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101 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Name the three ways that diagnostic uncertainty is communicated via DSM5 |
Other specified disorder: when the clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis Unspecified disorder: when the clinician does not want to indicate the reason why the client's symptoms do not meet criteria for a disorder. Provisional: when the clinician does not currently have info for a firm diagnosis but believes the full criteria will eventually be met. |
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what 4 factors are assessed via the Outline for Cultural Formulation? |
1. client's cultural identity
2. clients cultural conceptualization of distress 3. the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors impacting vulnerability and resilience 4. cultural factors relevant to the client-therapist relationship |
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how does the DSM5 define "cultural concepts of distress"? |
"ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions" |
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what are cultural syndroms |
clusters of symptoms and attributiosn that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by that culture as coherent patterns of experience |
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what are cultural idioms? |
used by members of different culture to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns |
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what are cultural explanations? |
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress |
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The DSM5 utilizes a ______ approach that divides the mental disorders into types that are defined by a set of diagnostic criteria |
categorical |
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the DSM5 includes a ________ criteria set for most disorders to allow for symptom heterogeniety. |
Polythetic (def: relating to or sharing a number of characteristics which occur commonly in members of a group or class). ` |
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Intellectual disabiltity |
(a) deficits in intellectual functions (b) defeicts in adaptive functioning that result in failures of independence and social responsibility and impair functioning c) onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits in a developmental period |
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diagnostic criteria for: autism spectrum disorder |
a) deficits in social communication and interaction b) restricted, repetitive behaviour, interests, and activities (e.g., stereotyped movements, ritualized behaviour, inflexible routines) c) presence of symptoms during early developmental period d) impaired functioning as a result of the symptoms |
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diagnostic criteria for: attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder |
a) 6 symptoms of inattention and/or 6 symptoms of hyperarcitivity/impulsivity b) symptoms are present in at least 2 settings |
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specific learning disorder |
person exhibits difficulties related to academic skills as indicated by the presence of at least one characteristic symptom that persists for at least 6 months despite the provision of interventions targeting the difficulties. |
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tourette's disorder |
- the presence of at lease one vocal tic and multiple motor tics - persisted for over a year - began prior to age 18 |
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What ages are at most risk for negative reactions to hospitalization? |
1 - 4 years
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4 degrees of intellectual disability severity in what 3 domains of adaptive functioning |
mild, moderate, severe, and profound conceptual, social, and practical domains |
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what % of children with ADHD continue to meet the full diagnostic criteria for the disorder as young adults? |
15% |
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in adults with ADHD, what symptom is most prevalent? |
symptoms of inattention. |
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True or false, an age group that shows particular problems with compliance to medical regimens are adolescents. extra credit: why or why not? |
True. extra credit: this is thought to be related to: peer acceptance, reduced conformity to rules, questioning of the credibility of the health care provider, reduced parental superivsion |
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what type of drug is usually prescribed for treatment of tourette's disorder? |
antipsychotic drugs. |
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what is the criteria for delusional disorder |
one or more delusions that last at least 1 month
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what is the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia? |
1 month of 2 active symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized behavior, negative symptoms
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what factors are associated with a good prognosis for schizophrenia? |
1. good premorbid functioning 2. an acute and late onset 3. female gender 4. the presence of a precipitating event 5. breif duration of active-phase symptoms 6. insight into the illness 7. a family history of a mood disorder 8. no family history of schizophrenia |
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concordance rates for schizophrenia |
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what is the dopamine hypothesis |
attributes schizophrenia to elevated levels of or over-sensitivity to dopamine. |
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What is "expressed emotion" |
Open criticism and hostility toward the patient or, alternatively, overprotectiveness and emotional overinvovlement. |
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what is the diagnostic criteria for schizophreniform disorder? |
identical to schizophrenia, except that the disturbance is present for at least one month but less than 6 months.
Impaired social or occupational functioning may occur but is not required for the diagnosis. |
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what is breif psychotic disorder |
one or more
- delusions, * - hallucinations, * - disorganized speech, * - grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior *one or more symptoms has to be one of these |
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name the 7 types of delusions defined in DSM5 hint (eg jumps) |
1. erotomanic: person believes that another person (usually a stranger/high status person) is in love with them. 2. grandiose 3. jealous 4. persecutory 5. somatic 6. mixed 7. unspecified |
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what is the "first-line" treatment for schizophrenia? |
antipsychotic drugs, CBT, psychoeducation, social skills training, support employment, support for individual's family. |
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What is the danger of expressed emotion in schizophrenia? |
a high level of expressed emotion by family members toward the member with schizophrenia is associated with a high risk for relapse and rehospitalization. |
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What is acute stress disorder |
9 symptoms, from 5 categories ,that occur after a trauma; 1. intrusion 2. negative mood 3. dissociative symptoms 4. avoidance symptoms 5. arousal symptoms |
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what is an adjustment disorder? |
development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more identifiable psychosocial stressors 3 months after stressor. symptoms must remit within 6 months |
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what is agoraphobia? |
- fear/anxiety of 2/5 situations (open spaces, closed spaces, standing in a line, being in a crowd, being outside the home) - fear is due to concern that escape is difficult or help will be unavailable if incapacitating/embarrassing symptoms develop |
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What is alcohol withdrawal? |
the presence of at least 2 symptoms within several hours to a few days of cessation or stopping alcohol consumption: - autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, anxiety, psychomotor agitation, generalized tonic-clonic seizures. |
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What is Korsakoff syndrome (i.e., amnestic-confabulatory type alcohol induced disorder) |
anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation |
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what is alcohol-induced sleep disorder |
insomnia type resulting from either intoxication or withdrawal from alcohol |
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what is anorexia nervosa |
a) a restriction of energy intake that leads to a significantly low body weight. b) intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat or behaviour that interferes with weight gain c) disturbance in the way the person experiences his or her body weight or shape or a persistent lack of recognition of the seriousness of his/her body weight. |
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what is antisocial personality disorder? |
a pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that has occurred since age 15, and involves 3+ symptoms: - failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviour; deceitfulness; impulsivity; reckless disregard for the safety of others; lack of remorse; |
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what is avoidant personality disorder? |
a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy; and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation... 4+ symptoms of: - avoids work activities involving interpersonal contact due to a fear of criticism, rejection, or disapproval; is unwilling to get involved with people unless certain of being liked; is preoccupied with concerns about being criticized or rejected; views self as socially inept, inferior, or unappealing to others. |
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Describe Lewinsohn's behavioral theory of depression |
the theory attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement |
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What is Bipolar I disorder? |
at least 1 manic episode lasting for at least a week; symptoms of mania include: - inflated self-esteem/gradiosity; decreased need for sleep; flight of ideas; may include 1 or more episodes of hypomania or major depression |
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what is the front line treatment for Bipolar 1? |
lithium or an anti-seizure medication and CBT (or other forms of therapy) |
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what is Bipolar II disorder? |
at least 1 hypomanic episode and atleast 1 major depressive episode: |
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what is borderline personality disorder? |
a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, and marked impulsivity 5 symptoms of: frantic efforts to avoid abandonment; pattern of unstabale intense relationships; identity disturbance; recurrent suicide threats or gestures; transient stress-related paranoia or severe dissociative symptoms |
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what is the concordance rates for schizophrenia among: a) biological siblings? b) identical twins? |
a) 10%
b) 48% - general rule is that the closer in relationship, the higher the concordance rate. |
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what is conduct disorder? |
persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms or rules - 3+ symptoms in the categories of: aggression to people/animals; destruction of property; deceitfulness or theft; serious violation of rules |
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What is conversion disorder? |
disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning and suggest a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g., blindness, loss of pain sensation) with evidence of incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological or medical conditions. |
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What is Cyclothymic disorder? |
fluctuating hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods of depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode - must last for at least 2 years in adults |
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what is delirium? |
a) a disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period of time b) an additional disturbance in cognition (e.g., impaired memory, perceptual distortions) |
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What is dependent personality disorder? |
a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, which leads to submissive, clinging behavior and a fear of seperation 5+ symptoms of: difficulty making decisions without advice/reassurance; fears of disagreeing with others because it might cause loss of support; difficulty initiating projects; goes to great lengths to gain nuturance and support; is unrealistically preoccupied with fears of having to care for him/herself |
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Breifly describe 3 strategies incorporated in Linehan's Dialectical Behavior Therpay (DBT) for borderline personality disorder. |
1. group skills training to help clients regulate their emotions and improve their social and coping skills. 2. individual outpatient therapy to strengthen clients' motivation and newly-aquired skills 3. telephone consultations to provide additional support and between session coaching. |
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Research has confirmed the DBT for BPD reduces these three things among treated populations... |
1. premature termination from therapy 2. psychiatric hospitalizations 3. parasuicidal behaviors |
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What is dissociative amnesia? |
an inability to recall important presonal information that cannot be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness - is often related to exposure to traumatic events |
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What is enuresis? (pronounced en-your-ee-sis) |
repeated voiding of urine into the bed or clothes at least 2x week for 3 months. - urination is usually involuntary - must be 5+ years old or equivalent developmental level |
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What is erectile disorder? |
1/3 symptoms of: marked difficulty in obtaining an erection during sexual activity, marked difficulty maintaining an erection until completion of sexual activity; marked decrease in erectile rigidity - occurs on almost all occasions of sexual activity |
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What is "factitious disorder imposed on self"? |
falsify physical or psychological symptoms that are associated with their deception, present themselves as being ill or impaired, and engage in the deception even in the absence of an obvious external reward |
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What is factitious disorder imposed on another? |
falsify physical or psychological symptoms in another person, present that person to others as being ill or impaired, and engage in the deception behavior even in the absence of an external reward. |
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What is gender dysphoria in children? |
incongruence between assigned gender at birth and expreienced or expressed gender as evidenced by a strong desire to be the opposite sex - 5+ symptoms of: preference for wearing clothes of the other gender; cross-gender rols during play; toys and activities typically used by other gender; prefer playmates of other gender; desire for primary or secondary sex characteristics of the opposite gender. |
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what is gender dysphoria in adults? |
2+ symptoms of: incongruence between one's primary and/or secondary sex characteristics and one's experienced or expressed gender; desire for the primary and/or secondary characteristics of the opposite gender; strong desire to be the opposite gender; strong conviction that they have the feelings and reactions that are characteristic of the opposite gender |
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How long do symptoms have to be present to constitute a diagnosis of gender dysphoria in both children and adults? |
at least 6 months. |
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What is generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? |
excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities, which are relatively constant for at least 6 months - difficulty controlling worry - 3 symptoms of: restlessness/keyed up; easily fatigued; difficulty concentrating; irritability; muscle tension; sleep disturbance. |
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What is genito-pelvic/penetration disorder? |
persistent difficulties with: vaginal penetration during intercourse; genito-pelvic pain during intercourse or penetration attempts; anxiety about genito-levic pain before, during, or as a result of vaginal penetration; tensing of pelvic floor muscles during attempted vaginal penetration. |
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What is histrionic personality disorder? |
a pervasive pattern of emotionality and attention-seeking as manifested by 5+ of; discomfort when not the centre of attention; inappropriately sexually seductive or provocative; rapidly shifting and shallow emotions; consistent use of physical appearance to gain attention; considers relationships to be more intimate than they are. |
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What is insomnia disorder? |
dissatisfaction with sleep quality or quantity that is associated with 1+ symptom of: difficulty initiating sleep; difficulty maintaing sleep; early-morning awakening with inability to return to sleep; |
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What is the learned helplessness model of depression? |
proposes that depression is due to exposure to uncontrollable negative events and internal, stable, and global attributions for those events |
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What did Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy do when they reformulated the learned helplessness model of depression? |
they emphasized the role of hopelessness! |
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What is Major depressive disorder? |
5 symptoms of: - depressed mood; loss of interest/pleasure; wight loss or gain/increased or decreased appitite; insomnia or hypesomnia; psychomotor agitation or retardation; fatigue or loss of energy; worthlessness or excessive guilt; reduced ability to think or concentrate; thoughts of death or suicide |
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when is the peripartum specifier used in mood disorders? |
peripartum onset sepcifier is applied to MDD, bipolar I and II, when the onset of symptoms is during pregnancy or within four weeks postpartum may include anxiety and a preoccupation with the infant's wellbeing, or in extreme cases, delusional thoughts about the infant |
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When is the seasonal pattern specifier used in mood disorder? |
when there is a temporal relationship between the onset of a mood episode and a particular time of the year. - this condition is also known as Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) |
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What are some common symptoms of Seasonal Affective Disorder (i.e., Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern) |
hypersomnia; increased appetite and weight gain; a craving for carbohydrates |
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What is Major Neurocognitive Disorder (formerly dementia)? |
significant decline from a previous level of functioning in one or more cognitive domeains that interferes with independence subtypes of the disorder are based on etiology (e.g., Major Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's Disease; Major Neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection). |
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What is malingering? |
the intentional production, faking, or gross exaggeration of physical or psychological symptoms to obtain an external reward (e.g., to avoid criminal prosecution or to get financial compensation). |
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Describe Marlatt and Gordon/Relapse prevention therapy |
Marlatt and Gordon view addiction as an "overlearned maladaptive habit patter" and their relapse prevention therapy focuses on identifying circumstances that increase the risk for relapse and implementing cognitive and behavioural strategies that help client prevent and cope effectively with lapses. |
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What is narcissistic personality disorder? |
a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, lack of empathy - 5+ symptoms of: grandiose sense of self-importance; preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, beauty, love; believes they are unique and can only be understood by others of high status; requires excessive admiration; sense of entitlement; lacks empathy; often envious; believes other envy them |
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What is narcolepsy? |
attacks of irrepressible need to sleep with lapses into sleep or daytime naps that occur at least 3 times per week and have been present for 3+months. |
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Describe what happens in Stage 1 of neurocognitive disorder due to alzeimers disease. |
anterograd amnesia (especially for declaritive memories); deficits in visuospatial skills (wandering); indifference, irritability, and sadness; anomia |
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Describe what happens in Stage 2 of neurocognitive disorder due to alzheimer's disease. |
increaseing retrograde amnesia; flat or labile mood; restlessness and agitation; delusions; fluent aphasia; acalculia; and ideomotor apraxia (inability to translate an idea into movement) |
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Describe what happens in Stage 3 of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease. |
entails severely deteriorated intellectual functioning; apathy; limb rigitidy; and urinary and fecal incontinence. |
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What are non-rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorders? |
recurrent episodes of incomplete awakening that usually ccur during the first third of the major sleep episode and are accompanied by sleepwalking, and/or sleep terror |
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What is obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? |
persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that the person experiences as intrusive and unwanted (obsessions) and repetitious and deliberate behaviors or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform either in response to an obsession or according to rigid rules (Compulsions) |
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What is Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? |
persistent preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control that limits flexibility, openness, and efficiency - 4+ symptoms of: perfectionism that interferes with task completion; excessively devoted to work and productivity; reluctant to delegate work to others unless they are willing to do it their way; adputs a miserly spending style toward self and others. |
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What is necessary for the diagnosis of opioid withdrawal? |
3+ symptoms of: vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea; pupillary dilation; piloerection; sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; insomnia |
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what is oppositional defiant disorder? |
recurrent pattern of an angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness as evidenced by at least 4 symptoms of: - often loses temper; often argues with authority; often actively refuses to comply with requests from authorities or rules; often blames others for his/her mistaks. |
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What is panic disorder? |
recurrent unnexpected panic attacks with at least one attack being followed by 1 month of persistent concern about having additional attacks or about their consequences and/or involving a significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the attacks |
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What is paranoid personality disorder? |
a pervasive pattern of distrust and suspiciousness that entails interprting the motives of others as malevolent |
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What are paraphilic disorders? |
disorders characterized by an "intense and persistent sexual interest other than sexual interest in genital stimulation or preparatory fondling with phenotypical normal, physically mature, consenting human partners" |
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What is persistent depressive disorder? |
a depressed mood on most days for at least 2 years. during this period the individual has not been symptom free for more than 2 months |
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what is premature ejaculation? |
persistant or recurrent pattern of ejaculation during partnered sexual activity within about one minute of vaginal penetration or before the person desires it |
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What is the typical treatment for premature ejaculation? |
the start-stop or squeeze technique |
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What is reactive attachment disorder? |
a pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers as manifested by a lack of seeking or responding to comfort when distressed and a persistant social and emotional disturbance. |
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What are some risk factors for suicide? (8 are listed) |
1. a suicide warning 2. previous attempts 3. a plan 4. male gender 5. being divorced, widowed, or seperated 6. feelings of hopelessness 7. white (exception is First Nations) 8. ages 15-34 |
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What is schizoid personality disorder? |
pervasive pattern of detachment from interpersonal relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in social settings - 4+ symptoms of: doesn't desire close relationships; almost always chooses solitary activities; has little interest in sexual relationships; takes pleasure in few activities; lacks close friends or confidants other than first-degree relatives; seems indifferent to praise or criticism; exhibits emotional coldness or detachment. |
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What is schizotypal personality disorder? |
a) a pervasive social and interpersonal deficits involving acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships (b) eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior as manifested by the presence of 5+ symptoms: - ideas of reference; odd beliefs/magical thinking; bodily illusions and unusual perceptions; suspicious or paranoid ideation; inappropriate or constricted affect; lacks close friends; excessive social anxiety |
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What is seperation anxiety disorder? |
developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety related to separation from home or attachment figures |
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What is social anxiety disorder? |
intense fear or anxiety about one or more social situations in which the indivdiual may be exposed to scrutiny by others. The individual fears that he/she will exhibit anxiety symptoms in these situations that will be neagitvely evaluated; avoids the situations |
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what is specific phobia? |
intense fear of a specific object or situation, with the individual either avoiding the object or situation or enduring it with marked distress. |
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What are substance use disorders? |
a cluster of cognitive, behavioural, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems |
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What three elements are most associated with long-term abstinence from tobacco products? |
1. nicotine replacement therapy 2. multicomponent behavioural therapy (e.g., skills training, relapse prevention, stimulus control) 3. support and assistance from a clinician. |
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What is uncomplicated bereavement? |
a normal reaction to the death of a loved one. - may include symptoms or a major depressive episode, but the individual usually experiences the symptoms as normal and may be seeking treatment for insomnia, anorexia, or other associated symptoms. |
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What is vascular neurocognitive disorder? |
criteria for major or mild neurocognitive disorder is met; evidence of cerebrovascular disease from individual's history. |
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Discuss the percentages of intellectual disabilities caused by specific causes. |
5% are due to heredity (Tay-sachs, fragile X) 30% to chromosomal changes and exposure to toxins during prenatal period (down syndrome, FASD) 10% pregnancy and perinatal problems (fetal malnutrition, trauma) 5% acquired medical conditions during infancy and childhood (lead poisoning, malnutrition) 15-20% environmental and predisposing mental disorders (autism, severe deprivation of stimulation) 30% are from unknown causes |
