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145 Cards in this Set

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The most common cause of Mental Retardation is:

a. prenatal factors
b. perinatal factors
c. environmental factors in infancy
a. prenatal factors
What are the three diagnostic criteria for Mental Retardation?
1) Significantly subaverage intellectual functioning (70 or below)

2) Concurrent deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning in at least two areas (e.g., self care, social skills)

3) Onset prior to age 18
Name the four degrees of severity of Mental Retardation, and the corresponding IQ score ranges for each.
Mild (IQ 50-55 to 70)

Moderate (IQ 35-40 to 50-55)

Severe (IQ 20-25 to 35-40)

Profound (IQ below 20-25)
What are common comorbid diagnoses you may see with Mental Retardation?
ADHD
Mood Disorders
Pervasive Developmental Disorders
Stereotypic Movement Disorder
Mental Disorder Due to GMC
A)Name the various causes of Mental Retardation.

B)How frequent is each cause? (i.e., give a percent)
Heredity: 5%

Early alterations in embryonic development: 30%

Pregnancy and perinatal problems: 10%

GMC's in infancy or childhood: 5%

Environmental factors and other mental disorders: 15 to 20%

Unknown etiology: 30-40%
A) PKU can be detected at birth by a blood test, and its symptoms prevented by a diet that is ___________.

B) Name the three main consequences of untreated PKU.
A) low in phenylalanine

B) irreversible moderate to profound retardation

impaired motor and language development

unpredictable and erratic behaviors
Down Syndrome is also known as _____ and is due to the presence of ______.
Trisomy 21, an extra chromosome.
Down syndrome is estimated to be the cause of about _____% of all cases of moderate to severe retardation.
10 to 30%
What do treatment approaches for children with Mental Retardation emphasize?
Providing education and training that enhance the skills needed to live productively and independently.
If a person has an IQ of 73, with deficits in adaptive functioning, what would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

A) Mild Mental Retardation
B) Borderline Intellectual Functioning
C) Moderate Mental Retardation
D) None
A) While Borderline Intellectual Functioning is typically associated with an IQ between 71 and 84, Mild Mental Retardation is the most appropriate diagnosis when a person's IQ is between 71 and 75, with substantial deficits in adaptive functioning.
A Learning Disorder is defined as when achievement is 'substantially below' that which is expected given age, schooling, and intelligence.

"Substantially below" is usually defined as a discrepancy of ___ standard deviations between achievement and IQ test scores.

a) One or more
b) Two or more
c) Three or more
d) Four or more
b) Two or more
____ is the most frequent comorbid disorder in individuals with Learning Disorder.

a) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
b) Conduct Disorder
c) ADHD
d) Tourette's Disorder
c) 20 to 25% of children with Learning Disorders also have ADHD.
Which of the following has been found to be helpful in the treatment of Learning Disorders?

a) Cognitive restructuring
b) Social-cognitive skills training
c) Neurocognitive rehabilitation
d) None of the above
b) Because children with learning disabilities often have peer relationship problems, training in social-cognitive skills is beneficial.
Which of the following are Learning Disorders?

a) Stuttering
b) Mathematics Disorder
c) Disorders of Written Expression
d) Reading Disorder
b), c) and d) are all Learning Disorders.
Which of the following are Communication Disorders?

a) Phonological Disorder
b) Expressive Language Disorder
c) Breathing Disorder
d) All of the above
a) and b) are Communication Disorders. Mixed Receptive-Expressive Language Disorder and Stuttering are also Communication Disorders.
A promising treatment method for older children with Stuttering is the _______ method.

a) Controlled respiration
b) Regulated breathing
c) Monitored exhalation
d) None of the above
b) The regulated breathing method has been found to be a treatment for older children who stutter.

It involves reassuring the individual he can speak without stuttering, and incorporates breathing and vocalization exercises and graded speech assignments.
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for a diagnosis of Autism?

a) Qualitative impairment in social interaction
b) Qualitative impairment in writing
c) Restricted, repetitive and stereotyped behavior, interests and activities
d) all of the above are criteria
b) Qualitiative impairment in communication is a criteria for a diagnosis of Autism.
A diagnosis of Autism requires that abnormal functioning in social interaction, communication, or symbolic or imaginative play develops prior to age ___.

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
b) three
Autism is about _____ times more common in ____.

a) two to three, males
b) four to five, males
c) four to five, females
d) four to five, females
b) Autism is about four to five times more common in males than females.
About ___ of individuals with Autism achieve some degree of partial independence as adults.

a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 1/3
d) 1/2
1/3
About ___% of people with Autism are mentally retarded.

a) 45%
b) 60%
c) 75%
d) 90%
c) 75%
The earliest signs of Autism are _____.

a) Steadfast refusal to communicate verbally
b) High-pitched echolalic speech
c) Delayed motor movement
d) A lack of normal responding to caregivers
d) A lack of normal responding to caregivers
Which of the following are associated with a better prognosis for children with Autism?

a) Ability to communicate verbally by age 4
b) An IQ over 70
c) Earlier onset of symptoms
d) b and c
B) An IQ over 70, ability to communicate verbally by age 5 or 6, and a later onset of symptoms are all associated with a better prognosis for children with Autism.
In temrs of etiology, Autism has been linked to a number of _______, the most common of which are ______.

a) Prenatal influences; cocaine and marijuana exposure in utero
b) Social impoverishments; parental abuse and neglect
c) Neurological factors; reduced cerebellum and enlarged ventricles
d) Physical traumas in infancy; shaken baby syndrome and open head injuries
c)
____________ have been found to be most effective in icreasing communication skills in children with Autism.

a) contingency training
b) shaping and discrimination training
c) social skills training
d) all of the above
b) While all of the above are behavioral techniques, shaping and discrimination training have been found to be most effective in this population.
Autistic children have been found to be relatively strong in _____ processing, which has led to the development of educational interventions that emphasize the use of ________.

a) motor; psychomotor stimulation
b) verbal; speech therapy
c) visual; visual structures and cues
d) kinesthetic; physical therapy
c) visual; visual structures and cues
Autistic Disorder is one subcategory of Pervasive Developmental Disorders (PDD). Another PDD is Rett's Disorder, which involves a characteristic pattern of symptoms following a period of normal development for _____ months or more.

a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
c) five
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Rett's Disorder?

a) Head growth acceleration
b) loss of purposeful head skills and development of stereotypical hand movements
c) impairments in gait or trunk coordination
d) severely impaired language development
a) Rett's Disorder is characterized by head growth deceleration.
Rett's Disorder is ____ times more common in ____.

a) three
b) five
c) six
d) none of the above
D) Rett's Disorder has been reported only in females.
In __________ Disorder, there is a distinct pattern of developmental regression in at least two areas of functioning (e.g., motor skills, play, social skills) following at least ____ of apparently normal development.

a) Asperger's Disorder, 1 year
b) Childhood Disintegrative Disorder, 1 year
c) Asperger's Disorder, 2 years
d) Childhood Disintegrative Disorder, 2 years
d)
Which of the following is true about Asperger's Disorder?

a) Social development is not severely impaired
b) Language development is not substantially impaired
c) Cognitive development is substantially impaired
d) Self-help skills are substantially impaired
b) Language development is not impaired in children with Asperger'S Disorder.
A diagnosis of ADHD requires:

a) Onset of symptoms prior to age 6
b) Persistence of symptoms for at least three months
c) Some degree of impairment in at least one setting, as observed by at least two people
d) None of the above
d) ADHD requires an onset of symptoms prior to age 7, persistence of symptoms for at least six months, and some degree of impairement in at least two settings.
A co-diagnosis of ________ is very common in children with ADHD, to the extent that some experts believe these two conditions are the same disorder.

a) Tourette's Disorder
b) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
c) Conduct Disorder
d) Rett's Disorder
c) While Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Mood Disorders, Anxiety Disorders, Learning Disorders and Communication Disorders are all common co-diagnoses, Conduct Disorder is very common.
Up to ___% of children continue to have symptoms of ADHD as adults.

a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%
c) 60%
The prognosis for children with ADHD is poorest for those who have a co-diagnosis of Conduct Disorder, a low IQ, and _____.

a) Authoritarian parents
b) A first-degree relative with ADHD
c) Low social support
d) Parents with severe mental disorders
d) parents with severe mental disorders.
Which of the following brain abnormalities have been linked to ADHD?

a) Reduced activity in the frontal cortex and basal ganglia
b) Malfunction in the right hemisphere
c) Smaller than normal caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and prefrontal cortex
d) All of the above
d) All of the above.
Barkley (1990) proposed that the core feature of ADHD is an inability to regulate one's behavior to fit situational demands. This is known as:

a) The overstimulation hypothesis
b) The behavioral regression hypothesis
c) The behavioral disinhibition hypothesis
d) The impulsive discontrol hypothesis
c) The behavioral disinhibition hypothesis
With regard to the activity levels of people with ADHD, which of the following has been found to be true?

a) People with ADHD may have trouble increasing their level of activity to appropriate levels
b) People with ADHD may have trouble decreasing their level of activity to appropriate levels
c) People with ADHD may have trouble increasing and decreasing their level of activity to appropriate levels
d) People with ADHD have no trouble increasing and decreasing their level of activity to appropriate levels
c)
_____ are a class of drugs that have been used to treat ADHD since the 1930's, and have had beneficial effects on its core symptoms in about __% of cases.

a) Antipsychotics; 80%
b) SSRI's; 65%
c) Benzodiazepines; 55%
d) Stimulants; 75%
d)
The effects of stimulants in treating ADHD symptoms are said to be "dose dependent." This means:

a) Greater reductions in overactivity and improved attention are both usually obtained with lower doses
b) Greater reductions in overactivity and improved attention are both usually obtained with higher doses
c) Greater reductions in overactivity are associated with lower doses, while improved attention is associated with higher doses
d) Greater reductions in overactivity are associated with higher doses, while improved attention is associated with lower doses
d)
Which of the following adverse side effects may be seen when using stimulants to treat ADHD?

a) dysphoria
b) loss of appetite
c) increased heart rate
d) all of the above
d) all of the above.

Other side effects of stimulants include insomnia, increased blood pressure, and suppression of height and weight (which can be alleviated via "drug holidays" during summer and winter vactions).
___________ have been observed in 30 to 70% of hyperactive children taking stimulant drugs

a) Motor tics
b) Vocal tics
c) Motor and Vocal Tics
d) Neurological Tics
c) Motor and Vocal Tics.

Thus, some experts have concluded that stimulants are contraindicated, or must be closely monitored, in children with pre-existing tics or a family history of a Tic Disorder.
Another class of drugs used to treat ADHD are the _______.

a) SSRI's
b) MAO Inhibitors
c) Tricyclic Antidepressants
d) Anxiolytics
c) Tricyclic Antidepressants.

These drugs are similar to CNS stimulants in terms of benefits, and may be useful when stimulants are contraindicated because of adverse side effects.
Which of the following is true regarding treatment interventions for ADHD?

a) Pharmacotherapy is the optimal form of treatment
b) Psychosocial interventions is the optimal form of treatment
c) There is some evidence that pharmacotherapy, in combination with psychosocial interventions, result in better outcomes than either treatment alone
d) There is considerable evidence that pharmacotherapy, in combination with psychosocial interventions, result in better outcomes than either treatment alone
d)
What is the most accurate statement concerning parental involvement in the treatment of ADHD?

a) It is helpful, but not seen as particularly important
b) It is seen as important
c) It is not seen as relevant
d) It has not been adequetely studied
b) Parental involvement is considered an important part of the treatment for ADHD.
The diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the past 12 months. Symptoms are divided into four categories.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom category?

a) aggression to people and animals
b) destruction of property
c) deceitfulness or theft
d) All of the above are symptom categories
d) All of the above are symptom categories.

Additionally, serious violation of rules is a symptoms category of Conduct Disorder.
There are two subtypes of Conduct Disorder. When the onset of symptoms is prior to age _____, _____ is diagnosed.

a) 8, Unruly Type
b) 8, Childhood-Aggression Type
c) 10, Childhood-Behavior Type
d) 10, Childhood-Onset Type
d)
The two subtypes of Conduct Disorder are
Childhood-Onset Type and _______:

a) Adolescent-Behavior Type
b) Teenage-Behavior Type
c) Adolescent-Acting Type
d) None of the above
d) None of the above.

Adolescent-Onset Type is the other subtype of Conduct Disorder.
Moffit (1993) distinguishes between two types of Conduct Disorder that differ in terms of onset, symptom severity and etiology, They are:

a) Chronic Conduct Disorder Type and Teenage-Only Type
b) Lifelong Persistent Type and Childhood Type
c) Life-course-persistent type and Adolescence-limited type
d) Life-stage-evolving type and School-aged-limited type
c) The life-course-persistent type begins early, with symptoms sometimes apparent by age three, and involves a pattern of increasingly serious transgressions that continues into adulthood.

By contrast, the adolescence-limited type is a temporary form of antisocial behavior that reflects a maturity gap between the adolescent's biological maturation and lack of opportunities for adult privileges and rewards.
Which of the followng is true about treatment for Conduct Disorder?

a) Treatment is best targeted at children once they reach adolescence
b) Treatment can be directed at children either in pre-adolescence or adolescence, with equal effectiveness
c) Preadolescence is the optimal time for intervention
d) None of the above
c) Interventions that target preadolescents (versus adolescents) are most effective
Which form(s) of family interventions are commonly associated with treatment of Conduct Disorder?

a) Parent management training
b) Multisystemic treatment
c) Structural family therapy
d) a and b
e) b and c
d) a and b
A 7 year old child argues often with his parents, is quick to lose his temper, and is defiant of the rules when playing games with his friends. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this child?

a) Conduct Disorder, Childhood-Onset type
b) ADHD, Hyperactive-Impulsive Type
c) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
d) Tourette's Disorder
c) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
WHich of the following best describes the gender differences in children with Oppositional Definat Disorder (ODD)?

a) Equally common in males and females throughout childhood
b) More common in females than males until puberty; afterwards, more common in males
c) More common in males than females until puberty; afterwards, more common in females
d) More common in males than females until puberty; afterwards, about equal in males and females
d)
Which of the following is NOT a Feeding and Eating Disorder of Infancy or Early Childhood?

a) Pica
b) Rumination Disorder
c) Feeding Disorder of Infancy or early childhood
d) b and c
e) all of the above are accurate categories
e)
What is the essential feature of Tourette's Disorder?

a) multiple vocal tics and at least one motor tic beginning prior to age 16
b) at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics beginning prior to age 16
c) multiple vocal tics and at least one motor tic beginning prior to age 18
d) at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics beginning prior to age 18
d)
The most common associated feature of Tourette's Disorder are:

a) Impulsive behaviors
b) Obsessions and compulsions
c) Echolalic speech
d) None of the above
b) The rate of OCD is higher not only for individuals with Tourette's Disorder but also for their biological relatives.

Impulsivity, hyperactivity and distractibility are also common and have been identified as a cause of the high rate of school problems exhibited by children with this disorder.
The treatment of Tourette's Disorder usually involves _________, particularly through the use of _______.

a) behavior modification; contingency management
b) social skills training; role play
c) pharmacotherapy; antipsychotics
d) pharmacotherapy; anxiolytics
c) Haloperidol and Pimozide have been studied most extensively and have been found to be effective in about 80% of cases.
In terms of pharmacotherapy, it is believed that Tourette's Disorder is related to ____________.

a) insufficient serotonin
b) excessive GABA
c) excessive dopamine
d) insufficent norepinephrine
c)
Enuresis is only diagnosed when children have reached a developmental age where continence is expected (usually ___ years). Encopresis is usually _____ and the child must have a chronological or mental age of at least ___ years.

a) 6, voluntary, 4
b) 5, involuntary, 4
c) 4, voluntary, 5
d) 6, involuntary, 3
b)
A drug of choice for treating Enuresis is ______. A drawback to this drug is that most children relapse within ____ after discontinuing the drug.

a) Clompiramine, 4 months
b) Desyrel, 6 months
c) Imipramine, 3 months
d) Inderal, 4 mnths
c) Imipramine reduces wetting frequency in 85% of cases and suppresses wetting entirely in 30% of cases. However, most children relapse within 3 months after discontinuing.
Separation Anxiety Disorder is best defined as:

a) excessive anxiety about going to public school
b) excessive anxiety about being left alone in public setings
c) excessive anxiety related to separation from home or attachment figures
d) excessive anxiety surrounding parental rejection
c)
Separation Anxiety Disorder is sometimes manifested as:

a) refusal to listen to caregivers
b) school refusal
c) refusal to attend public gatherings without caregivers present
d) refusal to leave room
b)School refusal often occurs at three different ages:

5 to 7 years (when the child first begins school);

11 to 12 (when the child changes school);

and at 14 years or older

When school refusal occurs between 5 and 7 it is usually due to separation anxiety, whereas during adolescence it is usually a sign of depression or a more severe disorder.
In terms of treatment for school refusal, most authorities agree that:

a) parents should exercise their best judgment in deciding when children should return to school
b) parents should forcibly insist that children return under any and all circumstances
c) parents should leave children alone until they feel emotionally ready to return
d) an immediate return to school is recommended
d)
Pica, Rumination Disorder, and Feeding Disorder of Infancy or Early Childhood are all categories of "Feeding and Eating Disorders of Infancy or Early Childhood."

Pica involves:

a) Persistent eating of food for at least one month
b) Persistent eating of nonnutritive substances (e.g., paint, clay) for at least one month, with a corresponding aversion to food
c) Sporadic eating of nonnutritive substances for at least one month, without an aversion to food
d) Persistent eating of nonnutritive substances for at least one month, without an aversion to food
d) Additionally, the onset of this disorder is most often between the ages of 12 and 24 months, is frequently associated with Mental Retardation, and is occasionally found in pregnant women.
The essental feature of Reactive Attachment Disorder of Infancy or Early Childhood is markedly disturbed and developmentally inappropriate:

a) Oppositional behavior
b) Clinging behavior
c) Social relatedness
d) None of the above
c) Additionally, a diagnosis of this disorder requires evidence of pathogenic care (e.g., neglect or freqent changes in caregivers that prevented the development of attachment)
The two subtypes of Reactive Attachment Disorder are:

a) Inhibited and Disinhibited
b) Dependent and Neglected
c) Ambivalent and Unambivalent
c) Affiliated and Unaffiliated
a) The Inhibited Type is characterized by a persistent failure to initiate and respond to most social interactions and involves a pattern of inhibited, hypervigilant or highly ambivalent responses.

The Disinhibited Type involves indiscriminate sociability or a lack of selectivity in the choice of attachment figures.
Behavioral pediatrics (pediatric psychology) is defined as:

a) psychological study of developmental issues
b) psychological study of children's intellectual functioning
c) psychological study of children's medical illnesses
d) psychological study of any and all aspects of children's lives
c)
In terms of behavioral pediatrics, multicomponent cognitive-behavioral interventions have been found useful for reducing both anxiety about medical procedures, and the pain they cause.

These interventions, are based in part, on Meichenbaum's _______ model.

a) stress tolerance
b) stress inoculation
c) illness inoculation
d) behavioral inoculation
b) Meichenbaum's stress inculation model involves providing the child with information about the medical procedure and using a variety of techniques to help the child cope with anxiety and stress.
Research has found that a major contributor to risk for emotional and behavioral disorders in children with medical illnesses involves:

a) Frequent medical interventions
b) Separation from family
c) Lack of emotional support from family
d) Few friends
b) Recognition of the impact of separation has led to increased visitation hours in hospitals and "rooming-in" (24 hour visitation)
Brown and Madan-Swain (1993) looked at the effects of CNS irradiation and intrathecal chemotherapy, which are common treatments for leukemia.

Whichof the following is most accurate, about the impact of these two treatments?

a) Neither treatment is associated with a significant impact on neurocognitive functioning
b) Both treatments are associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning
c) CNS irradiation is associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning, as well as a higher-than-normal rate of learning disabilities
d) CNS irradiation and intrathecal chemotherapy have both been found to be associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning, and a higher-than-normal rate of learning disabilities
d)
The two main criteria for a diagnosis of Delirirum are:

a) 1) A disturbance in consciousness, and 2) a change in cognition, and/or development of abnormal behaviors
b) 1) Intact consciousness, and 2) A change in cognition, and/or development of perceptual abnormalities
c) 1) A disturbance in consciousness, and 2) a change in cognition, and/or development of perceptual abnormalities
d) 1) A disturbance in consciousness, and 2) a change in behavior, and/or development of perceptual abnormalities
c)
Wise (1995) idetified five groups who are at high risk for delirium. All of the following are identified groups, EXCEPT:

a) People with decreased cerebral reserve
b) Postcardiotomy patients
c) Elderly people
d) Burn patients
e) All of the above are considered to be high-risk
e) Additionally, people with drug dependence who are experiencing withdrawal are considered to be high risk.
Which of the following age grops are at the highest risk for delirium?

a) Young children
b) Middle-aged adults with a history of head trauma
c) HIV infected patients
d) Older people
D) Older people are at the highest risk to develop delirium, followed by young children.
The two components of treatment for delirium are:

a) Surgical intervention and social skills training
b) Drug intervention and reduction of agitated behaviors
c) Treatment of the underlying medical condition and psychotherapy
d) Treatment of the underlying medical condition and reduction of agitation
d) Reduction of agitation is addressed by a combination of environmental manipulation (e.g., providing an environment that minimizes disorientation) and psychosocial intervention.
Dementia is characterized by multiple cognitive deficits that include:

a) Severe memory impairment
b) Some degree of memory impairment
c) aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, and/or impaired executive functioning
d) b and c
e) a and c
d) b and c. Only some degree of memory impairment (versus severe memory impairment) is required.
Anterograde amnesia is defined as:

a) Difficulty remembering recent past information
b) Difficulty remembering remote past information
c) Difficulty acquiring new information
d) Difficulty remembering any information, old or new
c)
Retrograde amnesia is defined as:

a) difficulty recalling past information
b) difficulty remembering new information
c) difficulty remembering any information
d) difficulty encoding information
a)
Which of the following best describes the extent of anterograde and retrograde amnesia in demented patients?

a) Retrograde amnesia is usually more evident in the beginning of the disorder
b) Anterograde amnesia is usually more evident in the beginning of the disorder
c) Both are equally evident throughout the disorder
d) None of the above
b) Both anterograde and retrograde amnesia may be experienced, but anterograde amnesia is usually more evident at the beginning of the disorder.
Aphasia is defined as:

a) Deterioration in language functioning
b) Trouble executing motor actions
c) Inability to recognize and identify familiar objects and people
d) Problems with abstract thinking, planning, initiating, monitoring and stopping complex behaviors
a)
Agnosia is defined as:

a) Deterioration in language functioning
b) Trouble executing motor actions
c) Inability to recognize and identify familiar objects and people
d) Problems with abstract thinking, planning, initiating, monitoring and stopping complex behaviors
c)
Poor or deficits in Executive functioning is defined as:

a) Deterioration in language functioning
b) Trouble executing motor actions
c) Inability to recognize and identify familiar objects and people
d) Problems with abstract thinking, planning, initiating, monitoring and stopping complex behaviors
d)
Apraxia is defined as:

a) Deterioration in language functioning
b) Trouble executing motor actions
c) Inability to recognize and identify familiar objects and people
d) Problems with abstract thinking, planning, initiating, monitoring and stopping complex behaviors
b)
Which of the following interventions are NOT typically used in treating dementia?

a) group therapy that emphasizes reminiscence
b) antidepressants
c) cognitive rehabilitation
d) environmental manipulation
c) While cognitive rehabilitation and memory training are effective for people with age-related memory declines or focal brain disorders, they have not been found useful for people with dementia.
The psychiatric condition underlying
"pseudodementia" is:

a) Dysthymic Disorder
b) Major Depressive Disorder
c) Depressive Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition
d) Substance-Induced Mood Disorder
b)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the differential diagnosis of pseudodementia from dementia?

a) Pseudodementia is characterized by progressive cognitive decline
b) Individuals with pseduodementia are concerned about their deficits
c) Pseudodementia is characterized by deficits in recall and recognition memory
d) Pseudodementia is characterized by impaired declarative (versus procedural) memories
b)
The single-most common cause of dementia is _______ and accounts for ____ of all cases of dementia.

a) Vascular Dementia; 70%
b) Vascular Dementia; 65%
c) Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type; 70%
d) Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type; 65%
d)
There are three stages of Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type. Stage 2 occurs ___ to ___ years into the illness, and is characterized by ________.

a) 8 to 12; increasing retrograde amnesia and flat or labile mood
b) 2 to 10 years; increasing anterograde amnesia and flat or labile mood
c) 1 to 3 years; increasing retrograde amnesia and flat or labile mood
d) 2 to 10 years; increasing retrograde amnesia and flat or labile mood
d) The three stages:

Stage 1 (1 to 3 years)
Stage 2 (2 to 10 years)
Stage 3 (8 to 12 years)

A description of symptoms associated with each stage can be found on page 25 of the abnormal psychology section.
A definitive diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type requires:

a) Genetic testing
b) Neuroimaging
c) A brain biopsy
d) Evidence that both biological parents were afflicted
c)
A low level of ________ has been implicated in the etilogy of Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type.

a) Epinephrine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) Dopamine
c) Cognex and Aricept are drugs used in these patients to increase cholinergic activity.
Vascular Dememtia is caused by ______ disease and is characterized by a ____ course.

a) Systemic; progressive
b) Gastric; stepwise and fluctuating
c) Cerebrovascular; progressive
d) Cerebrovascular; stepwise and fluctuating
d)
The most salient symptoms of Dementia due to ______ disease are bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor.

a) Huntington's
b) Parkinson's
c) Alzheimer's
d) HIV
b) Parkinson's
The most salient features of Dementia due to _____ disease are dementia, chorea, and athetosis.

a) Huntington's
b) Parkinson's
c) Alzheimer's
d) HIV
a)
Substance _____ is diagnosed with a person continues to use a substance despite significant substance-related problems, as evidenced by ___ or more symptoms at any time during a ___ month period.

a) Abuse, 3, 6
b) Dependence, 3, 6
c) Abuse, 6, 12
d) Dependence, 3, 12
d)
It has been said that people with Substance Dependence experience a "craving" for the substance.

Which of the following statments is true?

a) "Craving" is required for a diagnosis of Substance Dependence
b) "Craving is a listed diagnostic criterion, but is not required for a diagnosis of Substance Dependence
c) "Craving" is simply not required for a diagnosis of Substance Dependence
d) None of the above
c)
Which of the following treatment interventions have been found to be successful in the treatment of Substnace Dependence?

a) aversion therapy
b) multicomponent interventions to include social skills training, contingency management and other treatments
c) self-control techniques that emphasize alternative methods for responding to events that trigger drinking
d) all of the above
d)all of the above
According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), which of the following is the most common precipitant of relapse among people with Alcohol and other types of Substance Dependence?

a) reintroduction to the substance
b) organicity
c) negative emotions
d) mania or hypomania
c) According to Marlatt and Gordon, the experience of anxiety, frustration, depression or other negative emotional state is seen as the most common precipitant of relapse.
Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe substance dependence as __________, and refer to the typical reaction to relapse as the "_________".

a) learned via observation,
"overconsumption effect"
b) largely physiological, "neuochemical effect"
c) characterologically driven,
"social choice effect"
d) an overlearned habit pattern,
"abstinence violation effect"
d)the "abstinence violation effect"involves anxiety, self-blame, depression, and an increased susceptibility to further drinking.
According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), the potential for future substance relapse is reduced when the person is encouraged to view the episode of drinking as a mistake resulting from ____, ____, and ____ factors.

a) general, external, uncontrollable
c) specific, internal, controllable
c) general, external, controllable
d) specific, external, controllable
d)
Marlatt and Gordon's treatment program can be most accurately described as emphasizing:

a) group therapy
b) cognitive restructuring
c) relapse prevention
d) none of the above
c)Their relapse prevention program combines behavioral and cognitive techniques that are aimed at helping individuals deal effectively with situations that elicit negative emotions and other high risk circumstances.
Research on smoking scessation has found that:

a) After more than five years smoking, cessation does not result in any health benefits
b) one to five years after smokers quit, risk for such diseases as cardiac arrest or stroke is the same as that in those who never smoked
c) one to five years after smokers quit, their risk for cardiac disease is lessened, but still higher than that in lifelong nonsmokers
d) None of the above
b)
Which of the following best describes nicotine addiction in smokers?

a) Most smokers are addicted, but reasons for addiction are uncertain
b) Most smokers are addicted, and addiction is based solely on the need to attain reinforcing effects
c) Most smokers are addicted, and addiction is based on the need to attain reinforcing effects and to avoid depression and other withdrawal symptoms
d) None of the above
c)
It has been found that even when a person has been abstinent for months or years, he or she continues to crave nicotine and is therefore at risk for relapse.

Research on relapse has found that it is most often precipitated by the presence of ______ and/or ______.

a) an identifiable psychosocial stressor, negative mood states
b) smoking cues (e.g., others smoking), a psychiatric condition
c) smoking cues, negative mood states
d) a and b
c)
Substance ______ is characterized by a maladaptive pattern of substance use that involves clinically significant impairment or distress, as manifested by at least ____ synmptom during a ____-month period.

a) dependence, 2, 12
b) abuse, 1, 6
c) dependence, 1, 6
d) none of the above
d) None of the above. Substance abuse is diagnosed when one or more symptom is present during a twelve month period.
Alcohol Intoxication is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a)slurred speech
b)nystagmus
c)stupor or coma
d)autonomic hyperactivity
d) Autonomic hyperactivity is associated with Alcohol Withdrawal.
Alcohol Withdrawal is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a) hand tremor
b) illusions or hallucinations
c) grand mal seizures followoing heavy or prolonged use
d) impaired memory
d) impaired memory is associated with Alcohol Intoxication and Alcohol-Induced Dementia.
Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium (i.e., Delirium Tremens) is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a) disturbances in consciousness
b) delusions
c) agitation following heavy or prolonged use
d) none of the above
d) all are associated with Alcohol Withdrawl Delirium.
Alcohol-Induced Dementia is characterized by:

a) Symptoms of dementia, with greater impairment in verbal (versus visuospatial) memory
b) Symptoms of dementia, with greater impairment in visuospatial (versus verbal) memory
c) Equal impairment in both verbal and visuospational memory
d) Impairment in declarative and procedural memory
b) Visuospatial memory is more impaired than verbal memory in Alcohol-Induced Dementia.

Additionally, some improvement in symptoms may occur after five or more years of sobriety.
Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder (e.g., Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome)is believed to be due to a ____ deficiency.

a) Vitamin C
b) Thiamine
c) Phenylalanine
d) Phosphorus
b)
In Werncike-Korsakoff Syndrome, which of the following is true?

a) Retrograde and anterograde amnesia are both affected, with anterograde amnesia most severe, especially for declarative memories
b) Retrograde and anterograde amnesia are both affected, with retrograde amnesia affecting recent long-term memories more than remote memories
c) Anterograde amnesia is not significantly affected
d) a and b
d)
Amphetamine or Cocaine Intoxication are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) tachycardia
b) paranoia
c) auditory hallucinations
d) weight gain
d) Weight loss (versus gain) may be seen in this condition
Amphetamine or Cocaine Withdrawal are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Euphoria
b) Fatigue
c) Insomnia or Hypersomnia
d) Psychomotor changes
a) Dysphoria (versus euphoria) may be seen in these conditions
Caffeine Intoxication is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Insomnia
b) Depression
c) Muscle twitching
d) Cardiac arrhythmias
b) Excitement may be seen with this condition.
Sedative, Hypnotic or Anxiolytic Intoxication, Withdrawal and Withdrawal Delirium most closely resemble the intoxication, withdrawal and withdrawal delirium presentions of:

a) Cocaine
b) Alcohol
c) Caffeine
d) None of the above
b) Alcohol
How many active-phase symptoms typically need to be present for at least one month, for a diagnosis of Schizophrenia?

a) one or more
b) two or more
c) three or more
d) all five
b) Although the presence of bizarre delusions, and/or hallucinations consisting of a running commentary, are sufficient (if present), two or more active-phase symptoms are generally required.
________ hallucinations are most common in Schizophrenia.

a) auditory
b) visual
c) olfactory
d) auditory and visual are equally common
a) auditory hallucinations are most common, and often take the form of pejorative or threatening voices, or a running commentary on the person's thoughts or actions.
________ is considered by some experts to be the key feature of Schizophrenia.

a) delusions
b) hallucinations
c) disorganized speech
d) grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior
c) Disorganized speech
A person comes into your clinic. He demonstrates preoccupation with one or more delusions and/or frequent auditory hallucinations, within the context of relatively intact cognition and affect.

The most accurate subtype of Schizophrenia to describe this individual would be:

a) Disorganized Type
b) Catatonic Type
c) Undifferentiated Type
d) Residual Type
e) None of the above
e) Paranoid Type is the most appropriate subtype
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type?

a) delusions and hallucinations, if present, are fragmentary
b) delusions and hallucinations, if present, are organized around a coherent theme
c) delusions and hallucinations, if present, indicate a different subtype of Schizophrenia
d) None of the above
a) Disorganized Type is characterized by disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat or inappropriate affect.

Delusions and hallucinations, if present, are fragementary and not organized into a coherent theme.
Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type, is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) motoric immobility
b) excessive motor activity
c) extreme negativism or mutism
d) echolalia and echopraxia
e) None of the above
e) all are characteristic of Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type.
A person comes into your clinic. He states that he has had frequent delusions and hallucinations several years ago, but is not having these symptoms now. However, he states that he still sometimes believes that aliens may in fact be present. He also states he feels depressed for several days, every few months.

The best diagnosis for this patient would be:

a) Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type
b) Schizophrenia, Undifferentiated Type
c) Schizophrenia, Residual Type
d) Schizoaffective Disorder, Depressive Type
c) Residual Type is diagnosed when the person is not currently exhibiting prominent delusions, hallucinations or other positive symptoms, but has had such symptoms i n the past and continues to display negative and/or attenuated positive symptoms (e.g., eccentric speech, odd beliefs).
Which of the following statements is true, regarding the distinction between Type I and Type II Schizophrenia?

a) Type I is characteritized by positive symptoms and is associated with relatively poor premorbid functioning
b) Type I is characterized by negative symptoms and is associated with relatively good premorbid functioning
c) Type II is characterized by negative symptoms and is associated with relatively good premorbid functioning
d) Type II is characterized by negative symptoms and is associated with relatively poor premorbid functioning
d) Type II involves negative symptoms, is associated with relatively poor premorbid adjustment and a poor response to traditional antipsychotics, and is more likely the result of structural brain abnormalities.

Type I is characterized by positive symptoms, is associated with relatively good premorbid functionign and a favorable response to traditional antipsychotic drugs, and is believed to be due to neurotransmitter abnormalities.
Most people with Schizophrenia have ____ insight regarding their illness.

a) Good
b) Fair
c) Poor
d) No definitive trend has been seen
c)
The risk for suicide is __________ for people with Schizophrenia.

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) The same, as compared to national statistics for other groups
d) Unstudied
a)
Which of the following has been found to be associated with a higher risk of suicide in Schizophrenics?

1. female
2. people over 30
3. Depressive symptoms
4. Recent inpatient psychiatric discharge

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4
c) Depressive symptoms and recent inpatient psychiatric discharge have been found to be associated with a higher risk for suicide.

Additional associated factors include male gender, people under 30, and unemployment.
Which of the following have been found to be associated with a better prognosis in patients with Schizophrenia?

1. Good premorbid adjustment
2. Absence of a precipitating event
3. Male gender
4. Insight into the illness
5. Family history of a Mood Disorder

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4
e) 1, 4 and 5
e) Good premorbid adjustment, insight into the illness, and a family history of a Mood Disorder are all associated with better prognosis.

Aother factors associated with a better prognosis are an acute and late onset, female gender, the presence of a precipitating event, a brief duration of active-phase symptoms, and no family history of Schizophrenia.
The rate of schizophrenia in an identical twin is approximately ___ times higher than that in found in non-twin biological siblings.

a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10 or more
b) Identical twins have an approximately 48% concordance rate, while biological siblings have an approximately 10% concordance rate.
A number of brain abnormalities have been linked to Schizophrenia, including:

a) increased volume of lateral and third ventricles
b) hyperfrontality
c) increased volume of limbic system structures
d) a and b
a) ventricular enlargement and hypofrontality (versus hyperfrontality) have been found in Schizophrenics.

Other brain abnormalities include diffuse or focal neocortical atrophy, and diminished size of the hippocampus, amygdala and globus pallidus.
According to the dopamine hypothesis, which of the following has been implicated in Schizophrenia?

a) elevated dopamine levels
b) excess dopamine receptors
c) oversensitive dopamine receptors
d) a and b
e) all of the above
e) all of the above have been implicated in Schizophrenia
In recent years, the dopamine hypothesis has been modified by research indicating ______ in some schizophrenic patients.

a) elevated levels of norepinephrine and serotonin
b) high levels of GABA
c) high levels of glutamate
d) a and b
e) all of the above
a) elevated levels of norepinephrine and serotonin, low levels of GABA, and low levels of glutamate have all been implicated in some schizophrenic patients
In the Northern hemisphere, it has been found that an abnormally large number of people with Schizophrenia were born in:

a) late fall or early winter
b) late winter or early spring
c) late spring or early summer
d) late summer or early fall
b)

Some investigators suggest that this seasonal effect is due to higher rates of infectious diseases during the winter months.
Family factors that have been linked to Schizophrenia include:

a) double-bind communication
b) low expressed emotion
c) high expressed emotion
d) a and b
e) a and c
e)
An advantage of atypical (versus typical) antipsychotics in the treatment of Schizophrenia is that:

a) atypicals are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia
b) atypicals are more likely to reduce positive symptoms
c) atypicals are more likely to reduce depression and hostility
d) a and c
e) all of the above
d)
Resarch has found that effectiveness of antipsychotic drugs is enhanced when pharmacotherapy is combined with psychosocial interventions.

One such psychosocial intervention that has been found to be helpful for reducing relapse in schizophrenics is:

a) social skills training
b) evironmental manipulation
c) family intervention
d) cognitive therapy
c) Family interventions that focus on reducing stress and nonbeneficial emotional expression among family members have been found to be helpful for reducing relapse rates.
In Schizoaffective Disorder, prominent mood symptoms occur concurrently with psychotic symptoms. However, there is also a period of at least _____ during which only psychotic symptoms are present.

a) one week
b) two weeks
c) four weeks
d) two months
b)
The diagnostic criteria for Schizophreniform Disorder are identical to those for Schizophrenia, EXCEPT:

a) the disturbance is present for at least one month but less than three months
b) impaired social or occupational functioning is required
c) both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
d) In Schizophreniform Disorder, the disturbance is present for at least one month but less than six months. Impaired social or occupational functioning, though it may occur, is not required.
Delusional Disoder is characterized by the presence of:

a) one or more bizarre delusions
b) presence of delusions for at least one month
c) marked impairment in psychosocial functioning
d) both a and b
b) Delusional Disorder is characterized by the presence of one or more nonbizarre (versus bizarre) delusions that last at least one month. Overall psychosocial functioning is not markedly impaired.
All of the following are subtypes of Delusional Disorder EXCEPT:

a) Grandiose
b) Persecutory
c) Referential
d) Unspecified
c) The seven subtypes of Delusional Disorder are:

Erotomanic, Grandiose, Jealous, Persecutory, Somatic, Mixed and Unspecified.

A referential delusion, while possible, would be classified under the "unspecified" type.
Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by:

a) hallucinations in the absence of delusions
b) symptoms present for at least one day but less than one month
c) eventual return to premorbid functioning
d) b and c
e) all of the above
d) Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and/or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior that is present for at least one day but less than one month.

There is an eventual return to premorbid functioning.

Additionally, the disorder often, but not always, follows an overwhelming stressor.
The essential feature(s) of Major Depressive Disorder is/are:

a) depressed mood
b) loss of interest/enjoyment in customary activities
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
c)

Additionally, depressive symptoms should represent a change from previous functioning.
At least how many symptoms should be present for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder?

a) four
b) five
c) six
d) seven
b) at least five of nine symptoms should be present.
A _____ episode involves a period of ____ or longer in which the prevailing mood is abnormally or persistently _______.

a) hypomanic; 1 week; elevated, expansive or irritable
b) Manic; 1 week; elevated
c) Manic; 1 week, elevated, expansive or irritable
d) Manic, four days; elevated, expansive or irritable
c)
Which of the following MUST be present in a Manic Episode?

a) significant impairment in occupational or social functioning
b) need for hospitalization to present harm to self or others
c) presence of psychotic features
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
e) None of the above MUST be present in a manic episode. Rather, ANY one of the three is required.
If a person's mood is only irritable during a manic episode, how does this change the number of symptoms required to make the diagnosis?

a) two symptoms (versus three) is required
b) three symptoms are still required
c) four symptoms (versus three) is required
d) none of the above
c) Four symptoms (versus three) are required if the mood is only irritable.
Which of the following MUST be present in a hypomanic episode?

a) marked impairment ini functioning
b) need to be hospitalized
c) presence of psychotic features
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
e) None of the above are present in a hypomanic episode.
Which of the followong statements are true regarding Mixed Episodes?

a) Four days' duration
b) rapidly alternating symptoms of Manic and Major Depressive Episodes
c) significant change in funcitoning, need for hospitalization, and/or presence of psychotic symptoms
d) b and c
e) a, b and c
d) Mixed Episodes last for at least one week.