Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
258 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
A primary disease determinant is
|
a major contributing factor that is usually necessary.
It requires more specific control at this level. |
|
|
A secondary disease determinant is
|
a factor that makes the disease more or less likely in an individual or group. (predisposing or enabling)
|
|
|
An intrinsic determinant is
|
determinants that are INTERNAL to animal (age, breed, sex)
|
|
|
An extrinsic determinant is
|
determinants that are EXTERNAL to animal (environment, housing, medical tx, etc)
|
|
|
Laboratory retrievers are at higher risk of developing hip dysplasia than toy breeds of dogs. The breed of dog is what type(s) of determinant.
|
Secondary, Intrinsic
|
|
|
Unneutered male cats are more likely to be hit by cars or attacked by dogs. The "intact" status of the tomcat is...
|
secondary, intrinsic
|
|
|
Sheep can only develop scrapie if they have specific genotypes that make them susceptible to the disease AND they are exposed to the prion during their lifetime.
a. In this situation, the genotype is b. exposure to scrapie prion is |
A. primary intrinsic
b. primary, extrinsic |
|
|
In the case of flea bite hypersensitivity the presence of fleas on the animal is what kind of determinant?
|
Extrinsic and Primary
|
|
|
A dog's inherited likelihood of developing flea bite dermititis hypersensitivty is what type of determinant?
|
intrinsic and secondary
|
|
|
Factors determined by the host are what type of determinants
|
intrinsic
|
|
|
How does age affect the likelihood of disease?
|
young animals tend to get infectious dzs
old animals tend to get neoplastic diseases, degenerative disease |
|
|
What is herd immunity?
|
The idea that infectious diseases can be contained if the populations resistance to infection is high enough
- does not protect individuals (some will get infected) - 80% is considered protective |
|
|
What three components contribute to disease determination?
|
HOST-intrinsic
AGENT- extrinsic ENVIRONMENT- extrinsic |
|
|
Describe a common source single point exposure
|
all animals are exposed to the same thing at the same time
once seen it is too late to intervene. Start to prepare for more cases preformed toxin- sick within 1 day viral- sick 1-2 days later bacterial - sick 3-4 days later |
|
|
What do you do in the case of common source single point exposure?
|
Nothing, it is too late once you see signs
|
|
|
Describe the epidemic curve for a common source single point exposure
|
one large peak
|
|
|
Describe the epidemic curve for a common source intermittent exposure
|
no pattern, peaks in clusters
|
|
|
Describe the epidemic curve for propagated exposure
|
exposure followed by waves of secondary and tertiary cases resulting in a curve with little peaks and a central peak exactly 1 incubation period apart from each other.
|
|
|
Describe a common source-single point exposure. Give examples
|
All animals are exposed at the same time to the same agent.
pre-formed toxins- sick within 1 day viral- sick in 1-2 days bacterial- sick in 3-4 days |
|
|
What do you do in the case of a common source-single point outbreak
|
nothing it's too late by the time you see signs
|
|
|
Describe a common source-intermittent point exposure. Give examples
|
exposure is random resulting in clusters of cases.
Food outbreak, water source outbreak, injectable drugs similar to an endemic stability curve. |
|
|
Endemic stability is
|
a disease for which all factors influencing the disease are fairly stable resulting in little flucation of new cases. There will be a low incidence regularly.
|
|
|
Describe propagated exposure
|
exposure followed by waves of secondary or primary cases. Contagious and infectious agents (ex. Bordetella bronchiseptica)
MUST INTERVENE- PREVENT SPREAD |
|
|
What should you do when presented with a propagated exposure outbreak?
|
intervene and try to locate the contagion to prevent future cases.
|
|
|
What is Ro
|
Describes the average number of new cases that will be caused by each existing case in an outbreak
|
|
|
Mathematically Ro =
|
#contacts/day X probability of trans/contact X duration of infection days)
|
|
|
If a disease has an Ro value of 10-18 in a naive population (0% immunity) how many cass would make up the index case (initial outbreak)
|
10-18 new cases
|
|
|
A disease has an Ro value of 1.9. What will happen when it is introduced into a naive population (0% immunity)
|
There will be a slowly progressive outbreak that will eventually affect most animals in the population.
|
|
|
to control the spread of a disease we want an Ro value to be
|
<1
each new case will make less than 1 new case--> eventually outbreak diminishes and ends |
|
|
How can we use Ro to ensure herd immunity?
|
approximate what % of the population needs to be immune to prevent transmission...
Multiply Ro x proportion of population not immune, when that number is <1 immunity is sufficient |
|
|
A disease has an Ro value of 9 and the population has 80% immunity. Is this enough to stop an outbreak of this diease?
|
9 x .2 = 1.8
NO! |
|
|
According to the Reed-Frost Model you can separate a population into 3 groups
|
susceptible
infectious immune (resistant) |
|
|
What is the Reed-Frost model based on
|
probability of transmission from a population of infected cases to a population of susceptible animals
|
|
|
What does the Reed-Frost model depend on
|
probability of effective contact
number of infectious hosts number of susceptible hosts CANNOT use in an open population |
|
|
What type of model is Reed Frost and when is it used?
|
Reed Frost is an iterative model- it is used for a specific time-frame. It accounts for effects of immunity
|
|
|
What are the assumptions of the Reed-Frost Model
|
1.The population is CLOSED (no new animals)
2.Probability of effective contact is the same for every individual 3. any susceptible animal has an equal probability of developing infxn 4.An infectious indivudal will be infectious to others within the time period following exposrue--> then will become resistant 5. Conditions remain constant during epidemic. |
|
|
What statistical test do you perform for continuous data?
|
T-test
95% confidence interval |
|
|
What statistical test do you perform for categorical data?
|
Chi-square
|
|
|
In measures of disease occurrence a "count" is
|
absolute number of animals who have a particular disease
|
|
|
How do ratio and proportion differ
|
ratio= fraction in which numerator is NOT part of the denominator
proportion- numerator is part of denominator |
|
|
Define prevalence
|
a measure of amount of disease in a population
ALL CASES relative to entire population probability of having disease |
|
|
What is point prevalence
|
snapshot of proportion of the population that is diseased at single point in time
Probability that an individual is diseased at time of study DETERMINED BY CROSS-SECTIONAL STUDIES |
|
|
What is period prevalence?
|
measures all cases in population over period of time
|
|
|
What is incidence
|
measures the rate of disease occurrence
NEW CASES relative to population risk probability of getting the disease |
|
|
Cumulative incidence
|
proportion of individuals in populations who became diseased during specified time
|
|
|
Attack rate
|
type of cumulative incidence during an outbreak
|
|
|
Incidence denisty/rate
|
used when animals enter/leave population during the study
denominator is calculated by adding number od time units that each individual in the population at risk was seen Reported as animal-time |
|
|
Mortality rate gives
|
incidence of death in a time period
|
|
|
Cause-specific mortality rate
|
mortality rate due to specific disease/event
|
|
|
case-fatality rate
|
number of cases that are fata, within a specified time following disease onset or dx
|
|
|
What is the difference between P value and confidence interval?
|
P-value only tells you statistical significance
Confidence interval- tells you if there is a true difference |
|
|
How to calculate point prevalence:
|
number of cases/ total population
|
|
|
How to calculate period prevalence:
|
number of cases/ total population
|
|
|
How to calculate cumulative incidence:
|
new cases of disease/total population at risk
***remove "old" cases from both numerator and denominator |
|
|
How to calculate attack rate
|
# of new cases of illness during a specified time period/ total population at that time
|
|
|
Calculate incidence density
|
# of new cases durng study/ Sum of (length of time each individual was at risk)
|
|
|
Which measure of disease is measured animal-time?
|
incidence rate
|
|
|
What is the relationship between incidence and prevalence?
|
prevalence depends on incidence and duration of disease
The longer "old" cases remain diseased the higher the prevalence |
|
|
What are some factors that increase prevalence?
|
longer duration of disease
prolongation of life without cure increase in new cases in-migration of cases out migration of healthy improved dx |
|
|
What are some factors that decrease prevalence?
|
short duration of disaese
high case-fatality rate from disease decrease in new cases in-migration of healthy animals out-migration of cases improved cure rate |
|
|
Case report vs. Case series
|
Case report: single occurrence of disease. Usually used for novel diseases.
Case series: several animals, used for emerging diseases |
|
|
Advantages of case report/series
|
minimal resources, quick, provide information to stimulate further analytical studies.
|
|
|
Disadvantages of case report/series
|
unable to generalize data
just descriptive |
|
|
ecological studies
|
POPULATION LEVEL
|
|
|
Cross-Sectional
|
surveys, snapshot of population by studying INDIVIDUALS
perform odds ratio |
|
|
What are the disadvantages of cross-sectional studies?
|
can only look at association cannot determine exposure
|
|
|
Case/Control study
|
based on DISEASE STATE (outcome)
Retrospective perform odds ratio |
|
|
Cohort study
|
EXPOSURE
prospective or retrospective ALL animals start study HEALTHY |
|
|
In what study designs would you do an odds ratio
|
cross sectional
case control |
|
|
In what study designs would you do relative risk/attributable risk
|
cohort, clinical trials
|
|
|
Relative risk can be defined as
|
compares incidence of disease (risk) in exposed animals with disease by the proportion of unexposed animals with disease
|
|
|
Relative risk can be calculated by
|
RR = Risk exposed /Risk unexposed
|
|
|
When do you do a relative risk?
|
prospective studies
|
|
|
When do you do an odds ratio
|
retrospective studies
|
|
|
Odds ratio =
|
case exposed x control unexposed /control exposed x case unexposed
|
|
|
odds ratio can be defined as
|
the ratio of the odds of being exposed in the diseased group to the odds of being exposed in the non-diseased group
|
|
|
Define attributable risk
|
amount or proportion of overall disease incidence in a population that can be attributed to a specified exposure
|
|
|
attributable risk=
|
(risk exposed - risk unexposed)/risk exposed
|
|
|
When the relative risk (RR) is < 1...
|
negative association, possibly protective
|
|
|
when the relative risk (RR) = 1
|
no association
|
|
|
When RR >1
|
positive association, possibly causal
|
|
|
Selection bias is
|
errors in selection of study subjects, sample does not represent population
|
|
|
information (misclassification) bias
|
errors in measurement of exposure of disease:
|
|
|
Confounding bias
|
effect of other unknown factors on the measure of association
|
|
|
The two measures of association are...
|
Relative risk and odds ratio
|
|
|
Two methods for statistical significance are
|
P value and 95% CI
|
|
|
When p-value is < _____ it is statistically significant
|
0.05
|
|
|
When 95% CI does not include 0 it is
|
statistically significant
|
|
|
What are two types of error that cause bias?
|
random error (caused by change, p-value, CI)
and Systemic error (bias) |
|
|
What are some examples of selection bias?
|
self-selection bias, healthy worker effect, diagnostic bias, differential loss to follow up
|
|
|
What are some examples of informational bias?
|
subject/observer variation, reporting bias
|
|
|
how to reduce confounding?
|
matching, stratifying
|
|
|
What is an outbreak
|
an excess of cases
|
|
|
Who is bitten by dogs in the face?
|
children
|
|
|
who is bitten in the arms and legs
|
adults
|
|
|
Which sex is more likely to be bitten by a dog? A cat?
|
dog- males
cats- females |
|
|
AVMA stance on breed bands
|
heredity is not the only cause of biting behavior.
No reliable denominator for number of dogs of each breed No correction of data for repeat biters Unreliable reporting of breed by owners/reports Changing in breed popularity |
|
|
A bite from which animal is more likely to cause infection?
|
cat- Pasteurella
|
|
|
What are some risk factors for being bitten?
|
injury is more likely in new vets (<5 yrs)
more likely if working more than 60 hrs/wk sleeping <6 hrs a night No sharps containers more injury in small animal than large animal Chronic injury more likely in large animal. |
|
|
when is hand washing recommended?
|
in between patients
|
|
|
When should gloves be worn
|
when touching feces, blood, body fluids, exudates, non-intact skind
for dentistry, resuscitations, necropsies, OBs For venipuncture on animals with a suspected infectious disease and for soft tissue-aspiration to clean cages, litter boxes, and contaminated environmental surfaces to handle dirty laundry to handle diagnositc specimens |
|
|
When should gloves be changed
|
between examinations
between dirty/clean procedures perfromed on same patient whenever torn |
|
|
How to prevent needlestick injuries?
|
needles should never be removed from syringe by hand (use needle remover device on sharps container, use a forceps)
Needle caps should never be removed by mouth Avoid recapping needles |
|
|
EPIA cares about _______ for eggs/eggs products
|
safety (not quality)
|
|
|
What does the Egg product inspection Act (EPIA) mandate
|
mandatory inspection of eggs and aegg products for safety adulteration
Mandatory pasteruization of egg products FDA: safety of shell eggs USDA: safety of egg productions, imports |
|
|
Exemptions of EPIA
|
eggs from small farms (<2000 hens)
farmer selling direct to consumer for personal use |
|
|
Is quality mandated by EPIA
|
no, quality assurance programs are optional (size, grade)
|
|
|
Who sets quality standards of eggs?
|
USDA
|
|
|
Size of eggs is defined as
|
minimum net weight of a dozen eggs
|
|
|
What is grading of eggs based on?
|
quality of egg shell, air cell, egg white, egg yolk
|
|
|
What are some characteristics of a grade A egg
|
clean, unbroken, normal shell
air cell <3/16ths of aninch, White is clear and firm, yolk is defined but not plainly visble, practically free of dbefects |
|
|
What are some characteristics of a grade B egg?
|
clean to stained shell, unbroken, abnormal shell/shape,
over 3/16in air cell weak/watery white, small blood spots may be present Yolk outline is visble, enlarged flattened |
|
|
What is the transmission for egg-borne Salmonella enteriditis
|
Infects ovaries of healthy appearing hens, transmission also occurs via surface contamination of eggshells
|
|
|
How can you prevent Salmonella enteriditis
|
COOK your eggs
|
|
|
How can you prevent infection of Salmonella enteriditis?
|
preventing transmission- pasteruization and cooking of egg
reduction or elimination of carrier hens |
|
|
New US legislation to control Salmonella enteriditis states...
|
Farms that sell table eggs (>3000 hens) must have a control program in place for SE.
-biosecurity and pest control -procure/raise SE free pullets -celan and disinfect premises that have tested positive for SE before adding SE free pullets - perform environmental testing for SE on a regular basis -if environmental tests positive, must test eggs. |
|
|
Most food-borne disease are of what pathogenic nature?
|
viral
|
|
|
What is the definition of food-borne disease outbreak?
|
the occurrence of two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the ingestion of a common food
|
|
|
A foodborne disease outbreak's severity and number of cases depends on:
|
type of microbe-pathogenicity and virulence
infectious dose- sufficient # of viable microbes to cause illness -effectiveness of processing methods to reduce microbes-pasteruization, irradiation, rergeration -handling of food on the consumer/cooking |
|
|
Most important causes of food-borne disease?
|
salmonella enterica enterica
camplyobacter jejuni (raw milk, poultry) E. coli- raw milk, undercooked beef, contaminated vegetables Listeria monocytogenes- meats, soft cheeses, raw milk |
|
|
What types of foodborne diseases can you get by eating undercooked beef
|
E.coli, Beef tapeworms
|
|
|
What food-borne diseases can you get by eating undercooked pork
|
Trichinella spiralis
Toxoplasma gondii |
|
|
Parasitic food-borne diseases from contaminated water/vegetables
|
Giarida, Cryptosporidium
|
|
|
How are viral food-borne diseases most likely tansmitted
|
fecal-oral route
anthroponotic |
|
|
Examples of viral food-borne diseases inlcude
|
Hepatitis A
NOrwalk virus group Rotavirus |
|
|
What virus causes the most food-borne illness
|
Norovirus
|
|
|
Hepatitis A virus
|
picornavirus
tragets liver spreads fecal-oral route asymptomatic infections |
|
|
Clinical signs associated with hepatitis A virus
|
diarrhea, dark urine, jaundice, and flu-like symptoms
|
|
|
What is the transmission of Hepatitis A
|
Ingestion of food or water contaminated with feces
|
|
|
What foods are associated with hepatitis A viral infections
|
shellfish, raw produce, water, uncooked foods, improperly cooked/reheated foods
|
|
|
Noroviruses cause what type of signs
|
nausea, vomiting, watery/voluminous diarrhea for 24-60 hours
|
|
|
transmission of norovirus
|
ingestion of food or water contaminated with feces
close person to person contact |
|
|
What can be done during food preparation to largely decrease the risk of norovirus
|
wash hands!!!
|
|
|
Norovirus is associated with what food?
|
poorly cooked shellfish, ready to eat foods touched by workers
|
|
|
Rotavirus
|
most common cause of severe diarrhea in children
|
|
|
What signs are associated with rotaviral infection
|
vomiting, watery diarrhea, low-grade fever
temporary lactose intolerance infants, children, elderly, immunocompromised |
|
|
How long do rotaviral infections last?
|
4-8 days
|
|
|
tranmission of rotavirus includes:
|
ingestion of food or water contaminated with feces
contact with contaminated surfaces |
|
|
Food associated with rotaviral infection
|
food contaminated with feces, ready-to-eat foods touched by infected food workers
|
|
|
General characteristics of foodborne viral illness-
|
shorter incubation period
more vomitting, less diarrhea shorter duration of symptoms |
|
|
General characteristics of foodborne bacterial illness
|
usually have moderate incubation period, lack of vomiting, and somewhat longer duration of illness
|
|
|
General characteristics of parasitic illness
|
usually have a longer incubation period (1-2 wks) and a longer duration of illness (>2-3 wks)
|
|
|
What is FoodNet
|
active surveilance netowrk for foodborne disease in US
component of CDC |
|
|
Where does the information come from for FoodNet
|
consists of active surveillance for foodborne diseaseas and related epidemiologic studies designed to help public health officials better understand the epidemiology of foodborne diseases in US
|
|
|
How does foodnet track foodborne illness
|
survey physicians and labs
case-control studies active case-findings of targeted pathogens |
|
|
What type of parasites are typically found in meat
|
two-host parasites that are part of a predator-prey cycle
|
|
|
How to prevent meat-associated parasites
|
avoid exposure of food animals to parasites
slaughterhouse inspection freezing kills parasites washing hands after handling raw meat cooking meat thoroughly |
|
|
Toxoplasma gondii
|
coccidian parasite
cats are definitive host |
|
|
What are the most common meats infected with toxoplasma gondii
|
pork > chicken
|
|
|
Trichinella spiralis
|
Nematode
PORK larva in mm--> NOT inactivated by freezing, COOK WELL |
|
|
What type of hosts are humans for tapeworms
|
DEFINITIVE HOST
|
|
|
Taenia saginata is
|
Bovine cysticercosis- measly beef
|
|
|
What is the distinction between Taeniasis and Cysticercosis?
|
Taeniasis- name of intestinal infection caused by adult-stage tapeworms
Cysticercosis- name of the tissue infection caused by larval stages of pork tapeworm in humans |
|
|
How is human cysticercosis transmitted
|
consuming food or water contaminated with eggs
contamination from human feces autoinfection |
|
|
Cryptosporidum spp
|
waterborne > foodborne
not killed by chlorination, must filter/boil |
|
|
What symptoms are associated with cryptosporidiosis?
|
1-2 week incubation
PROFUSE watery diarrhea |
|
|
Giardia-
|
waterborne or foodborne
chronic diarrhea |
|
|
Echinococcus
|
two-host cestode with canid definitive hosts
Meat is NOT infectious to humans |
|
|
How do humans get Fasciola hepatica
|
eating salad vegetables
|
|
|
Bacterial foodborne illness is caused by both intoxication and infection. What is the difference
|
intoxication= preformed enterotoxins
infection= bacteria that colonize GIT and then proceeds to produce enterotoxins to invade body |
|
|
What are the typical symptoms associated with intoxication
|
onset is rapid, illness lasts 1-2d, entertotoxins cause cramping, pain, vomiting, and/or diarrhea
|
|
|
What are the typical symptoms associated with bacterial infection
|
onset is several hours to days
illness usually lasts several days watery diarrhea invasive species or species with toxins can kill neterocytes, dysentery, fever, septicemia |
|
|
Which bacteria are associated with intoxication foodborne illness
|
C. botulinum
S. aureus C. perfringens Bacillus cereus |
|
|
What bacteria are associated with infectious food-borne illness
|
C. jejuni
Y. enterocolitica Y. pseudoturberculosis L. monocytogenes Vbrio Salmonella E.coli Aeromonas spp P. shigelloides Shigella |
|
|
Most common cause of bacterial intoxication
|
S. aureus
|
|
|
C. botulinum
|
neurotoxic
typically found in low-acid canned foods |
|
|
Which intoxication bacteria has a slower onset of action
|
C. perfringens (taks 7-15 hrs)
|
|
|
Causes "fried rice syndrome"
|
Bacillus cereus
|
|
|
Camplyobacter jejuni is associated with
|
raw chicken, unpasteurized milk, water
|
|
|
What is the epidemiology of Campylobacterosis
|
more common in summer
infants/young adults males more than females |
|
|
Epidemiology of Salmonellosis
|
more common in summer
children more commonly infected |
|
|
STEC is
|
shiga-toxin producing E.coli that is highly pathogenic associated with undercooked or raw ground beef, raw produce, raw milk
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of STEC
|
onset 3-4 days
infection + enterotoxin production = severe stomach cramps, diarrhea, vomiting, dysentery, no fever duration is 5-7 days |
|
|
Vibrio cholerae
|
found in water
infection + enterotoxin= very watery diarrhea death by dehydrationq |
|
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
G(+)
found in unpasteurized dairy, contaminated poultry, deli meat causes mild food poisoning, flu-like symptoms, may cause abortion |
|
|
Grade A Milk is regualted by
|
Pasteurized milk ordinance
|
|
|
Average total solids in milk
|
12.8
|
|
|
average water content in milk
|
87.2
|
|
|
Where does bacteria in raw milk come from?
|
1. bacteria from soil/manure on teats
2. bacteria sucked into system 3. bacteria grown in milking machines 4. psychrophilic bacteria 5. cows with sub-clinical mastitis |
|
|
What is the official regulatory test for estimating bacteria in raw milk
|
Standard plate count
|
|
|
What is the requirement for number of bacteria in milk
|
PMO requires that SPC be less than 10,0000 cfu/ml. Good target would be <5,000 cfu/ml
|
|
|
Pasteurized Grade A milk should have less than how many bacteria?
|
20,000 bacteria/ml
|
|
|
How to clean milking equipment
|
1. pre-rinse -removes fats/sugars/solids with warm water
2. wash- alkaline detergent HOT 3. Rinse- HOT water 4. Acid rinse- mineral deposit removal 5. Sanitize |
|
|
What lab test detects thermoduric bacteria?
|
LPC- laboratory pasterurized count
|
|
|
What test detects psychrotropic bacteria
|
Pre-incubation count
|
|
|
What are the standards for Grade A milk
|
milk for liquid consumption
regulated by PMO When leaving the farm...cooled to 7C w/in 2 hrs, Somatic cell count <750,000 Bacterial count <100,000 No positive drug residue test End product: cooled <45 F <20,000 bacteria/ml <<10 coliform bacteria/ml phophatase test must be negative |
|
|
What bacteria sets the temperature of pasteurization?
|
Coxiella burnetti
|
|
|
Which potential zoonoses are transmitted by milk
|
S. aureus, Streptococcus, E.coli, Klebsiella, Mycoplasma, Serratia
|
|
|
Milk borne pathogens include:
|
Coxiella burnetti- controlled by Pastuerization
Brucellosis- controlled by pasteruization Mycobacterium bovis - controlled by pastuerization |
|
|
What is HACCP?
|
Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
|
|
|
What is the point of HACCP?
|
PREVENT contamination of food during processing
Mandatory for meats and seafood |
|
|
Seven steps of HACCP
|
1. analyze hazards- biological, chemical, physical, radiological
2. Identify critical control points -cooking, refrigeration, packing, metal detection 3. Establish preventative measures with critical limits for each control point 4. establish procedures to monitor critical control points, 5. establish corrective actions 6. establish procedures to verify that system is working 7. Establish effective record keeping |
|
|
What is the USDA's role in meat inspection
|
inspects most agricultural/meat products for safety
cannot recall or condemn, no direct authority to close plants |
|
|
What is the FDA's role in meat inspection
|
all foods not specfically handled by other agencies- sets food safety standards, runs field investigations, charges violators, performs assays on processed food products.
|
|
|
What effect does stress have on meat?
|
weight loss- shrink
pigs- suffocation bruising microbial shedding Dark Firm Dry- delpletion of mm glycogen |
|
|
Dark Firm Dry (DFD)
|
A pre-mortem depletion of mm glycogen
Mostly cattle |
|
|
What causes DFD and what is the pathogenesis
|
stress prior to slaughter--> adrenaline causes reduction in lactic acid--> high pH, spoilage more likely
|
|
|
how can you reduce the likelihood of DFD
|
1. proper feeding prior to transport
2. water/food every 12 hours in transport 3. more common in summer 4. calm handling, don't mix groups |
|
|
What is Pale Soft Exudative
|
post-mortem depletion of mm glycogen
mostly swine |
|
|
What are causes of PSE
|
porcine stress syndrome
High stress pre-slaughter |
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of PSE
|
postmortem accumulation of lactic acid--> low muscle pH and heat--> denatruation of myofibers--> lose water-binding ability--> moist, exudative meat
|
|
|
What does antemortem inspection of animals mean?
|
all livestock must be examined day of and before slaughter
|
|
|
What is disposition and who performs it
|
Ultimate handling of a carcass or its parts according to regulations.
Performed by public health vet at inspection. |
|
|
What does "passed for slaughter" mean
|
fit for human food
|
|
|
What does "suspect animal" mean
|
suspected of having disease or conditions that would make all or part of carcass unfit for consumption- POST MORTEM inspection necessary
|
|
|
What does "condemned animal" mean
|
clearly exhibits disease or condition making it unfit for consumption
- dead, dying, disabled, diseased, downer cattle (higher prob of BSE) |
|
|
What is the procedure for dealing with TB cattle?
|
T on left hip = suspect
infected tissues removed, remainder passed for cooking only |
|
|
What is the procedure for dealing with Brucellosis
|
B on left hip- slaughter within 15 days
|
|
|
What are the approved methods for humane slaughter
|
must be rendered insensible to pain before shackeled, hoistered, cut--death by exsanguination
-captive bolt -firearms - electricity - carbon dioxide - Kosher/Halal- exception in stun before sticking |
|
|
FMIA
|
federal meat inspection act
|
|
|
FMIA regulates
|
safety of meat
federal authority over renderers, transporters, warehouses, and animal food manufacturers |
|
|
What are some exemptions of FMIA
|
slaughter of animals for personal consumption by self, family, guest- not $.
Retail dealres/stores that do not slaughter >75% sale to retail meat purchased by consumer outside of US (not more than 50lbs) |
|
|
What are the 4 human methods of stunning?
|
captive bolt
firearms electricity carbon dioxide |
|
|
What do you do with animals after stunning?
|
rapidly moved to next stage before consciousness is regained
--- exsanguination |
|
|
Why are lymph nodes important at slaughter
|
disease
|
|
|
Inspection of the head includes:
|
masseter muscle-slice
lymph nodes- incised tongue-palpate |
|
|
visceral inspection includes
|
heart, lung, liver, digestive tract, mesenteric LN, rumino-reticular junction
|
|
|
Carcass inspection includes
|
observe back, sides, pleura, peritoneum ,cut surfaces of carcass, neck mm
|
|
|
adulterated
|
including an added, foreign, inferior substance that cannot be removed by trimming
|
|
|
Contaminated
|
having materials on surface that can be removed by trimming
|
|
|
inedible
|
parts not normally considered edible
|
|
|
passed
|
acceptable for human food
|
|
|
condemned
|
not to be used- must be destroyed
|
|
|
hold
|
hold carcass pending further testing
|
|
|
restricted
|
can be used for human food with restrictions: only if heated, cooked, refrigerated for several days, or added to a comminuted product
|
|
|
Specified Risk Materials (SRM) are defined as inedible. These include:
|
tonsils and small intestine
brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column, dorsal root ganglia |
|
|
The liver is condemned when:
|
absecesses, fasciolosis, cirrhosis, contamination with dirt, feces, E. granulosus
|
|
|
What is the definition of poultry-
|
any domesticated bird
|
|
|
What are the exemptions of the PPIA
|
slaughter and prcessing for personal use
retail dealers farms <1000 annually small processors <20,000 birds/yr intrastate sale only |
|
|
How is poultry transported?
|
in crates (up to 20 in 1)
highly susceptible to suffocation freeze or overheat to death |
|
|
What disease is increased during transport of poultry
|
transport increases fecal excretion of slamonella
|
|
|
How is antemortem inspection done on poultry
|
inspected in lots
if all birds arrive dead- condenmed |
|
|
Common symptoms seen on antemortem inspection of poultry include:
|
swelling of head and eyes
edema of wattles gasping & sneezing off-color feces diarrhea skin lesions lameness torticollis (wry neck) bone/joint enlargement |
|
|
what is the process of slaughter of poultry?
|
live poultry hung by legs--> stunned by electricity--> throat cut--> scalded to remove feathers--> pluck--> head/feet removed--> evisceration --> veterinary inpection( edible vs. inedible organs--> carcass chilled
|
|
|
Poultry specific disease include
|
Chlamydia psittaci
mycobacterium avium leukosis- Markek's dz Airsacculitis |
|
|
In what poultry species is Chlamydia psittaci most common
|
turkeys
|
|
|
Condemnation of carcass may be due to these diseases:
|
chlamydia psittaci
mycobacterium avium leukosis- Markek's Airsacculitis |
|
|
What is seafood?
|
fresh or saltwater fish, crustaceans, acquatic animal life, mollusks
|
|
|
What governs seafood plants
|
FDA- HACCP
|
|
|
How is poultry transported?
|
in crates (up to 20 in 1)
highly susceptible to suffocation freeze or overheat to death |
|
|
What disease is increased during transport of poultry
|
transport increases fecal excretion of slamonella
|
|
|
How is antemortem inspection done on poultry
|
inspected in lots
if all birds arrive dead- condenmed |
|
|
Common symptoms seen on antemortem inspection of poultry include:
|
swelling of head and eyes
edema of wattles gasping & sneezing off-color feces diarrhea skin lesions lameness torticollis (wry neck) bone/joint enlargement |
|
|
what is the process of slaughter of poultry?
|
live poultry hung by legs--> stunned by electricity--> throat cut--> scalded to remove feathers--> pluck--> head/feet removed--> evisceration --> veterinary inpection( edible vs. inedible organs--> carcass chilled
|
|
|
Poultry specific disease include
|
Chlamydia psittaci
mycobacterium avium leukosis- Markek's dz Airsacculitis |
|
|
In what poultry species is Chlamydia psittaci most common
|
turkeys
|
|
|
Condemnation of carcass may be due to these diseases:
|
chlamydia psittaci
mycobacterium avium leukosis- Markek's Airsacculitis |
|
|
What is seafood?
|
fresh or saltwater fish, crustaceans, acquatic animal life, mollusks
|
|
|
What governs seafood plants
|
FDA- HACCP
|
|
|
Anisakis-
|
marine mammals = definitive hosts
adult worm burrow in stomach lining |
|
|
Ciguatera poisoning
|
tropical fish
toxin bioaccumulates cats and people- nasuea, vomiting, diarrhea, colic, neuro signs, |
|
|
Methylmercury
|
concentrated up the marine food chain
highest in oily or predatory fish pesticides |
|
|
What does irradiation do
|
kills many microbes, may slow ripening of produc. CIDAL
|
|
|
What does ozone do
|
kills all types of microbes, may slow ripening CIDAL
|
|
|
Dermacentor (Anocentor) nitens)
|
vector of equine piroplasmosis
|
|
|
African Tick Bite Fever is tansmitted by
|
Amblyomma variegatum
|
|
|
Rhipicephalus microplus
|
lives tock
bovine babesisos and anaplasmsos |
|
|
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
|
E. canis
|
