Eppp Missed Questions - Cloned

Front 1

A family therapist who uses anecdotes from her own family to emphasize similarities with the client family is doing which of the following?
A reframing
B triangulating
C diffusing boundaries
D joining

Back 1

The Correct Answer is "D"
Joining, a technique used by structural family therapists, involves taking steps to become a family insider by, among other things, assuming the same type of communication style, sharing personal stories, etc.

Front 2

Walking through a dark park at night, you hear footsteps behind you. You think it may be a mugger so your breathing deepens and heart beats faster, at the same time you experience fear. This is an example of which theory?
A Cannon-Bard
B James-Lange
C Lazarus
D Schachter-Singer

Back 2

The Correct Answer is "C"
C. In contrast to the other three theories, Lazarus’ theory proposes that a thought must precede any emotion or physiological arousal. Cannon-Bard (a.) states physiological and emotional arousal are experienced at the same time. According to the other two, an event causes physiological arousal first, then interpretation (b.) or reasoning (d.) and finally the experience of emotion. A fifth theory of emotion, facial feedback, argues that changes in facial muscles cue the brain and provide the basis of emotion.

Front 3

Kohlberg's theory of moral development focuses on moral reasoning. With regard to the linkage between moral reasoning and moral action, Kohlberg would most likely agree with which of the following?
A There is a direct, one-to-one link between moral reasoning and behavior.
B The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual's previous experience with the situation.
C The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual's IQ.
D There isn't a one-to-one correspondence between moral reasoning and behavior, although, the higher the stage of moral reasoning, the stronger the link is likely to be.

Back 3

The Correct Answer is "D"
Kohlberg believed there is a link between moral reasoning and moral action but felt that the correspondence was greatest at the higher stages of moral reasoning.

Front 4

A woman who was in a serious car accident six months ago sees a picture of a car in a newspaper and becomes anxious. This is an example of
A mediated generalization.
B higher-order conditioning.
C classical conditioning.
D Posttraumatic Stress Disorder.

Back 4

The Correct Answer is "A"
The question describes an example of a phenomenon that you may have learned is called stimulus generalization. That is, the woman has been conditioned to respond with anxiety to cars and therefore exhibits the same response to a similar stimulus -- a picture of a car. This process is also sometimes referred to as mediated generalization. In this context, the term "mediated" means that the picture has never been paired with the original source of anxiety (i.e., the accident). Therefore, in order for the picture to cause anxiety, some cognitive mediation must be taking place.

Front 5

Which one of the following is least likely to attenuate a measure of correlation?
A restricted range
B homoscedasticity
C curvilinear relationship
D the use of unreliable measures

Back 5

The Correct Answer is "B"
Homoscedasticity refers to even scatter around the regression line. Homoscedasticity is actually a good thing. It wouldn't attenuate the correlation at all. The other three choices list factors that would attenuate the correlation coefficient.

Front 6

Korsakoff's Syndrome is characterized by:
A anterograde amnesia without retrograde amnesia.
B anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which remote events are recalled better than recent events.
C anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which recent events are recalled better than remote events.
D anterograde amnesia and "flat" retrograde amnesia in which deficits in remote and recent memory are about the same.

Back 6

The Correct Answer is "B"

Front 7

In a factor analysis, an eigenvalue corresponds to
A the number of latent variables.
B the strength of the relationship between factors.
C the level of significance of the factor analysis.
D the explained variance of one of the factors.

Back 7

The Correct Answer is "D"
When a factor analysis produces a series of factors, it is useful to determine how much of the variance is accounted for by each factor. An eigenvalue is based on the factor loadings of all the variables in the factor analysis to a particular factor. When the factor loadings are high, the eigenvalue will be large. A large eigenvalue would mean that a particular factor accounts for a large proportion of the variance among the variables.

Front 8

A culturally-encapsulated therapist:
A exhibits a bias that involves interpreting all of the presenting problems of minority clients as the direct result of cultural factors.
B has had little or no contact with members of minority groups and exhibits a lack of interest in working with these individuals in therapy.
C attempts to overcome his or her cultural biases by adopting a "culture-blind" perspective that may or may not be appropriate.
D tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her cultural biases.

Back 8

The Correct Answer is "D"
The notion of cultural encapsulation was originally described by Wrenn in 1962. A primary characteristic of a culturally-encapsulated counselor is an acceptance (usually unconscious) of traditional cultural stereotypes.

Front 9

Recent meta-analyses of the research on work-family conflict suggest that it is:
A only a problem for married employees.
B related more to job satisfaction for men than for women.
C related to job satisfaction but not life satisfaction.
D related more to life satisfaction for women than for men.

Back 9

The Correct Answer is "D"
Meta-analyses indicate that work-family conflict has an impact on job satisfaction and life satisfaction for both men and women. However, there is some evidence that it's effects for women may be greater, especially in terms of life satisfaction.

Front 10

According to Brady, the best treatment for reducing a phobic anxiety reaction is one that entails:
A actual in-vivo exposure to the anxiety-producing stimulus.
B systematic desensitization and imagined exposure to the stimulus.
C hierarchical implosion therapy.
D graded participant modeling.

Back 10

The Correct Answer is "A"
Research has supported the general principle that the more realistic the treatment situation, the better the result with phobias and fears.

Front 11

The results of the Robber's Cave experiment (Sherif et al., 1961) indicated that:
A emotional reactions are based upon cognitive interpretations of arousal
B superordinate goals reduce hostility between groups
C we prefer to be right rather than happy
D we tend to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs

Back 11

The Correct Answer is "B"
In Sherif's Robber's Cave Study, children in a summer camp were divided into two groups on an arbitrary basis and made to engage in competition with each other. This engendered intergroup hostility and dislike, which was found to be greatly reduced when a task requiring the two groups to cooperate (on superordinate goals) was introduced. Choice A represents Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion. Choice C is a conclusion of Self Verification Theory. And Choice D exemplifies the confirmatory bias.

Front 12

The Solomon four-group design is:
A a quasi-experimental design
B used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups
C used to reduce practice effects
D used to evaluate the effects of pretesting

Back 12

The Correct Answer is "D"
The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.

Front 13

Which of the following medications is least likely to cause anticholinergic symptoms?
A Imipramine
B Fluoxetine
C Amitriptyline
D Venlafaxine

Back 13

The Correct Answer is "B"
The anticholinergic effects, which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia, are much more likely to result from the tricylics or heterocyclics than the SSRI's. Of the choices listed only Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an SSRI. Imipramine (Tofranil) and Amitriptyline (Elavil) are tricyclics and Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a heterocyclic.

Front 14

The tendency to attribute all behavioral, social and emotional problems to a diagnosis or psychopathology while alternative explanations and comorbid diagnoses are often not considered is referred to as:
A diagnostic overshadowing
B psychosocial masking
C intellectual distortion
D baseline exaggeration

Back 14

The Correct Answer is "A"
A. Research by Reiss et al. (1982) found mental disorders in individuals with mental retardation are often unrecognized, undiagnosed, and untreated. The underestimation was proposed to be the result of a phenomenon called "diagnostic overshadowing," where the presence of mental retardation decreases the diagnostic significance of an accompanying mental health disorder. Or as an example with slow learners there may be the reverse case of diagnostic overshadowing. That is, professionals ignore the real world influences of low intelligence such as poor coping skills, poor social skills, repeated failure experiences and the risk factors associated with poverty and attribute all behavioral, social and emotional problems to psychopathology. The other response choices are three of four non-specific factors associated with mental retardation that influence the diagnostic process: intellectual distortion (c.), emotional symptoms are difficult to elicit because of deficits in abstract thinking and in receptive and expressive language skills; psychosocial masking (b.), the effect of disabilities or limited social experiences on the content of psychiatric symptoms; cognitive disintegration, the tendency to become disorganized under emotional stress or a decreased ability to tolerate stress leading to anxiety-induced decompensation; and baseline exaggeration (d.), the fact that chronic maladaptive behaviors may significantly increase in severity or frequency during a period of emotional stress or after the onset of psychiatric illness.

Front 15

For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, a person must have a history of binge eating and
A a sense of a lack of control over eating for at least three months.
B purging for at least six months.
C inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months.
D vomiting, use of diuretics, or excessive exercising for at least four months.

Back 15

The Correct Answer is "C"
This question is simply requiring you to be familiar with the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Bulimia Nervosa – i.e., (1) binge eating (which includes a sense of a lack of control) and (2) inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to lose weight (e.g., purging, excessive exercise) for three months or more.

Front 16

95. Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at 20 years of age to _________ at 60 years of age.
A 8 inches
B 12 inches
C 24 inches
D 48 inches

Back 16

The Correct Answer is "D"
As we age the ability of our eyes to focus on objects declines due to a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye. This condition, known as "presbyopia," typically increases the near point (the shortest distance at which we can focus) from four inches at 20 years of age to about four feet at 60 years of age. Although some people have different rates of decline, presbyopia eventually affects everyone.

Front 17

A 12-year-old child has been exhibiting several motor tics and a vocal tic many times each day for the past 6 months. The most likely diagnosis is:
A Transient Tic Disorder
B Tourette's Disorder
C Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder
D Tic Disorder Not Otherwise Specified

Back 17

The Correct Answer is "A"
According to the DSM-IV-TR, the Tic Disorders can be differentiated from one another based on duration, variety of tics, and age at onset. Transient Tic Disorder includes motor and/or vocal tics lasting at least 4 weeks but for no longer than 12 consecutive months. Choices B and C could be eliminated because Tourette's Disorder and Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder each have a duration of more than 12 months. Finally, Tic Disorder NOS (D) would be appropriate when symptoms last less than 4 weeks, for onset above 18 years, or if an individual presented with only one motor tic and only one vocal tic.

Front 18

According to Atkinson, Sue, and Sue, the ideal outcome of racial/cultural identity development is
A full acceptance of one's own culture.
B giving individual identity priority over cultural identity.
C recognizing that all cultures have acceptable and unacceptable aspects.
D recognizing the impact of racial/cultural oppression on one's mental health.

Back 18

The Correct Answer is "C"
The final stage in Atkinson et al.'s racial/cultural identity development model is referred to as the "integrative awareness stage." Individuals in this stage recognize that all cultures have both positive and negative aspects and decide which aspects they want to accept or reject.

Front 19

According to behavioral theory, depression is generally considered to result from:
A negative punishment
B noncontingent punishment
C prolonged extinction
D having to make finer and finer stimulus discriminations

Back 19

The Correct Answer is "C"
There are several behavioral models of depression but probably the oldest is the operant conditioning model, which describes it as the result of being on an extinction schedule for an extended period of time. The depressed person has had little or no access to reinforcement.

Front 20

From the perspective of humanistic schools of psychology, psychopathology would be seen as being due to:
A man's irrational nature, which interferes with a disciplined course of behaviors to enhance personal growth.
B defenses that interfere with one's own natural tendency toward personal growth.
C biological factors that inhibit personal growth.
D a lack of insight into one's past, which interferes with the tendency toward personal growth in the present.

Back 20

The Correct Answer is "B"
The humanistic school of psychotherapy, which is exemplified by approaches to therapy such as person-centered therapy, Gestalt therapy, and transactional analysis, emphasizes human capacities and potentialities rather than deficiencies. From the humanistic perspective, we have a natural tendency toward self-actualization or personal growth. Neurosis or pathology occurs due to defensive distortions (e.g., blocks to awareness in Gestalt therapy, or conditions of worth in person-centered therapy) that prevent this natural tendency from operating.

Front 21

A patient with Alzheimer's disease would be likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following factor indexes on the WAIS-III?
A perceptual organization and processing speed
B working memory and perceptual organization
C working memory and processing speed
D verbal comprehension and processing speed

Back 21

The Correct Answer is "A"
Patients with Alzheimer's disease do more poorly than "normals" on the WAIS-III, and they tend to obtain higher scores on the Verbal subtests than on the Performance subtests. The Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory factor indexes consist of verbal subtests only, while the Perceptual Organization and Processing Speed factor indexes are comprised of performance subtests, which explains why their performance is likely to be poorer on the latter two indexes. See, for example, The Psychological Corporation, WAIS-III and WMS-III Technical Manual, 1997, San Antonio, TX.

Front 22

104. A psychologist is consulted by the parents of a child who was referred by a pediatrician for evaluation. During the interview with the parents, they report the girl suffered a severe head injury which they haven't told the pediatrician about. Assuming appropriate consents have been obtained, the psychologist:
A should have the parents report this to the pediatrician.
B should report this to the pediatrician.
C should not report this until the parents tell the pediatrician first.
D should keep this information to herself.

Back 22

The Correct Answer is "B"
This question looks like one on confidentiality, and, indeed, there are some aspects of confidentiality embedded here. But, more than that, it's about professional relationships. You're told in the item stem that all consents have been obtained, so the confidentiality issue was already addressed. The question then is, "What should the psychologist do?" Since we're all here to help the patient, the most appropriate thing to do is to let the pediatrician know about your findings. You would call (probably call rather than write since calling is quicker) the pediatrician and report your findings. It was the pediatrician who made the referral in the first place, and you have the parents' consent.

Front 23

According to Vygotsky, what has the greatest impact on the development of language?
A social relationships
B internal cognitive structures
C schemas
D scaffoldings

Back 23

The Correct Answer is "A"
For Vygotsky, language is originally and primarily social. Thus a child's language and cognitive processes are greatly influenced by his social relationships and culture. From these experiences the child formulates his language. This is in contrast to Piaget (answer B and C) who believed that universal internal cognitive structures or schema developed first within the child, and then were influenced by his surroundings. Answer D "scaffolding" is Vygotsky's term for the assistance adults give to children to help them learn about the world.

Front 24

To study attachment, a researcher has a mother of a one-year old stand on the deep side of the visual cliff, while the child is placed on the shallow side. The researcher finds that when a mother smiles, the child crosses to its mother, but, when the mother frowns, the child does not approach her and cries. This phenomenon is referred to as:
A social distancing.
B social referencing.
C social facilitation/inhibition.
D social comparison.

Back 24

The Correct Answer is "B"
Even if you had never heard of social referencing, you may have been able to pick the right answer by the process of elimination (i.e., hopefully, you know what social facilitation, social inhibition, and social comparison are since they are topics that could appear on the exam and are covered in the study materials; social distancing is a ficticious term). Social referencing is considered a sign of attachment between a child and its caregiver.

Front 25

Asian-American students often outperform their non-Asian peers on various measures of academic achievement. Research suggests that the best predictor of higher achievement in Asian-Americans is:
A estimate of ability.
B fear of academic failure.
C self-efficacy beliefs.
D effort beliefs.

Back 25

The Correct Answer is "B"
Asian-American and non-Asian students not only differ in terms of achievement but also in their attributions for academic success. Asian-Americans are more likely to cite fear of failure as the main contributor to academic success, while non-Asians are more likely to attribute successful performance to effort.

Front 26

In Piaget's concrete operational stage the child is able to conserve due to the development of reversibility and decentration. Other achievements of this stage are:
A Deferred imitation
B Object permanence
C Propositional thought
D Transitivity

Back 26

The Correct Answer is "D"
Other achievements of the concrete operational stage are transitivity, or the ability to mentally sort objects; and hierarchical classification--the ability to sort object into classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences among groups. Deferred imitation and object permanence are achievements of the sensorimotor stage. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not there. Finally, propositional thought (C) is developed in the Formal Operational Stage. It is the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without having to use real-world circumstances.

Front 27

A psychologist is hired as a consultant by an agency which works with homosexual men whose behavior places them at very high risk for the HIV virus. The psychologist is asked to work with groups of the agency's clients, with the goal of decreasing high-risk activity in this population. Assuming the psychologist is familiar with the research in this area, she is most likely to take which of the following approaches?
A attempting to engender a group norm of disapproval for high-risk activity
B providing knowledge to the group about AIDS
C threatening the group with punishment if they don't change their behavior
D taking a laissez-faire approach and letting the group learn on its own how dangerous its behavior is

Back 27

The Correct Answer is "B"
Studies show that, among individuals who are at high-risk for the AIDS virus, knowledge about AIDS is a better predictor of less risk-taking behavior than perceived peer norms. Thus, choice B is the best answer. By contrast, among low-risk groups, perceived peer norms are a better predictor. So if this question was about the best strategy for low-risk groups, choice A would have been a better answer.

Front 28

The coefficient of determination indicates
A the proportion of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
B the correlation between two variables with the effects of a third variable removed.
C the correlation between two variables without the effects of a third variable removed.
D the proportion of variability accounted for in a variable by all the factors in a factor analysis.

Back 28

The Correct Answer is "A"
The coefficient of determination is calculated by squaring a correlation coefficient. As compared to the correlation coefficient, it provides a more direct way of interpreting the calculated relationship between two variables. Specifically, it indicates the proportion of variability shared by the two variables, or the proportion of variability in one variable that can be accounted for by variability in the other.

Front 29

Marital therapy based on the principles of social learning theory most often emphasizes
A behavioral therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
B individual exploratory therapy for each spouse combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
C group therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
D group therapy combined with individual behavior-oriented therapy for each spouse.

Back 29

The Correct Answer is "A"
Social learning theory has been applied to family therapy in the area of marital therapy as well as child management. In both cases, the emphasis is on behavioral methodology as well as on communication and problem-solving skills. For example, in marital therapy based on the principles of behavioral and social learning theory, typical methods include functional analysis of the spouses' behaviors, contracts stipulating specific behavioral changes, communication skills training, and directive advice regarding solutions to problems. Consistent with the principles of social learning theory, the therapist will often model healthy communication and interpersonal behavior for the couple.

Front 30

Research on gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment indicate:
A men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.
B men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases.
C men are more likely than women to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases.
D women are more likely than men to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.

Back 30

The Correct Answer is "B"
B. Sexual harassment research has consistently found that males and females are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment in severe cases; however, there are significant gender differences in judgments in mild to moderate cases of harassment. Studies have continually found females are more likely than males to rate mild to moderately severe or sexually-ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment. (See: C. W. Williams et al., An attributional (causal dimensional) analysis of perceptions of sexual harassment, Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 1995, 25, 1169-1183.)

Front 31

To ensure that providers meet and maintain health plan participation requirements, managed care organizations (MCOs) use _____________________ as a review process.
A clinical audit
B concurrent review
C credentialing
D quality management

Back 31

The Correct Answer is "C"
The formal process for determining if a provider meets and maintains the standards of qualification, as well as providing some legal protection for the managed care organization, is referred to as credentialing. Clinical audit (response “A”) is a quality assurance method. Concurrent review (response “B”) describes the utilization review conducted during the course of treatment. Quality management (response “D”) is another name for quality assurance.

Front 32

In females, the gonadotrophic hormones are released by the ________ on a regular cycle.
A hypothalamus
B pituitary gland
C gonads
D adrenal glands

Back 32

The Correct Answer is "B"
The gonadotropic hormones are the same in males and females but they stimulate the gonads to release their own hormones (estrogen in females, androgens in males). The gonadotropic hormones are released by the pituitary gland.

Front 33

The brain part or system that manages the circadian rhythm is located in the
A caudate nucleus.
B cerebellum.
C reticular activating system.
D hypothalamus.

Back 33

The Correct Answer is "D"
You may have thought the answer was reticular activating system, which is involved in many functions related to sleep. However, the circadian rhythm, or the innate, 24-hour cycle of biological activity (i.e., the biological clock) is managed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a group of cells found within the hypothalamus. The SCN gets information about day length via a pathway between it and light receptors in the retina. The SCN interprets this information and passes it to the pineal gland, which secretes the hormone melatonin in response (nighttime increases melatonin secretion, while daylight inhibits it). Destruction of the SCN causes circadian rhythms to disappear entirely.

Front 34

The "Big Five" personality factors were based on which of the following approaches?
A cognitive-behavioral
B industrial-organizational
C classical test theory
D lexical

Back 34

The Correct Answer is "D"
This is one of those obscure questions which could appear on your exam. A lexical approach was first used by Sir Francis Galton in the 1880's. "Lexical" refers to the use of a dictionary, in this case, to identify personality traits. It is an atheoretical approach and was used to identify the Big Five Personality traits by performing a factor analysis on all the personality traits found in the dictionary. The Big Five traits are: conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, openness, and emotional stability/neuroticism. These five traits are believed to underlie all other personality characteristics.

Front 35

You are holding your friend's one year old. Your friend leaves the room and her child continues to smile at you happily, and shows no interest in her mother when she returns. Most likely, your friend as a parent has been
A neglectful.
B smothering.
C impatient.
D either b or c.

Back 35

The Correct Answer is "D"
Your friend's child is exhibiting an insecure/avoidant attachment as described by Ainsworth. Ainsworth found that babies with this type of pattern often had mothers who were either very impatient and nonresponsive, or alternatively overstimulating. Neglect (answer A) is most associated with a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.

Front 36

Coding Personality Disorders on a separate axis, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is due to:
A the need to reduce the possibility of being overlooked
B the need to reduce the possibility of prioritization over an Axis I disorder
C having a differing etiology than Axis I disorders
D having less daily functioning interference than Axis I disorders

Back 36

The Correct Answer is "A"
A. In the DSM-IV-TR’s description of Axis II, Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation are classified on a separate axis as they “might otherwise be overlooked when attention is directed to the usually more florid Axis I disorders” and does not suggest “pathogenesis or range of appropriate treatment is fundamentally different from that for the disorders coded on Axis I.”

Front 37

You are working as a psychologist in a hospital with a patient suffering from head trauma. In your presence, the patient develops Delirium. In this situation, you should:
A bring more people into the room.
B find a physician for a medication consultation.
C stay with the person to provide support and help him remain calm.
D recommend ECT treatment.

Back 37

The Correct Answer is "C"
This is a difficult question because it requires you to know about clinical management of Delirium and then to choose between two choices that are not bad answers. General principles of addressing an episode of Delirium include providing environmental support, manipulating the patient's environment in order to reduce confusion and disorientation, and giving medication if the patient is agitated, psychotic, or has insomnia. In other words, both B and C are good answers to this question. However, C is better for the following reasons: 1) Not all Delirium patients require medication; only if the patient is agitated, psychotic, or can't sleep at night is medication necessary, and 2) choice B implies that you would leave the patient to go find a physician. You should not leave a patient with Delirium alone, and even if a nurse or somebody else were available to stay with the patient, you should avoid sudden changes in a Delirium patient's environment.
Let's look at the other choices. Choice A, as phrased, is not a good idea -- bringing strange people into the room could increase the patient's sense of disorientation and confusion. Having a relative or other familiar person stay with the patient is a good idea, but choice A is not specific about what people you would bring into the room. Choice D, ECT, is actually used in rare cases for patients who do not respond to environmental manipulation or medication; however, you certainly would not recommend it right away. By the way, the primary treatment of Delirium -- addressing the underlying medical or substance-related disorder that is causing the symptom -- is not a choice here.

Front 38

Recent research indicates the most effective treatment for antisocial behavior in juvenile offenders is:
A behavioral-reinforcement
B structured family intervention with parental training
C multi-systemic therapy
D victims family therapy

Back 38

The Correct Answer is "C"
Multisystemic Therapy (MST), targeting chronic, violent, or substance abusing juvenile offenders at high risk of out-of-home placement, is consistent with social-ecological models of behavior and findings from causal modeling studies of delinquency and drug use. The approach views individuals as being nested within a complex network of interconnected systems that encompass individual, family, and extrafamilial (peer, school, neighborhood) factors. MST is a goal-oriented, intensive family- and community-based treatment that addresses the multiple determinants and factors in each youth’s social network that are contributing to his or her antisocial behavior. It is provided using a home-based model of services delivery with a typical treatment duration of approximately 4 months. Intervention strategies include strategic family therapy, structural family therapy, behavioral parent training, and cognitive behavior therapies. MST interventions typically aim to improve caregiver discipline practices, enhance family affective relations, decrease youth association with deviant peers, increase youth association with prosocial peers, improve youth school or vocational performance, engage youth in prosocial recreational outlets, and develop an indigenous support network of extended family, neighbors, and friends to help caregivers achieve and maintain such changes. MST has demonstrated long-term reductions in criminal activity, drug-related arrests, violent offenses, and incarceration. Controlled studies also showed that MST outcomes were similar for youths across the adolescent age range (i.e., 12-17 years), for males and females, and for African-American vs. white youths and families.

Front 39

A parent finds that she has to nag her son more and more to get him to stop teasing his sister. The last time it happened, the boy finally stopped his teasing after his mother's 16th angry request. The boy's compliance is best described as the result of
A escape conditioning.
B avoidance conditioning.
C stimulus discrimination.
D stimulus generalization.

Back 39

The Correct Answer is "A"
In this situation, the boy stops teasing his sister because, presumably, this stops his mother's nagging. In other words, by complying with her request, he escapes an aversive stimulus.

Front 40

To determine the relationship between a dichotomous variable and a continuous variable, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
A point biserial
B biserial
C Spearman's Rho
D eta

Back 40

The Correct Answer is "A"
You should memorize the different correlation coefficients and when they are used. The point-biserial coefficient is used when a dichotomous variable (e.g., gender) is correlated with continuous variable (e.g., IQ score). You might have thought the biserial coefficient is also correct, since it is used to correlate an artificial dichotomy with a continuous variable. An artificial dichotomy is one that is created arbitrarily by setting a cutoff score on a test; for instance, if you give the WAIS-III and classify everybody who scores over 110 as having "high intelligence" and everybody who scores below 110 as having "low intelligence," you have created an artificial dichotomy. Because an artificial dichotomy is not, in a pure sense, a dichotomous variable, choice B is not as good an answer as choice A.

Front 41

In children with chronic illness, all of the following have been found to be correlated with the child's level of adjustment, except
A the child' age.
B parental support.
C parental marital distress.
D brain involvement in the child's illness.

Back 41

The Correct Answer is "A"
This is one of those "research results" questions in which you can find support for any answer, depending on whose research you read. However, of the choices listed, there is less overall support for the notion that age is significantly correlated with level of adjustment in chronically ill children. It has been found that, in some cases, chronically ill adolescents (in particular adolescent boys with diabetes) are more likely to display behavioral problems than younger children. However, age is not correlated with overall adjustment problems -- chronic illness, especially severe chronic illness, is likely to cause some kind of adjustment problem, whether it be behavioral acting-out or psychological distress.
Choices B, C, and D have all been shown to be correlated with adjustment in chronically ill children -- adjustment is better the higher the level of parental support, the lower the level of parental marital distress, and the lower the level of brain involvement in the child's illness.

Front 42

In late childhood and adolescence, sibling relationships tend to become egalitarian; however, during middle childhood they can best be described as:
A distant and distrustful
B conflicted and close
C abusive and uncaring
D dominant and submissive

Back 42

The Correct Answer is "B"
During middle childhood sibling relationships are characterized by a combination of conflict and closeness. During this period siblings typically fight and experience friction, yet also report having greater warmth and companionship with each other.

Front 43

According to Theodore Millon, people with Narcissistic Personality Disorder rely primarily on which of the following defense mechanisms?
A repression, rationalization, and projection
B repression, displacement, and sublimation
C rationalization, reaction formation, and sublimation
D identification, intellectualization, and displacement

Back 43

The Correct Answer is "A"
This is a difficult question unless you are a Theodore Millon fan. According to Millon, when narcissistic people experience personal failure and public humiliation, they resort to defense mechanisms -- first repression, and if that fails, then rationalization and projection.

Front 44

Gould and Gross (1999) found neurogenesis, the formation of new neurons or nerve cells, in all of the following areas, except:
A the olfactory system
B the hippocampus
C the prefrontal region
D the striate cortex

Back 44

The Correct Answer is "D"
Traditionally it has been believed that no new neurons are added to the brain in maturity. In the last decade, evidence has accumulated for neurogenesis in several evolutionarily older parts of the brain such as the olfactory system and the hippocampus, which is believed to play role in memory formation. Gould and Gross, furthermore, identified neurogenesis in three areas of the cerebral cortex: 1) the prefrontal region, which controls executive decision making and short-term memory; 2) the inferior temporal region, which plays a crucial role in the visual recognition of objects and faces; and 3) the posterior parietal region, which is important for the representation of objects in space. The striate cortex, which handles the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing, had no sign of neurogenesis. (See: Gould, E., and Gross, C.G. (2002). Neurogenesis in Adult Mammals: Some Progress and Problems. The Journal of Neuroscience. 22, 619-623.)

Front 45

Symptoms of Bipolar Disorder are typically treated with lithium and/or any of the following medications EXCEPT:
A phenelzine
B carbamazepine
C divalproex
D valproic

Back 45

The Correct Answer is "A"
A. Currently, lithium and/or an anti-seizure medication is the drug treatment-of-choice for Bipolar Disorder. Unlike the others, phenelzine is not used for the treatment of Bipolar Disorder as it is an MAOI antidepressant. Carbamazepine (Tegretol), divalproex (Depakote) and valproic acid (Depakene) are anti-seizure drugs that have been found to be useful for treating patients with Bipolar Disorder who have not responded well, or cannot tolerate, other treatments.

Front 46

To reduce a client's fear of cats, a behavioral psychologist has the client imagine approaching a cat and then, when anxiety occurs, pair that image with deep muscle relaxation. This technique is known as:
A covert sensitization.
B guided imagery.
C implosive therapy.
D reciprocal inhibition.

Back 46

The Correct Answer is "D"
You may have been looking for counterconditioning or systematic desensitization as the correct response. Both involve reducing anxiety by pairing it with relaxation or other incompatible response. This technique was originally described by Wolpe, who referred to it as reciprocal inhibition.

Front 47

Which of the following accounts for the most cases of Mental Retardation?
A pregnancy or perinatal problems
B early abnormalities in embryonic development
C heredity
D social and environmental factors operating in infancy and early childhood

Back 47

The Correct Answer is "B"
According to DSM-IV, etiological factors in Mental Retardation may be primarily biological, primarily psychosocial, or a combination of both. Early alteration of embryonic development (e.g., Down's Syndrome, prenatal use of alcohol or drugs) is the single most common contributing factor, operating in about 30% of cases. Environmental influences and other mental disorders (e.g., deprivation of nurturance, severe mental disorders such as Autism) are a predisposing factor in about 15-20% of cases. Pregnancy and perinatal problems (e.g., fetal malnutrition, hypoxia, trauma) occur in about 10% of cases, and hereditary factors (e.g., Tay-Sachs Disease, fragile X syndrome) are the cause in about 5% of cases. In about 30-40% of cases, no clear etiology for the disorder can be determined.

Front 48

Peripheral vision is processed in the:
A frontal lobe
B temporal lobe
C anterior occipital lobe
D posterior occipital lobe

Back 48

The Correct Answer is "C"
You probably were able to narrow the choices down to C and D, knowing that vision is processed in the occipital lobe. However, you should also know that peripheral vision is processed in the anterior occipital lobe. Central vision is processed in the posterior occipital lobe.

Front 49

A score of 85 on the Lie (L) Scale of the MMPI-2 may indicate:
A most Lie (L) Scale items were answered as “true”
B a lack of insight or denial
C similar or identical items were answered in an inconsistent way
D acute psychological distress was experienced while taking the test

Back 49

The Correct Answer is "B"
B. The Lie Scale is one of the original MMPI validity scales, which were designed to evaluate test-taking attitudes. A high Lie Scale score may indicate a lack of insight into one’s own behavior, denial, an attempt to create a favorable impression, or the tendency to answer items “false.” A low Lie Scale score may be the result of answering items as “true” (a.). Inconsistent responding (c.) is suggested by a high score on the VRIN scale. Acute psychological distress (d.) is associated with an extremely low score on the K (Correction) Scale.

Front 50

Increased awareness is the primary goal of which of the following types of therapy?
A Self Psychology
B Reality Therapy
C Gestalt Therapy
D Existential Therapy

Back 50

The Correct Answer is "C"
Although increased awareness can be considered an important goal of many types of therapy, it is perhaps most central to Gestalt Therapy. Gestalt therapy strives to increase an individual's awareness of the self, the environment, and the nature of the self-environment boundary.

Front 51

Anticholinergic effects include all of the following EXCEPT:
A constipation
B diarrhea
C blurred vision
D dizziness

Back 51

The Correct Answer is "B"
Anticholinergic (side) effects occur as a result of interference with acetylcholine in the brain and peripheral nervous system. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, urinary retention, tachycardia, and confusion.

Front 52

An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that
A the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate.
B a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable.
C a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
D a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.

Back 52

The Correct Answer is "A"
When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.

Front 53

In the context of expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to:
A the willingness of a worker to exert effort.
B the likelihood of effort leading to performance
C the likelihood of performance leading to certain outcomes.
D the value of the outcomes of performance.

Back 53

The Correct Answer is "C"
C. Expectancy theory is based on the premise that motivation is a cognitive process involving three variables: expectancy, instrumentality and valence. Expectancy refers to the belief that effort will lead to success performance. Instrumentality refers to the beliefs that successful performance will result in certain outcomes; the value placed on the outcomes of performance is referred to as valence.

Front 54

Which of the following stages in Erikson's theory of psychosocial development corresponds to Freud's latency stage?
A trust versus mistrust
B autonomy versus shame
C initiative versus guilt
D industry versus inferiority

Back 54

The Correct Answer is "D"
Erikson's industry vs. inferiority stage occurs approximately between the ages of 6-11. Freud's latency stage occurs at about the same time.

Front 55

The suicide rate for African-American adolescent males over the past few decades has been:
A higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been an increase in the rates for both groups.
B lower than the rate for white adolescents males, but there has been an increase in the rates for both groups.
C higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
D lower than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has been a decrease in the rates for both groups.

Back 55

The Correct Answer is "B"
Across all age groups and both genders, the suicide rate is higher for whites than for African-Americans. Of all demographic groups, the one associated with the highest increase in suicide rate over the past few decades is young white male -- the rate has almost tripled. The rate has also gone up among African-American males, but not by as much. And here's an additional piece of information that's not directly related to this question: In African-Americans, suicide occurs at the highest rate among individuals between the ages of 20-34; among whites, the highest rate of suicide occurs near the end of the life cycle.

Front 56

Jerome and Jamal have significant problems with their peers. However, while Jerome is rejected by his classmates, Jamal is neglected. If Jerome and Jamal change schools, which of the following is most likely to happen?
A Jerome may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jamal will continue to be neglected.
B Jamal may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jerome will continue to be rejected.
C Jerome and Jamal will both be better accepted by their new classmates.
D Jerome and Jamal will both continue to have the same peer problems they had in their old school.

Back 56

The Correct Answer is "B"
Studies looking at the outcomes for rejected and neglected children have found that rejection is more stable than neglect. For example, when rejected and neglected change schools, neglected children may experience improvements in their peer status, while rejected children continue to be rejected by the new peer group.

Front 57

A person with high self-esteem is likely to make what type of attributions for his or her achievements?
A internal and specific
B internal and global
C external and specific
D external and global

Back 57

The Correct Answer is "A"
This question is related to Weiner's attributional theory of motivation and emotion. Attributions are our causal explanations for events and the behavior of ourselves and others. According to Weiner, attributions can be due to factors that are either internal or external, stable or unstable, controllable or uncontrollable, intentional or unintentional, and global or specific. Someone with high self-esteem would take credit for his or her achievements and be proud of them. Thus, he or she would likely attribute them to internal, stable, controllable, intentional, and specific causes. The attributions are most likely specific rather than global because a person with high self-esteem will acknowledge that he or she isn't successful in everything. For example, a very successful athlete or CEO would not assume proficiency in brain surgery.

Front 58

If one were to apply the confluence model to predict the intellectual and achievement scores of children, the most accurate prediction would be that
A middle children would show the highest score when compared to both earlier and later born children.
B children from small families would score the highest.
C only-borns would be the highest scoring group.
D later borns would be the highest scoring group.

Back 58

The Correct Answer is "C"
The confluence model states simply that each succeeding child has less of the family's resources available to him or her. The first child doesn't have to share with anyone. The next child shares with one older sibling. The next child must share with two older siblings. The theory has been tested and found to predict accurately: Only-borns and children from small families tend to, on the average, do better on measures of intellect and achievement than later borns. Note that the choice about only-borns having the highest intelligence is a better answer than the choice about children from a small family. This is because, from the perspective of the confluence model, only-borns have even more of the family's resources available to them than children from a small family.

Front 59

Primary memory is the same as
A implicit memory.
B short-term memory.
C procedural memory.
D episodic memory.

Back 59

The Correct Answer is "B"
Primary memory is another term for short-term memory. On the other hand, the terms secondary and long-term memory are also often used interchangeably. Implicit memory (answer A) is an unconscious, nonintentional form of memory. Procedural memory (answer C) is memory of how to do certain activities, for example, driving a car, while episodic memory (answer D) is the memory of a particular episode, such as your last birthday.

Front 60

According to Hersey and Blanchard (1974), a "telling" leader is most effective when employees are low in both ability and willingness to assume responsibility. A telling leadership style is characterized by a
A low task and low relationship orientation.
B low task and high relationship orientation.
C high task and high relationship orientation.
D high task and low relationship orientation.

Back 60

The Correct Answer is "D"
The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and relationship orientation.

TELLING - high task and low relationship orientation. (low ability, low willingness)
SELLING - high task and high relationship orientation. (low ability, high willingness)
PARTICIPATING - low task and high relationship orientation (high ability, low willingness)

DELEGATING - low task and low relationship orientation. (high ability, high willingness)

Front 61

At the request of an attorney, a psychologist in a rural community agrees to conduct a psychological evaluation and provide treatment for the same person. This would probably be considered:
A ethical, since both services are within the boundaries of a professional relationship
B ethical, if the psychologist takes reasonable steps to minimize any negative effects
C unethical, since evaluation and treatment are inherently conflicting
D unethical, since only a patient, not an attorney can request treatment services

Back 61

The Correct Answer is "B"
As a general rule, psychologists should avoid potentially conflicting relationships, which could result when conducting both an evaluation and treatment for a patient. However, according to APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991), "When it is necessary to provide both evaluation and treatment services to a party in a legal proceeding (as may be the case in small forensic hospital settings or small communities), the forensic psychologist takes reasonable steps to minimize the potential negative effects of these circumstances on the rights of the party, confidentiality, and the process of treatment and evaluation." [Law and Human Behavior, 15 (6), p.659].

Front 62

59. A number of books in the popular press have been written regarding the relationship between psychological factors and cancer. Which of the following statements best reflects the outcome of scientific studies of this issue?
A Psychological factors are related both to the onset of cancer and the success of recovery from it.
B Psychological factors are related to the onset of cancer but not to the success of recovery from it.
C Psychological factors are not related to the onset of cancer but are related to the success of recovery from it.
D Psychological factors are related to neither the onset of cancer nor the success of recovery from it.

Back 62

The Correct Answer is "C"
A number of theories regarding the relationship between psychological factors and the onset of cancer have been proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the "Type C" personality, typically described as a cooperative, unassertive patient who suppresses anger and complies with external authorities, is at a higher risk for cancer. However, most research shows that psychological factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on cancer incidence. By contrast, psychological factors do appear to be related to recovery from cancer. For instance, psychological treatments combining support and training in self-hypnosis are associated with higher survival rates and improved quality of life in cancer patients.

Front 63

The best predictor of treatment outcome among adult substance abusers is:
A age
B ethnicity
C history of criminal behavior
D severity of substance abuse problems

Back 63

The Correct Answer is "D"
Most studies have found that the best predictors of treatment outcome for substance abusers are psychiatric severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline (J. R. McKay & R. V. Weiss, A review of temporal effects and outcome predictors in substance abuse treatment studies with long-term follow-ups: Preliminary results and methodological issues. Evaluation Review, 2001, 25(2), 113-161).

Front 64

The effects of parental discipline on the development of conscience in toddlers is mediated by the toddlers' level of:
A fearfulness
B intelligence
C activity level
D pain threshold

Back 64

The Correct Answer is "A"
Research by Kochanska (1997) has indicated that toddlers' level of fearfulness mediates the effects of parental discipline. Specifically, the use of "gentle discipline" was found more effective for the development of conscience among fearful toddlers than among fearless toddlers. Fearless toddlers, on the other hand, developed conscience better through the use of a secure mother-child attachment. It should be noted that these results were primarily found during the toddler years and were not significant or were less significant when reassessed during preschool years [Multiple pathways to conscience for children with different temperaments: From toddlerhood to age 5, Developmental Psychology, 33(2), 228-240].

Front 65

Anger management training for children has been criticized for:
A limited positive effects due to focusing on the individual
B limited positive effects due to focusing on the behavior
C being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s tendency to blame anger on others
D being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s inability to control feelings and behaviors

Back 65

The Correct Answer is "A"
A. One criticism of anger management training for children has been that most programs, which utilize a cognitive-behavioral approach, place the emphasis on the individual’s perceptions, feelings and behaviors while ignoring the interpersonal or systemic factors. Research indicates that training program effectiveness is increased by expanding beyond the individual to include family, peer and community relationships. (See: Morley, E. & Rossman, S.B. (1997). Helping At-Risk Youth: Lessons From Community-Based Initiatives, Washington D.C., The Urban Institute.)

Front 66

The incidence of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder begins to differ for males and females at which age:
A 3 years
B 6 years
C 12 years
D 18 years

Back 66

The Correct Answer is "B"
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder has an earlier peak onset for males than females. For males the peak onset is between ages 6 and 15, and for females it is between ages 20 and 29. Thus, gender differences for OCD begin to become apparent at 6 years. However, in adulthood the incidence is about the same for both genders.

Front 67

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Western culture-bound values?
A cause-effect approach
B openness and intimacy
C clear distinction between mental and physical well-being
D strict adherence to a schedule

Back 67

The Correct Answer is "D"
D. Sue and Sue (1999) described three premises from the Western perspectives of counseling, based on the assumption of individualism, that can have an effect on the therapeutic relationship. They are identified as class-bound values, culture-bound values and language variables. Class-bound values include valuing of time boundaries or a strict adherence to time schedules, an ambiguous and unstructured approach to problem solving, and the emphasis on long- range goals and solutions. Culture-bound values focus on individualism versus collectivism, cause and effect relationships for client problems (a.), emphasis on emotional/verbal expressiveness, active participation and openness to discussing intimate aspects of the client’s life (b.), and the separation of physical and mental well-being (c.). Language variables are those in which standard English and verbal communication are stressed.

Front 68

The difference between the multiple hurdle and the multiple cut-off selection technique is that, in multiple hurdle,
A examinees must succeed on all predictors.
B not all predictors are administered to all examinees.
C predictors are specially designed to be "culture-fair."
D predictive validity is empirically established.

Back 68

The Correct Answer is "B"
Both multiple hurdle and multiple cut-off involve administering a series of predictor measures to prospective applicants. And in both cases, the examinee must succeed on all predictors in order to be selected. The difference is that, in multiple hurdle, predictors are administered in a successive order. If the applicant fails on any predictor, he or she no longer completes subsequent ones. By contrast, when multiple cut-off is used, examinees usually take all the predictors and the predictors are not necessarily administered in any particular order.

Front 69

A kappa coefficient of .93 would indicate that the two tests
A measure what they are supposed to.
B have a high degree of agreement between their raters.
C aren't especially reliable.
D present test items with a high level of difficulty.

Back 69

The Correct Answer is "B"
The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability. A coefficient in the lower .90s indicates high reliability. Answer A is a layman's definition of the general concept of valdity.

Front 70

What did Vygotsky stress over Piaget?
A developmental levels of specific children
B Cognitive development of children
C Their relationship with others in the family
D The importance of the accommodation stage

Back 70

The Correct Answer is "C"
Vygotsky stressed the importance of social and cultural impact on the developing child much more than Piaget did. These factors included the family and the child's milieu.

Front 71

The stages of the Minority Identity Development (MID) model developed by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue (1994) reflect changes in which of the following?
A acculturation
B ego development
C locus of control
D self-awareness

Back 71

The Correct Answer is "A"
You may have had trouble with this one, but if you're familiar with the MID model and the characteristics of its stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, synergetic articulation), you may have recognized that each stage involves a different combination of attitudes toward one's own culture and the majority culture and, therefore, reflects different levels of acculturation.

Front 72

The tendency to experience losses more heavily than gains of equal magnitude results in less risky decisions and is referred to as:
A risky shift
B adverse impact
C satisficing
D loss aversion

Back 72

The Correct Answer is "D"
Loss aversion is one component in Kahneman and Tversky's prospect theory. Loss aversion refers to the tendency to base decisions more heavily on the fear of loss than the hope of gain. For example, if you heard from a friend that his mechanic did a good job fixing his car but another friend told you that the same mechanic did a poor job fixing his car, you would be less likely to risk using that mechanic. The other answer choices are terms that you should be familiar with. Risky shift (A) occurs when a group makes a decision that is riskier than would have been made by the members individually. Adverse impact (B) occurs when the hiring rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the hiring rate of the majority group. Satisficing (C) refers to the decision-making style of using the minimal amount of information to reach a "good enough" solution.

Front 73

Repetitive exercise and hypnosis are therapeutic techniques used to establish the “relaxation response” which involves ____________________________ activity.
A decreased parasympathetic nervous system
B decreased sympathetic nervous system
C increased somatic nervous system
D increased autonomic nervous system

Back 73

The Correct Answer is "B"
B. The relaxation response is, in effect, the opposite of the “fight or flight” response to stressful or threatening situations which over time may produce hypertension, cardiac and other problems that may seriously affect health. Herbert Benson and his colleagues (1971) studied the affects of meditation on people with high blood pressure brought on by the everyday stress of living and described a physiological response that decreased sympathetic nervous system activity resulting in decreased metabolism, decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased rate of breathing, as well as slower brain waves. This reaction was coined the “relaxation response.” Further findings indicate relaxing just 20 minutes each day can be beneficial to both physical and mental health.

Front 74

133. Which of the following sections of the 2002 Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct “discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code.”
A Introduction only
B Introduction and Preamble
C Preamble only
D General Principles and Ethical Standards

Back 74

The Correct Answer is "A"
A. The 2002 Ethics Code is divided into four sections: Introduction, Preamble, General Principles, and Ethical Standards. The Introduction “discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code.” The purpose of both the Preamble and General Principles is to provide “aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology.” The Ethical Standards “set forth enforceable rules.”

Front 75

According to M. Seligman's theory of learned optimism, a student with an optimistic attribution style who fails an exam in a class which he usually does well in is most likely to say:
A "I was unlucky"
B "I didn't study enough"
C "the teacher is always a tough grader"
D "the test was hard this time"

Back 75

The Correct Answer is "D"
In Seligman's theory of learned optimism, attributions of optimistic people are believed to be the opposite of attributions of depressed people. Since depressed people make internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events, optimistic people would tend to make external, unstable, and specific attributions in response to negative events. Therefore, we can readily eliminate "B" ("I didn't study enough") since that's an internal attribution. Choice "C" ("the teacher is always a tough grader") is a stable attribution. That leaves Choices "A" ("I was unlucky") and Choice "D" ("the test was hard this time") – which are both external and unstable attributions. Of the two, however, Choice "D" is better since being unlucky would imply that success is a matter of luck.

Front 76

Components of health anxiety include disease conviction, disease fears, disease preoccupation, bodily checking and reassurance seeking, and disease-related avoidance and escape behaviors. Strong disease conviction is most associated with:
A Specific (“disease”) Phobia
B Delusional Disorder, Somantic Type
C Hypochondriasis
D Panic Disorder

Back 76

The Correct Answer is "C"
C. Individuals with hypochondriasis have the presence of strong disease convictions, insisting that they have an undetected serious illness or disease. Often convictions result from misinterpreting normal bodily sensations and minor symptoms as serious disease warning signs. Specific “disease” phobia (a.) is a DSM-IV-TR Anxiety Disorder associated with a fear of acquiring or being exposed to a disease. It is also commonly a feature of hypochondriasis. An absence of disease conviction is a differential characteristic of the two disorders. The disease conviction for individuals with Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type (b.) reaches extremely strong, unreasonable and delusional proportions. Although during panic attacks people with panic disorder commonly worry about dying, disease conviction is not a characteristic that is strongly associated with Panic Disorder.

Front 77

According to Piaget, centration is:
A characteristic of the formal operational stage and is the belief that others are as concerned with a subject's behavior as the subject is.
B characteristic of the preoperational stage and involves focusing on one aspect of a situation while neglecting others.
C characteristic of the preoperational stage and is an inability to consider another's point of view.
D characteristic of the concrete operational stage in which it is understood that two objects can remain equal according to a certain measure despite changes to their perceived form.

Back 77

The Correct Answer is "B"
According to Piaget, centration refers to a limitation of preoperational thought that leads a child to focus on one aspect of a situation and neglect others, often leading to illogical conclusions. Choice A describes an imaginary audience (a term coined by David Elkind). Choice C refers to egocentrism and Choice D describes conservation.

Front 78

Researchers are interested in detecting differential item functioning (DIF). Which method would not be used?
A SIBTEST
B Mantel-Haenszel
C Lord’s chi-square
D cluster analysis

Back 78

The Correct Answer is "D"
In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF), or item bias analysis, refers to a difference in the probability of individuals from different subpopulations making a correct or positive response to an item, who are equal on the latent or underlying attribute measured by the test. The SIBTEST or simultaneous item bias test, Mantel-Haenszel, and Lord’s chi-square are statistical techniques used to identify DIF. Cluster analysis is a statistical technique used to develop a classification system or taxonomy. This method wouldn’t detect item bias or differences.

Front 79

A patient obtains a T-score of 100 on the MMPI-2's F scale. This score indicates that
A the examinee is trying to fake good.
B the examinee is disoriented and confused.
C the examinee is defensive.
D the entire test should be considered invalid.

Back 79

The Correct Answer is "D"
The F, or Infrequency, scale is one of the MMPI-2's validity scales. It contains items that are answered in the scored direction very infrequently. Elevated scores on this score (i.e., T scores above 65) can occur for a number of reasons, including "faking bad," confusion and disorientation, and cognitive deficits. Mildly to moderately elevated scores on the validity scales can be interpreted clinically; however, scores of about 90 or greater could indicate random responding and completely invalidate the test.

Front 80

According to Beck, depression is caused by
A biochemical factors.
B early parental rejection.
C dysfunctional automatic thoughts.
D dysfunctional irrational thoughts.

Back 80

The Correct Answer is "C"
The purpose of Beck's cognitive therapy is to modify dysfunctional automatic thoughts that are seen as the cause of maladaptive emotional responding (e.g., depression and anxiety). Unlike Ellis, who identifies irrational thoughts as the cause of clients' problems, Beck believes that these thoughts may or may not be irrational.

Front 81

The Health Belief Model (HBM) is a tool for predicting and understanding an individual’s health-related decision making. The results from which dimension provide the most information?
A perceived severity
B perceived susceptibility
C perceived benefits
D perceived barriers

Back 81

The Correct Answer is "D"
D. The Health Belief Model (HBM), which was developed initially to understand why people seemed unwilling to use preventative measures and screening tests available, is based on psychological and behavioral theory. The four dimensions the model considers in the influence of health-related decision making and behavior are: perceived susceptibility; perceived severity; perceived benefits; and perceived barriers. The dimension identified as the most influential variable for predicting and explaining health-related decision-making and actions is perceived barriers. The effectiveness of the action (screening, preventative care) and the perceptions of inconvenience, expense, unpleasantness, dangerousness, etc., are examples of perceived barriers.

Front 82

Which of the following methods of establishing a test's reliability is, all other things being equal, likely to be lowest?
A split-half
B Cronbach's alpha
C alternate forms
D test-retest

Back 82

The Correct Answer is "C"
You probably remember that the alternate forms coefficient is considered by many to be the best reliability coefficient to use when practical (if you don't, commit this factoid to memory now). Everything else being equal, it is also likely to have a lower magnitude than the other types of reliability coefficients. The reason for this is similar to the reason why it is considered the best one to use. To obtain an alternate forms coefficient, one must administer two forms of the same test to a group of examinees, and correlate scores on the two forms. The two forms of the test are administered at different times and (because they are different forms) contain different items or content. In other words, there are two sources of error (or factors that could lower the coefficient) for the alternate forms coefficient: the time interval and different content (in technical terms, these sources of error are referred to respectively as "time sampling" and "content sampling"). The alternate forms coefficient is considered the best reliability coefficient by many because, for it to be high, the test must demonstrate consistency across both a time interval and different content.

Front 83

Approximately what percent of women experience full-blown postpartum (clinical) depression?
A 1 to 5%.
B 10 to 20%.
C 20 to 30%.
D 30 to 40%.

Back 83

The Correct Answer is "B"
The majority of women experience some depression following childbirth but, for most, these symptoms are mild. For about 10 to 20% of women, symptoms are sufficiently severe to qualify for a diagnosis of Major Depression.

Front 84

You conduct a study designed to assess the effectiveness of psychotherapy in the treatment of depression. You work with two groups, one of which receives the therapy and one of which is an attention-only control group. All of your subjects are hospitalized inpatients; thus, all of them are extremely depressed and therefore score extremely low on your pretest measure of depression. The biggest threat to external validity in this study is:
A regression to the mean
B reactivity
C interaction between selection and treatment
D pretest sensitization

Back 84

The Correct Answer is "C"
Note that you are being asked for the biggest threat to external validity, not internal validity in this question. Therefore, you can rule out regression to the mean, which is generally viewed as a threat to internal validity (regression probably wouldn't threaten internal validity anyway in this case, since both groups appear to be equivalent in terms of their baseline depression levels).
External validity refers to the generalizability of research results. An "interaction between selection and treatment" means that the effect of a treatment may not generalize to other members of the target population who differ in some way from the research subjects. For example, in this case, it's possible that your therapy is effective for individuals who are highly depressed, but would not have any effect on individuals who are moderately depressed.

Front 85

The three dimensions of situational control identified by Fiedler include all of the following except:
A leader-employee relations
B position or legitimate power
C role expectations
D task structure

Back 85

The Correct Answer is "C"
C. Fiedler's Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and distinguishes between two types of leaders – high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance). Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader’s success is contingent on the situation, task to be completed, leader’s style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder, situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.

Front 86

Research comparing patients with Schizophrenia from non-Western developing countries to those from Western industrialized countries has found that they differ in terms of:
A symptoms
B age and gender
C gender and prognosis
D course and outcome

Back 86

The Correct Answer is "D"
Several studies conducted by the World Health Organization have consistently found differences in the course and outcome of Schizophrenia patients from developing and industrialized countries. Patients from developing countries more often exhibit an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter clinical course, and a complete remission of symptoms. No consistent differences were found between these two groups in regards to age, gender, or type of symptoms.

Front 87

The police inform you that they have a warrant out on one of your clients who is suspected of several felony charges of grand theft auto. They want you to provide them with the client's address and phone number. You should:
A cooperate with the police
B require them to get a warrant before you release any information
C refuse to provide them with the information and notify your client
D inform them when your next scheduled appointment is with your client

Back 87

The Correct Answer is "C"
Since there is no indication that your client is in imminent danger to self or others, you would be obligated to protect the confidentiality rights of your client. However, you should notify your client of this information that you received, and discuss the option of turning himself in to the police.

Front 88

If a child can understand that A is greater than B and B is greater than C, and then understand that as a result, A is greater than C, this is an example of:
A Inductive reasoning
B Symbolic thought
C Deductive reasoning
D Pre-operational thought.

Back 88

The Correct Answer is "A"
This is an example of inductive reasoning, or reasoning from a particular fact to a general rule. B, symbolic thought, is the understanding that one thing can stand for another, C, deductive reasoning, is reasoning from a general law to a particular case, and D is object permanence, the understanding that objets continue to exist even when they are not visible.

Front 89

The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to
A train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test.
B have a second set of raters rescore the test.
C use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories.
D ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.

Back 89

The Correct Answer is "A"
Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix "intra" means the same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories (choice C) are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.

Front 90

The primary purpose of feedback in the context of organizational development is to:
A help clients understand the diagnostic information that has been collected
B provide clients with information on the effectiveness of an OD intervention
C provide employees with information about their individual performance
D provide managers with information on the employee's concerns

Back 90

The Correct Answer is "A"
Organization development (OD) is a process used to facilitate organizational change. The phases of OD have been described by Burke as: entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning change, intervention, and evaluation. The purpose of the feedback phase is to help clients understand the information that the consultant has gathered and diagnosed so the clients can decide what actions to take

Front 91

During the first of structural family therapy’s three steps, which of the following techniques is most useful?
A constructing a family map
B relabeling and reframing
C enactment
D tracking and mimesis

Back 91

The Correct Answer is "D"
D. Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps: joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring. Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy. Tracking (identifying and using the family’s values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family’s behavioral and affective style) are methods used to join the family system. Constructing a family map (a.) is a technique used for the structural diagnosis of the family. Relabeling and reframing (b.) are restructuring techniques. Enactment (c.) is used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the family.

Front 92

As an organizational psychologist, Dr. Jobb will recommend frame-of-reference training in order to
A improve the accuracy of selection decisions.
B enhance communication among team members.
C reduce rater biases on performance appraisals.
D improve leadership effectiveness.

Back 92

The Correct Answer is "C"
This is one of those concepts that you either know or don't know, so it wouldn't be worth a lot of time trying to figure out the right answer. Now you know: Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by teaching raters to focus on the various characteristics and requirements that contribute to good job performance.

Front 93

Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of:
A chaining
B shaping
C secondary reinforcement
D higher-order conditioning

Back 93

The Correct Answer is "D"
Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B) involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.

Front 94

39. According to Anne Cleary's model of test fairness, a job selection test would be considered unfair if
A Based on the use of the test, a higher proportion of Caucasians than African-Americans are chosen for the job.
B the test has a higher validity coefficient for Caucasians than for African-Americans.
C the slope of the test's regression line is different for African-Americans than for Caucasians.
D the content of the test is culturally biased.

Back 94

The Correct Answer is "C"
Under the Cleary model, a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is different for one subgroup than for another. The effect of these statistical phenomena is that differences between subgroups on predictor scores would not be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion. For instance, low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup.

Front 95

The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with:
A Galton
B Thurstone
C Guilford
D Cattell

Back 95

The Correct Answer is "C"
C. J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or “thinking out of the box.” Galton (a.) postulated that intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell’s (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.

Front 96

A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as:
A functional amnesia
B anterograde amnesia
C retrograde amnesia
D malingering

Back 96

The Correct Answer is "A"
Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia (B) is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia (C) is an inability to recall previous memories (i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma), and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering (D) could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however, most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering.

Front 97

When a psychologist working out of the Adlerian model serves as a consultant in a school, they:
A Work primarily with the school
B Identify the areas of inferiority within the system
C Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions
D Reverse roles--having the teachers see themselves as children and the students as parents in the family school system.

Back 97

The Correct Answer is "C"
In general, consultants work with the teachers and parents rather than individual students. With the Adlerian model, preventive interventions are emphasized and the consultants educate the parents and teachers. (Dustin and Ehly 1992).

Front 98

For months following the break up of a relationship with her finance, a woman is very distressed and obsessed with thoughts about the former relationship. Her most likely diagnosis would be:
A Adjustment disorder
B Bereavement
C Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D Borderline Personality Disorder

Back 98

The Correct Answer is "A"
Based on the limited information provided, her most likely diagnosis would be Adjustment Disorder. According to DSM-IV-TR, Adjustment Disorder involves a psychological response to an identifiable stressor that results in clinically significant symptoms. Bereavement ("B") is reserved for a reaction to the death of a loved one. In OCD the obsessions must not simply be excessive worries about real-life problems and the person must experience them as intrusive and, at least at times, attempt to ignore or suppress them. Before we could diagnose Borderline Personality Disorder we would need many more symptoms of instability of relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity.

Front 99

According to Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage would experience:
A appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group
B depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group
C appreciation of the self and the dominant group
D conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group

Back 99

The Correct Answer is "D"
Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been able to guess correctly if you realized that the term "dissonance" refers to conflict. Sue and Sue's (1990) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID model elaborates on individuals' attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group [D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally different: Theory and practice, 3rd edition, 1999, New York, John Wiley].

Front 100

Cluster sampling involves
A randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population.
B randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population.
C randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting individuals from each group.
D randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of their status on a demographic variable.

Back 100

The Correct Answer is "B"
In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students in that school as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (group) and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district, then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the state.

Front 101

Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain?
A biofeedback
B active coping
C passive coping
D cognitive-behavioral therapy

Back 101

The Correct Answer is "C"
Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain

Front 102

Clonidine, an alpha-noradrenergic drug, is often preferable to dopaminergic blocking agents for treating Tourette's Disorder because it is safer for chronic use. However, clonidine does produce some undesirable side effects including:
A Parkinsonism, akathesia, and dysphoria.
B dry mouth, headache, and hypotension.
C anorexia, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
D vomiting, dizziness, and irritability.

Back 102

The Correct Answer is "B"
Since the question mentions that clonidine is safer for chronic use, you'd want to look for less serious side effects, which narrows it down to responses b and d. In addition to dry mouth, headache, and hypotension, clonidine may also cause sedation and dizziness.

Front 103

Which of the following is NOT true regarding a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
A It generates a high and constant rate of responding.
B It produces behaviors that are the most resistant to extinction.
C The relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable.
D It produces the "scallop effect," with a decreased rate of response following reinforcement..

Back 103

The Correct Answer is "D"
In the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses. The variable ratio has been found to result in a high and constant rate of response (A) and, compared to the other schedules of reinforcement, the responses are the most resistant to extinction (B). Since it is a variable schedule, the relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable (C), which contributes to the above characteristics. However, the scallop effect (D), in which the response rate drops after each reinforcement and increases just before reinforcement is due, is characteristic of fixed schedules, especially the fixed interval schedule.

Front 104

In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following except:
A using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks.
B viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development.
C basing rewards on long-term (versus short-term) achievement.
D rewarding employees for individual (versus group) achievement.

Back 104

The Correct Answer is "D"
This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement (which is characteristic of the traditional approach). The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new approaches and are characteristic of "total quality" organizations.

Front 105

A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been found to be predictive of relapse for which of the following disorders?
A schizophrenia
B eating disorders
C mood disorders
D all of the above

Back 105

The Correct Answer is "D"
The relationship between a family's level of expressed emotion (EE) and the risk of relapse among patients with Schizophrenia has been known for many years; however, recently EE has also been linked to eating disorders and mood disorders. In fact, in a meta-analysis the relationship of EE to relapse in eating disorders and mood disorders was significantly greater than the relationship found for Schizophrenia (mean effect sizes were .51, .39, and .31, respectively)

Front 106

Individuals with the diagnosis of Seasonal Affect Disorder are most likely to respond to light if they experience:
A atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia
B melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss
C incomplete summer remission
D more chronic forms of depression

Back 106

The Correct Answer is "A"
A. Research on the use of light therapy for the treatment of various forms of depression has yielded the findings that for true SAD, atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia predict a robust response, whereas melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss are generally less responsive to light (See: Terman et al., American Journal of Psychiatry, 1996, 153,:423-9). Additionally, a clear onset period with complete remission in the spring and summer months is the SAD phenotype that is most likely to respond to light. Whereas patients with more chronic forms of depression or incomplete summer remission are less likely to have a robust response, they may benefit to some extent

Front 107

A manufacturing company hires a psychologist to screen job applicants using standardized cognitive ability tests. The company then asks the psychologist to train their human resources staff to administer and score the tests. The psychologist should:
A agree to do so if the psychologist is able to provide adequate training to the staff
B agree to do so if the psychologist is able to supervise the human resources staff
C refuse to do so because cognitive ability tests are not valid predictors of job performance
D refuse to do so because the human resources staff lacks the appropriate qualifications

Back 107

The Correct Answer is "D"
Ethical Standard 9.07 states, "Psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons." A human resources staff would be unqualified to use these tests and should not be trained in their use. Contrary to C, cognitive ability tests are considered to be a relatively good predictor of job performance.

Front 108

The leading cause of infant mortality is:
A respiratory distress
B sudden infant death syndrome
C homicide
D congenital malformations

Back 108

Although there has been about a 75% decrease in the infant mortality rates from 1950 to 1999, the proportion of deaths caused by congenital deformities has actually increased, making it the leading cause of death during infancy (i.e., the first year of life). The next leading cause is low birthweight followed by sudden infant death syndrome (B). These three causes accounted for almost one-half of all infant deaths in 1999. Respiratory distress (A) was the 5th leading cause of infant deaths. Homicide (C) was ranked 15th (although homicide risk is higher during infancy than in any other year of childhood before age 17 years)

Front 109

A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble
A getting dressed.
B remembering someone she met a week ago.
C recalling her first date.
D repeating five digits forward and backward.

Back 109

The Correct Answer is "B"
People with Korsakoff's Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past. Procedural memory is undisturbed (response A); remote memories are usually intact (response C); and short-term memory is unaffected (response D).

Front 110

A leader should adopt a "telling" style if:
A The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility
B The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility
C The employee's ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high
D The employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low

Back 110

The Correct Answer is "D"
Hersey and Blanchard's (1974)

TELLING- Low ability and Low willingness / high task and low relationship orientation.

SELLING - low ability but high willingness / high task and high relationship orientation.

PARTICIPATING - high ability but low willingness / low task and high relationship orientation

DELEGATING - High ability to and high willingness / low task and low relationship orientation.

Front 111

A person making a "fundamental attribution error" would:
A overestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting the behavior of others.
B overrestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one's own behavior.
C overestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one's own failures and underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one's own successes.
D underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate dispositional factors in interpreting the behavior of others.

Back 111

The Correct Answer is "D"
You need to be able to differentiate between the different types of attributional errors. The fundamental attribution error or bias only refers to interpretations of others' behaviors. It occurs when we underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors in understanding the behavior of others. For example, if we see someone trip and assume it's because they're clumsy. Choice B describes the actor-observer effect. Choice C describes the self-serving bias.

Front 112

Which of the following is related to minority influence?
A Ambiguity
B Idiosyncracy credits
C Conformity
D Psychological reactance

Back 112

The Correct Answer is "B"
According to Hollander (1985) in order to successfully challenge the majority opinions of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish credibility as a competent insider. By becoming accepted members of the group, we accumulate idiosyncracy credits which are like brownie points.

Front 113

According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership?
A consideration and initiating structure
B employee-centered and production-centered
C autocratic and democratic
D authoritarian and laissez-faire

Back 113

The Correct Answer is "A"
Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered (response “B”). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people.

Front 114

Medications used for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder mostly target:
A dopamine
B GABA
C norepinephrine
D serotonin

Back 114

The Correct Answer is "D"
Knowing that SSRIs are the most prescribed medications for the treatment of OCD should have helped you choose the correct answer. SSRIs target serotonin, which is believed to reduce the symptoms of OCD. Although the mechanism of action is not fully understood, and may differ from the mechanism involved in its antidepressant effects, serotonin is believed to be the primary target.

Front 115

From the perspective of Bandura's social learning theory, "functional value" refers to:
A external reinforcements.
B anticipated consequences.
C self-efficacy beliefs.
D relationship to previous learning.

Back 115

The Correct Answer is "B"
Functional value is pretty much what it sounds like. According to Bandura, a behavior has functional value when the person anticipates that performing it will result in desirable consequences (i.e., when the behavior serves a function).

Front 116

Meta-analysis was first used in psychological research by:
A Binet
B Smith and Glass
C Eysenck
D Horn and Cattell

Back 116

The Correct Answer is "B"
Gene Glass coined the term "meta-analysis" in 1976 and Smith and Glass first used the technique in their psychotherapy outcome studies in 1977. A prior version of the technique was actually developed by Karl Pearson in 1904 (who is better known for his correlation coefficient); however, it was Smith & Glass' classic study which modified and popularized the technique. The benefit of meta-analysis is that it allows researchers to statistically compare the results of several independent studies to yield a single effect size indicating the magnitude of an independent variable's effect.

Front 117

Which statement is most true about validity?
A Validity is never higher than the reliability coefficient.
B Validity is never higher than the square of the reliability coefficient.
C Validity is never higher than the square root of the reliability coefficient.
D Validity is never higher than 1 minus the reliability coefficient.

Back 117

The Correct Answer is "C"
A test's reliability sets an upper limit on its criterion-related validity. Specifically, a test's validity coefficient can never be higher than the square root of its reliability coefficient. In practice, a validity coefficient will never be that high, but, theoretically, that's the upper limit.

Front 118

A minority group member who is a client of yours expresses very strong negative feelings towards her own culture in a therapy session. This client is most likely in which stage of the Minority Identity Development model developed by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue?
A resistance
B dissonance
C conformity
D denial

Back 118

The Correct Answer is "C"
The authors mentioned in the question have developed a model of cultural identity development in minority group members, called the Minority Identity Development (MID) model. The model's five stages are conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and synergetic articulation and awareness. Individuals in the conformity stage prefer the dominant culture's values to those of their own culture. They are likely to have feelings of racial self-hatred, negative beliefs about their own culture, and positive feelings toward the dominant culture.

Front 119

Overcorrection typically involves:
A restitution, guided movement, and positive practice.
B restitution, positive practice, and negative reinforcement.
C positive practice, cognitive reattribution, and community reintegration.
D restitution, negative reinforcement, and cognitive reattribution.

Back 119

The Correct Answer is "A"
Overcorrection is a behavioral technique designed to eliminate undesirable behaviors and promote alternative ones. In overcorrection, the person is required first to correct the consequences of a negative behavior (e.g., clean up the shards of a vase he broke); this is called restitution. Then, the person must repeatedly practice alternative behaviors; this is referred to as positive practice. In many cases, the person is physically guided through the restitution and/or positive practice phases.

Front 120

Which statement is most correct?
A High reliability assumes high validity.
B High validity assumes high reliability.
C Low validity assumes low reliability.
d Low reliability assumes low validity.

Back 120

The Correct Answer is "B"
This question is difficult because the language of the response choices is convoluted and imprecise. We don't write questions like this because we're sadistic; it's just that you'll sometimes see this type of language on the exam as well, and we want to prepare you. What you need to do on questions like this is bring to mind what you know about the issue being asked about, and to choose the answer that best applies. Here, you should bring to mind what you know about the relationship between reliability and validity: For a test to have high validity, it must be reliable; however, for a test to have high reliability, it does not necessarily have to be valid. With this in mind, you should see that "high validity assumes high reliability" is the best answer. This means that a precondition of high validity is high reliability. The second best choice states that low reliability assumes low validity. This is a true statement if you interpret the word "assume" to mean "implies" or "predicts." But if you interpret the word "assume" to mean "depends on" or "is preconditioned by," the statement is not correct. So B is the best answer.

Front 121

The differential diagnosis between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Avoidant Personality Disorder is based on
A degree of isolation.
B odd behaviors.
C self-centeredness.
D fear of rejection.

Back 121

The Correct Answer is "D"
Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of indifference to social relations and a limited range of emotional expression in social situations. Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. Individuals with both these disorder are likely to avoid social relationships. However, those with Avoidant Personality Disorder do so due to timidity and fear of criticism, disapproval, or rejection. Individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder, by contrast, do so out of indifference to social relationships and a preference for solitary activities.

Front 122

Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
A dopamine
B epinephrine
C GABA
D norepinephrine

Back 122

The Correct Answer is "C"
Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).

Front 123

Kuder-Richardson reliability applies to
A split-half reliability.
B test-retest stability.
C Likert scales.
D tests with dichotomously scored questions.

Back 123

The Correct Answer is "D"
The Kuder-Richardson formula is one of several statistical indices of a test's internal consistency reliability. It is used to assess the inter-item consistency of tests that are dichotomously scored (e.g., scored as right or wrong).

Front 124

Protocol analysis typically involves
A specifying the unstated rules of communication between two individuals.
B analyzing a behavior in terms of its antecedents and consequences.
C recording specific behaviors that allow one to understand the subject's problem-solving methodology.
D standardizing psychotherapy procedures.

Back 124

The Correct Answer is "C"
Protocol analysis is sort of an umbrella term used to refer to qualitative research studies that involve collecting verbatim reports. These reports could consist of an examinee's verbal statements, a descriptive account of a subject's behavior, or both. The term is commonly applied to research where the subject is asked to "think aloud" as he or she is performing a task. The researcher then records what the subject does and says, and analyzes the data to determine what cognitive processes are used to solve the problem. The analysis, by the way, is not quantitative or statistical; rather, it is qualitative, or based on the researcher's own interpretations.

Front 125

The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is
A panic attacks.
B anxiety and depression.
C addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers.
D somatic delusions.

Back 125

The Correct Answer is "B"
The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical symptoms which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders. You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.

Front 126

In principal components analysis, an eigenvalue would indicate
A the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by an independent statistical component.
B the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by a statistical component that shares variability with other statistical components in the analysis.
C the amount of variability in one measured variable accounted for by all the independent statistical components in the analysis.
D the amount of variability in all measured variables accounted for by all the statistical components in the analysis.

Back 126

The Correct Answer is "A"
Principal components analysis and factor analysis are two complex statistical techniques designed to determine the degree to which a large set of variables can be accounted for by fewer, underlying constructs (referred to as "factors" or "principal components"). In principal components analysis and factor analysis, an eigenvalue is a statistic that indicates the degree to which a particular factor is accounting for variability in the variables studied. In other words, a factor's eigenvalue indicates its strength or explanatory power. The reason choice "A" rather than "B" is correct is that in principal components analysis, the factors or components are always independent, or uncorrelated.

Front 127

The error inherent in the best fit regression line is called the standard error of the:
A estimate.
B mean.
C measurement.
D coefficient.

Back 127

The Correct Answer is "A"
The standard error of estimate tells us how far we can expect to be off when making predictions based on a regression (prediction) equation. It's a way to assess how well the equation "fits" the data. Try to keep the term "standard error of the estimate" in a box in your mind labeled "correlation coefficient" since, the higher the correlation coefficient, the lower the error of estimate.
The other errors relate to different situations. The standard error of the mean tells us how closely our sample mean approximates the population mean. Keep this one in a box in your mind labeled "experiments and samples." The standard error of measurement tells us how accurately an obtained score on a test estimates someone's true score on that test, if a true score were ever possible to obtain. So keep this one in a box labeled "reliability of a test." And the fourth choice, standard error of the coefficient is a foil. There is no such thing.

Front 128

The use of "pooled variance" in statistics assumes that:
A the sample sizes are equal
B the sample variances are equal
C the population sizes are equal
D the population variances are equal

Back 128

The Correct Answer is "D"
Pooled variance is the weighted average variance for each group. They are "weighted" based on the number of subjects in each group. Use of a pooled variance assumes that the population variances are approximately the same, even though the sample variances differ.

Front 129

According to Marlatt's theory of substance dependence:
A a relapse of dependence is likely if the person makes non-dispositional attributions for use following a "slip" (use of a drug after a period of abstinence).
B substance use is "over-learned" in that it is maintained by itself as well as by multiple cognitive mediators and external reinforcers.
C addictions can be easily extinguished.
D excessive substance use is related to an unresolved need for power.

Back 129

The Correct Answer is "B"
Marlatt's model of substance dependence holds that addicts learn to associate substance use with relief of self-criticism and guilt through a variety of cues and reinforcers, such as advertisements depicting people feeling cheerful when drinking and social occasions in which a carefree attitude is reinforced. In other words, there are a variety of cues and mediators that serve to encourage and reinforce use. Contrary to the person's expectations, however, excessive substance use only exacerbates problems, such as interpersonal or work-related problems. This leads to more self-criticism and guilt, which the person again attempts to relieve by using. In other words, substance use is self-reinforcing -- it is the cause of and the expected solution to the same problems. And it is "over-learned" in that, due to the multiplicity of its antecedents, it becomes a strongly ingrained behavior.
You might have gone for choice A, since you probably knew that Marlatt is associated with a theory of relapse prevention that has to do with attributions regarding the reasons for "slips." However, according to Marlatt, a slip is likely to lead to a full-blown relapse when the person makes dispositional attributions for it, such as when the person blames him or herself. Relapse prevention involves teaching the person to make non-dispositional attributions, such as blaming the situation or the nature of the disease. So this question illustrates the importance of reading carefully and processing what you read, rather than relying on the recognition of "buzzwords."

Front 130

A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by:
A the all-or-nothing principle
B the “law of effect”
C Weber’s law
D the “law of proximity”

Back 130

The Correct Answer is "C"
C. Weber’s law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber, the “just noticeable difference” in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.