment Policy (POAP)?
|
E4's with less than two years time in grade will not be assigned E5 billets. E4's may be assigned to E5 Billets when there are no qualifed E5's. Available E5's may be assigned to vacant E4-E6 billets. E4's will have priority over E6's for vacant E5 billets to enhance career growth. Billets to be filled exclusively by the designated pay grade are: XPO, OIC and EPO
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For a "No-fault" disenrollment, when can a member reapply for A school?
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Immediately upon disenrollment.
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For a "Fault" disenrollment, when can a member reapply for A school?
|
One year from disenrollment.
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Who may authorize a permanent relief for cause?
|
Commandant.
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Who may authorize a temporary relief for cause of a CO or OinC?
|
Area or district commanders, MLC commanders may do so for those in their command and director chiefs (HQ).
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What is a PCS order?
|
One which directs a member to "report to" (appropriate command) for duty and is silent as to any further disposistion of the member.
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|
What constitutes a TAD order?
|
An order that directs a member to report for duty and provides direction for return.
|
|
|
How long should TAD last?
|
The minimum amount of time needed to accomplish the mission
|
|
|
What is the normal time frame of a Blanket Order?
|
One month.
|
|
|
Who may authorize TAD for lengths greater than six months?
|
Commandant (G-WP).
|
|
|
Who issues orders for Enlisted personnel and Officers?
|
CGPC
|
|
|
On a set of orders, what does the term "Hereby Detached" mean?
|
detach the member within 24 hours of receipt of order.
|
|
|
What the time frame of detachment when orders say "Detached on or about"?
|
A period of 10 days either side of the date given.
|
|
|
Define "Proceed" with regard to orders:
|
Report within four days, exlusive of travel time and proceed time
|
|
|
Define "Proceed without delay":
|
Report within 48 hours, regardless of travel time and proceed time
|
|
|
Define "Proceed Immediately":
|
Report within 12 hours.
|
|
|
What is "Proceed Time"?
|
Used during PCS transfers. Maximum of four days for orders indicating no haste in reporting.
|
|
|
When is proceed time not authorized?
|
First permanent duty station, active duty for training, TAD, unilateral or mutual transfers, group travel, orders for units located within 25 miles of each other and orders issued for seperation or retirement.
|
|
|
When computing travel time under PCS orders what is the day of departure counted as?
|
A day of duty.
|
|
|
When travelling by POC how many miles constitute a day of travel?
|
350 miles. 401 miles = 2 days. 400 miles = 1 day.
|
|
|
What type of person is selected for CWO?
|
A mature individual with the appropriate education and/or specialty experience whose demonstrated initiative and past performance show they have the potential to asssume postions of greater responsibility requiring broader conceptual, management, and leadership skills
|
|
|
How should an applicant in the CWO process correspond with the selection board members?
|
A letter sent in care of Commander, CGPC-opm-1. Only enclosures or attachments of official documents are acceptable
|
|
|
What is the point breakdown for the SWE?
|
Points: 80 = test, 50 = evals, 20 = time in service, 10 = time in grade, 10 = medals and awards, 30= sea duty. Total=200.
|
|
|
When must awards be submitted to count on a SWE?
|
01 Feb for the May SWE, 01 Aug for the Nov SWE.
|
|
|
Whose responsibility is it to ensure eligibility in all respects for the SWE?
|
The member's
|
|
|
What are the eligibility dates for the SWE?
|
Feb 01 for the May SWE and Aug 01 for the Nov SWE
|
|
|
What are the terminal eligibility dates for the SWE?
|
01 Jan and 01 July.
|
|
|
What is the most important eligibility requirement in the advancement system?
|
The CO's recommendation
|
|
|
Who is the single point of contact for all SWE inquires and requests for waivers?
|
Commanding Officer, HRSIC.
|
|
|
When does the good conduct eligibility period start after the awarding of an NJP or CM?
|
The day following the award or conviction. New period starts following the effective date of the enlisted performance evaluation the result of a low eval
|
|
|
How much active duty time is required for E8 and E9?
|
10 and 12 years
|
|
|
What will disqualify a member from taking the SWE as a result of an eval?
|
An unsatisfactory mark in conduct, not recommended or a dimension average of less than 3.
|
|
|
When must a special evaluation be performed to qualify a member for an SWE?
|
NLT 31 July or 31 January preceeding the upcoming SWE.
|
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring a member has completed all PBQ's before taking a SWE?
|
The member.
|
|
|
Who may waive the completion of a PBQ?
|
The members commanding officer.
|
|
|
Who may sign a PBQ?
|
A commissioned officer or senior petty officer.
|
|
|
When is the successful completion of a correspondance course?
|
Upon passing. The date is the day the test was administered.
|
|
|
What circumstances will render personnel ineligible for advancement?
|
Receipt of an unsat conduct mark, confinement, CM or NJP 12 months prior to the SWE terminal eligibility date or personnel selected for CWO.
|
|
|
When are members ineligibility for advancement to E7/8/9?
|
When above the cut for CWO.
|
|
|
Upon appearing above the cut for CWO how long does a member have before his/her name is taken off of an enlisted advancement list?
|
60 days.
|
|
|
What is the maximum amount of time a member can be out of the CG before his/her time in grade is effected?
|
Over 3 months.
|
|
|
When must the sea duty requirements be met before taking an SWE?
|
01 February or 01 August
|
|
|
What steps should be taken if a member's PDR doesn't contain the information neccessary to verify eligibility for a SWE?
|
Request the information by rapidraft letter from Commander CGPC-epm.
|
|
|
When can advancement be withheld?
|
Pending disciplinary action, member hasn't continued to remain eligble for advancement, undergoing medical treatment as a result of own misconduct and non-compliance with the weight standard.
|
|
|
If a person declines promotion or voluntarily takes his/her name from an eligibility list how long before he/she is considered eligible for advancement again?
|
1 year from the anniversary date of election
|
|
|
To what paygrades are individuals able to advance while serving as a Temporary Commissioned Officer?
|
E6
|
|
|
Who prepares the final advancement eligibility lists for approval by Commander CGPC?
|
Commander HRSIC.
|
|
|
Who establishes cutoff points on eligibility lists?
|
Commander CGPC.
|
|
|
What is the guideline for a rate reduction by reason of incompetence?
|
If an individuals evaluation mark for any factor is below a factor average of 2 for any evaluation period.
|
|
|
Who may reduce a CPO for reason of incompetence?
|
Commandant.
|
|
|
Who may reduce E1 - E6 for reason of incompetence?
|
Area, district or MLC, PAC commanders
|
|
|
What is the Command's and members tool for correctly verifying information for the SWE?
|
The PDE.
|
|
|
Who may administer a SWE?
|
Any regularly asigned examining board or ESO of any military service
|
|
|
What is the criteria for qualifying for a substitute SWE exam?
|
The candidate must have been recommended for participation in the regularly scheduled SWE, the candidate's absence from the regularly scheduled SWE must have been through no fault of his/her own and due to: emergency leave, an illness or hospitalization or operational commitments.
|
|
|
When may a SWE be administered on an alternate date?
|
On u/w vessels, may delay the test up to ten days subsequent to the scheduled date.
|
|
|
What done with the SWE test after it has been administered?
|
It is destroyed by the command's senior examining board member within 10 days of administering the test.
|
|
|
What are the requirments to participate in the striker program?
|
Be serving in the paygrade of E3 and meet the six month TIG, completed the required corresondance courses, completed the required PBQ's and be recommended by the CO.
|
|
|
What enlisted personnel are eligible to wear the CG OinC Afloat insignia?
|
Member's currently assigned OIC of a floating unit with an OPFAC number or have satisfactorily served as the designated OIC of a floating unit with an OPFAC number for a minimum periode of six months.
|
|
|
What enlisted personnel are eligible to wear the CG OIC Ashore Insignia?
|
Members currently assigned OIC of a shore unit with an OPFAC number and those having satisfactorily served as the OIC of a shore unit with an OPFAC number for a minimum of six months
|
|
|
Who is eligible to wear the coxswain ensignia?
|
Members who have served six months at an operational unit as a certified boat coxswain and be assigned a minimum of two qualification codes for coxswain. Appropriate entries should be made in the PDR to reflect certification.
|
|
|
What is the statutory Authority for Leave?
|
10 USC 40 as amended.
|
|
|
What is the maximum amount of leave that may be carried over to the new fiscal year?
|
60 days unless embarked away from homeport on a vessel or aircraft for more than 60 consecutive days which may result in 90 days being allowed to be carried over.
|
|
|
What is earned Leave?
|
The amount of leave accrued to an individual's credit as of any given date
|
|
|
What is advance leave?
|
Leave granted to a member, with pay and allowances, prior to its actual accural.
|
|
|
What is excess leave?
|
Leave that is authorized over and beyond any earned or advance leave that can be granted during which the member is not entitled to pay and/or allowances.
|
|
|
What is sick leave?
|
A period of authorized absence granted to persons while under medical care and treatment. Sick leave is not chargeable as leave but periods in excess of two days need to be reported.
|
|
|
What are the limitations of combining Leave and Liberty?
|
Two or more requests for leave which immediately precede and immediately follow a regular liberty period. A member may not be on leave, immediately return to a liberty status, then immediately resume leave status. Instead the whole period must be taken as leave.
|
|
|
When must personnel be informed of their leave status?
|
At the time of each request for leave.
|
|
|
What is the maximum amount of leave that can be granted without approval from Commandant?
|
No more than earned leave plus 30 days advance leave. For overseas transfers advance leave may be granted not to go in excess of a balance of minus 30 days at the begining of the next fiscal year.
|
|
|
What are the limitations of "Delay-in-route" for members?
|
20 days for officers, 60 days for enlisted.
|
|
|
When is re-enlistment leave normally granted?
|
Immediately following enlistment, for one period only not to exceed earned leave balance plus 30 days advance leave not to exceed 90 days.
|
|
|
How much emergency leave may be granted?
|
Up to 30 days for officers and 60 days for enlisted.
|
|
|
If a member is allowed to carry over more than 60 days of leave at the begining of the fiscal year, how does he/she have to use the leave before losing it?
|
The leave is lost if it hasn't been used before the end of the third fiscal year following the fiscal year in which the qualifying duty is terminated. Monetary compensation of accrued leave in excess of 60 days is not authorized.
|
|
|
What is liberty?
|
Any authorized absence granted for short periods to provide repsite from the working environment or for other specific reasons
|
|
|
What is Regular Liberty?
|
A period not to exceed 72 hours commencing at the end of the normal working hours on a given day.
|
|
|
What is Special Liberty?
|
A period granted outside normal liberty hours for unusual reasons.
|
|
|
What is Special Liberty Incentive for Recruiting?
|
For any active duty CG member who is instrumental in the enlistment of an individual in the CG. The active duty member is entitled to 72 hours of liberty.
|
|
|
What are the limitations of Compensatory Absence?
|
A period not to exceed 60 days. This is a form of liberty granted to members serving at isolated units.
|
|
|
When shall article 137, UCMJ be explained to a CG member?
|
At the time of entrance or within six days thereafter, after six months of active duty and upon reenlistment.
|
|
|
When shall the code of conduct be explained to CG members?
|
Upon entry to the service, prior to completion of recruit training, and shall be explained again after six months of active duty and upon the time(s) of reenlistment.
|
|
|
How should notifications of civil arrest be made as required by the security manual?
|
By filling out the personnel action security request, CG-5588
|
|
|
What is the definition of a deserter?
|
A member who has been administratively declared a deserter on the 30th day of absence.
|
|
|
When is the period of desertion or absence terminated?
|
Upon the members delivery to an activity or organization of the armed services.
|
|
|
What types of romantic relationships are unacceptable in the CG?
|
When members have a superior/subordinate relationship, member assigned to the same small shore unit (less than 60 members), members assigned to the same cutter, a relationship between CPO's and E4 & below enlisted personnel, and a relationship manifested in the work environment in a way which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business.
|
|
|
What relationships are prohibited?
|
Engaging in sexually intimate contact aboard any CG vessel or CG controlled work space, romantic relationships outside of marriage between officer and enlisted. Personal and romantic relationships between instructors and students.
|
|
|
When does the CG have the authority to garnish a member's pay?
|
Under a court order for indebtedness, which must comply with the soldier's and sailor's relief act and under article 139 UCMJ.
|
|
|
Failure to pay just debts or repeatedly incurring debts beyond a member's ability to pay are evidence of what?
|
Irresponsibility on the member's part which will jeopardize his/her security clearance, advancement, duty assignment, qualificiton for reenlistment or extension of enlistment and may become grounds for disciplinary action or administrative discharge.
|
|
|
What action may result from an enlisted member's repeated failure to pay debts?
|
The command may submit a CG3307, with an entry stating that the member is Unreliable due to failure to pay debts
|
|
|
What is the procedure for members who fail to support their spouse/children?
|
Member is counseled and informed of CG's policy concerning support of dependents. Member is expected to comply with the court order. In absence of a court order member will be expected to comply with terms set forth in the personnel manual.
|
|
|
Who may waive support of a spouse?
|
Commandant may waive support of a spouse but not children. Documentation may be based on evidence of desertion by the spouse, infidelity, or abuse.
|
|
|
Under what conditions may a member's pay be garnished?
|
Under provisions of Public Law 93-647, federal pay is subject to garnishment for the support of both legitimate and illegitimate children.
|
|
|
What is the origin of the CG?
|
On 4 August 1790 congress authorized 10 boats to enforce customs laws. This established the Revenue Cutter Service.
|
|
|
When did the Revenue Cutter Service combine with the Life Saving Service?
|
On 28 January 1915. This was called the Coast Guard.
|
|
|
What does the term "In Commision" refer to, when dealing with cutters?
|
A cutter with a commanding officer.
|
|
|
What does the term "In Service refer to with respect to a cutter?
|
A cutter that has an assigned Officer in charge.
|
|
|
Who is responsible for the ship's log?
|
The commanding officer
|
|
|
How may additions or changes be made to the log?
|
If the change is to be made after the CO has signed it or after 24 hours have passed, a note shall be entered showing the day and hour of the day that such a change or addition was made. It shall be made at the bottom of the log.
|
|
|
When may honors not be rendered to foreign nations?
|
When the other nation is not recognized by the US
|
|
|
When two or more officials or officers, each entitled to honors, which is to be rendered honors?
|
The senior official
|
|
|
What is the procedure for CG personnel during the playing of the national anthem?
|
All CG personnel not in formation shall stand at attention and face the national ensign. If the ensign is not displayed they shall face the music. When covered they shall come to a salute.
|
|
|
When rendering hand salutes, who salutes first?
|
Juniors first.
|
|
|
What manner do officers enter boats, aircraft and automobiles?
|
Juniors enter first and leave last
|
|
|
What manner do officers board CG and Navy ships?
|
In order of rank. Seniors enter first and leave last.
|
|
|
What types of gun salutes are rendered?
|
21 gun salute to the president, 19 gun salute to the secretary of defense, transportation.
|
|
|
What is the interval between gun salutes?
|
5 seconds.
|
|
|
How shall a gun salute be returned?
|
Gun for Gun.
|
|
|
When shall gun salutes not be fired?
|
Between sunset and sunrise, before 0800 or on sunday. In case of a gun salute at 0800 the first gun shall be fired immediately upon the completion of morning colors or the last note of the last national anthem.
|
|
|
When is the union jack displayed at the yardarm?
|
During a general court-martial or court of inquiry is in session
|
|
|
How is he national ensign properly half-masted?
|
It is first hoisted to the top then lowered. Upon lowering it is first raised from half-mast to the top then lowered.
|
|
|
On what occasions does every ship in commission, not underway full-dress ship?
|
Washington's birthday and july 4th.
|
|
|
What ceremony is prescribed for memorial day?
|
Each saluting ship and saluting shore unit shall fire a 21 gun salute at 1200 noon. National ensign shall be at half mast until completion of the 21 gun salute or until 1220 if no salute is fired.
|
|
|
Who may report an offense?
|
Any person subject to the UCMJ.
|
|
|
Where should a report of an offense be forwarded to?
|
The commanding officer of the suspect.
|
|
|
Who may apprehend an individual subject to the UCMJ?
|
Security police, military police, MAA personnel, shore patrol, and those designated by proper authority.
|
|
|
Who may dispose (dismiss) charges?
|
Only persons authorized to convene courts-martial or to administer NJP
|
|
|
What is the composition of a General Courts-Martial?
|
A military Judge and not less than five members or unless requested the Judge alone.
|
|
|
What is the composition of a Special Courts-Martial?
|
Not less than three members or a military Judge
|
|
|
What is the composition of a Summary Courts-Martial?
|
One commissioned officer on Active duty.
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a Summary Courts-Marital?
|
To promptly adjudicate minor offenses under a simple procedure
|
|
|
What right is the accused required to be informed of before being questioned?
|
Article 31, a person's rights
|
|
|
What are the general elements of Article 134?
|
All disorders and neglects to the prejudice of good order and discipline.
|
|
|
What is Article 15 of the UCMJ?
|
NJP.
|
|
|
What is the purpose of NJP?
|
Provides commanders with an essential and prompt means of maintaining good order and discipline and also promotes positive behavior changes in servicemembers without the stigma of a Courts-Martial.
|
|
|
What are the limitations of NJP?
|
The following is unauthorized: Double punishment, increase in punishment or multiple punishment, NJP may not be served of offenses more than 2 years prior to date of imposition.
|
|
|
What is grounding?
|
The process of physically providing a metallic surface with a low resistance or impedance path to ground potential
|
|
|
What is bonding?
|
The process of physically connecting or bridging two metallic surfaces to provide a low impedance path for RF current.
|
|
|
What is a direct bond?
|
Joining two metallic surfaces by welding, brazing or soldering.
|
|
|
What is an indirect bond?
|
All bonds achieved by use of interconnecting straps, cables, etc.
|
|
|
What is intermodulation?
|
The production, in a nonlinear element, of frequencies corresponding to the sums and differences of the fundamental and harmonics of two or more frequencies.
|
|
|
What are the three main types of EMI?
|
Man-made, natural and inherent.
|
|
|
What are some common EMI problems caused by Transmitters?
|
Overdriven amplifiers, frequency multiplier stages, sideband splatter caused by over-modulation, excessive modulator bandwidths, modulator noise, transmitter intemodulation and cross modulation caused by interaction between two or more transmitters.
|
|
|
What are some common EMI problems caused by Radar's?
|
Modulator pulsing, magnetron moding, magnetron drift, induced arcing in waveguides and cables.
|
|
|
What are some common EMI problems caused by motors and generators?
|
Arcing from brushes to commutator segments in DC motors, ripple that is present on the output of DC generators, slot harmonics.
|
|
|
What are some causes of natural interference?
|
Thunderstorms, precipitation static or intersteller noise.
|
|
|
What causes precipitation static?
|
The impact of charged particles against an antenna
|
|
|
What causes inherent interference?
|
The thermal agitation of electrons in the circuit resistances
|
|
|
What is a common cause of broadband interference?
|
Arcing, sometimes mistaken to be high background noise.
|
|
|
What are the two most common ways of transmitting EMI from an interfering source to the affected equipment?
|
Conduction, which involves the transfer of undesired energy through conductors between a source of interference and the susceptible device.
Radiated, any interfering signal tansferred through space by an electromagnetic field. |
|
|
What are some of the most common conduction paths for conducted EMI?
|
Power supply cables, control and accessory cables, grounding systems and transmission lines.
|
|
|
What are some of the methods to contain conducted EMI?
|
Filtering to shunt the interference to ground. Shielding to confine interfering signals. Proper grounding of circuits, shields and interconnecting cabling. Use of isolation transformers. Separation of low-level signal cables from other cables.
|
|
|
What is the most effective method of containing radiated EMI?
|
Contain it at the source
|
|
|
What are some of the methods of suppressing EMI caused by DC/AC Motors and Generators?
|
DC Motors/Generators: Capacitors installed at the brushes or shielding provided by the housing.
AC Motors/Generators: Capacitors installed at the slip ring brushes and at the exciter brushes. Feedthrough capacitors installed in the output leads or bypass capacitors connected to the brush terminal outlet inside the shield. |
|
|
In the majority of cases what causes Sideband Splatter?
|
Overmodulation, overdriving the intermediate or final output stage.
|
|
|
What is the difference between Crossmodulation and Intermodulation?
|
Crossmodulation involves the transfer of modulation from one carrier to another. Intermodulation involves generation of numerous new frequencies from two or more signals.
|
|
|
What is the most common solution to decrease the coupling between closely spaced transmit antennas?
|
Use of multicouplers.
|
|
|
What is Co-channel Interference?
|
Interference arising from communications systems that are assigned the same, or nearly the same carrier frequency.
|
|
|
What is Adjacent Channel Interference?
|
Interference arising when some sidebands but not the carrier are within the receiver bandpass.
|
|
|
What is an image frequency?
|
An undesired frequency seperated from the desired signal by twice the IF and is located on the side of the local oscillator signal opposite the desired frequency
|
|
|
When referring to a receiver, define Desensitization and its cause?
|
A reduction in overall receiver gain or sensisitivity when a large unwanted signal enters the receiver
|
|
|
What is the "Rusty Bolt" effect?
|
Noise created by nonlinear junctions in the ships structures
|
|
|
What is galvanic corrosion?
|
Chemical corrosion caused by joining two dissimilair metals together in a corrosive environment
|
|
|
What is a non-linear junction or element?
|
A junction or element in which the current is not at all times proportional to the voltage across the junction/element.
|
|
|
What types of frequencies are re-radiated by a linear junction?
|
The fundamental frequency only.
|
|
|
What is the main source of interference in a Radar Modulator?
|
Its own output waveform
|
|
|
What is the bonding Impedance for all frequencies below 20MHZ?
|
Less than 80 milliohms. MILSTD, MIL-B-5087A
|
|
|
What is the MILSTANDARD used for Shipboard Bonding and Grounding?
|
MIL Standard MIL-STD-1310B
|
|
|
What is the preferred type of bonding strap?
|
A direct bond strap welded at both ends
|
|
|
What is the main purpose of Shielding?
|
To keep EMI confined within a specific region and to prevent EMI from entering a specific region.
|
|
|
Interference reduction by a shield is due to what two effects?
|
Reflection and Penetration losses.
|
|
|
What types of conductors should be used in shields?
|
Good conductors like copper, aluminum and magnesium should be used in high frequency shields. Magnetic materials like iron and Mumetal should be used in low frequency applications.
|
|
|
What is insertion loss?
|
The attenuation of the desired signal due to the insertion of the filter when properly terminated.
|
|
|
What is a cutoff frequency?
|
The frequency/s in which the attenuation is 3db greater than the insertion loss.
|
|
|
What is the bandwidth of a filter?
|
The frequency seperation between the 3db cutoff frequencies
|
|
|
What is meant by the "Q-factor" of a filter?
|
the ratio between the center frequency to the 3db bandwidth of the filter.
|
|
|
What is meant by the shape factor of a filter?
|
The ratio of the 60db bandwidth to the 6db bandwidth of a filter.
|
|
|
What is usually the cheapest type of filter to use?
|
An RC network
|
|
|
Where shall High volagae signs be placed?
|
At all locations where danger to personnel exists.
|
|
|
Where should RF Radiation Hazard Signs be located?
|
On radar pedestals (type A), adjacent to radar set controls (type B), at eye level at the foot of ladders or other accesses to all towers, masts and superstuctures subjected to hazardous levels of radiation (type C), and located in radio transmitter rooms in suitable locations in full view of operation personnel (type D).
|
|
|
What are the three types of cable service ratings?
|
a) General - used in normal ambient heat conditions (40-50 degree centigrade) and apply to most normal shipboard cable istallations.
b) Restricted - used where ambient heat conditions are above 50 degrees centigrade. Current carrying ability will be 15% less than the value given for cables with a general service rating. c) Isolated - used where heat, heated objects or cables are not located close by. Current carrying ability can be 10% more than the value given for general service ratings. |
|
|
What is the maximum allowable voltage drop from supply to equipment?
|
Under 100 volts, 5%. Over 100 volts, 2%.
|
|
|
What are the different cable classifications?
|
a) Active (high level), radar and IFF cables
b) Passive (medium level), power and lighting cables. c) Susceptible (low level), receiving and transceiving cables. |
|
|
What spacing is required between Active, Passive and Susceptible cables?
|
Radar modulator pulse cables shall be segregated from all other cables (active, passive and susceptable), in no instance less than 18". Active cables 18" from Passive cables. Susceptible cables at least 2" from passive cables.
|
|
|
What is the spacing between AC and DC power cables?
|
Shall be routed seperately.
|
|
|
Where may nylon stuffing tubes be used?
|
Through airtight or fume tight bulkheads up to 3/16". Splashproof, spraytight, watertight submersible and explosion proof enclosures.
|
|
|
In general where are stuffing tubes used?
|
Watertight bulkheads and decks and airtight bulkheads.
|
|
|
Where may box connectors be used?
|
Where water/air/fume/explosion proof integrity is not a concern
|
|
|
Where should cables be marked?
|
As close as practible to each point of connection. Both sides of bulkheads, decks, and other barriers and at intervals not to exceed 50'.
|
|
|
How are electronics Cables identified?
|
With the letter "R", followed with a designation for the following: Active cables "A", Susceptable cables "S", Passive cables require none.
|
|
|
What is the purpose for bonding and grounding?
|
Prevention of personnel hazards including shock, prevention of electronics interference.
|
|
|
What are some additional requirements for grounding and bonding?
|
for vibration isolation grounding straps shall be copper braid not less than 1/2" wide otherwise the strap shall be sheet copper or brass not less than .020 thick by 1/2" wide. Straps shall be as short as possible, the contacting surface shall have metal to metal contact.
|
|
|
How long should wires be cut when running them inside an enclosure?
|
Long enough to reach the furtherest terminal
|
|
|
How should individual wires be arranged?
|
Straight and parallel to each other.
|
|
|
How should wires be routed when crossing a hinge in an enclosure?
|
Across the hinge.
|
|
|
Where branch-offs occur in a wire group where should the tie be placed?
|
Immediately before the branch off.
|
|
|
How long should spares be cut in a wire group and how should they be routed?
|
Cut as long as the furtherest terminal. Wire ends should be insulated routed along with other wire groups then folded back on themselves as near as possible to the point of entry.
|
|
|
Who is solely responsible for the safety and health of their personnel?
|
The CO.
|
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring training classes are held for all newly reporting personnel prior to their operating or performing maintenance on any electronic or electrical equipment?
|
The safety officer. Classes should be held semi-annually
|
|
|
What is the approved safety harness for use in the CG?
|
A parachute harness, a safety line with a Dyna-Break Absorber and a working line constructed of nylon web material. Those constructed of leather or other materials is not authorized.
|
|
|
What is the approved MilStandard for floor matting?
|
MILSTD MIL-M-15562D. Shall be installed in open spaces around electric or electronic equipment on board ship and at ship facilities. Matting shall not be covered in any way by materials, waxes, rugs, etc,.
|
|
|
What type of rubber gloves are approved for use by Technicians?
|
Rubber gloves, size 10 or 11, 5000VAC rating with guantlet cuff 4" long. To be used when working with voltages of less than 5000 VAC to ground. Check gloves by trapping air in them and squeezing to increase pressure of trapped air. Discard gloves if found to have a hole. Stow gloves away from ozone, direct sunlight and other heat sources. Leather shells are to be worn over rubber gloves as protection against wear, tears and punctures.
|
|
|
What manual shall be referred to for proper lettering and color markings used with electronic and electrical equipment?
|
COMTINST M10360.3, Coatings and Color Manual.
|
|
|
Who is allowed to work on electrical or electronic equipment?
|
Trained and competent personnel
|
|
|
What are some of the safety precautions when working on electrical/electronic equipment?
|
Do not work alone, do not wear loose or wet clothing, wear steel toed shoes meeting the requirements of ANSI Z41 when working on circuits of 30 volts or more, do not wear exposed jewelry or rings.
|
|
|
What are some of the safety requirements when working aloft?
|
Permission from the OOD is mandatory. A safety harness must be worn. The harness must be checked before use by checking the webbing, buckles, D ring, tail line and snap hook.
|
|
|
Who can remove an electrical safety tag?
|
The person who placed it. The person to remove the last tag is the only person authorized to re-energize the circuit.
|
|
|
What is the preferred method of closing Circuit Breakers and Disconnects?
|
Use one hand only. Keep the other behind the back.
|
|
|
How may Large or High Voltage Capacitors be stored and discharged?
|
Store with a shorting wire across the terminals. Discharge with a shorting probe for 30 seconds then check with a meter.
|
|
|
What are the steps for Measuring voltages of 300 or more volts?
|
a) De-energize the equipment to be tested.
b) Attach appropriate warning tags and install lock outs. c) Discharge capacitors d) Attach ground lead of meter e) Attach positive lead of meter f) Check controls of meter and position of leads g) Stand away from the circuits being tested on a rubber mat i) Energize equipment and make measurement j) De-energize equipment k) Discharge high voltage capacitors l) remove test leads m) remove above3 steps for each measurement. |
|
|
How often shall electrical tools be tested for safe electrical and mechanical operation?
|
Quarterly.
|
|
|
What are some of the requirements of electronic/electrical workbenches?
|
a) All surfaces around the bench shall be insulated.
b) A ground buss w/suitable attachment cables shall be provided to gound equipment at the workbench. c) Impedance between neutral and fault protection subsystem (green wire) when measured shall be less than .5 ohm. Impedance between ground buss and fault protection subsystem shall be less than .1 ohm. d) Isolation transformers shall be provided to prevent shock from transformerless equipment. e) Circuit Breakers at the power panel shall be rated for less than 20 amps. f) Lighting in work bench areas shall be no less than 100 foot candles. g) Electrical outlets and bench wiring shall be checked quarterly |
|
|
When are Power disconnects/Kill switches required?
|
On each workbench and electrical equipment shall be provided with a means of disconnecting the power.
|
|
|
What types of equipment are characterized by the absence of an input power transformer?
|
Many radio and TV receivers of the AC/DC variety that use one side of the AC line input as chassis ground. To prevent this from being a dangerous shock hazard an isolation transformer shall be installed in the AC power line between the receiver and power source.
|
|
|
Why are Primary power filters considered a shock hazard?
|
Because unless bleeder circuitry is used power line filters remain charged after the power has been removed.
|
|
|
What is the recovery rate for victims of electrical shock?
|
70% if artificail respiration was started within 3 minutes after the shock
|
|
|
What is the first thing to do if a person comes into contact with a live wire or circuit?
|
Secure the power
|
|
|
Where are the authorized CG instructions for CPR located?
|
COMDTINST M6000.3.
|
|
|
How often should PCB/PCB comtaminated transformers and Capacitors be inspected for leakage?
|
Weekly
|
|
|
What are the proper CRT disposal procedures?
|
Place CRT in empty carton or box, break off the locating pin from its base then break off the tip of the glass vacuum seal. Pierce the CRT using a long thin rod going through the side of the carton/box. Submerge the CRT in water and crush with a blunt instrument.
|
|
|
How should lead acid batteries be handled?
|
Use goggles, rubber gloves and a rubber apron when handling lead acid batteries. Always pour acid into the water, never the other way around. When disconnecting the battery/s always disconnect the grounded cable first. When reconnecting, connect the grounded cable last.
|
|
|
How should Trichloroethane be stored?
|
No more than 1 gallon should be stored in a single container, outside in a well ventilated area.
|
|
|
How should chemical burns be treated?
|
Flushed with large amounts of water for 5-20 minutes until the chemical is washed away.
|
|
|
What is the initial treatment for someone exposed to tricholoroethane 1-1-1?
|
Remove victim from area to a clean and well ventilated area.
|
|
|
What two catagories do RF radiation hazards fall into?
|
Induced voltage effects and Personnel Biological injury.
|
|
|
What are some of the safety precautions used to guard against dangers from induced voltage?
|
a) Do not operate transmitters (250W or less)within 25' of combustables and electrically initiated ordnance.
b) Transmitters greater than 250W shall not be operated within 100' of combustables and electrically initiated ordnance. c) RADHAZ signs shall be posted in areas where personnel can be exposed to radiation hazard and where personnel will come near hazards. |
|
|
What are some of the safety precautions used to guard against dangers from Biological Injury?
|
No known danger exists to frequencies below 30MHZ. Greatest danger comes from frequencies in the VHF/UHF and Radar ranges. The greatest harm is caused by heat. The Permissable Exposure limit is no more than six minutes in any hour. The PEL limits to different antennas is as follows: Mini-Loop Antennas: 12' radius
35' Antenna: 12' radius 47' Antenna: 12' radius |
|
|
What is the most dangerous frequency that causes Biological Injury?
|
Frequencies between 200 and 3,000MHZ penetrate deeply into the body. Because of this the general heating effect will not be felt by the body until it's too late. Frequencies between 3,000 and 11,000MHZ produce a warming sensation warning personnel that they are being over exposed.
|
|
|
What is the drop radius of an Antenna?
|
20% plus the height of the antenna
|
|
|
What types of radiation are harmful to the human body?
|
Alpha radiation: Does not represent a danger as an external source, but inside the body becomes extremely dangerous. Considered to cause the greatest internal damage.
Beta radiation: Dangerous both as an external and internal source. Gamma radiation: Considered to be the most dangerous due to it's high penetrating power. |
|
|
How are radioactive tubes marked?
|
By the word "Caution" above the AEC marking
|
|
|
How often should areas containing radioactive tubes be monitored?
|
Every 30 days or when new stocks are placed in such areas
|
|
|
What steps should be taken in the event a wound is encountered when handling a Radioactive tube?
|
Stimulate free bleeding. Use a suction bulb to suck blood from the wound.
|
|
|
What form is submitted to the Engineering Officer for any electronics project for work items beyond the capacity of the units electronics force?
|
A CSMP CG-2920
|
|
|
What document is used by Commandant to initiate modifications to electronics systems and by Districts, MLCs and HQ units to request authorization for such alterations?
|
CG-3439, Electronics Alteration Request/Authorization. ElectronAlt
|
|
|
How are Electronalts numbered?
|
By seven digits. First two digits designate the district, next three are consecutive numbers assigned on an annual basis, last two digits are the fiscal year. Example: 0503174 (05=5th District), (031=31st Ealt submitted that year), (74=1974)
|
|
|
What form is used by Commandant to make changes to, or comment on, submitted Electronalts and by Districts, MLC's or HQ units to report completion of, request changes to, or comment on existing ElectronAlts?
|
CG-3739A, Electronics Alteation Action and Project Completion Report.
|
|
|
What form is used to provide information on the condition of all transmitting and receiving antenna systems and submarine cables?
|
NAVSHIP-531 Resistance Test Record Card.
|
|
|
Where can general information regarding the distribution and procurement of publications be found?
|
In the DPRI, COMDTNOTE 5600
|
|
|
Who stocks equipment technical manuals?
|
Electronics Logistics Center, Baltimore.
|
|
|
What manual provides identifying information for components, assemblies, and equipments required in support or reporting shipboard shipboard and shore-based electronics systems supported i the CG Supply System and primarily through ELC?
|
COMDTINST M4410.5 Electronics Material Identification Manual.
|
|
|
Where would a list of Navy publications be found?
|
The DRPI is the final authority for all publications which a shop or unit is required to have on hand. NAVSUP 2002 lists the Navy Pubs which are available
|
|
|
What is referenced for basic information, techniques and procedures and methods for checking electronic systems and facilities grounding, bonding and shielding?
|
MIL-HDBK-419.
|
|
|
What publication provides the minimum standards for Installation of secure and non secure information systems?
|
MIL-HDBK 232 Red/Black Engineering-Installation guidelines.
|
|
|
What publication provides information, standards, and specifications applicable to communications systems installations?
|
MIL-HDBK-188
|
|
|
What is APA material?
|
Appropriation Purchase Account Material, technical material including equipment components and repair parts which are managed by an Inventory Control Point (ICP).
|
|
|
Who is authorized to purchase electronic equipment for inventory and projects authorized by Headquarters?
|
E/GICP and AICP
|
|
|
What is the normal supply quantities provided by an the MICA?
|
A 90 day supply or one year supply for isolated LORAN units
|
|
|
What is used to maintain personal property accountability of electronic equipment?
|
The Accountable Item Management System (AIM).
|
|
|
What is used to turn in a failed APA item?
|
A 1348-1.
|
|
|
What is used to document a failed APA module's symptoms?
|
A dd-1577-2
|
|
|
What does the advice code 5G mean?
|
Exchange certification. Item will be turned in on an exchange basis
|
|
|
What does repair code 5A mean?
|
Initial issue. No turn in is available or required.
|
|
|
What is the Coast Guard's official accountable property management system?
|
AIM.
|
|
|
What is a AIM reporting unit?
|
An operating facility with ET's/TT's assigned designated by MLC to report supported electronic equipment in AIM
|
|
|
What is an AIM sub-unit?
|
An operating facility having the requirement to participate in AIM but is not equiped or staffed to maintain their own AIM program.
|
|
|
What is CMPLUS?
|
An on-line configuration-based suppply and maintenance system for updating and maintaining baseline configuration data and replacement materials.
|
|
|
What is the AIM record for supported electronic equipment?
|
The Electronics Inventory Record.
|
|
|
What is the AIM record for non-supported electronic equipment?
|
The property record.
|
|
|
When referring to an electronic system, what is meant by the terms "Parent" and "Child"?
|
"Parent" refers to the system as a whole.
"Child" refers to a subsystem of a system. |
|
|
When is CMPLUS, vice AIM mandated for use?
|
For all units holding CMPLUS version 2.0.4 or greater.
|
|
|
Who appoints the property officer?
|
The CO.
|
|
|
Who assigns the property custodian?
|
The property officer
|
|
|
Who is required to sign official AIM reports?
|
By the EIR property officer or EIR custodian.
|
|
|
How long must units keep signed AIM reports?
|
Three years or until a unit AIM system validation is completed.
|
|
|
How often must a physical inventory be performed?
|
Upon relief of the custodian. If a relief does not occur within 2 years, prior to the second anniversery date of the last inventory a physical inventory must be performed. This may be extended by 60 days if a relief is anticipated during that time
|
|
|
Who conducts the inventory?
|
By the custodian, the relieving custodian and an independant person.
|
|
|
What should be done if a joint inventory is not possible?
|
The new custodian must perform an inventory within 30 days and submit the required letter report of relief to the CO.
|
|
|
On what other occasion shall an inventory be performed?
|
Upon the decommissioning of an afloat unit or disestablishment of a shore unit.
|
|
|
How should requests for resident training be routed?
|
On a short term training request, CG5223 and forward to the office indicated in the Coast Guard Formal Training Schedule, COMDTNOTE 1540.
|
|
|
Where should training be documented?
|
In the Individual training record, CG5285 that must be maintained for each member.
|
|
|
What is a field change?
|
A modification to a specific type of electronic equipment and will be installed in all Coast Guard Equipment of that specific type
|
|
|
How are all authorized equipment alterations documented?
|
By a field change.
|
|
|
What is a type 1 Field Change?
|
Where documentation, parts and special tools are furnished to complete the change.
|
|
|
What is a type 2 Field Change?
|
Documentation is furnished only.
|
|
|
What is a type 3 Field Change?
|
Documentation and some of the parts are furnished.
|
|
|
What is a type 4 Field Change?
|
Only changes to technical documentation is required.
|
|
|
What is the authority for the installation of the field change?
|
The field change bulletin.
|
|
|
How are field changes on Navy Equipment numbered?
|
Navy field changes start with 1. Coast Guard field changes to Navy equipment start with 91.
|
|
|
Who assigns the field change number for Coast Guard equipment?
|
The SMEF
|
|
|
What is an ERRATA sheet?
|
Issued to correct minor mistakes in a field change bulletin
|
|
|
A proposed change to a configuration item is performed how?
|
By submitting an Engineering change proposal (ECP).
|
|
|
What types of ECP's are there?
|
Type 1 changes the specified operating characteristics or performance of the equipment or software product, will have a significant impact on the logistics support, training or maintenance support structure and policies for the equipment or software product. Will require action through the budgetary process to obtain new resources or cannot be implemented with existing SMEF resources.
Type 2 changes will not change the specified operating characteristics or performance of the equipment or software product and can be implemented with existing SMEF resources. |
|
|
What is the foremost method of controlling the implementation of a product's changing configuration?
|
The configuration Control Board.
|
|
|
Who is responsible for documenting, recording and reporting iformation on the configuration baseline and implementation of equipment status information?
|
The SMEF
|
|
|
What equipment does the CGPMS program cover?
|
All Coast Guard equipment not covered by the Navy PMS program
|
|
|
What contains all components comprising CGPMS?
|
The work schedule book (WSB).
|
|
|
What lists all CGPMS material for electronic equipment installed at or supported by the unit?
|
The list of effective Index of Maintenance Procedures (LOEIMP).
|
|
|
What is an MPC?
|
Maintenance procedure cards (MPC's) which are step-by-step maintenance actions to be performed on an electronic equipment or system.
|
|
|
Where can a listing of all applicable MPCs for a given equipment or system be found?
|
In the Index of Procedure Cards (IMP).
|
|
|
What provides a complete listing of all available CGPMS procedures?
|
The master index.
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a feedback report?
|
Used to report deficiencies or recommendations for changes in CGPMS as well as administrative and miscellaneous CGPMS requests or comments.
|
|
|
What types of FBR's are there?
|
Technical: Describe technical discrepancies or technical problems areas. Each FBR should address only one problem.
Non-Technical: Provide administrative feedback such as missing or mutilated pages, modification or update of the unit's CGPMS package or general comments. Safety-Related: For reporting any safety related deficiency. |
|
|
How often is CGPMS updated?
|
Annually or at a unit's request
|
|
|
What should a unit Do whenever CGPMS or NPMS are not available for an equipment or system they support?
|
Develop a locally procuced PMS.
|
|
|
When shall an URGENT FBR be submitted?
|
When it involves safety of personnel or damage to equipment.
|
|
|
What is Organizational Maintenance?
|
On-site maintenance performed on an unit's equipment by personnel assigned to that unit.
|
|
|
What is Intermediate Level Maintenance?
|
Maintenance or technical assistance provided by designated field maintenance activities in direct support of organizational level units.
|
|
|
What is depot level maintenance?
|
Maintenance provided at centralized repair facilities
|
|
|
When cleaning electronic equipment what steps should generally be followed?
|
Cleaning should be done using a soft, clean, lint free cloth. Never use steel wool or emery cloth. Do not use blowers or compressed air. A vacuum cleaner with a non-metallic tip may be used to remove dust and foreign matter
|
|
|
What is the minimum maintenance requirements for Wire Antennas?
|
At the end of each deployment at sea inspect all antennas for signs of corrosion, fraying or other damage. Lugs and clamps should be disassembeld, cleaned with sandpaper and carefully reassembled. Insulators shall be thoroughly cleaned when antenna is serviced.
|
|
|
What is the most common fault in antenna systems?
|
Low resistance to ground
|
|
|
When checking an antenna what does a meggar reading of 200 MegOhms or less indicate?
|
A need for maintenance.
|
|
|
What does a meggar reading of less than 5 MegOhms indicate?
|
An immediate and urgent need for maintenance.
|
|
|
What is the most common means of checking a waveguide?
|
VSWR
|
|
|
What guideline is used for shipboard bonding and grounding?
|
MIL-STD-1310.
|
|
|
How should Ni-Cad batteries be stored?
|
In a fully discharged state.
|
|
|
What are some general precautions that should be followed when servicing Ni-Cad batteries?
|
Because of internal low resistance, do not short circuit the battery. Keep the batteries within a temperature range of 32F-113F. Only change the electroyle level after the battery is fully charged and insure good accurate voltage regulation at all times.
|
|
|
What vessels are required to have a radio receiver for radio direction finding?
|
Those over 1600 tons.
|
|
|
When is a service Arc calibration required at a Radio Beacon site?
|
After a new installation, an antenna relocation or changeout or after any construction at the site.
|
|
|
What comprises an ideal ground system for a radio beacon site?
|
#8 copper wire radials at 12 degree intervals. The longer the radials the better, buried 6" to 12" deep terminated with 4' ground rods.
|
|
|
What are the two types of ground systems?
|
Those for improving the performance of antennas and those for the safety of personnel and equipment.
|
|
|
What are some of the general rules to be considered when designing a ground system?
|
a) Personnel protection must be provided by providing an electrical path between the equipment and the earth. Resistance of the path must not exceed 25 ohms.
b) Building protection against lightning must be provided by a low impedance path between the metal structural portions of the building and earth. c) RF Interference caused by standing waves on ground leads must be eliminated by keeping the ground leads to lengths less than one wavelength. d) Where possible a single ground system must be installed. A single ground system prevents potential differences between systems and reduces to a minimum the possible circulation of ground currents. |
|
|
What references establishes the basic criteria for earth ground connection
safety? |
National Electrical Code and MIL-STD-188-124A.
|
|
|
How shall the resistance to earth of any earth electrical subsystem be measured?
|
By the fall-of-potential method.
|
|
|
What is the preferred selection for an earth ground point?
|
A totally metallic underground water piping system, usually having a resistance to earth of less than 3 ohms. Next choice would be other metallic underground piping systems, except a gas service piping system. Such systems typically have a resistance to earth of less than 10 ohms. Lastly, installed electrodes shall be considered. These should be placed to have no more than 10 ohms resistance between electrodes and true earth.
|
|
|
What size of driven electrodes are used for the earth ground connection?
|
A minimum of 10' in length with a minimum diameter of 3/4", copper clad steel or stainless steel
|
|
|
How deep should electrodes be driven into the ground?
|
Deep enough to reach the permanent moisture level of the earth.
|
|
|
How should multiple driven electrodes be connected together in a ground system?
|
Connected to each other with a 1/0 awg bare copper wire buried at least 1.5' in the ground.
|
|
|
What is the general spacing between electrodes?
|
1-1/2 to 2 times the length of the electrodes
|
|
|
When using grounding plates what is the minimum amount of surface contact required with the soil?
|
A minimum of 2 square feet with the soil.
|
|
|
How often should earth ground systems be tested?
|
Every two years.
|
|
|
If the earth ground point fails to meet a specified minimum resistance to ground what is the preferred method of reducing the resistance?
|
Increasing the depth of the driven electrodes.
|
|
|
What is the preferred method for joining ground systems components?
|
By exothermic welding.
|
|
|
Where is silver soldering acceptable?
|
For the attachment of radials to ground rods only at the periphery of an array due to the smaller currents at these points
|
|
|
What is the purpose of an AC protective ground system?
|
To safeguard life and equipment
|
|
|
What is used as a zero reference level beween circuits and as an electrical connection to the earth ground point?
|
A signal ground distribution system.
|
|
|
What is the main purpose of a signal ground system?
|
To provide the highest signal to noise ratio possible on the signal circuits between equipments.
|
|
|
What are the grounding requirements for RED cables?
|
Cable shields for RED equipment are grounded at one end only
|
|
|
What are the grounding requirements for BLACK cables?
|
Cable shields for BLACK equipment are grounded at both ends
|
|
|
How often are lightning protection systems to be inspected?
|
Every five years
|
|
|
What should the desired gap spacing be on a spark gap?
|
1/4" past 100% transmitter arc-over.
|
|
|
What is the DC resistance of an adequate bond strap?
|
Between .0025 and .00025 ohms
|
|
|
What construction should bonding jumpers be?
|
Flat, thin and short solid straps to provide large surface areas for low RF impedance.
|
|
|
What is the preferred bonding method?
|
A direct bond made by welding or brazing.
|
|
|
What is the required response time for an NDS outage?
|
3 hours.
|
|
|
What is the maximum outage time for an NDS outage?
|
24 hours.
|
|
|
How often is the contractor required to conduct PMS?
|
Once every six months.
|
|
|
When dealing with miniloop antennas, where is the maximum amount of radiation concentrated at?
|
Off the ends
|
|
|
When is loop to loop coupling maximum?
|
When end-to-end or when broadside to each other
|
|
|
When is loop to loop coupling minimum?
|
When loops are oriented 90 degrees relative to each other.
|
|
|
When should a RDF be calibrated?
|
Upon initial installation, after any modification to the antenna configuration or topside structures.
|
|
|
When should a RDF be recalibrated?
|
When the deviation is more than 3 degrees from the RDF chart and within 12 months of the posted chart.
|
|
|
How often should Accuracy checks be made to the RDF chart?
|
At least every 6 months.
|
|
|
Where shall the RDF chart be posted?
|
Placed in a conspicuous location near the RDF so that the operator can easily use it.
|
|
|
What is General Purpose Test Equipment (GPETE)?
|
Test equipment which measures or generates a range of parameters of electronic functions common to two or more equipments.
|
|
|
What is Special Purpose Test Equipment (SPETE)?
|
Test equipment of special design or for use with a specific equipment or system.
|
|
|
Who is responsible for acquisition, issue, repair, calibration and disposal of all electronic test equipment?
|
MLC
|
|
|
How is the basic allowance for test equipment for a unit determined?
|
By the electronics equipment on the EIR.
|
|
|
What conditions must be satisfied each time a tower is climbed by Coast Guard personnel?
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1. The climber must be a responsible volunteer
2. The climber must be authorized in writing by the major field commander to climb towers of a height equal to or greater than the tower to be climbed 3. Climber must use a complete safety ladder climbing device (safety belt, safety rail sleeve, safety rail, and lanyard) 4. A safety observer must be present on the ground at all times while the climber is on the tower 5. The safety observer shall be dressed to climb, same as the climber 6. Tower should not be climbed in inclement weather. The tower may be climbed in fog or low visibility if the climber and safety observer are equipped with 2 way radios, and conduct radio checks every 5 minutes 7. Tower shall be de-energized for mounting and dismounting. Use a deadman stick to positively ground the tower 8. A safety line shall be attached to all tools, in case of accidental dropping NOTE: Loran C towers maybe climbed while they are energized. All towers over 20 feet in height shall be equipped with a rigid rail safety climbing device. |
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A permanent, single gated fence, constructed of non-conductive materials, shall be installed to enclose the immediate area around the base of each transmitting antenna tower. "High Voltage" signs shall be placed _________
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on each side of the fence, facing outwards.
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Who can issue a search warrant?
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Coast Guard military judges are empowered to authorize searches
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What article of the UCMJ is considered general articles?
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Article 134
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What article of the UCMJ protects a witness from commiting perjury?
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Article 131
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When did the UCMJ under the act of congress become a law?
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5 May 1950
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When it is determined that there is reason to suspect that the accused commited an offense meriting non-judicial punishment, who assigns a preliminary inquiry officer (PIO) to investigate it?
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Executive Officer
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When a member re-enlists or extends, what article of the UCMJ must the member be explained?
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Article 137
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What law gives any petty officer in the Coast Guard the right to board any vessel subject to the jurisdiction of the United States?
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14 U.S.C. 89
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Upon finding of probable cause, who besides a military judge can authorize a search of a person on board a station or vessel?
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Commanding Officers and Officers in Charge may authorize a search of any person or place over which he has control
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Is a shore patrol member authorized to release a person in custody to civilian authorities?
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No, a higher authority must make transfers
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What is the composition of a non summary Court-Martial?
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One officer
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Who may be tried before a Summary Court Martial?
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Only enlisted personnel
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What is the compostion of a Special Court-Martial?
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Three or more members, with one third of the panel as enlisted, if requested
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May a Special Court-Martial try a member for an offense that carries the death penalty?
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No. A district commander in special circumstances may direct a special Court-Martial for which the deah penalty may be awarded
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Who may convene a General Court-Martial?
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Only the Commandant or a district commander
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What is the compostion of a General Court-Martial?
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5 or more with a third of the panel as enlisted members, if requested
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Hair (mens)
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Bulk shall be no more than 1 1/2", doesn't touch ears, back length of hair can't touch collar, can't fall below eyebrows
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Hair (womens)
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Bulk shall not exceed 2", Can't extend below eyebrows, hair can't fall below lower edge of collar
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Beards (mens)
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If shaving waiver is authorized, facial hair will be kept trimmed not to exceed 1/4" in length
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Fingernails (men)
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Shall not extend past the fingertips
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Fingernails (women)
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Shall not exceed 1/4", measured from fingertip
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Earrings (men)
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Earrings are prohibited for male personel in uniform under any circumstances, and are prohibited in civilian clothing aboard any military installation, or while on official duty. No other type of body piercing ornamentation is authorized for men or women.
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Earrings (womens)
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Only one earring per lobe shall be worn. 1/4" maximum round ball -style gold, silver, or pearl are authorized with all uniforms; formal dinner dress- 1/4" diamond earrings are authorized
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